Internal Medicine Tips Tricks and Techniques Part I Flashcards Preview

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Flashcards in Internal Medicine Tips Tricks and Techniques Part I Deck (200):
1

What is the mechanism of Digoxin

Inhibits Sodium potassium ATPase

2

What are some common anti-arrythmic drugs

...

3

maxalt

rizatriptan

4

What is the treatment of bells palsy

steroids for anti-inflammatory.
Studies have not shown a decrease in symptoms when steroids are combined with acyclovir (up to date)

5

What is the SPIKES protocol

1. SET up the Interview
2. Assess the patients PERCEPTION
3. Obtain the patients INVITATION
4. Giving KNOWLEDGE and information to the patient
5. Address the patients EMOTIONS

6

What is the antibiotic treatment for Cat Bites

1. Monotherapy with a beta-lactam/beta-lactamase inhibitor, such as one of the following:
a) Ampicillin-sulbactam
b) Piperacillin-tazobactam
c) Ticarcillin-clavulanate
2. A third generation cephalosporin
3. Metronidazole 500 mg IV every eight hours

7

What is the treatment for increased ammonia levels

1. Lactulose (45-90grams QD) You want to create 2-3 soft stools per day with a pH less than 6. 2. Oral antibiotic such as Neomycin or rifaxmin

8

What does QHS mean

At bed time

9

What does QAC mean

with meals

10

What does QD

daily

11

What does QOD mean

every other day

12

efudex

fluorouracil topical

13

Lexapro

Escitalopram

14

Victoza

Liraglutide

15

What is liraglutide

activates glucagon-like-peptide-1 (GLP-1) receptor, increasing insulin secretion, decreasing glucagon secretion, and delaying gastric emptying (incretin mimetic)
Also helps with weight loss

16

Glucosamine Sulfate

A dietary supplement not a drug. Used to help prevent joint degeneration

17

Name the rapid acting insulin

Lispro,
Aspart,
Glulisine,
Onset in 15 - 30 minutes

Regular (30 minutes - 1 hour)

18

Name the intermediate acting insulin

NPH;
Onset in 1-2 hours

19

Name the long acting insulin

Glargine (onset in 4-6 hours)
Detemir (onset in 3-4 hours)

Used for basal insulin control

20

When should a sliding scale insulin be used

In patients with only intermittent minor BG elevations

21

How often should insulin be measured in patients taking insulin

at least 4 times per day;
Preprandially and at bed time

22

What is tested for when looking for ketones associated with DKA

b-hydroxybutyrate in the serum;
urine ketones are also often present

23

What are the big 3 that is used in the treatment of DKA

Fluids
Insulin
Potassium

24

If a patient has DKA and is hypotensive, how is their fluid load

greater 10% loss of fluids

25

What are major classes of T2DM

Metformin,
insulin secretagogues,
DPP IV Inhibitors,
GLP mimetics,
TZD's,

All are effective with in days to weeks except TZD's which may take weeks to months

26

First line treatment for T2DM

BG 200 combination therapy and possibly insulin

27

What are the insulin secretagogues

SFU's,
Non SFU's,
Biguanides,
a-glucosidase inhibitors,
TZD's,
DPP-4 Inhibitors,
Bile Acid sequesterants,
Dopamine receptor agonist,
GLP agonist

28

What is the mechanism of SFU's

Increase insulin secretion by binding to specific receptors in B cells. Must be taken 30 - 60 minutes before meals to prevent hypoglycemia

