ISBB Flashcards
(196 cards)
1
Q
To reinactivate the complement system,
serum is heated at what temperature and
interval if a modified VDRL testing involving
macroscopic agglutination is used?
a. 56 C for 30 minutes
b. 56 C for 10 minutes
c. 65 C for 30 minutes
d. None of the above
A
None of the above
2
Q
A lack of C1-INH might result in which of the
following conditions?
a. PNH
b. Atherosclerosis
c. HANE
d. Increased bacterial infection
A
HANE
3
Q
A type of immunization where a
microorganism loses its pathogenicity but
retains its capacity for transient growth?
a. Live attenuated vaccine
b. Toxoid vaccine
c. Inactivated vaccine
d. Polysaccharides
A
Live attenuated vaccine
4
Q
Which of the following is associated with
defective killing by phagocytes?
a. CGD
b. SCID
c. Di George Anomaly
d. WAS
A
CGD
5
Q
These antibodies are the marker for SLE and
the antibodies are associated with
active/severe disease and has been found
almost exclusively in patients with SLE.
Although they are found in only 25-30% of
patients, the presence of these antibodies is
considered diagnostic for SLE; the antibodies typically produce a speckled
staining pattern in FANA/IIF.
a. Anti-dsDNA
b. Anti-sm
c. Anti-RNP
d. Anti-DNP
e. Anti-nucleolar
A
Anti-sm
6
Q
Which of the following markers is used for
the identification of NK cells and mediates
phagocytosis and ADCC?
a. CD4
b. CD8
c. CD16
d. CD56
A
CD16
7
Q
How much diluent needs to be added to
0.25 ml of serum to make a 1:20 dilution?
a. 0.5 mL
b. 4.75 mL
c. 3.8 mL
d. 5 mL
A
4.75 mL
8
Q
In an antibody titration, a 0.2mL aliquot of a
patient’s serum sample was added to 0.8mL
of saline, and this mixture was placed into
tube #1. A 0.5mL sample was removed from
tube 1 and placed into tube 2, containing
0.5mL of saline. This procedure was
repeated through tube #10. How should the
antibody titer be reported if the last positive
reaction was observed in tube #10?
a. 640
b. 2560
c. 5120
d. 10240
A
5120
9
Q
The serum of an individual who received all
doses of the hepatitis B vaccine should
contain:
a. Anti-Hbs
b. Anti-Hbe
c. Anti-HBc
d. HBsAg
A
Anti-Hbs
10
Q
Which of the following is indicative of a
recent infection with T. gondii?
a. Anti-Toxoplasma IgM
b. Anti-Toxoplasma IgE
c. High avidity anti-Toxoplasma IgG
d. Low avidity anti-Toxoplasma IgG
A
d. Low avidity anti-Toxoplasma IgG
11
Q
Which of the following is indicative of a
parasitic infection?
a. Increased IgA levels
b. Increased IgE levels
c. Increased IgG levels
d. Increased IgM levels
A
Increased IgE levels
12
Q
A person has an infected bug bite with pain,
swelling, and redness. What is the cause of
these physical symptoms of inflammation?
a. Production of antibody
b. Secondary immune response
c. Increased blood flow and neutrophils
to site
d. Activation of NK cells
A
Increased blood flow and neutrophils
to site
13
Q
What are the associated autoantibodies in
autoimmune hepatitis?
a. Anti-smooth muscle antibody
b. Anti-liver kidney microsomal antibody
c. Anti-liver cytosol type 1 antibody
d. All of the above
A
All of the above
14
Q
Destruction of the myelin sheath of axons
caused by the presence of antibody is
characteristic of which disease?
a. MS
b. CGD
c. MG
d. GPS
A
MS
15
Q
What is the basic difference between the
RPR and VDRL tests?
a. The RPR detects antigen, whereas the
VDRL detects antibody.
b. The RPR test is read macroscopically,
whereas the VDRL is read
microscopically.
c. The RPR test is a treponemal test,
where the VDRL is nontreponemal.
d. There is no difference because they are
both non-specific test for syphilis
A
The RPR test is read macroscopically,
whereas the VDRL is read
microscopically.
16
Q
What is the difference between
nephelometry and turbidimetry?
a. There is no difference between two
assays.
b. Nephelometry is newer example of
turbidimetry.
c. Nephelometry measures light
transmitted through a solution, and
turbidimetry measures light scattered in
a solution.
d. Nephelometry measures light scattered
in a solution, and turbidimetry
measures light transmitted through a
solution.
A
Nephelometry measures light scattered
in a solution, and turbidimetry
measures light transmitted through a
solution.
17
Q
Postzone causes false-negative reactions in
antibody titers. What is the remedy to
resolve this problem?
a. Excess antigen in test
b. Excess antibody in test
c. Repeat the test after a week
d. Both A and B
e. Both A and C
A
Repeat the test after a week
18
Q
Which Immunoglobulin best initiate the
classic complement pathway?
a. IgA
b. IgG
c. IgM
d. Both A and C
e. Both B and C
A
IgM
19
Q
Which agglutination test in detecting
syphilis uses glutaraldehyde-stabilized
turkey RBCs?
a. HATTS
b. TPHA
c. MHA-TP
d. TPPA
A
HATTS
20
Q
Which of the following would represent a
double negative thymocyte?
a. CD2- CD3+ CD4- CD8+
b. CD2- CD3- CD4+ CD8-
c. CD2+ CD3+ CD4- CD8-
d. CD2- CD3- CD4+ CD8+
A
CD2+ CD3+ CD4- CD8-
21
Q
What B cell maturation stage is
characterized by the presence of IgM and
IgD on the cell’s cytoplasm?
