Infectious, Nelson + Misc Flashcards Preview

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Flashcards in Infectious, Nelson + Misc Deck (295):
1

condition seen in using erythromycin as treatment of pertussis in infants less than 1 month

infantile hypertrophic pyloric stenosis

2

bacteria associated with miller fisher syndrome

campylobacter jejuni

3

characteristic skin lesion of pseudomonas

echthyma gangrenosusm

4

acute angulation of the chin and larynx cause by weakness of the hyoid muscle due to Polio

rope sign

5

called the first disease

measles (rubeola)

6

called second disease

scarlet fever

7

it is called the third disease

rubella

8

fourth disease is called

filatov-dukes disease (atypical scarlet)

9

6th disease is called

roseola infantum / exanthem subitum

10

incubation period of hepatitis A

15-50 days

11

bacteria with appendicitis like symptom diarrhea

yersinia enterocolitica

12

triad of EBV

fatigue, generalized lymphadenopathy, pharyngitis

13

the atypical lymphocytes characteristic of mononucleosis

cd8 t lymphocytes

14

x linked lypmhoproliferative syndrome of Duncans syndrome is associated with what disease

EBV infection

15

this type of lymphadenopathy is suggestive of infectious mononucleosis

epitrochlear lymphadenopathy

16

this happens to patients with ebv treated with ampicillin

ampicillin rash

17

rash on the cheek with multiple papules seen in ebv is seen in what syndrome

gianotti-crosti syndrome

18

diagnosis of ebv is done through __

specific antibody or heliotrope Ab

19

what is the most feared complication of EBV

splenic rupture or subcapsular hemorrhage

20

exanthem subitum or 6th disease is caused by

HHV-6

21

fever for 3 days then fever lyses and a pink morbilliform rash appears in the trunks the face and extremities; the rash lasts for 1-3 days and on PE; there are ulcers in the palatoglossal junction; what is the diagnosis and what do you call the ulcers

roseola (infantum subitum); nagayama spots

22

virus that causes kaposi sarcoma

HHV8

23

children aged___ can not receive influenza vaccine

Less than 6 months

24

how many doses in influenza vaccine

2 doses 1 month apart for 6-36 month

25

what is the first sign of infection in infants with rsv

rhinorrhea

26

Infectious diarrhea without bloody stool and wbc is caused by

rotavirus

27

what coagulation factor is depressed in dengue

factor 12 hageman factor

28

what are the criteria for dengue hemorrhagic fever

fever for 2-7 days, biphasic; major or minor hemorrhagic manifestations (thrombocytopenia less than or equal to 100); increase capillary permeability ( inc HCT by = 20%); pleural eff/hyoalb/ ascitis

29

what is the pathologic hallmark of rabies

negri bodies

30

clinical for of rabies where there is throat pain, malaise, paresthesia and pruritus in the bite site then cns manifestation and phobic spasms

furious or encephalitic

31

form of rabies that is characterized by fever and ascending motor weakness affecting both limbs and cranial nerves

paralytic or dumb rabies

32

cardinal signs of rabies

hydrophobia and aerophobia

33

rabies vaccine alters the course of the disease. T or F

false. neithere vaccine or IG can alter the course of the disease once sx appeared

34

vaccine in rabies and Ig are contraindicated once Sx develop. T or F

TRUE

35

pre exposure immunization for rabies

3 IM injections at day 0, 7, 21 or 28; if the patient had pre exposure prophy before you give 2 dose of vaccine no Ig on days 0 and 3

36

patients with this disease is resistant to malaria

sickle cell

37

erythrocyte without duffy antigen is resistant to what malaria sp.

p. vivax

38

___ are resistant to p falciparum

Hg F (fetal Hgb); ovalocytes

39

paroxysmal fever occur with rupture of schizonts that occurs every__ hr in p. vivax and ovale

42 hrs

40

paroxysmal fever occur with rupture of schizonts that occurs every__ hr in p. mlariae

72 hrs

41

nephrotic syndrome is associated with what malaria sp.

p. malariae

42

contraindication to coartem medication in malaria

children with prolonged QT

43

katayama fever is caused by

acute schistomiasis

44

cicatrial penetration of of schistosomiasis in the skin

swimmers itch or schisto dermatitis

45

shisto that causes hematuria

hematobium

46

shisto that can migrate to the brain

japonicum

47

shisto that causes transverse myelitis

hematobium; mansoni

48

laboratory test for shisto

microscopy of miday 10ml urine; katokatz of stool

49

tx of shisto

praziquantel 40mg for hematobium, mansoni, intercalatum; prazi 60 mg for japonicum and mengkongi; oxaminiquine for mansoni

