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1
Q

what are the symptoms of hypoxia?

A

Drowsiness, slow cognitive ability, dizziness, tingling cyanosis

2
Q

What are the 4 types of hypoxia?

A

HYPOXIC HYPOXIA: reduced partial pressure of air makes it more difficult for lungs to transfer oxygen to the blood (remember oxygen percent remains same).
HYPEMIC HYPOXIA: Air is fine but body is not transferring oxygen to blood properly, usually result of medical issues (anemia), drugs, or carbon monoxide poisoning.
STAGNANT HYPOXIA: oxygen is transferring to blood, but circulatory issues are inhibiting distribution typically result of cold weather reduces blood flow, or cardiovascular problems.
HISTOTOXIC HYPOXIA: Cells are not accepting oxygen, usually a result of alcohol or other drugs.

3
Q

Describe hypoxic hypoxia

A

reduced partial pressure of air makes it more difficult for lungs to transfer oxygen to the blood (remember oxygen percent remains same).

4
Q

Describe hypemic hypoxia

A

HYPEMIC HYPOXIA: Air is fine but body is not transferring oxygen to blood properly, usually result of medical issues (anemia), drugs, or carbon monoxide poisoning.

5
Q

Describe stagnant hypoxia

A

STAGNANT HYPOXIA: oxygen is transferring to blood, but circulatory issues are inhibiting distribution typically result of cold weather reduces blood flow, or cardiovascular problems.

6
Q

Describe histotoxic hypoxia

A

HISTOTOXIC HYPOXIA: Cells are not accepting oxygen, usually a result of alcohol or other drugs.

7
Q

What is hyperventilation, what are the symptoms of hyperventilation, and how to cure?

A

Hyperventilation is the excessive rate and depth of respiration leading to abnormal loss of carbon dioxide from the blood. Symptoms are same as hypoxia + hot and cold sensations, muscle spasms.
Cure is to restore breathing, mindfully slowing down, paper bag (increases CO2), or talking out loud.

8
Q

By what distance should you avoid a thunderstorm?

A

20 miles laterally, and

9
Q

what can you expect under the anvil of a thunderstorm?

A

hail

10
Q

Describe a fuel system:

A

The aircraft I’m familiar with is the DA42, which has two main tanks (1 in each wing), each with 3 compartments each, plus an aux tank on top of each wing. The usable fuel in the main tanks is 50G, and 26.4 in the aux tanks. Fuel from the aux tanks is sent to the main tanks, and fuel from the main tanks are sent via engine-driven fuel pumps to the fuel injector nozzles. There are additional electric fuel pumps on each engine to assist if required.

Fuel selectors have 3 options, ON, crossfeed, and off. If on, engine is receiving fuel from tank, if on crossfeed, engine is receiving fuel from OPPOSITE TANK (Should really be called crossfed), and off.

11
Q

Describe the landing gear in your aircraft

A

Tricycle retractable undercarriage, electronically actuated, hydraulically operated. Hydraulic pressure holds the gear up. Emergency handle releases pressure, gravity + springs + downlock helps extend gear.
Max extension speed = 196, max retraction is 156. Reason for difference is because retraction goes against airflow, therefore strain on the system.

12
Q

MTOW of the DA42?

A

1785kg (check)

13
Q

MLW of DA42?

A

1700kg (check)

14
Q

What part of a jet engine does the bleed air come from?

A

Compressor section generally

15
Q

What does RVSM give you (what altitudes)

A

1000ft separation from FL290-410 instead of 2000ft sep.

16
Q

What should the GS readout be on a DME arc?

A

0kts (shouldn’t be getting closer or further).

17
Q

What are the 9 factors affecting VMC?

A

Flaps, Gear, CG, Windmilling prop, Density Alt, power, weight, sideslip (raise the dead) bank angle, critical engine

18
Q

What are the holding speeds are different altitudes? (AUS)

A

Australian rules: Speed. Indicated speed must not exceed
(1) up to and including FL140
– 230KT, or
– 170KT for holding where the approach is limited to Cat A
and B aircraft only;
(2) above FL140 up to and including FL200, 240KT; and
(3) above FL200, 265KT.