a. Plasma cells
b. Mature B cells
c. Immature B cells
d. Pre-B cell
A
Plasma cells
22
Q
Type IV hypersensitivity reaction:
I. Contact dermatitis
II. Jewelry and latex
III. Poison Ivy
IV. SLE
V. Peanut allergies
a. I, II, III
b. I, II, III, IV
c. I, II, III, IV, V
d. I, II, III, V
e. I and III
A
I, II, III
23
Q
A positive result in Agglutination inhibition
test is indicated by:
a. Presence of agglutination
b. Absence of agglutination
c. Presence of hemolysis
d. Absence of hemolysis
A
Absence of agglutination
24
Q
A
25
A positive result in Complement Fixation
test is indicated by:
a. Presence of agglutination
b. Absence of agglutination
c. Presence of hemolysis
d. Absence of hemolysis
Absence of hemolysis
26
MHC class I-deficient diseased cells trigger
and activate:
a. B cells
b. T cells
c. NK cells
d. Interferon
NK cells
27
Hybridoma is produced from the fusion of:
a. T cells and plasma
b. B cells and plasma
c. Myeloma and plasma cells
d. Myeloma and T cells
Myeloma and plasma cells
28
Reverse passive agglutination:
I. Antigen is attached to a carrier
particle.
II. Antibody is attached to a carrier
particle. III. Agglutination occurs if the patient
antibody is present.
IV. Agglutination occurs if the patient
antigen is present.
a. I, III
b. II, IV
c. I, IV
d. II, III
II, IV
29
. RF is associated with which immunoglobulin
classes?
a. IgM
b. IgG
c. IgA
d. All of the above
All of the above
30
Which of the following does not
characterize T cell function?
a. Produce and secrete immunoglobulins
b. Develop killer cells that produce
cytokines
c. Suppress the immune response
d. Develop helper cells
Produce and secrete immunoglobulins
31
During the “window phase” of HBV
infection, which of the following may be the
only detectable marker?
a. Anti-HBc
b. Anti-HBe
c. Anti-HBs
d. HBsAg
Anti-HBc
32
Which of the following statements
regarding immunogenicity is true:
a. The immunogen must be recognized by
the body as nonself.
b. The immunogen must be greater than
10 Da.
c. Proteins and carbohydrates are the
most immunogenic, whereas lipids and
nucleic acids are weakly immunogenic.
d. The more complex a molecule, the
more immunogenic it becomes
The immunogen must be greater than
10 Da.
33
The interaction between individual antigen
and antibody molecules depends on several
types of bonds, such as ionic bonds,
hydrogen bonds, hydrophobic binds, and
van der Waals forces. How is the strength of
this attraction characterized?
a. Avidity
b. Affinity
c. Reactivity
d. Valency
Affinity
34
What disease is indicated by a high titer of
anti-Sm antibody?
a. MTCD
b. RA
c. SLE
d. Scleroderma
SLE
35
Which immunoglobulin can cross the
placenta? *
a. IgG
b. IgM
c. IgA
d. IgE
IgG
36
Which of the following is not a type 1
hypersensitivity reaction? *
a. Asthma
b. Hay Fever
c. Serum Sickness
d. Urticaria
Serum Sickness
37
Which of the following is associated with
MHC class I? *
a. HLA-A, B, C
b. Exogenous
c. Endogenous
d. A and B
e. A and C
38
Which CD4:CD8 ratio is most likely in a
patient with AIDS? *
a. 1:2
b. 2:1
c. 1.5:1
d. 1:1.5
1:2
39
Antigenic groups identified by different sets
of antibodies reacting in a similar manner to
certain standard cell lines best describes:
a. Cytokines
b. CD
c. Neutrophil granules
d. Opsonin
CD
40
The action of CRP can be distinguished from
that of an antibody because:
a. CRP acts after the antibody appears
b. Only the antibody triggers the
complement cascades
c. Binding the antibody is calcium
dependent
d. CRP acts before the antibody appears
CRP acts before the antibody appears
41
When combining acid and water, *
a. Acid is added to water
b. Water is added to acid
c. Water is slowly added to acid
d. Both solutions are combined
simultaneously
Acid is added to water
42
If a serological test is positive for an
individual who does not have a particular
disease, the result was caused by a problem
with:
a. Sensitivity
b. Specificity
c. Accuracy
d. Poor pipetting
Specificity
43
Which technique represents a singlediffusion reaction?
a. RID
b. Ouchterlony diffusion
c. Immunoelectrophoresis
d. Immunofixation electrophoresis
RID
44
Which of the following correctly describes
reverse passive agglutination?
a. It is a negative test.
b. It can be used to detect autoantibodies.
c. It is used for identification of antigens.
d. It is used to detect sensitization of RBC.
It is used for identification of antigens.
45
Which of the following statements
accurately describes competitive binding
assays?
a. Excess binding sites for the analyte are
provided.
b. Labeled and unlabeled analyte are
present in equal amounts.
c. The concentration of patient analyte is
inversely proportional to bound label.
d. All the patient analyte is bound in the
reaction
The concentration of patient analyte is
46
In a noncompetitive enzyme immunoassay,
if a negative control shows the presence of
color, which of the following might be a
possible explanation?
a. No reagent was added.
b. Washing step were incomplete.
c. The enzyme was inactivated.
d. No substrate was present.
Washing step were incomplete.