29

What is contraindication for glyburide

Impaired renal function and used with caution in the elderly

30

Name the non SFU's

Repaglinide,
Nateglinide

31

Name the biguanides

metformin

32

Name the a-glucosidase inhibitors

acarbose
miglitol

33

Name the thiazolidinediones

Rosiglitazone
Pioglitazone

34

Name the DPP 4 inhibitors

Sitagliptin
Saxagliptin
Vildagliptin

35

Name the bile acid sequestrants used in the treatment of T2DM

colesevelam hydrochloride

36

Name the dopamine agonist used in the treatment of T2DM

Bromocryptine Mesylate

37

Name the GLP Agonist

Exenatide

38

Name the amylin analogues

Pramlinitide acetate

39

What are the common side effects of SFU's

hypoglycemia and weight gain

40

What are the common side effects of Non SFU's

Hypoglycemia and weight gain
less severe than the SFU's

41

What are the main adverse side effects of Biguanides

Diarrhea
nausea
abdominal pain or cramping
Lactic acidosis

42

What are the main adverse side effects of TZD's

Weight gain, edema
CHF
anemia,
increased fractures in women

43

What are the main adverse side effects of sitagliptin

Angioedema,
Steven-Johnson syndrome,
URI

44

What are the main adverse side effects of saxagliptin

urticaria
facial edema
URI

45

What are the main adverse side effects of bile acid sequestrants

constipation
reduced absorption of some medications

46

What are the main adverse side effects of dopamine agonist

Nausea
asthenia
dizziness
headache
constipation
diarrhea

47

What are the main adverse side effects of GLP agonist

Nausea
vomiting
GI distress
pancreatitis

48

What are the main adverse side effects of Amylin analogues

Nausea
vomiting
diarrhea
headache
hypoglycemia

49

What is the mechanism of metformin

inhibits hepatic glucose output and stimulates glucose uptake in peripheral tissues

50

What is the mechanism of a-glucosidase inhibitors

Block polysaccharide and disaccharide breakdown and decrease postprandial hyperglycemia when administered with food.

51

What are the main adverse effects of the a-glucosidase inhibitors

gas
bloating
diarrhea
abdominal pain

52

What is the mechanism of the TZD's

increase insulin sensitivity in muscle, adipose tissue and liver.

53

When is TZD's contraindicated

compromised cardiac function NYHA Class 3 and 4

54

What is the mechanism of DPP 4 inhibitors

Blocks the enzyme that breaks down endogenous GLP, which is an incretin secreted from the intestinal L cells. Increased levels of GLP reduce BG concentration by inhibiting glucagon secretion from the pancreatic alpha cells and by stimulating insulin secretions

55

What is the mechanism for GLP agonist

peptides are structurally similar to GLP-1 but resist breakdown by DPP enzyme. Have a longer half life than native FLP 1 and reach higher blood and tissue levels

56

What is the treat of NKHS

1. correct the fluid imbalance
2. electrolyte replenishment (potassium)
3. Gradual correction of hyperglycemia with fluid and insulin

57

What are some complications of NKHS

Thromboembolic events
cerebral edema
adult respiratory distress syndrome rhabdomyolysis

58

What is the problem with correcting hyperglycemic episodes too rapidly

osmotic encephalopathy

59

What is the main purpose of controlling BG in DM

prevention of chronic microvascular insufficiency
1. Diabetic Retinopathy
2. Diabetic Neuropathy
3. Diabetic Nephropathy

Prevention of chronic macro vascular insufficiency
1. CHD
2. PVD.

Miscellaneous Complications
1. Erectile Dysfunction
2. Diabetic Foot Ulcers

60

What is heart failure

A clinical syndrome in which either structural or functional abnormalities in the heart impair its ability to meed the metabolic demands of the body

61

What are the two classes of heart failure

Systolic dysfunction
Diastolic dysfunction

62

What are the stages of heart failure

1. Asymptomatic
2. Mild symptoms (mild SOB/Palpitations with physical activity)
3. Marked limitations in activity (walking 20-100 meters)
4. Severe limitations (at rest)

63

What are the classes of heart failure

A. No structural disease/ symptoms. Has risk factors
B. Abnormal LV systolic function
C. Structural heart dz and HF symptoms
D. Refractory heart failure symptoms to max medical management

64

What are the initial labs for suspected HF

CBC
CMP
Fasting lipid profile
Urinalysis
Thyroid function
BNP (>400 to rule in

65

What is a concern when using vasodilators with HF patients

patients with a fixed cardiac output (aortic stenosis or HCM or with a predominately diastolic dysfunction)

66

What is the medical mainstays for HF treatment

Beta blockers
Vasodilators
Diuretics (for volume overload)

67

Why do ARB's not cause cough and angioedema.

ACE's will increase bradykinin while ARB's will not.

