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Infectious Diseases Flashcards

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1
Q

What is the name of the mosquito that transmits malaria?

A

Anopheles Mosquito

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2
Q

What is the most common type of malaria to affect people in the UK and is also the most serious?

A

Plasmodium Falciparum

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3
Q

What is the most common type of malaria worldwide?

A

Plasmodium Vivax

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4
Q

What is the life cycle of Malaria?

A
  1. Sporozoites Injection from mosquito
  2. infection of hepatocytes
    - Merozoites
  3. infection of RBCs
  4. Asexual reproduction in RBCs
    - Ring form
    - Trophoziote
    - Schizonts
  5. RBCs haemolysis, release of Merozoites
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5
Q

Treatment of malaria?

A

Artmenther compounds
- riamet

Quinine + Doxycycline

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6
Q

Prevention of Malaria?

A

Mefloquine

Doxycycline

Malarone

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7
Q

What causes enteric Fever?

A

Salmonella Typhi
or
Salmonella Paratyphi

**paratyphi is more common in travelers

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8
Q

What is the incubation period for Enteric fever?

A

5-21 days

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9
Q

What are the symptoms of enteric fever?

A
  • sustained fever - 2 weeks
  • flu like symptoms
  • abdominal tenderness
  • Rose spots
  • splenomegaly
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10
Q

What are complication of enteric fever?

A
  • septic shock
  • bowel perforation
    due to peyer patches involvement
  • enteric encephalopahty
  • meningitis
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11
Q

Treatment of Enteric fever?

A

Quinolones

Cephalosporins

Azithromycin

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12
Q

What causes dengue fever?

A

Flavivirus

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13
Q

What are the symptoms of dengue fever?

A

Abrupt onset of fever

Incredibly sore back

headache

retro-orbital pain

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14
Q

What is the diagnostic test are done for malaria?

A

Rapid Diagnostic Testing
- malarial antigens

Thin blood film

Thick blood film

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15
Q

What are the most common bacteria associated with UTIs?

A

E. Coli

proteus mirabilis

Staph Suprophyticus

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16
Q

Morphologically how would treponema Pallidum be described?

A

Spiral shaped

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17
Q

What type of virus is HPV?

A

DNA

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18
Q

What are the types of HIV?

A

Two Types

HIV -1

HIV -2

**HIV1 is the most common

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19
Q

What are the contents of HIV?

A

2 copies of RNA
reverse transcriptase
Protease
Integrase

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20
Q

What does HIV bind too on the Cd4 cell?

A

CCR5

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21
Q

What protein on the HIV virus is used to bind to CCR5?

A

GP120

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22
Q

What tests are done to identify HIV?

A

CD4 count

PCR - HIV-1 plasma RNA. Identifies:

  • how much virus is in the blood
  • HIV subtypes
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23
Q

What is the CD4 count when AIDS is confirmed?