47
. Which of the following would support the
diagnosis of drug-induced lupus?
a. Antihistone antibodies
b. Antibodies to smith antigen
c. Presence of RF
d. Antibodies to SS-A and SS-B antigens
Antihistone antibodies
48
The process whereby the leukocyte
squeezes in ameboid fashion across the
endothelial cells. This almost always
happens at endothelial cell borders.
a. Chemotaxis
b. Vasodilation
c. Transmigration
d. None of the above
Transmigration
49
. Colostrum:
a. Active natural immunity
b. Active artificial immunity
c. Passive natural immunity
d. Passive artificial immunity
Passive natural immunity
50
In primary biliary cirrhosis, which of the
following antibodies is seen in high titers?
a. Antimitochondrial
b. Anti-smooth muscle
c. Anti-DNA
d. Anti-parietal cell
Antimitochondrial
51
Live attenuated vaccine:
a. Rabies
b. Tetanus
c. Hepatitis B
d. Measles
Measles
52
What kind of antigen-antibody reaction
would be expected if soluble antigen is
added to homologous antibody?
a. Precipitation
b. Agglutination
c. Complement fixation
d. Hemagglutination
Precipitation
53
A specific component of the adaptive
immune system that is formed in response
to antigenic stimulation: *
a. Lysozyme
b. Complement
c. Commensal organisms
d. Immunoglobulin
Immunoglobulin
54
Anti-glomerular basement membrane
antibody is most often associated with this
condition: *
a. Goodpasture disease
b. SLE
c. Celiac disease
d. Chronic active hepatitis
Goodpasture disease
55
This is a surrogate testing for HBV that is no
longer required. *
a. ALT
b. HBsAg
c. Anti-HBc
d. Anti-HBsAg
ALT
56
Which WBC is not an end cell? *
a. B cell
b. Neutrophil
c. Eosinophil
d. Basophil
e. Monocyte
Monocyte
57
T cells are incapable of functioning as: *
a. Cytotoxic cells
b. Helper cells
c. Phagocytic cell
d. Regulatory cell
Phagocytic cell
58
Antigen receptor on T cells bind HLA class II
molecules with the help of which accessory
molecule? *
a. CD2
b. CD3
c. CD4
d. CD8
CD4
59
Flocculation test for syphilis detects the
presence of: *
a. Reagin
b. anticardiolipin
c. Cardiolipin
d. Both A and B
e. Both A and C
Both A and B
60
What is the purpose of the hemolytic
system in a complement fixation test?
a. To test the patient’s serum for the
presence of antibodies
b. To act as an indicator and provide a
visible reaction
c. To test the red blood cells
d. To make certain that the serum is not
anticomplementary
To act as an indicator and provide a
visible reaction
61
What is the diameter of the ceramic ring in
mm used for quantitative VDRL?
a. 14
b. 15
c. 16
d. 18
14
62
The quantitative VDRL test is performed on
all sera in which qualitative VDRL test?
a. Nonreactive
b. Reactive
c. Weakly reactive
d. Either reactive or weakly reactive
either reactive or weakly reactive
63
The reactions on DNA-methyl green
substrates when testing for the presence of
anti-DNase are: POSITIVE- NEGATIVE
A. Blue Yellow
B. Red Orange
C.Green Colorless
D.Purple Yellow
Green Colorless
64
Forssman antibodies are absorbed by:
a. Boiled beef cells
b. Guinea pig kidney antigen
c. Neither beef cells nor guinea pig kidney
antigen
d. Both beef cells and guinea pig kidney
antigen
Guinea pig kidney antigen
65
The Weil-Felix test is used for the detection
of which type of antibodies?
a. Salmonella
b. Mycoplasma
c. Rickettsia
d. Viral
Rickettsia
66
What is the gold standard test for the
detection of VZV antibody?
a. FAMA
b. IFA
c. Sabin-Feldman Dye Test
d. Culture
FAMA
67
68
How many molecules of IgM are needed to
fix complement?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
69
In Direct Immunofluorescent assay, ___ that
is conjugated with a fluorescent tag is added
directly to unknown ____ that is fixed to a
microscope slide.
a. Antigen, antibody
b. Antibody, antigen
c. Enzyme, antigen
d. Enzyme, antibody
Antibody, antigen
70
Which of the tests is/are correctly matched?
*
a. Southern: DNA
b. Southern: RNA
c. Northern: DNA
d. Northern: RNA
Southern: DNA
71
Which serum antibody response usually
characterizes the primary stage of syphilis?
*
a. Antibodies against syphilis are
undetectable
b. Detected 1-3 weeks after appearance
of primary chancre
c. Detected in 50% of cases before the
primary chancre disappears
d. Detected within 2 weeks after infection
Detected 1-3 weeks after appearance
of primary chancre
72
Which tests are considered screening test
for HIV? *
a. ELISA, 4th generation, and rapid
antibody tests
b. Immunofluorescence, western blot,
radioimmuno-precipitation assay
c. Culture, antigen capture assay, DNA
amplification
d. Reverse transcriptase and messenger
RNA assay
ELISA, 4th generation, and rapid
antibody tests
73
0.2 mL of serum is transferred to tube # 1
and 3.8 mL of saline is added to dilute the sample. Determine the Dilution Factor for
tube number # 1. *
a. 3.6 mL
b. 3.8 mL
c. 1:20
d. 1:10
e. 1:4
1:20
74
Cell-mediated adaptive immunity: *
a. T cell
b. B cell
c. Dendritic cell
d. NK cell
T cell
75
Immune complex: *
a. Type I
b. Type II
c. Type III
d. Type IV
Type III
76
What region differentiates various classes of
immunoglobulin? *
a. Constant region of the heavy chain
b. Variable region of the heavy chain
c. Constant region of the light chain
d. Variable region of the light chain
Constant region of the heavy chain
77
True about Sabin-Feldman Dye Test, except:
*
a. Measures IgG antibodies
b. Its principle involves neutralization
c. Makes use of living organism
d. Positive result: stained deeply blue
with methylene blue
Positive result: stained deeply blue
with methylene blue
78
What is the most common complement
deficiency?