68

How are ACE inhibitors excreted

through the kidneys... need to titrate the dose for renal insufficiency

69

How do nitrates reduce cardiac ischemia

decreasing ventricular filling pressures and by directly dilating coronary arteries

70

How does nitroprusside work

Primarily an arterial vasodilator with less potent vasodilatory properties

71

What diuretic is useful for patients with a low GFR

Metolazine
Its actions are are at the proximal as well as the distal tubule. It may be used in combination with a loop

72

What are some common side effects of loops

hyperuricemia
hypocalcemia
ototoxicity
rash
vasculitis

73

Remeron

Mirtazipine

74

What is primary bilary cirrhosis

autoimmune disease of the liver marked by the slow progressive destruction of the small bile ducts (bile canaliculi) within the liver. When these ducts are damaged, bile builds up in the liver (cholestasis) and over time damages the tissue

75

Keflex

Cephalexin (1st generation cephalosporin)

76

Xenical

Orlistat
Inhibits gastric and pancreatic lipases, reducing fat absorption

77

Actos

Pioglitazone

78

Flexeril

Cyclobenzaprine

79

glucotrol

glipizide

80

Tikosyn

Dofetilide (anti arrhythmic: prolongs action potential during phase III)

81

What is a cox maze procedure

is a type of heart surgery for atrial fibrillation. May use a less invasive minimaze procedure too.

82

Livalo

Pitavastatin (reduced myalgia than other statins)

83

Tofranil

Imipramine (Tricyclic antidepressant)

84

Penlac

ciclopirox topical

85

Fioricet

butalbital + acetamenaphen + caffeine

86

What are the major classes of valvular heart Disease

Mitral Stenosis (MS)
Aortic Stenosis (AS)
Mitral Regurgitation (MR)
Aortic Regurgitation (AR)

87

What is the predominant cause of MS

Rhuematic

88

What is the pathophysiology of MS

increase in the transvalvular flow (CO) or decrease in diastolic filling time (tachycardia)

89

What is the clinical presentation of MS

physical exam may have an:
1. opening snap (OS)
2. Mid diastolic rumble

90

With regards to MS what does the OS-A2 time duration signify

the duration is inversely proportional to the severity.
The shorter the duration, the more severe the stenosis

91

With regards to MS what does the duration of the murmur signify

The duration of the murmur is directly related to the severity of the stenosis.
The longer the murmur the more severe the stenosis

92

What are some diagnostic testing for MS

EKG
CXR
TTE (candidacy for PMBV)
Exercise testing with echo
TEE
Cath

93

What will an EKG show for MS

ECG will have P-wave duration greater than 0.12 secs

94

What are the findings for severe MS

Mean gradient > 10 mmHg
PASP > 50 mmHg
Valve area less than 1 square cm

95

What is the treatment for MS

Medically - decrease Pulmonary HTN
AFIB - high risk of AFIB (30-40% of patients)
PMBV
Surgery

96

What is the survival with severe pulmonary HTN

mean survival is 3 yrs

97

How common is AS

2% over age 65
4% over age 85

98

What causes AS

Calcific/degenerative disease (most common in US)
Bicuspid
Rheumatic (most common world wide)

99

What is the history in a patient with AS

Classic triad of:
1. Angina
2. Syncope
3. HF

100

What are the physical exam findings of AS

1. Harsh crescendo/decrescendo murmur heart best at the apex
2. Diminished or absent A2
3. Opening snap suggest Bicuspid valve
4. S4 reflects poor compliant ventricle
5. Pulsus parvus et tardus (late peaking and diminished carotid upstroke in Severe AS)

101

What diagnostic testing is used for AS

1. EKG
2. CXR
3. TTE

102

What findings signify severe AS

peak jet velocity > 4 m/s
Mean gradient > 40 mmHg
Valve area less than 1 square cm

Patients maybe asymptomatic until the valve area is less than 1 cm. Once symptomatic, average survival is 2-3 years with high risk of sudden death

103

What is the treatment for AS

Only surgery... no medical treatment
Severe AS is a deadly disease

104

What are the two types of MR

Organic - caused primarily by lesions to the valves and or chord tendonae;

Functional - caused primarily by ventricular dysfunction ussually with accompanying annular dilation

105

What causes MR

DCM
Degenerative Dz
Ischemic (post infarct)
Rheumatic

106

What is the presentation of a patient with MR

SOB
Palpitations
fatigue

107

What are the physical exam findings of a patient with MR

Tachycardia
Systolic murmur usually at the apex
S2 maybe widely split due to an early A2

108

What is the treatment for MR

Medically:
While awaiting treatment,
aggressive afterload reduction;

Percutaneous;
Surgery (repair is more common than replacement; no surgery for DCM)

109

What are common causes of AR

Rheumatic
Calcification
Bicuspid

110

What are the physical exam findings of AR

Tachycardia
Wide pulse pressure
Brief diastolic murmur heard best at Erb's point
Austin Flint murmur (low pitch rumbling presystolic)

111

What is the treatment for AR

Medical tx is limited (reducing HTN or antibiotics for infective endocarditis);

Surgery (the aortic root may need to be prepared at the same time as the valve)

112

What are the common prosthetic valves

Bileaflet is the most common mechanical.