50

taenia that causes neurocysticercosis

taenia solium

51

tx for taenia

albendazole

52

tx for ascariasis

albendazole

53

tx for trichuris

mebendazole

54

whipworm causes

trichuriasis

55

what is the diagnosis of pin worm or enterobius

cellophane tape in the morning

56

produces deep blue punctate rash

toxoplasmosis

57

dx of malaria

giemsa stain; thin smear allows for positive identification of malaria sp

58

poor prognostic indicator of severe malaria

respiratory distress

59

patients with measles are infective from

3 days before rash until 4-6 after onset of rah

60

pathognomonic for rubeola ( measles)

warthin-finkeldey giant cell

61

virus shedding begins in what phase of measles

prodromal phase

62

viral replication subside on the onset of __

rash

63

pathognomonic SIGN of measles

koplik spot

64

this appears 1-4 days prior to appearance of rash in measles

koplik spot

65

lab findings in measles

decrease in total wbc count with lympho decreased more than neutrophils; normal esr and crp

66

measles igm is detectable in blood when

1-2 days after the onset of rash ( 72 hrs)

67

morbidity and mortality is greatest in measles in what age group

less than 5 and more than 20

68

most common cause of death in measles

pneumonia ( giant cell pneumonia)

69

most common bacterial pathogen in pneumonia of measles

PIA; pneumoniae, influenzae, aureus

70

most common complication of measles

otitis media

71

csf findings in measles encephalitis

lymphocytosis and elevated protein

72

what protein is missing in measles virus in sspe patients

M protein

73

manifestation of sspe begins at what age

7-13 yrs after primary infection

74

in stage 1 of sspe -- there is temper tantrums; in the second phase what is the hallmark

massive myoclonus

75

diagnostic criteria of sspe

1 of the ff: measles antibody in csf, eeg with suppression burst, brain tissue biopsy of sspe

76

vit A treatment in measles

* 6m-2 yrs with complication (50,00iu for 6m-1yr and 100,000iu in more than 1yr OD)

77

you should avoid immunization of measles in what condition

severe hypersensitivity to neomycin and gelatin

78

vaccine is effective in modification of measles if pre exposure prophylaxis is given when

within 72 hr of exposure

79

measles Ig may be given up to __ days after exposure to prevent or modify infection (0.25 in immunocompetent and 0.5 immunocompromised)

6 days

80

virus shedding for rubella starts when

10 days after infection

81

highest infectivity for rubella is seen when

5 days before rash and 6 days after rash

82

in congenital rubella infection, what trimester results in severe defects

1st 8 wks of pregnancy

83

rash begins in the hairline then trunk extremities then palms

measles (rubeola)

84

rash begins in face that spreads centrifugally (trunk to extremities)

rubella [THINK Centri-petal = center seeking, centri-fugal = center fleeing]

85

rose colored lesion seen in rubella

forschheimer spots

86

the sspe counter equivalent in rubella

PRP progressive rubella panencephalitis

87

single most common finding in infants with CRS (congenital rubella syndrome)

deafness

88

most serious eye finding in CRS (congenital rubella syndrome) and what is the most common ocular abnormality

* cataract; * salt and pepper retinopathy

89

most common heart defect in CRS

PDA

90

most devastating result of polio

paralysis

91

paralysis in polio appears when

3-8 days after initial symptom

92

occurs in the 2nd phase of polio with severe muscle pain asymmetric flaccid paralysis with paresis commonly involving 1 leg

spinal paralytic polio

93

polio after IM injection

provocation paralysis

94

rope sign, dysfunction of cranial nerves, palatal and pharyngeal weakness , ascending paralysis. what disease

bulbar polio

95

diagnosis of polio

2 stool exam 24-48 hrs apart

96

vaccine associated paralytic polio

polio after receiving oral polio 7-14 days before

97

hand and foot mouth disease is caused by

cocksakie A16

98

enterovirus that causes myocaridtis and pericarditis

cocksackie B

99

most common cause of meningitis in mumps immunized population

enterovirus

100

enterovirus that does not grow in culture

cocksackie A

101

cause of 5th disease or erythema infectiousum

parvovirus b19

102

this virus affects the erythroid cell line and has no effect on myeloid thus causes aplastic crisis

