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Flying > IPC > Flashcards

IPC Flashcards

1
Q

Privileges and limitations of an instrument rating

A

Fly PIC of a multi engine or single engine under the IFR and night VFR
Can only conduct a circling approach if last IPC included one
Covers you for an AFR (multi engine IPC also covers single engine AFR)

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2
Q

IPC expiry

A

IPC expires on the last day of the month + 12 months

If you renew within 3 months prior to the expiry the original expiry date for the following year is maintained

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3
Q

IFR general recency requirements

A

3 approaches in 90 days
1 approach in 90 days for the specific approach type (i.e. 2D/3D/CDI/AZI)
A pilot who has passed an IPC in 90 days is taken to meet all recency requirements

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4
Q

Single pilot IFR recency requirements

A

1 single pilot IFR flight of ≥1hr in 6 months

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5
Q

Night IFR requirements

A

3 take offs and landings in 90 days to carry passengers

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6
Q 
Instruments required (11 + lights) 
(And requirements for pax charter)
A

ASI (with pitot heat)
Altimeter (2 required for pax charter)
VSI
AH (2 required and duplicate power source for pax charter)
Directional indicator (duplicate power source for pax charter)
Turn coordinator (duplicate power source for pax charter)
Compass
OAT indicator
Time piece (for pax charter must be fitted to aircraft)
Suction indicator
Assigned altitude indicator for CTA
(Autopilot with pitch/roll/hdg/alt hold or 2 pilots for pax charter)

Landing light (2, or 1 with 2 filaments, for pax charter)
Illuminated instruments with standby power and intensity control
Pilot compartment lighting
Passenger compartment lighting
Nav lights
Beacon/strobe lights
Shockproof torch for each crew member

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7
Q

When is a weather radar required?

A

IFR charter/RPT 2 pilot

Exceptions: Unpressurised piston, and unpressurised turbine ≤5700kg

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8
Q

When is GPWS required?

A

IFR charter/RPT turbine >15,000kg or ≥10 pax (TAWS if <5700kg)

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9
Q

Pitot/static blockage effects on instruments

A

PUDSUC

Pitot blocked - ASI under reads on descent (and over reads on climb), no change to altimeter or VSI

Static blocked - ASI under reads on climb (and over reads on descent), altimeter will freeze at altitude blocked and VSI will read 0fpm

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10
Q

Compass errors (acceleration and turning)

A

In the southern hemisphere - SAND
Shows a turn to the South when Accelerating and a turn to the North when Decelerating

Due to turning errors, we must ONUS in the southern hemisphere
Overshoot when turning Northerly and Undershoot turning Southerly
About 30˚ over/undershoot on North and South (15˚ at higher latitude like Cairns)
Rolling out on East or West will have no error

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11
Q

If you can’t get a forecast?

A

You can depart if you are satisfied you can return within an hour, and required forecasts must be obtained within 30 mins

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12
Q

Forecast validity requirements

A

30 minutes before and 60 minutes after ETA

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13
Q

Buffer periods on TAFs?

A

Bad weather extends 30 minutes into the good weather for INTER/TEMPO/FM/BCMG.
Does not apply for the first 3 hours of a TAF3.

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14
Q

Take off minima? (Standard)

Requirements to use

A

300ft ceiling
2000m visibility
In event of engine failure terrain clearance assured until LSALT/MSA
If a return would be required, conditions must be above landing minima or allow for a visual approach
If a return is not possible, must have performance and fuel to go somewhere suitable (terrain, obstacles, distance limitations)

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15
Q

Take off minima for qualifying multi engine aeroplanes?

What is a qualifying multi engine aeroplane?

A

0ft ceiling
800m visibility
550m visibility permitted if:
Towered, or if not by day only
<60m edge lighting + centreline markings/lights
Standby power with 1sec switchover on edge/centreline lights

2 crew/1 crew jet/1 crew autofeather
>5700kg + obstacle clearance requirements of CAO 20.7.1B
≤5700kg and 1.9% gross climb OEI, 0.3% greater than obstacle free gradient for runway length required surveyed out to 7500m from 150m baseline from end of TODA and 12.5% splays (150m strips always have this)

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16
Q

Alternate requirements mnemonic

A 
Alternates (Aids)
Could (Cloud)
Very (Visibility)
Well (Wind)
Prove (Provisional/Prob forecasts)
Life (Lights)
Saving (Storms/Icing/Fog/Smoke/Cyclones/Dust storms/etc)
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17
Q