a. C1
b. C2
c. C3
d. C5
C2
79
What is the most severe complement
deficiency?
a. C1
b. C2
c. C3
d. MAC
C3
80
The HLA complex is located primarily on:
a. Short arm of chromosome 6
b. Long arm of chromosome 6
c. Short arm of chromosome 9
d. Long arm of chromosome 9
Short arm of chromosome 6
81
Used for treatment of hepatitis C and Kaposi
sarcoma:
a. IFN-alpha
b. IFN-beta
c. TNF-beta
d. TNF-alpha
IFN-beta
82
Anticoagulant used for microlymphotoxicity
testing?
a. Heparin
b. EDTA
c. ACD
d. None
ACD
83
This cytokine stimulates the production of
IFN-y by NK and T cells, differentiation of
naïve T cells into Th1 cells and enhances
cytolytic functions of activated NK cells and
CD8+ Tc cells.
a. IL-12
b. IL-1
c. IL-2
d. IL-6
IL-12
84
B8:
I. Celiac Disease
II. Behcet syndrome
III. DM
IV. Addison’s disease
V. MG
a. I, II, III
b. I, III, IV
c. I, IV, V
d. I, II, III, IV, V
I, IV, V
85
. Which of the following is a screening
serological test for HIV infection?
a. ELISA
b. Dot Blot Testing
c. Latex Agglutination
d. All of the above
All of the above
86
_____ measure the amount of circulating
HIV nucleic acid and play an essential role in
helping physicians predict disease
progression, monitor patient response to
antiretroviral therapy, and guide treatment
decisions.
a. Quantitative NAT viral load assay
b. Qualitative Acid Test
c. Western Blot
d. ELISA
Quantitative NAT viral load assay
87
A viral protein product of HIV that binds to
CD4+ T cells:
a. gp120
b. gp41
c. gp160
d. p24
gp120
88
HBsAg: negative
Anti-HBc: Positive
Anti-HBs: Positive
a. Susceptible
b. Immunity due to natural infection
c. Immunity due to vaccination
d. Chronically infected
Immunity due to natural infection
89
What is the indication that a patient
suspected of having H. pylori is positive for
CLOtest?
a. The gel will turn into a hot pink color
b. The gel will turn into a yellow color
c. The gel will remain yellow
d. The gel will remain hot pink
The gel will turn into a hot pink color
90
This test is perform in patients suspected of
having glomerulonephritis preceded by
streptococcal skin infections, as ASO
antibodies often are not stimulated by this
type of disease:
a. Anti-DNase testing
b. ASO
c. Streptozyme Kit Testing
d. Slide agglutination test
Anti-DNase testing
91
Which of the following statements regarding
labeled immunoassay is true, except:
a. In noncompetitive IA, excess antibody is
present.
b. In competitive IA, limited number of
antibody-binding site is present.
c. In homogenous IA, no separation step is
necessary.
d. Most immunoassays use a semi-solid
phase vehicle for separation such as
plastic beads and microtiter plates.
Most immunoassays use a semi-solid
phase vehicle for separation such as
plastic beads and microtiter plates.
92
Errors in agglutination that can cause false
negative result:
a. Overcentrifugation
b. Autoagglutination
c. Presence of heterophile antibody
d. Inadequate washing of cells
Inadequate washing of cells
93
Grading of Agglutination: Tiny aggregates
barely visible macroscopically; many free
erythrocytes; turbid and reddish
supernatant:
a. 1+
b. 2+
c. 3+
d. Mixed field
e. Weak
Weak
94
Which is most likely a positive Western blot
result for infection with HIV?
a. Band at p24
b. Band at gp60
c. Bands at p24 and p31
d. Bands at p24 and gp120
Bands at p24 and gp120
95
Which of the following is a treponemal test?
a. RST
b. RPR
c. FTA-ABS
d. VDRL
VDRL
96
Lectin pathway C5 convertase:
a. C4b2a3b
b. iC3bBb3b
c. C3bBb
d. None
C4b2a3b
97
Molecular Weight: IgG
a. 900,000 Da
b. 190,000 Da
c. 180,000 Da
d. 150,000 Da
150,000 Da
98
This term refers to the variations in
constant regions:
a. Isotype
b. Allotype
c. Idiotype
d. Hinge region
Allotype
99
*A blood donor has the genotype: hh, AB. Using antiA and anti-B antisera, the donor's red cells will type as
group:
A. B
B. A
C. O
D. AB
O
100
N-acetyl-D-galactosamine is the immunodominant
carbohydrate that reacts with:
A. Arachis hypogaea
B. Salvia sclarea
C. Dolichos biflorus
D. Ulex europeaus
Dolichos biflorus
101
What should be done if all forward and reverse ABO
results are negative?