parvovirus B19

103

virus associated with hydrops fetalis

parvovirus b19

104

slapped cheek

5th disease - parvovirus b19

105

what is the most common manifestation of parvovirus b19 in immunocompromised

chronic anemia

106

syndrome of parvovirus b19 that is characterized as purpuric rash in hands and feet

papular purpuric sock and gloves syndrome

107

what is not used as a treatment of parvovirusb19 induced arthropathy

IVIG

108

where does latent hsv and VZV lays dormat

in the sensory ganglion neuron

109

leading cause of fatal encephalitis in children

hsv encephalitis

110

hallmark of hsv infection

skin vesicles and ulcers

111

6 mos - 5yrs, painful vesicles in the mouth , drooling, sudden onset. what is the diagnosis

herpetic gingivostomatitis

112

herpes from rugby playing

scrumpox

113

herpes from wrestling

herpes gladiatorum

114

hsv of the paronchia seen in patients who suck their thumb

whitlow

115

csf analysis of this disease shows moderate mononuclear, erythrocytes, protein increase and normal to low glucose

hsv encephalitis

116

hsv, recurrent aspetic meningitis called

mollaret meningitis

117

most common aseptic meningitis

HSV (other: coxsackie b)

118

fever is uncommon in this type of encephalitis

hsv enceph

119

the best test for hsv infection

viral detection by pcr or virus isolation

120

tx for hsv

acyclovir

121

tx of herpes labialis

oral valacyclovir

122

in hepes gladiatorum what meds can prevent recurrence

oral valacyclovir

123

hsv associated erythema multiforme is treated with antivirals T or F

false, it has no effect

124

chicken pox is infective during

1-2 days before vesicles and 3-7 days after when they are crusted

125

illness of varicella being __ days after exposure

14-16 days

126

incubation period of varicella

10-21 days

127

simultaneous presence of lesion in various stage is characteristic of what infection

varicella

128

distribution of rash in varicella is __

centripetal [THINK Centri-petal = center seeking, centri-fugal = center fleeing]

129

varicella that occurs in person vaccinated more than 42 days before rash

breakthrough disease caused by wild type of varicella

130

if the mother has varicella __ days prior to delivery she may pass the virus to the child but it is attenuated since there is Ab of the mother passed also.

more than 5 days

131

maternal varicela IgG can pass through the placenta at what aog

by 30 wks

132

neonate with cicatrical skin scarring with limb hypoplasia and neurologic manifestation

congenital varicella syndrome

133

leukopenia is low in the first __ of varicella infection

72 hrs

134

varicella vaccine is given when

total of 2 dose on 12-15 months and 4-6 year old; pag catch up na less than 12 -- 2 dose 3 months apart and pag more than 12, 2 dose na 1 month apart

135

post exposure prophy for varicella can be given if exposure is

3- 5 days after exposure

136

new borns whose mother has varicella 5 days before delivery or 2 days after delivery should be given

1 vial of Varicella Ig

137

amphotericin is inactive in this sp of candida

c. lusitanea

138

fluconazole is inactive againts this strain of candida

c. krusei and some gabrata

139

what is the most common clinical syndromes associated with m. pneumoniae infection

tracheobronchitis and bronchopneumonia

140

lobar infiltrates with necrotizing pneumonia with normal wbc but elevated esr

m. pneumoniae infection

141

tx for m pneumoniae infection

claryth or azith

142

bacteria that is the most common infectious agent in SJS

m. pneumoniae

143

treatment for NGU (ureaoplasma and m. hominis)

1 dose azith and doxy for 7 dyas

144

the absence of ___ differentiates c trachomatis pneumonia from rsv

fever and wheezing

145

blood result of c trachomatis infection shows increased

peripheral eosinophilia

146

the most common cause of pyogenic skin and soft tissue infection

s. aureus

147

TSS caused by staph aureus is associated with

mensturation and focal staph infection

148

food poisoning caused by s. aureus is caused by ingestion of ___

preformed toxin

149

tx of life threatening s aureus infection

vanco plus genta or vanco plus rif

150

tx for non life threatening aureus infection

nafcillin or oxacillin; clindamycin

151

tx for mrsa

vanco + genta or ; vanco + rif

152

drug test that confirms effectivity of clinda for aureus infection

D-test

153

diagnosis of tss is based on __

clinical manifestation

154

major criteria of TSS caused by aureus in which all are required

REMEMBER: HAR-Tss -- hypotension, acute fever, rash

155

scarliniform rash with desquamation of the hands and soles associated with shock, strawberry tongue

