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BDS3 Orthodontics > Interceptive Orthodontics 1 > Flashcards

Interceptive Orthodontics 1 Flashcards

1
Q

what is present in the oral cavity at birth

A

gum pads

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2
Q

what is the sequence of eruption of deciduous teeth

A

a > b > d > c > e
lowers before uppers

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3
Q

what are three differences in the primary dentition compared to the permanent

A

incisors more upright
spaced
wear
colour

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4
Q

what are arthropoid spaces

A

spaces mesial to upper deciduous canines and distal to lower deciduous canines

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5
Q

what are natal/ neo-natal teeth

A

teeth present at/ around time of birth

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6
Q

what are problems with natal/ neo-natal teeth

A

if mobile - inhalation risk
causing difficulty with breast feeding

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7
Q

what is the pre-eruptive phase

A

starts when the crown starts to form and ends when crown formation is complete

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8
Q

what is the eruptive phase

A

starts as soon as the root starts to form and ends when teeth reach occlusal plane
split into intra-osseous and extra-osseous stages

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9
Q

what is the post-eruptive phase

A

tooth movement/ continued eruptive movement that occurs extremely slowly

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10
Q

where is movement of tooth crowns kept to within the pre-eruptive phase

A

bony crypts

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11
Q

what occurs in the eruptive phase

A

relative position of deciduous and permanent teeth alter due to eruption of deciduous teeth and increase in height of alveolar bone

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12
Q

in the eruptive phase what does tooth movement occur in response to

A

positional changes of neighbouring crowns
growth of the mandible and maxilla
resorption of the deciduous tooth roots

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13
Q

what is the intra-osseous part of eruptive phase

A

starts with root formation - proliferation of epithelial root sheath and continues with production of pulp and dentine

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14
Q

what is the second stage of intra-osseous phase

A

movement of the developing tooth in an occlusal or incisal direction

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15
Q

what is the third stage of the intra-osseous phase

A

reduced enamel epithelium fuses with oral epithelium

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16
Q

what is the first stage in the extra-osseous phase

A

penetration of the tooth’s crown tip through the epithelial layers

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17
Q

what is the second stage in the extra-osseous phase

A

crown continues to move through the mucosa in an occlusal direction until it contacts the opposing tooth

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18
Q

what is the third stage in the extra-osseous phase

A

environmental factors - pressure from lips, cheeks and tongue influence final position

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19
Q

what is the eruption pathway

A

degeneration occurring within the dental follicle, blood vessels decrease, nerve fibres break up

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20
Q

what occurs in the periphery of the eruption pathway

A

other fibres are formed from the dental follicle - GUbernacular cord - guides the teeth to erupt into oral cavity

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21
Q

what is thought to guide the teeth to erupt into the oral cavity

A

Gubernacular cord

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22
Q

why do teeth erupt without patients shedding any blood

A

because there is no blood vessels or nerves in the eruptive pathways

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23
Q

what occurs to the tissues that fuse together when the tooth erupts

A

they go down and attach to the ACJ - forms attached gingivae

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24
Q

what is the post-eruptive phase in response to

A

growth of the growing alveolar bones and jaws
attrition and abrasion

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25
Q

what does proximal surface tooth wear lead to

A

mesial drift

26
Q

what is over-eruption

A

continuous eruption in response to missing opposing teeth

27
Q

what is tooth eruption likely caused by

A

root formation
remodelling of alveolar bone
development of PDL

28
Q

what structure plays a key role in modulating cellular activity in tooth eruption

A

dental follicle

29
Q

what is the role of the dental follicle during tooth eruption

A

reosrption of bone overlying tooth
connective tissue degradation and created eruption pathway
promotes bone growth at base of the tooth
provides traction forces within PDL
contributes to root formation (via ectomesenchymal cells)

30
Q

when is the perfect time to extract a deciduous tooth to encourage eruption of permanent successor

A

when the permanent root is about 1/2 to 2/3 formed

31
Q

definition of interceptive orthodontics

A

any procedure that will reduce or eliminate the severity of a developing malocclusion

32
Q

what age does the early mixed dentition go up to

A

age 8

33
Q

what age does the late mixed dentition go up tp

A

age 13

34
Q

how do permanent incisors develop in relation to primary teeth

A

palatal/ lingual

35
Q

what are three ways in which space is gained for the permanent dentition

A

increase in width due to lateral growth of jaws
upper incisors erupt into a wider arch
leeway space

36
Q

what is the leeway space in the upper arch

A

the length of deciduous canine to deciduous E is longer than the length of the permanent canine to the 5
1-1.5mm additional space

37
Q

what is the leeway space in lower arch

A

the length of deciduous canine to deciduous E is longer than the length of the permanent canine to the 5
2-2.5mm

38
Q

what value of diastema will close on its own

A

less than 2.5mm

39
Q

what are the three things you need to be looking for when looking at deciduous tooth eruption

A

age of eruption
sequence
symmetry

40
Q

when should the contralateral tooth erupt

A

within 6 months

41
Q

why might a FPM fail to erupt

A

could get stuck behind the distal cusp of the E

42
Q

why might a FPM fail to erupt

A

stuck behind the distal cusp of the E

43
Q

why might central incisors not appear

A

supernumerary tooth in the way
trauma to primary tooth while permanent tooth is developing

44
Q

what would be the preferred radiographs to take to investigate a missing central incisor

A

anterior occlusal maxillary
periapical

45
Q

what are the treatment options for an unerupted central incisor

A

remove primary teeth and supernumeraries
create and maintain space
monitor for 12 months
expose/ bond gold chain and apply ortho traction

46
Q

what are the problems with early loss of deciduous teeth

A

localised crowding

47
Q

what is a balancing extraction

A

removal of tooth from the opposite side of the same arch - maintain symmetry

48
Q

what is a compensating extraction

A

removing tooth from opposite arch - maintain buccal occlusion

49
Q

how would you manage an early loss of an A or B

A

no balancing extraction or compensating

50
Q

how would you managed an early loss of a C

A

balance extraction

51
Q

how would you manage early loss of a D

A

no balancing or compensating

52
Q

how would you manage early loss of an E

A

no balancing or compensating
consider space maintainer so the 6 doesn’t tip forward

53
Q

what are two types of space maintainers

A

removable
fixed

54
Q

when is the ideal time to asses FPM for prognosis

A

8-9 years

55
Q

what is the extraction of FPMs depending on

A

age of patient/ stage of dental development
degree of crowding
malocclusion type
GA or LA

56
Q

for a gross caries FPM what is the best long term treatment in a class I case

A

if extracting lower take the upper
dont balance
if extracting upper dont need to take the lower

57
Q

when is it best to remove FPMs

A

when second permanent molar bifurcation is starting to calcify

58
Q

what are the two types of crossbites

A

anterior and posterior
if there is displacement on closure = IOTN

59
Q

when would a patient definitely need treatment for posterior crossbite

A

if the displacement is more than 2mm

60
Q

what 8 things should tell a patient after fitting an URA

A

wear full time
keep teeth and appliance clean
use a daily fluoride mouthwash
avoid sugary food and drinks
avoid hard sticky foods
remove for some sports
initially speech will be affected
who to contact if patient experiences problems

BDS3 Orthodontics (9 decks)

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