Anticoagulation is required for a mechanical replacement.

Bioprosthetic (bovine or porcine)

Homograft is rarely used

113

What is CAD

Greater 50% luminal stenosis of any epicardial coronary artery

114

What is the leading cause of morbidity and mortality in the western society

CAD

115

What causes CAD

results from luminal obstruction by atheromatous plaque

116

What percentage of stenosis is generally required to generate Angina

Greater 70% stenosis

117

What are some risk factors for CAD

HTN;
DM (2-4 times greater incidence);
Obesity;
Dyslipidemia;
Family history;
Smoking

118

When do we begin screening for CAD

Begins at age 20 and 5 year intervals (Framingham study)

119

How do we prevent CAD

Screening;
High risk CV patients receive aspirin;
Statin for patients with elevated CRP;
Exercise (minimum of 30 minutes 5 days a week);

NOT INDICATED hormone replacement in postmenopausal women

120

What are the two types of Angina

Typical and atypical

121

What is typical angina

Includes all 3:
Substernal chest discomfort or heaviness;
precipitated by stress;
relieved by nitroglycerin

122

What is atypical angina

Includes 2 of the 3.
Substernal chest discomfort or heaviness; precipitated by stress;
relieved by nitroglycerin;

Non cardiac chest pain will only have 1 of the 3

123

How do we quantify angina chest pain

Canadian cardiovascular Society classification system;
CCS 1 - angina with strenuous activity;
CCS 2 - Angina with moderate activity (>2 blocks);
CCS 3 - Angina with mild activity (

124

What symptoms will be presented with CAD

Angina;
dyspnea;
Diaphoresis;
nausea;
vomiting;
dizziness

125

Female patients or CKD or DM will present with what symptoms of CAD

Minimal or atypical symptoms;
dyspnea;
epigastric pain;
nausea

126

What is the diagnostic testing used for CAD

Stress testing;
Excercise stress testing;
Myocardial perfusion imaging
Echocardiography imaging with stress;
MRI

127

What is the bruce protocol

3 minute stages of increasing treadmill speed and incline.
BP, HR and ECG are monitored through the study and recovery period

128

What is the duke treadmill score

Exercise stress test:
Minutes exercised - (5 X maximum ST segment deviation) - (4 X angina Score);

0= no angina;
1 = angina that is not stress limiting;
2 = test limiting angina;

total score >5 use medical therapy;
total score -10 to 4 further testing; total score

129

What is the gold standard for CAD diagnosis

Coronary angiography

130

What is the major goal for treatment of patients with stable angina

prevent MI, cardiac death and to reduce symptoms

131

What are the medical treatment goals for CAD

improve myocardial oxygen supply, reducing myocardial oxygen demand, controlling exacerbating factors, and limiting the development of further atherosclerotic disease

132

What are the medical treatment options for CAD

Aspirin;
B blockers;
Calcium channel blockers (avoid short acting DHP's);
Nitrates;
Ace Inhibitors;
Ranolazine;
Cholesterol lowering agents (Statins)

133

What is ranolazine

a novel antianginal agent that does not depend upon reductions in HR or BP. Its exact mechanism of action is unknown:
however, it appears to have effect on cardiomyocyte metabolism and sodium ion channel function.

134

When should coronary revascularization be attempted

after 2 and preferably 3 antianginal agents have failed

135

When is PCI or CABG indicated

Angina refractory to medical therapy; Angina and reduced LV function; Severe activity limiting angina (CCS 3 and CCS 4);
Angina in the presence of left main or severe three vessel CAD

136

What type of revascularization is preferred in diabetic patients

CABG

137

What are the alternative procedures for CAD for patients that are unable to have PCI or CABG surgery

Transmyocardial laser revascularization;
Therapeutic angiogenesis

138

What is COPD

expiratory airflow limitation that is not fully reversible

139

What are two conditions largely associated with COPD

Emphysema;
Chronic Bronchitis

140

What is the pathology of emphysema

enlargement of the distal airways, destruction of the acinus and absence of associated fibrosis

141

What is the pathology of chronic bronchitis

productive cough on most days for at least 3 consecutive months per year for at least 2 consecutive years in the absence of other lung disease that could account for the symptoms.