TSS aureus

156

most common cause of nosocomial bacteremia associated with vascular catheter

CONS particularly s. epidermidis

157

most common cause of shunt meningitis

CONS

158

most common cause of uti in sexually active females

saphrophyticus

159

DOC of CONS

vanco

160

the second most common cause of meningitis in children

strep pnemoniae

161

round pneumonia with 2 day hx of cough and spiking fever. there is also leukocytosis. what is the dlt

strep pneumonia, culture, cefotaxime ceftri clinca vanco

162

if erythromycin is resistant to streo pneumo and clinda is sensitive what should you do

do a D-test of clinda, if it is positive you can not use it anymore since resistance with clinda can be induced by the organism

163

the most common cause of osteomy and suppurative arthritis in children

s. aureus

164

penicillin prophylaxis is often administered for at least ___ after splenectomy

2 yrs after or upto 5 yrs of age

165

pneumococcal vaccination is given

* 3 doses 1 month apart for 2-6 mos then booster at 12 to 15 months * 2 doses 2 months apart for 7-11 mos with booster on 12-15 mos * if more than 1 year old 2 doses no booster

166

what strep pyogenic exotoxin is responsible for the rash of scarlet fever

toxin A,B,C

167

patient has upper respiratory tract infection and on after 24- 48 hrs punctate rash on the neck spreading to the trunk which blanches on pressure. the skin is rough and has goose pimple feel. no rash on the face after 3 days the rash desquamates cephalocuadally. there is strawberry tongue appearance

scarlet fever caused byGAS

168

swollen red tender superficial bleb on the skin that has slightly elevated border involving the deeper layer of the skin

erysepelas caused by GAS

169

the most common cause of prepubertal vaginits

GAS

170

criteria of strep tss

clinical criteria: hypotension plus 2 of CHARGS - coagulopathy- hepatic involvement - ards - generalized rash - renal impairment - soft tissue necrosis; definitive case: culture form sterile site

171

the most common cause of acute paryngitis

virus

172

most common cause of bacterial phayrngitis

GAS

173

DOC of GAS

penicillin

174

bacteria associated with PANDAS ( neurospsychiatric disease ) TiC,tourettes, chorea

GAS

175

if treatment is started within _ days of onset for GAS infection, rheumatic fever is prevented

9 days

176

major jones criteria

SPECC - subcutaneous nodules - polyarthritis - erythema marginatum - chorea - carditis

177

minor jones criteria

CAPE FP - crp elevated - arthralgia - phase reactants - esr - fever - prolonged pr interval

178

positive result in jones criteria

2 major or 1 major 2 minor

179

may occur as the only manifestation of acute rheumatic fever

chorea

180

the only manifestation of acute rheumatic fever months after having acute rheumatic fever

carditis

181

the joints affected in ARhF

larger joints (WEAK) - wrist - elbows - ankles - knees

182

True or False

TRUE

183

most serious manifestation of ArhF

carditis ( particularly Endocarditis) and chronic rheumatic heart disease

184

major consequence of rheumatic carditis

valvular stenosis

185

erythematous,serpinginous macular lesion with pale centers that are non puritic seen in trunk and extremities only. it is seen in ArhF

erythema marginatum

186

tx for ArhF

10 days of pen G or 1 dose of IM Benz PenG then start long term prophylaxis

187

in patients with carditis in ARhF what meds should you start aside from pen G

aspirin, prednisone

188

DOC for syndenhams chorea

Phenobarbital, if not effective you give haloperidol or chlorpromazine

189

antibiotic prophlaxis for ARhF should continue for how long

for 5 yrs or until 21 yrs old whichever is longer

190

what is the prophy antibiotic regimen for ARhF

600,00IU in

191

duration of treatment for RF with carditis

10 yrs or until 21 yrs which ever is longest

192

duration of treatment for RF with residual heart disease or valvular disease and carditits

10 yrs or until 40 yrs which ever is longer ( sometimes lifelong treatment is needed)

193

late onset GBS infection presents in __ days

more than 7 days

194

more common serotypes in late onset GBS

serotype III

195

the most common manifestation of early onset GBS is

sepsis

196

the most common manifestation of late onset GBS is

bacterimia and meningitis

197

late onset GBS infection is more severe than early onse. True or False

TRUE

198

syndromes common in childhood GBS disease beyond early infancy

bacteremia and endocarditis

199

doc of GBS

Penicillin

200

duration of treatment for GBS ventriculitis and oseteomyelitis

4 weeks

201

duration of treatment for bacteremia without focus in GBS

10 days

202

duration of treatment for GBS meningitis

2-3 weeks

203

periventricular leukomalacia and dev delay are complications of what disease causing meningitis