A. Perform additional testing such as typing with antiA1 lectin and anti-A,B
B. Incubate at 22°C or 4°C to enhance weak expression
C. Repeat the test with new reagents
D. Run an antibody identification panel
Incubate at 22°C or 4°C to enhance weak expression
102
The reason that group O individuals have the most
amount of H antigen on their red cells compared to
other ABO phenotypes is:
A. Group O individuals produce more precursor type I
chain
B. Group A, B, and AB individuals are heterozygous for
the H gene
C. The O gene produces more transferase enzyme,
which produces more H antigen
D. H antigen is left unchanged by the absence of A
and/or B transferase enzymes
H antigen is left unchanged by the absence of A
and/or B transferase enzymes
103
The purpose of testing with anti-A,B is to detect:
A. Anti-A1
B. Anti-A2
C. Subgroups of A
D. Subgroups of O
Subgroups of A
104
What type of serological testing does the blood bank
technologist perform when determining the blood
group of a patient?
A. Genotyping
B. Phenotyping
C. Both genotyping and phenotyping
D. Polymerase chain reaction
Phenotyping
105
A patient’s ABO blood type is determined by which of
the following?
A. Genetic inheritance and environmental factors
B. Genetic inheritance
C. Environmental factors
D. Immune function
Genetic inheritance
106
An end-point of tube testing other than agglutination
that must also be considered a positive reaction is
called:
A. Clumping
B. Mixed field
C. Hemolysis
D. Agglutination
Hemolysis
107
What term describes using known sources of reagent
antisera (known antibodies) to detect ABO antigens on
a patient’s red cells?
A. Rh Typing
B. Reverse Grouping
C. Direct Antiglobulin Test
D. Forward Grouping
Forward Grouping
108
Yellow antisera: 4+; Blue antisera: 0
A. A
B. B
C. A+
D. B+
B
109
*Biochemically speaking, what type of molecules
are Rh antigens?
A. Glycophorins
B. Simple sugars
C. Lipids
D. Proteins
Proteins
110
*Which of the following red cell genotypes would
react negatively with anti-G?
A. R0r
B. rr
C. R2r
D. r′r
rr
111
Which of the following phenotypes will react with
anti-f?
A. rr
B. R1R1
C. R2R2
D. R1R2
A. rr
112
A complete Rh typing for antigens C, c, D, E, and e
revealed negative results for C, D, and E. How is the
individual designated?
A. Rh positive
B. Rh negative
C. Positive for c and e
D. Impossible to determine
Rh negative
113
A patient types as AB and appears to be Rh(+) on
slide typing. What additional tests should be performed
for tube typing?
A. Rh negative control
B. Direct antiglobulin test (DAT)
C. Low-protein Rh antisera
D. No additional testing is needed
Rh negative control
114
In an emergency situation, Rh-negative red cells are
transfused into an Rh-positive person of the genotype
R1R1. The first antibody most likely to develop is:
A. Anti-c
B. Anti-d
C. Anti-e
D. Anti-E
Anti-c
115
Which technology may report an Rh-weak D positive
as Rh negative?
A. Gel System
B. Solid Phase
C. Tube Testing
D. None of these options
Gel System
116
If a D-positive person makes an anti-D, this person is
probably:
A. Partial D
B. D-negative
C. Weak D as position effect
D. Weak D due to transmissible genes
Partial D
117
Which of the following genes on chromosome 1
encodes for the 4 common antigen combinations ce, cE,
Ce, and CE?
A. RHD
B. RHCE
C. RHD and RHCE
D. Rhd and RHce
. RHCE
118
Which of the following weak D donor units should
be labeled Rh-positive?
A. Weak D due to transmissible genes
B. Weak D as position effect
C. Weak partial D
D. All the above
All the above
119
*Which antigen is destroyed by enzymes?
A. P1
B. Jsa
C. Fya
D. Jka
Fya
120
The autoantibody most often implicated in PCH is:
A. Cold-reactive, IgG, anti-P
B. Cold-reactive, IgM, anti-P
C. Cold-reactive, IgG, anti-I
D. Cold-reactive, IgM, anti-I
Cold-reactive, IgG, anti-P
121
A patient's antibody identification panel
demonstrates anti-M. The antibody is most reactive
with homozygous M+ cells compared to heterozygous
M+ cells. Which of the following cells would
demonstrate the strongest reaction?
A. M-N+S-s+
B. M+N+S+s+
C. M+N-S-s+
D. M+N+S-s
M+N-S-s+
122
In Group O individuals with Le and Se genes, what
ABH and LE antigens are present in their secretions?
A. Lea, Leb
B. Lea, Leb, H
C. Lea, H
D. Leb, H
Lea, Leb, H
123
Which of the following statements is not true about
anti-U?
A. Is clinically significant
B. Is only found in black individuals
C. Only occurs in S-s- individuals
D. Only occurs in Fy(a-b-) individuals
Only occurs in Fy(a-b-) individuals
124
What sample is best for detecting complementdependent antibodies?
A. Plasma stored at 4°C for no longer than 24 hours
B. Serum stored at 4°C for no longer than 48 hours
C. Either serum or plasma stored at 20°C–24°C no
longer than 6 hours
D. Serum heated at 56°C for 30 minutes
Serum stored at 4°C for no longer than 48 hours
125
*Which of the following has been associated with
causing severe immediate HTRs?
A. Anti-JMH
B. Anti-Lub
C. Anti-Vel
D. Anti-Sda
Anti-Vel
126
Transfusion of Chido-positive red cells to a patient
with anti-Ch has been reported to cause:
A. No clinically significant red cell destruction
B. Clinically significant immune red cell destruction
C. Decreased 51Cr red cell survivals
D. Febrile transfusion reactions
No clinically significant red cell destruction
127
A potential donor has no exclusions, but she weighs
only 95 pounds. What is the allowable amount of blood
(including samples) that can be drawn?