Navaid alternate requirements IFR

A

Navaids available:
1 IAP for which pilot and aeroplane are capable

For charter/RPT:
2 separate ground based navaid IAP with 2 receivers in the aeroplane, or
1 navaid with 2 receivers in the aeroplane
TSO-C145/146 counts as a receiver if an RNAV approach is available

If no navaid available: By day only, no more than SCT below last route segment LSALT + 500ft and 8km visibility (by night an alternate is always required)

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18
Q

Navaid alternate requirements NVFR

A

NDB/VOR at destination, or aircraft is GPS equipped and pilot is qualified (IAP itself is irrelevant, only matters if we can navigate towards it with a navaid)
Otherwise alternate must be within 1hr flight time

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19
Q

Weather alternate requirements IFR

A

Cloud not more than SCT and visibility not below minimum required:

IAP: On approach chart
No IAP day: last route segment LSALT + 500ft and 8km visibility
No IAP night: alternate required
IAP but no forecast: alternate required

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20
Q

Weather alternate requirements NVFR

A

No more than SCT below 1500ft and 8km visibility

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21
Q

Lighting alternate requirements

A

PAL - responsible person
No automatic standby power - responsible person to turn on manually/portable lighting
Portable - responsible person
(i.e. non-PAL electric with standby power does not require a responsible person or alternate)

Alternate does not require standby power, but if alternate has PAL must have responsible person unless 2 x VHF or VHF + HF + 30 minutes fuel.

RPT >3500kg only: Alternate does not require standby power, but PAL must always have responsible person.

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22
Q

Special alternate minima requirements

A

Dual ILS capability (2 x LOC, 2 x G/P, 2 x marker or marker + DME, 2 x NDB where used for ILS)
Tower must be open
METAR/SPECI must be available

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23
Q

Visual departure requirements

A

Conditions must allow for climb in VMC to LSALT/MSA/enroute LSALT
Unless tracking via SID or as directed by ATC must be on track by 5NM

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24
Q

Cat A speeds

A 
Threshold: <91kts
Initial: 90-150kts
Reversal: 110kts
Final: 70-100kts
Circling: 100kts
MAP: 100kts
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25
Q

Cat B speeds

A 
Threshold: 91-120kts
Initial: 120-180kts
Reversal: 140kts
Final: 85-130kts
Circling: 135kts
MAP: 150kts
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26
Q

Cat C speeds

A 
Threshold: 121-140kts
Initial: 160-240kts
Final: 115-160kts
Circling: 180kts
MAP: 240kts
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27
Q

Holding speeds

A

≤FL140: 230kts (170kts where limited to Cat A/B only)
FL140-FL200: 240kts
>FL200: 265kts

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28
Q

Obstacle clearance (SID/MAP/MSA)

A

SID:

  1. 3% climb gradient required
  2. 5% obstacle clearance provided

MAP: 2.5% 100ft obstacle clearance provided

MSA: 1000ft obstacle clearance

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29
Q

Class C VMC

A 
Class C:
1000ft vertical
1500m horizontal
5000m visibility below 10,000ft
8km visibility above 10,000ft

Special VFR:
Clear of cloud
In sight of ground or water <2000AGL
1600m visibility

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30
Q

Class D VMC

A 
Class D:
1000ft above
500ft below
600m horizontal
5000m visibility below 10,000ft
8km visibility above 10,000ft

Special VFR:
Clear of cloud
In sight of ground or water <2000AGL
1600m visibility

31
Q

Class E VMC

A 
Class E:
1000ft vertical
1500m horizontal
5000m visibility below 10,000ft
8km visibility above 10,000ft
32
Q

Class G VMC

A 
Class G:
1000ft vertical
1500m horizontal
5000m visibility below 10,000ft
8km visibility above 10,000ft
If <3000AMSL or <1000AGL clear of cloud and in sight of ground or water
33
Q

Airspace separation services IFR

A 
Class A: From all
Class C: From all
Class D: From IFR and SVFR
Class E: From IFR and info on VFR
Class G: Info only
34
Q

Airspace separation services VFR

A

Class C: From IFR, info on VFR, SVFR from each other
Class D: Info only, SVFR from each other
Class E: Info only
Class G: Info only

35
Q

Airspace speed restrictions

A

250kt below 10,000ft

Class D: 1000kts at or below 2500AAL within 4NM

36
Q

In what airspace do VFR flights need a clearance?