American: Up to A060, 200kts, above A060 to FL140 is 230 kts, above FL140 is 265kts.

19
Q

In Aus what is the Mapt gradient? and obstacle clearance?

A

2.5% 100ft

20
Q

Explain the Departure procedures in the US

A

Unless specified otherwise, required obstacle clearance for all departures, including diverse, is based on the pilot crossing the departure end of the runway at least 35 feet above the departure end of runway elevation, climbing to 400 feet above the departure end of runway elevation before making the initial turn, and maintaining a minimum climb gradient of 200 feet per nautical mile (FPNM), unless required to level off by a crossing restriction, until the minimum IFR altitude.

You can either have an ODP, which is really just a practical way of avoiding obstacles, or a SID, which is focussed more on reducing ATC/Pilot workload and linking you to the enroute system.

The obstacle surface uses a 40:1 (152 feet / nm) gradient until 25nm in non-mountainous areas and 46nm in mountainous areas.

21
Q

What is the standard takeoff minima?

A

In the USA, 1 mile vis for 2 engines or less. In Aus, 300ft 2km vis for non-qualifying a/c (otherwise 0ft ceiling 800m vis or 550m vis if RCL and REL active).

22
Q

What do position reporting points look like?

A

Mandatory = solid triangle, on request = hollow triangle. Not required under radar identification.

23
Q

What should be included in a position report

A

callsign, position, time altitude, next waypoint, ETA.

24
Q

What is bleed air used for and where is the air taken from?

A

Compressor section. Used for anti-icing (wing leading edge and engine inlet), cabin and system pressurization, air-conditioning, engine start (can be used to power air turbine starter), and other pneumatic systems.

25
Q

How does the aircon work?

A

Uses bleed air for pressurization, RAM air to bring cooling air to the system, and then mixed through an air cycle machine and then a water separator.

26
Q

Explain dutch roll

A

Result of lateral stability being stronger than directional stability. Disturbance in the rolling plane creates yaw as a result increased lift on the low wing side (sweepback stability will bring the wing back up). Oscillation continues.

27
Q

What system is in place to assist in preventing dutch roll?

A

Yaw damper.

28
Q
Convert the following RVR into SM
1,600
2,400
3,200
4,000
4,500
5,000
6,000
A
1⁄4
1⁄2
5⁄8
3⁄4
7⁄8
1
11⁄4
29
Q

Why is fuel stored in the wings?

A
  1. Helps counter-balance the lifting force
  2. Helps maintain a stable CoG (if it was in the belly CoG shift would be large)
  3. Helps rigidity of the wings
30
Q

When do you have to do a procedure turn?

A

Unless under radar vectors, cleared for a straight-in approach, or NoPT is specified on the chart, you MUST complete the procedure turn.

31
Q

If you receive the visibility in SM or RVR but it is between values, what do you do?

A

For converting RVR values that fall between listed values, use the next higher RVR value; do not interpolate. For example, when converting 1800 RVR, use 2400 RVR with the resultant visibility of 1/2 mile.

32
Q

Why do aircraft have T tails?

A

Keeps the elevator out of the disturbed airflow out of the wings. However, in a stall this may cause issues if it is blanketed.

33
Q

Let’s say you need an alternate, and there is no prescribed minima on the alternate aerodrome chart, what is the standard alternate minimum?

A

For a NPA, 800ft 2SM
For PA, 600ft 2SM.
If no app available, visual descent from MEA.

34
Q

Give a brief description of the EMB 145

A
MTOW just over 20T for EP, 22T for LR.
Max payload 5100kg EP, 5800kg LR,
max cruise 0.78
service ceiling FL370,
Takeoff distance 2000m
LDG dist 1500m
https://www.embraercommercialaviation.com/wp-content/uploads/2017/02/Embraer_spec_145_web.pdf
35
Q

What are the takeoff minimums?

A

As per the aerodrome chart, or if not specified, 1SM for aircraft with 2 engines or less.

36
Q

What is the time of useful consciousness at 20,000ft 30,000ft and 40,000ft?

A
20,000ft = 30 min
30,000ft = 1-2 minutes
40,000ft = 15-20 seconds