142

When should you suspect an a-1-antitrypsin deficiency

minimal smoking;
early onset COPD;
family history of lung disease;
lower lobe predominant emphysema

143

What are the main pathophysiologic processes associated with COPD

1. Inflammation;
2. Imbalances of proteinases;
3. oxidative stress;
4. apoptosis

144

Where are the pathophysiologic changes found in COPD

central airways;
peripheral airways;
lung parenchyma;
pulmonary vasculature

145

What are the common symptoms of a patient with COPD

dyspnea;
cough;
sputum production;
wheezing;
Weight loss often occurs in end stage COPD

146

What are the physical exam findings of a patient with COPD

prolonged breath sounds (>6 secs on a maximalforced expiration);
Decreased breath sounds;
use of accessory muscles;
Chest hyperresonance to percussion;
Expiratory Wheezing

147

Is clubbing a feature of COPD

NO;
presence should prompt an evaluation for other conditions, especially lung cancer

148

What are treatment options for smoking cessation

1. Nicotine replacement;
2. Nonnicotine pharmacotherapy

149

What are the nicotine replacement options

1. transdermal patch
2. Oral (chewing gum, lozenges, inhaler)
3. Nasal Spray

150

What are the non-nicotine pharmacotherapy options

1. Bupropion ER (Zyban)
2. Varenicline (Chantix)

151

What diagnostic testing is used in the diagnosis of COPD

Pulmonary function testing

152

How is the severity of COPD scaled

GOLD classification (Global strategy for diagnosis, management and prevention of COPD)

153

What is required for the diagnosis of COPD

expiratory airflow limitation on spirometry, defined as a forced expiratory volume in the first second/forced vital capacity (FEV1/FVC) to be less than 0.70

154

What are the stages in the GOLD classifications

All stages have FEV1/FVC ratio less than 0.70;
Stage I - Mild: FEV1 > 80% predicted;
Stage 2 - Moderate: 50 - 79% predicted;
Stage 3 - Severe: 30-49% predicted;
Stage 4 - Very Severe:

155

What labs should be ordered to monitor COPD

ABG;
bicarbonate;
CBC

156

What is significant with a CBC for COPD

polycythemia may reflect a physiologic response to chromic hypoxemia and inadequate supplemental oxygen use.

157

What is the only proven chronic medical therapies proven to increase survival in COPD

smoking cessation and the correction of hypoxemia with supplemental oxygen

158

What is the stepwise approach to COPD therapy

Mild:
smoking cessation,
vaccination, and
short acting B agonist prn;

moderate:
all mild + long acting bronchodilators and
pulmonary rehabilitation;

severe:
all moderate + inhaled corticosteroids if repeated exacerbations.
Oxygen if needed;

Very severe:
all severe + considerations for surgical treatment

159

Name the short acting beta agonist used for COPD

Albuterol;
Levalbuterol (Xopenex);
Pirbuterol (Maxair)

160

Name the long acting beta agonist used for COPD

Salmeterol (Serevent);
Formoterol (Foradil);
Arformoterol (Brovana)

161

Name the anticholinergics used for COPD

Ipratropium (Atrovent);
Tiotropium (Spiriva)

162

What should be accompanied with an inhaled bronchodilator

proper use of an MDI (metered dose inhaler)

163

Are steroids indicated for COPD

Yes.;
Inhaled corticosteroids;
Systemic corticosteroids are used in patients with severe disease that are not responding to other therapies

164

How is the use of supplemental oxygen determined

A room air resting ABG is the gold standard for determining supplemental O2;

PaO2

165

How will the CBC indicate polycythemia

hematocrit > 55%

166

How is a lung transplant indicated in COPD

BODE score

167

What is an acute exacerbation of COPD

increased dyspnea, often accompanied by increase cough, sputum production, sputum purulence, wheezing, chest tightness or other symptoms and signs in the absence of other pathology

168

When is hospitalization indicated for COPD

significant increase in symptom severity;
significant comorbidities;
failure to respond to initial medical management;
insufficient home support