A

Class C and Class D (2 way comms suffices)

37
Q

In what airspace do IFR flights need a clearance?

A

All except Class G

38
Q

What is RVSM airspace?

A

Class A airspace between FL290 and FL410 where ATC may separate aircraft by 1000ft vertically. CASA approved operators only.

39
Q

What are the change of level and heading time requirements when being vectored?

A

Change of level - within 1 minute

Change of heading - immediately (lesser of Rate 1 or 25˚ AOB)

40
Q

What are the sector entries?

A

Sector 1 - parallel
Sector 2 - offset
Sector 3 - direct
Zone flexibility of 5˚ based on heading

41
Q

When can you go straight into a reversal procedure without doing a sector entry?

A

If final track is within 30˚ either side of the outbound of the reversal.
If the inbound of the reversal is not within 30˚ either side of the outbound sector, the entry sector is expanded to include it.

42
Q

How are the RNAV capture regions defined?

A

70˚ either side for the centre IAF, and for the other IAF be outside the line that parallels the final track.

43
Q

Where is the final approach fix on a reversal procedure?

A

When established on the inbound track.

44
Q

How offset can runway aligned approaches be from the runway?

A

Up to 30˚ offset (or 15˚ max offset for Cat C and D)

45
Q

Where can you obtain “actual QNH” and for how long is it valid?

A

ATIS/AWIS/ATC/approved observer.

15 minutes.

46
Q

If unable to obtain actual QNH what can you do and what adjustments need to be made to landing minima?

A

Obtain an actual QNH for an aerodrome within 100NM if possible.
If not possible, use area QNH.

MDA/DA must be increased by 50ft.

47
Q

When must you make temperature corrections?

A

When colder than ISA-15˚.

48
Q

What is Pressure Error Correction?

A

Aircraft have small errors in their pressure instruments. Some aircraft will provide a PEC to be added to ILS DA. If not provided or unknown, add 50ft to DA.

49
Q

If HIALS are not available, what adjustments must be made to landing minima?

A

ILS minimum 1.5km visibility required.

LOC must add 900m to visibility on approach chart.

50
Q

If HIRELS are not available, what adjustments must be made to landing mimima?

A

ILS minimum 1.2km visibility required.

51
Q

If an ILS approach is flown without a coupled autopilot or flight director, what adjustments must be made to landing minima?

A

ILS minimum 1.2km visibility required.

52
Q

If the failure warning system for the AH and/or DI is not available, what adjustments must be made to landing minima?

A

ILS minimum 1.2km visibility required.

53
Q

If RVR is not available, what adjustments must be made to landing minima?

A

ILS minimum 0.8km visibility required.

54
Q

If an aerodrome has interleaved circuitry runway lighting, and one circuit fails increasing light spacing from 60-120m, what adjustments must be made to landing minima?

A

By day - no adjustments.

By night - unless in VMC, minimum visibility on chart must be increased by 1.5x.

55
Q

What airport lighting is required for Private/Airwork/Charter flights?

A

Runway edge lighting
Threshold lighting
Illuminated WDI (or ability to find wind velocity an alternative way)
Obstacle lighting

56
Q

What airport lighting is required for RPT flights?

A 
Runway edge lighting
Threshold lighting
Illuminated WDI (or ability to find wind velocity an alternative way)
Obstacle lighting
Taxiway lighting
Flood lighting
57
Q

When must runway lighting be available (if not PAL)?

A

10 minutes before ETD to 30 minutes after take off.

30 minutes before arrival until completion of taxi.

58
Q

When must a missed approach be executed?

A 
Straight in landing not possible and circling approach not possible
Not visual at the minima
Loss of visual reference while circling
RAIM failure or warning after IAF
Outside tolerance after FAF
Failure of or suspect navaid
59
Q

When are you permitted to fly below LSALT/MSA IFR?