GBS

204

corynobacterium that is urease positive

C. ulcerans

205

most common site of diptheria

pharynx and tonsils; the second is nose and larynx

206

the universal early sx of diptheria

sore throat

207

bull neck appearance

diptheria

208

tissue affected by diptheretic toxin

heart and CNS

209

tx of diptheria

diphtheria antitoxin; erythromycin for carriage

210

when an asymptomatic carrier is identified prophylaxis for diptheria is given for how many days

10-14 days then give dt if no booster as been given within 1 yr

211

the only contraindication for tetanus and diptheria toxoid

hx of neurologic or severe hypersensitivity reaction to previous dose

212

Diptheroid toxin should be not be given frequently than every __

10 yrs

213

umbrella type formation in medium is characteristic of what bacteria

listeria

214

the only mode of transmission of listeria

maternal fetal transmission only

215

most common manifestation of late onset listeriosis ( >/= 5 days)

neonatal meningitis

216

manifestation of early onset listeria

neonatal sepsis

217

history of oral trauma/ dental procedure; painless slow growing mass with fistula; what is it called and is the etiologic agent

lumpy jaw; actinomycosis

218

the hallmark of actinomycosis

spread that fails to respect tissue or facial planes

219

the pathogenic strain of n. meningitidis

A,B,C, W-135 and Y

220

what age is the highest incidence of meninggococal disease

less than 1 yr old

221

what are the clinical hallmark of severe meningococcal sepsis

activating coagulation, bleeding, stimulating cytokine

222

the severity of meninggococcal disease is related to the level of exotoxin in the bloodstream; true or false

false, endotoxin related

223

diffuse adrenal hemorrhage without vasculitis seen in fulminant meningococcemia is called what syndrome

waterhouse-friderchisen syndrome

224

a meningococcemia that progresses from without sx to shock in several hours and purpura

fulminant meninggococcemia

225

diagnostics of meningo and treatment

culture of blood csf or synovial fluid; penicillin ampi ceftri

226

most common neurologic sequelae of meningo meningitis

deafness

227

prophylaxis for Neisseria carriage

rifam 15- 10mgkg for 2 days a cipro one dose

228

meninggo vaccine recommendation

one dose at 11-19 yrs old booster after 5 yrs; if high risk group 2 dose 2 months apart

229

most common sexually transmitted infection in sexually abused children

n gonorrhea

230

cause PID in post pubertal females

gonorrhea

231

dissemination of gonorrhea from fallopian tube through the peritoneum to the liver capsule causing perihepatitis is seen what syndrome

fitz hugh curtis syndrome

232

initial sx of disseminated gonorrhea

acute onset poly arthralgia with fever

233

tx of gonorrhea

ceftriaxone (even in pregnant and for neonates )IM single dose or cefixime single dose

234

doc of H influenza

amoxicillin

235

what are the most common cabteria of otitis media? otitis externa?

* PIM - s. pneumoniae, h. influ, moraxella * pseudomonas

236

prophylaxis for h influ exposure

rifampicin for 4 days

237

painful genital ulceration (chancroid) is caused by

h. ducreyi

238

buboes are formed by

h ducreyi

239

tx for chancroid

azith OD or Ceftri IM OD

240

severe coughing episodes with extreme gasps for air followed by vomiting

pertussis

241

neither natural disease nor vaccination provides complete or lifelong immunity against this bacteria. protection wanes 3- 5 yrs after vaccination

pertussis; DTaP protective until adolescence

242

Contraindications to DTaP

-immediate anaphylactic reaction, encephalopathy, CNS complication w/in 7 d --> give DT instead of DTaP (adverse reactioins attributed to *pertussis* component of vaccine)

243

__- marks the start of paroxysmal stage of pertussis

coughing

244

infants __ age does not manifest the classic stage of pertussis -- sudden onset of reddening of face, choking, gagging and gasping (ALTE)

less than 3 months

245

leukocytosis is seen in what stage of pertussis

cattarhal stage

246

not a manifestation of pertussis

eosinophilia

247

tx of pertussis

macrolide (azith is preferred) x 14 days -- catarrhal stage; hospitalize infant

248

machine gun-like cough

pertussis

249

Stages of whooping cough

1) catarrhal stage: congestion & rhinorrhea; 2 wks 2) paroxysmal stage: coughing + gasping for air + vomiting + burst of eye blood vessels; 3o days 3) convalescent stage: decreased cough freq; 2 wks