169

When is the ICU indicated for COPD

invasive mechanical ventilation;
hemodynamic instability;
severe dyspnea;
mental status changes;
persistent worsening hypoxemia, hypercapnia or respiratory acidosis

170

What symptoms will Asthma patients have

paroxysms of cough;
dyspnea;
chest tightness;
wheezing

171

What are the mechanisms that asthma classified

based on the level of impairment;
Risk;
responsiveness to treatment

172

How is asthma classified on initial assesment

Intermittent (Day 2 week, night 3-4 month);
Moderate Persistant (daily, >1 week);
Severe persistent (continous during day, and night)

173

how is asthma control staged

Well controlled (similar to intermittent);
not well controlled (similar to mild persistent);
very poorly controlled (similar to severe persistent)

174

What is the leading chronic illness among children

Asthma (20-30%)

175

What are some factors that contribute to the development and persistence of asthma

Severe viral infection early in life, particularly RSV and rhyinovirus

176

What is the pathophysiology of asthma

Characterized by airway obstruction, hyperinflation, and airflow limitations resulting from:
chronic airway inflamation by activated eosinophils;
Bronchial smooth muscle contraction;
epithelial damage;
airway remodeling

177

What are the physical findings of asthma

wheezing;
prolonged expiratory phase;
During respiratory distress peak airflow

178

How is asthma diagnosed

Severe distress or FEV1 12% after bronchodilator;
heightened airway responsiveness to a methacholine;
challenge (drop in FEV1 of 20%)

179

How is the severity of asthma exacerbation classified

Mild: PEF or FEV1>70%;
moderate: PEF or FEV1 40-69;
Severe: PEF or FEV1

180

How do treat asthma

Initiate treatment at the highest level that occurred over the last 2-4 weeks.
Recheck every 3 months to step down treatment as necessary

181

What are the primary step wise treatment options for asthma control

PRN: Short acting bronchodilators;
Step 1: None;
Step 2: Low dose ICS;
Step 3: Low dose ICS +LABA;
Step 4: Medium dose ICS + LABA;
Step 5: High dose ICS + LABA;
Step 6: Add OCS to step 5

182

What are some alternative treatment options for asthma control

Leukotriene modifiers;
Cromolyn sodium;
Anti IgE therapy (omalizumab);
Methylxanthines;
IV Mag sulfate;
Inhaled heliox

183

What are the leukotriene modifiers

Leukotriene receptor antagonist (LTRA's):
Montelukast;
zafirlukast;
5-lipoxygenase inhibitor;
zileuton

184

When should a LTM be considered for initial therapy

patients with aspirin sensitive asthma or for individuals who cannot master the use of an inhaler

185

What are side effects of SABA

tremor; anxiety; tachycardia; decrease in serum potassium and magnessium;
mild lactic acidosis;
prolonged QT

186

What are side effects of ICS

oral thrush and systemic effects;
patients should be instructed to rinse their mouth after use.

187

What are the side effects of LTM

churg-straus vasculitis;
Ziuleten can cause a reversible hepatitis

188

How do patients monitor their asthma at home

max PEF;
Green is 80-100;
Yellow is 50-79;
Red is

189

What is the sign called of a clinched fist over the heart

Levines sign. A symbol of ischemic chest pain

190

What is tissue connecting the septum to the wall of the right ventricle

...

191

What are the two major classes of IBD

Ulcerative colitis;
Crohns disease

192

Where is the inflammation in ulcerative colitis

Limited to the colon and the rectum. Inflammation is limited to the mucosal lining.

193

Where is the inflammation in crohns disease

transmural inflammation in any part of the entire GI tract

194

What is the presentation of IBD

diarrhea;
weight loss;
abdominal pain

195

Crohns disease can also present with

fistula formation; strictures; abscesses; bowel obstruction

196

How is IBD diagnosed

Endoscopy is the preferred method.
CT and MRI scans;
Serologic markers

197

What will differentiate crohns disease from UC histopathologically

UC: Chronic mucosal inflammation with crypt abscess and cryptitis;

Crohns: multinucleated giant cells and noncaseating granulomas in CD

198

What are the serologic markers used to distinguish UC from Crohns

CD: Anti-Saccharomyces cerevisiae antibodies;
UC: pANCA (perinuclear antineutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies)

199

How is treatment determined for IBD

Based on the severity of the symptoms

200

How is the severity of disease classified for IBD

Mild;
Moderate;
Severe