A. 367 mL
B. 378 mL
C. 454 mL
D. 473 mL
454 mL
128
Which of the following is an acceptable time in
which a unit of whole blood is collected?
A. 33 minutes
B. 25 minutes
C. 20 minutes
D. 13 minutes
13 minutes
129
Who is the best candidate for a predeposit
autologous donation?
A. A 45-year-old man who is having elective surgery in
2 weeks; he has alloanti-k
B. A 23-year-old female leukemia patient with a
hemoglobin of 10 g/dL
C. A 12-year-old boy who has hemophilia
D. A 53-year-old woman who has septicemia
A 45-year-old man who is having elective surgery in
2 weeks; he has alloanti-k
130
A woman begins to breathe rapidly while donating
blood. Choose the correct course of action.
A. Continue the donation; rapid breathing is not a
reason to discontinue a donation
B. Withdraw the needle, raise her feet, and administer
ammonia
C. Discontinue the donation and provide a paper bag
D. Tell her to sit upright and apply a cold compress to
her forehead
Discontinue the donation and provide a paper bag
131
A donor with a physician’s request to donate for
planned surgery in 3 weeks has a hemoglobin value of
10 g/dL. What is her eligibility status?
A. Permitted to donate as an autologous donor
B. Deferred because of low hemoglobin
C. Permitted to donate with the approval of the blood
bank’s medical director
D. Permitted to donate a smaller unit of blood
Deferred because of low hemoglobin
132
How much anticoagulant would have to be removed
from the collection bag given a donor who weighs 90 lb?
A. 12 mL
B. 15 mL
C. 20 mL
D. 23 mL
12 mL
133
A donor bag is half filled during donation when the
blood flow stops. Select the correct course of action.
A. Closely observe the bag for at least 3 minutes; if
blood flow does not resume, withdraw the needle
B. Remove the needle immediately and discontinue
the donation
C. Check and reposition the needle if necessary; if
blood flow does not resume, withdraw the needle
D. Withdraw the needle and perform a second
venipuncture in the other arm
Check and reposition the needle if necessary; if
blood flow does not resume, withdraw the needle
134
Which of the following information is not required
for whole blood donation?
A. Name
B. Address
C. Transfusion history
D. Sex
Transfusion history
135
136
Which of the following refers to a temporary
deferral?
A. Donor received varicella zoster live attenuated
vaccine
B. Donor had a confirmed positive test for HBsAg
C. Donor has a history of CJD
D. Donor was diagnosed with babesiosis
Donor received varicella zoster live attenuated
vaccine
137
When RBCs are stored, there is a “shift to the left.”
This means:
A. Hemoglobin-oxygen affinity increases, owing to an
increase in 2,3-DPG.
B. Hemoglobin-oxygen affinity increases, owing to a
decrease in 2,3-DPG.
C. Hemoglobin-oxygen affinity decreases, owing to a
decrease in 2,3-DPG.
D. Hemoglobin-oxygen affinity decreases, owing to an
increase in 2,3-DPG.
Hemoglobin-oxygen affinity increases, owing to a
decrease in 2,3-DPG.
138
The temperature range for maintaining red blood
cells and whole blood during shipping is:
A. 0-4 °C
B. 1-6 °C
C. 1-10 °C
D. 20-24 °C
1-10 °C
139
. If the seal is entered or broken on a unit of Red Blood
Cells stored at 1-6 °C, what is the maximum allowable
storage period, in hours?
A. 6
B. 24
C. 48
D. 72
24
140
A unit of Red Blood Cells that expires in 32 days has
just been irradiated. The expiration date of this unit will:
A. Remain the same
B. Be reduced by 4 days
C. Be reduced by 14 days
D. Be increased by 2 days
Be reduced by 4 days
141
Which of the following is proper procedure for
preparation of platelets from whole blood?
A. Light spin followed by a hard spin
B. Light spin followed by 2 hard spins
C. 2 Light spins
D. Hard spin followed by a light spin
Light spin followed by a hard spin
142
What percentage of red blood cells must be retained
when preparing Red Blood Cells Leukocytes Reduced?
A. 75%
B. 80%
C. 85%
D. 90%
85%
143
What is a special condition for the storage of
platelets?
A. Room temperature, 20°C–24°C
B. No other components may be stored with platelets
C. Platelets must be stored upright in separate
containers
D. Platelets require constant agitation at 20°C–24°C
Platelets require constant agitation at 20°C–24°C
144
When is the expiration date of whole blood in CPDA1 collected on August 7, 2024?
A. August 7, 2025
B. September 11, 2024
C. August 28, 2024
D. August 12, 202
September 11, 2024
145
The most common anticoagulant used for apheresis
procedures is:
A. Heparin
B. Sodium fluoride
C. Warfarin
D. Citrate
Citrate
146
*Cryoprecipitated AHF contains all of the following,
EXCEPT:
A. Cryoglobulin
B. Fibronectin
C. Fibrinogen
D. Red Blood Cells
Red Blood Cells
147
*FFP is used to treat the following, EXCEPT:
A. DIC
B. Liver Disease
C. Vitamin K Deficiency
D. Idiopathic Thrombocytopenic Purpura
Idiopathic Thrombocytopenic Purpura
148
Prothrombin complex concentrates are used to treat
which of the following?
A. Factor IX deficiency
B. Factor VIII deficiency
C. Factor XII deficiency
D. Factor XIII deficiency
Factor IX deficiency
149
FFP from a Group A, Rh-positive donor may be safely
transfused to a patient who is:
A. Group A, Rh-negative
B. Group B, Rh-negative
C. Group AB, Rh-positive
D. Group AB, Rh-negative
Group A, Rh-negative
150
Use of only male donors as a source of plasma
intended for transfusion is advocated to reduce which
type of reaction?