250

-CXR: "butterfly pattern"(clouded mid lung fields)

pertussis

251

Whooping cough, Retinal hemorrhage, child stroke

pertussis

252

#1 child preventable dz

pertussis

253

the most common clinical presentation of salmonellosis

acute enteritis

254

tx of salmonella AGE

ceftri, cefotox, ampi ceficime

255

incubation of typhoi

1-2 wks

256

rash in typhoid

rose spot in trunk on 7th day of illness

257

most common extra intestinal manifestation of bacillary dysentery (shigella)

neurologic

258

most common complication of shigellosis

dehydration

259

tx of shigellosis irrespective of age

ciprofloxacin

260

e coli that causes bloody diarrhea

invasive and shiga toxin

261

antibiotic should not be given to this type of e coli because it may increase the risk of HUS

STEC

262

most severe form of cholera

cholera gravis

263

DOC for severe cholera

doxycycline or tetracycline; alternative is erythromycine

264

syndrome associated with campylobacter

GBS

265

yersinia enterocolitica is associated with what vasculitis

kawasaki

266

ecthyma gangrenosum ( gangrenous skin lesion with eschar ) is caused by

pseudomonas

267

prominent symptom of infant botulism

loss of head control

268

antibiotic therapy is not part of the treatment of this disease

infant botulinism -- toxin is intracellular

269

clinical hallmark of botulism

fatiguability with repetitive muscle activity

270

__source of botulism, not a safe food for children less than 1 yr

honey

271

localized tetanus involving bulbar musculature is called

cephalic tetanus

272

poor prognosis in tetanus is onset of trismus in less than 7 days and onset of tetanic spasm in __-

less than 3 days

273

flesh eating bacteria

gas

274

measles Ig is given until how many days post exposure

vaccine is given 72 hrs; Ig is given until 6 days

275

what complement is decreased in dengue

c3

276

rash of dengue

morbilliform rash that spares the palms and soles

277

criteria for dengue hemorrhagic fever

fever, major/minor bleeding, thrombocytopenia (= 100), increase permeability (hct >20%), effusion (ascitis/pleural eft), hypoalbuminemia

278

dengue shock criteria

criteria of hemorrhagic + hypotension, narrow pulse, poor perfusion, tachycardia

279

h/o vaccination delinquency; hot potato voice(muffled); fever; drooling in tripod position; refuses to lie flat

Epiglotitis

280

T/F Epiglotitis is a life-threatening emergency

T

281

T/F In Epiglotitis, do not inspect airway

T, bronchospasm may completely obstruct the airway

282

what agent causes epiglottitis

unimmunized-haemophilus influenza type B; immunized-streptococcus spp

283

*acute onset high fever*,*Respiratory distress*: drooling, dysphagia, inspiratory retractions, neck hyperextension, sniffing dog position, leaning forward

Epiglotitis

284

Xray is the initial diagnostic test for epiglotitis

F

285

how to treat epiglottitis

-intubation in OR(initial!) -tracheostomy(2ndary) -ceftriaxone for 7-10 days -rifampin to all close contacts!

286

Definitive diagnosis of epiglottitis

fiberoptic visualization of cherry red epiglottis

287

floppy epiglottis, disproportionately small soft larynx; noisy breathing, worse with lying on back (gravity); larygoscopy: collapse of laryngeal structures during inspiration; no treatment needed, resolves by 18 months

traceomalacia/laryngomalacia

288

MCC of stridor in children

traceomalacia/laryngomalacia

289

what does the steeple sign specify in resp tract imaging

croup (LTB), represents SUBGLOTTIC narrowing

290

what causes croup

parainfluenza virus 1 & 2 (mcc); RSV(2nd mcc)

291

barking cough!; coryza; INSPIRATORY stridor; worse dyspnea upon lying down + possible hypoxia (not in epiglottitis!, develops later)

croup (LTB)

292

how to dx croup (LTB)

1) clinical(initial) 2) XR: steeple sign!; not initial next step!

293

Treatment of Croup based on severity

1) mild: cool mist tx, fluids 2) moderate: supp O2, IM corticosteriods, nebulized racemic epinephrine 3) severe: nebulized racemic epinephrine-racemic (not intubation (for epiglottitis)!)

294

inflammation of the larynx w/in the sub-glottic space

croup (LTB)

295

Seal-like cough

Croup