A

<200

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24
Q

List some AIDS defining infections

A

Pneumocytisi Jiroveci

Candidiasis infections systemically

TB

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25
List some types of medications used in HIV treatment:
Reverse transciptase inhibitors: - nucleotide - non nucleotide Protease inhibitors Integrase inhibitors Co-receptor blockers
26
What is the treatment for HIV?
Highly aggressive antiretroviral therapy - HAART 3 medication combination **usually 2 nuceloside reverse transcriptase inhibitors + another drug from another class
27
What causes the common cold?
Rhino virus - single stranded RNA over 100 serotypes Largest species of virus known
28
What virus causes pharngitis and how can you differentiate between a bacterial infection and the virus?
Adenovirus **DNA virus if nasal symptoms it is likely viral
29
What virus causes croup?
Parainfluenza virus
30
What virus causes bronchiolitis?
Respiratory Synctial virus
31
When thinking about antigenic shift, what sialic acid residues does humans have? how does this vary from pigs and birds?
humans: alpha 2-6 sialic acid Pigs: alpha 2-6/2-3 **mixture Birds: alpha 2-3
32
What virus is usually responsible for SARS? name a new type
Coronovirus Middle eastern virus
33
How is N. Gonorrhea treated?
Ceftriaxone + Azithromycin (+ Doxycycline for other cover of infections)
34
How is Chlamydia Trochmatis treated?
Doxycycline for 1 week or Azithromycin 1 dose
35
In Bacterial meningitis you give ceftriaxone, and if over 60 years or immunocompromised you give amoxicillin. if there is a penicillin allergy what drugs do you give instead?
Chloramphenicol + Co - Trimoxazole
36
If a 40 year came in with bacterial meningitis, what would your first line of treatment be? then what if he had a penicillin allergy?
Ceftriaxone if penicillin allergy switch to chloramphenicol
37
What kind of sialic acid do human cells have, and what's it called when the virus is able to bind to different types of sialic acid?
alpha 2-6 sialic acid Antigenic shift
38
What are the most common strains of influenza?
Type A: H3N2 Type A: H1N1
39
What is the swine flu strain?
H1N1 H3N2 the most common seasonal flus now
40
What tests are available for diagnosing influenza out with clinical?
Rapid influenza Diagnostic Test PCR
41
What treatments can be given for influenza?
Neuraminidase inhibitors M2 proton - prevents uncoating of the virus
42
Name some bacteria that are typically transferred during an animal bite. How is this managed?
S. Aureus S. Strep Anaerobics Pasteurella Capnocytophagia 1st line: co-amoxiclav 2nd line: doxycycline + metronidazole debridement Tetanus shoot
43
Name the bacteria that is associated with large boil formations and is extremely contagious:
PVL Staph Aureus
44
What mosquito is likely to bite you during the day? and what disease does it transmit?
Aedes Mosquito | - Dengue fever
45
What mosquito is likely to bite you during the night? and what disease does it spread?
Anopheles Mosquito | - Malaria
46
What are some physical barriers to avoid mosquito bites?
* indoors - AC conditioning * * Impregnanted netting - tugged in - even during the day * **clothing - covered.
47
How long is DEET effective for against mosquitoes?
DEET - 40% every 3-4 hours
48
If some arrived in a malaria infected area and 48 hours later got a fever, is it malaria?
No this is too soon. the life cycle takes much longer.
49
What the class malaria symptoms:
Headache Fever Myalgia Diarrhea Jaundice
50
What would the classification of parasitaemia for malaria?
>2% of RBCs effected
51
Why does prophylaxis of malaria need to be maintained even after returning from the country?
Because some of the spirocytes may escape into the liver and can be stubborn to remove
52
How can you catch Typhoid? (enteric fever)
Contaminated water
53
How is typhoid diagnosed?
History - Blood cultures Serology (not done in UK)
54
What are the haemorrhagic fevers?
Lassa Virus Ebola Crimean Congo Hemorrhagic Fever - CCHF RIft Valley Fever SAVHF Yellow Fever
55
How do Haemorrhagic fevers cause bleeding and how do people die?
Bleeding from mucosal areas Septic shock
56
How would you test for legionella Pneumophila?
Urine
57
If a patient presents pyrexial, tachycardic with a history of illness, what should the next steps be?
Sepsis Screen - Q-Sofa Bloods Cultures Imaging
58
What bacteria are usually associated with epiglottitis? and what would the symptoms be of this?
Bacteria: H. Influenza S. Pneumonia S. Aures Beta haemolytic Strep Viral: - EBV - HSV type -1 - Influenza viruses Difficulty breathing, septitc.
59
What is a major complication of Metastatic group A strep infection?
Cerebral Abscesses
60
If you have a Group A strep systemic infection which drugs should be used and which should always be added to the regime? and why?
Beta lactams + Clindamycin Group A step have very high virulence factors - thus adding clindamycin to reduce the toxin production is essential
61
What are the two main ways infection enters the G.I?
Direct entrance of bacteria Toxin consumption
62
If someone is on chemotherapy, what is a disorder that can occur which results in decrease in anate immune barrier, leading one to be more prone to G.I infections?
Mucositis
63
What two E.Coli infections don't cause fever?
Hemorrhagic E.Coli/ 0157 Enterogenic E. Coli
64
How long do you have immunity to norovirus?
6-14 weeks
65
Whats the biggest cause of norovirus spread?
Poor hand hygiene
66
What virus causes D&V under <2 years?
Rotovirus

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