A. Allergic
B. TRALI
C. Hemolytic
D. TACO
TRALI
151
Thawed plasma must be stored at:
A. ≥-18 °C
B. 1-6 °C
C. 1-10 °C
D. 20-24 °C
1-6 °C
152
Which is the most likely reason frozen deglycerolized
red blood cells would be used?
A. A patient with antibodies to a high-frequency
antigen
B. Pregnant women requiring intrauterine
transfusions
C. Emergency transfusion situations
D. Group AB Rh-negative patients
A patient with antibodies to a high-frequency
antigen
153
Which type of transplantation requires all cellular
blood components to be irradiated?
A. Bone marrow
B. Heart
C. Liver
D. Kidney
Bone marrow
154
Select the appropriate product for a bone marrow
transplant patient with anemia:
A. RBCs
B. Irradiated RBCs
C. Leukoreduced RBCs
D. Washed RBCs
Irradiated RBCs
155
Which fluid should be used to dilute RBCs?
A. 0.9% saline
B. 5% dextrose and water
C. Immune globulin
D. Lactated Ringer solution
0.9% saline
156
Which of the following can be given to an apheresis
donor to increase the number of circulating
granulocytes?
A. DDAVP
B. Hydroxyethyl starch (HES)
C. Immune globulin
D. G-CSF
G-CSF
157
The specificity of the antibody in warm autoimmune
hemolytic anemia (WAIHA) is most often associated
with which of the following blood group systems?
A. ABO
B. Kell
C. Kidd
D. Rh
Rh
158
*The following are delayed immune transfusion
reactions, EXCEPT:
A. Hemolytic
B. TA-GVHD
C. Hemosiderosis
D. PTP
Hemosiderosis
159
Hypotension, nausea, flushing, fever and chills are
symptoms of which of the following transfusion
reactions?
A. Allergic
B. Circulatory overload
C. Hemolytic
D. Anaphylactic
Hemolytic
160
. A trauma patient who has just received 10 units of
blood may develop:
A. Anemia
B. Polycythemia
C. Leukocytosis
D. Thrombocytopenia
Thrombocytopenia
161
Nonimmune hemolysis can be caused during
transfusion by:
A. Use of small bore size needle
B. Use of an infusion pump
C. Improper use of a blood warmer
D. All of the above
All of the above
162
Transfusion reactions are classified according to:
A. Signs or symptoms presenting during or after 24
hours
B. Immune or nonimmune
C. Infectious or noninfectious
D. All of the above
All of the above
163
With febrile nonhemolytic transfusion reactions,
except:
A. They are self-limited.
B. Fever resolves within 2 to 3 hours.
C. Treatment is required.
D. No exception
Treatment is required.
164
The most frequent transfusion-associated disease
complication of blood transfusions is:
A. CMV
B. Syphilis
C. Hepatitis
D. HIV-1/2
Hepatitis
165
Currently, which of the following does the AABB
consider to be the most significant infectious threat
from transfusion?
A. Bacterial contamination
B. CMV
C. Hepatitis
D. HIV
Bacterial contamination
166
The major crossmatch will detect a(n):
A. Group A patient mistyped as Group O
B. Unexpected red cell antibody in the donor unit
C. Rh-negative donor unit mislabeled as Rh-positive
D. Recipient antibody directed against antigens on the
donor red cells
Recipient antibody directed against antigens on the
donor red cells
167
A 10% red cell suspension in saline is used in a
compatibility test. Which of the following would most
likely occur?
A. False-positive result due to antigen excess
B. False positive result due to the prozone
phenomenon
C. False-negative result due to the prozone
phenomenon
D. False-negative result due to antigen excess
False-negative result due to antigen excess
168
While performing an antibody screen, a test reaction
is suspected to be rouleaux. A saline replacement test is
performed and the reaction remains. What is the best
interpretation?
A. Original reaction of rouleaux is confirmed
B. Replacement test is invalid and should be repeated
C. Original reaction was due to true agglutination
D. Antibody screen is negative
Original reaction was due to true agglutination
169
What is the purpose of the immediate spin
crossmatch?
A. Detect clinically significant alloantibodies in
recipient
B. Detect ABO incompatibility between donor and
recipient
C. Verify the correct blood sample from recipient was
collected
D. Verify the presence of IgM alloantibodies in the
recipient
Detect ABO incompatibility between donor and
recipient
170
The crossmatch is performed using:
A. Donor's serum and recipient's red cells
B. Donor's red cells and recipient's serum
C. Donor's serum and reagent red cells
D. Recipient's serum and reagent red cells
Donor's red cells and recipient's serum
171
A genetic state in which no detectable trait exists is
called:
A. Recessive
B. Dominant
C. Incomplete dominance
D. Amorph
Amorph
172
Most blood group antigens are expressed as a result
of which of the following?
A. Autosomal recessive inheritance
B. X-linked dominant inheritance
C. Y-linked recessive inheritance
D. Autosomal codominant inheritance
Autosomal codominant inheritance
173
In which of the following is the IAT utilized?