A 
As part of normal climb after take off 
As part of an approach
As part of DME/GNSS arrival
When being vectored by ATC above MVA
VMC by day
Visual approach
60
Q

Visual approach requirements OCTA

A

By day:
Within 30NM
5km visibility
Clear of cloud and in sight of ground or water and able to maintain until the field
Not below minimum for VFR flight until the circling area

By night:
5km visibility
Clear of cloud and in sight of ground or water and able to maintain until the field
Not below LSALT/MSA/MDA until-
Circling area
3NM if no IAP
5NM on extended centreline and not below on slope TVASIS/PAPI (7NM if ILS equipped)
10NM not below glideslope within full scale deflection on ILS (14NM YSSY left runways)

61
Q

Visual approach requirements CTA

A

By day:
Within 30NM
Not below minimum for VFR flight and CTA LL + 500ft
5km visibility
Clear of cloud and in sight of ground or water and able to maintain until the field
Remain on last cleared track/heading until within 5NM

By night:
5km visibility
Clear of cloud and in sight of ground or water and able to maintain until the field
Remain on last cleared track/heading and …
Not below LSALT/MSA/MVA until-
Circling area
3NM if no IAP
5NM on extended centreline and not below on slope TVASIS/PAPI (7NM if ILS equipped)
10NM not below glideslope within full scale deflection on ILS (14NM YSSY left runways)

If on a STAR and cleared, must continue to follow lateral profile of the STAR.

62
Q

When are you permitted to descend below MDA?

A

Within the circling area
Able to maintain minimum visibility
Able to maintain visual contact with landing runway environment
Not less than 300ft (Cat A/B) or 400ft (Cat C/D) above obstacles along intended flight path until aligned with runway
By night, must maintain MDA until able to intercept normal circuit descent profile

63
Q

Comms failure procedure

A

7600
Listen out on ATIS/navaids with voice
Continue to transmit normally (prefix with “transmitting blind”)
and

Stay in VMC and land at most suitable aerodrome,
or

Maintain any clearance limit for 3 minutes at assigned level/MSA,
or

Maintain a vector for 2 minutes at assigned level/MSA,
or

Fly one more complete holding pattern,

Then proceed in accordance with latest route clearance acknowledged and climb to planned level.
Track to destination according to your plan (or as amended by ATC in latest route clearance acknowledged).
Descend as per SOPs/flight plan.
Descend to initial approach altitude for most suitable aid according to published procedures.
At minima, look to tower if available for light signals.

64
Q

Performance - take off factors

A

<2000kg - Multiply by 1.15 (unless performance charts already include a factor)

65
Q

Performance - climb gradients required

A

Take off configuration: 6% climb gear down at TOSS
Landing configuration: 3.2% GA config at 1.3Vs

Single engine: 4.5% climb to 5000ft
VFR/Private IFR: Maintain height at altitudes up to 5000ft
IFR Airwork/Charter: OEI 1% climb to 5000ft

66
Q

LSALT calculation

A

Never below 1500ft
Charted >360ft: Obstacle plus 1000ft
Not charted/below 360ft: Terrain plus 1360ft

Within 5NM for RNP2
Within 10NM for NVFR

67
Q

What is Vmca?

A

The minimum control speed airborne - the minimum speed required to be able to maintain directional control of the aeroplane OEI.

Measured with critical engine inop, the other at take off power, gear up, 5˚ to live AOB and propeller windmilling (unless aircraft fitted with autofeather).

68
Q

If you are below Vmca and you lose an engine how do you recover?

A

Close throttles
Pitch down
Smoothly apply power
Pitch to maintain Vy oei

69
Q

Which engine is the critical engine?

A

For clockwise rotating propellers, it is always the left.

For contra rotating propellers, there isn’t one.

70
Q

How do you calculate a Rate One Turn?

A

IAS divided by 10 + 7.

71
Q

When are the enroute/terminal/approach phases of RNP flight?

A

Enroute - generally considered the cruise
Terminal - within 30NM of departure or destination
Approach - passing the FAF

72
Q

How many GNSS satellites are required for a:
Navigation Solution
Fault Detection
Fault Detection and Exclusion

A

4 for a navigation solution
5 to detect a faulty satellite
6 to detect and exclude a faulty satellite

73
Q

What is a RAIM failure telling you?

A

RAIM is not available, ie unable to detect a faulty satellite (<5 satellites in range)

74
Q

RAIM failures after the FAF

A

If unable to detect a faulty satellite (ie <5 satellites) the warning will be inhibited for 5 minutes past the FAF. However if the system is unable to even give you a navigation solution (ie <4 satellites) you will get a warning and you must initiate a MAP.

Flying (5 decks)

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