A. Reverse ABO testing
B. Immediate spin crossmatch
C. C antigen testing
D. Antibody detection (screening) test
Antibody detection (screening) test
174
A negative result using solid phase adherence assays
will demonstrate indicator red cells as:
A. A red blood cell pellet in the bottom of the well
B. A diffuse pattern of red blood cells throughout the
well
C. Red blood cell clumps symmetrically located
throughout the well
D. A red supernatant, indicating lysis
A red blood cell pellet in the bottom of the well
175
A false-positive indirect antiglobulin test can be the
result of:
A. Insufficient saline washing of red cells
B. Inadequate incubation time
C. Overcentrifugation
D. Dissociation of cell bound IgG
Overcentrifugation
176
177
A group B, Rh-negative patient has a positive DAT.
Which of the following situations would occur?
A. All major crossmatches would be incompatible
B. The weak D test and control would be positive
C. The antibody screening test would be positive
D. The forward and reverse ABO groupings would not
agree
The weak D test and control would be positive
178
Which of the following tests is most commonly used
to detect antibodies attached to a patient's red blood
cells in vivo?
A. Direct antiglobulin
B. Complement fixation
C. Indirect antiglobulin
D. Immunofluorescence
Direct antiglobulin
179
Polyspecific AHG reagent contains:
A. Anti-IgG and anti-IgA
B. Anti-IgG and anti-IgM
C. Anti-IgG and anti-C3d
D. Anti-IgA and Anti-C3d
Anti-IgG and anti-C3d
180
*Anti-Sda may be identified by neutralization with:
A. Urine
B. Hydatid cyst fluid
C. Plasma
D. Human breast milk
Urine
181
The process of separation of antibody from its
antigen is known as:
A. Diffusion
B. Adsorption
C. Neutralization
D. Elution
Elution
182
Which of the following antibodies does not match
the others in terms of optimal reactive temperature?
A. Anti-Fya
B. Anti-Jkb
C. Anti-N
D. Anti-U
Anti-N
183
A request for 8 units of RBCs was received for patient
LF. The patient has a negative antibody screen, but 1 of
the 8 units was 3+ incompatible at the AHG phase.
Which of the following antibodies may be the cause?
A. Anti-K
B. Anti-Lea
C. Anti-Kpa
D. Anti-Fyb
Anti-Kpa
184
*An Rh(+) father and an Rh(-) mother had their first
child without any complications or treatment. What are
the chances of a mother-fetus incompatibility should
they decide to have a second child?
A. 0%
B. Less than 50%
C. More than 50%
D. 100%
More than 50%
185
A mother is group A, with anti-D in her serum. What
would be the preferred blood product if an intrauterine
transfusion is indicated?
A. O, Rh-negative RBCs, Irradiated, CMV safe
B. O, Rh-negative RBCs, Irradiated, CMV safe, HbSnegative
C. A, Rh-negative RBCs, Irradiated, CMV safe
D. A, Rh-negative RBCs, Irradiated, CMV safe HbSnegative
O, Rh-negative RBCs, Irradiated, CMV safe, HbSnegative
185
ABO HDFN differs from Rh HDFN in that:
A. Rh HDFN is clinically more severe than ABO HDFN
B. The DAT is weaker in Rh HDFN than ABO HDFN
C. Rh HDFN occurs in the first pregnancy
D. The mother’s antibody screen is positive in ABO
HDN
Rh HDFN is clinically more severe than ABO HDFN
186
90. Criteria determining Rh immune globulin eligibility
include:
A. Mother is Rh-positive
B. Infant is Rh-negative
C. Mother has not been previously immunized to the
D antigen
D. Infant has a positive direct antiglobulin test
Mother has not been previously immunized to the
D antigen
187
Which of the following is not true of an exchange
transfusion when an infant is suffering from HDN?
A. Removes unconjugated bilirubin
B. Reduces the amount of incompatible antibody in
the baby’s circulation
C. Removes antibody-coated red blood cells
D. Provides red blood cells of the baby’s type
Provides red blood cells of the baby’s type
188
The etiology of HDFN is characterized by:
A. IgM antibody
B. Nearly always anti-D
C. Different RBC antigens between mother and father
D. Antibody titer less than 32
Different RBC antigens between mother and father
189
Intravascular destruction of RBCs results when:
A. IgG sensitized red cells are destroyed by phagocytes
B. IgM antibodies activate complement to completion
C. Complement-sensitized red cells are destroyed by
phagocytes
D. IgG antibodies activate complement to C3b
IgM antibodies activate complement to completion
190
Autoantibodies demonstrating blood group
specificity in WAIHA are associated more often with
which blood group system?
A. Rh
B. I
C. P
D. Fy
Rh
191
The mechanism that best explains hemolytic anemia
due to penicillin is:
A. Drug-dependent antibodies reacting with drugcoated RBCs
B. Drug-dependent antibodies reacting in the
presence of drug
C. Drug-independent with autoantibody production
D. Nonimmunologic protein adsorption with positive
DAT
Drug-dependent antibodies reacting with drugcoated RBCs
192
Immune hemolytic anemias may be classified in
which of the following categories?
A. Alloimmune
B. Autoimmune
C. Drug-induced
D. All of the above
All of the above
193
Hemolytic transfusion reactions are the most
serious type of reactions to blood transfusion. The
majority of hemolytic transfusion reactions are caused
by which errors?
A. Blood typing
B. Antibody identification
C. Clerical
D. Crossmatching
Clerical
194
Before blood is issued for transfusion, a patient’s
previous blood bank records must be reviewed. Which
of the following is not included in this review process?
A. ABO group and Rh type
B. Clinically significant antibodies
C. Serious adverse reactions
D. Hepatitis testing
Hepatitis testing
195
. A diamond in a flow chart indicates:
A. An activity that is occurring
B. A decision point
C. A start or stop point in the process
D. None of the above
A decision point
