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KC-46 PIQ > KC-46 Limitations & Operational Information > Flashcards

KC-46 Limitations & Operational Information Flashcards

1
Q

What is the maximum operating altitude of the KC-46A?

A

40,100 feet PA

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2
Q

What is the maximum takeoff and landing altitude of the KC-46A?

A

9,500 feet PA

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3
Q

What is the maximum takeoff and landing tailwind component?

A

10 knots

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4
Q

What is the maximum runway slope permitted for takeoff and landing in the KC-46A?

A

+/- 2%

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5
Q

What is the maximum operating altitude with the AR receptacle doors open?

A

35,000 feet PA

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6
Q

If icing conditions greater than _______ are encountered while AR equipment is deployed, discontinue AR and stow all equipment until exiting the icing condition.

A

Trace

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7
Q

The minimum fuel temperature to begin AR offload is _______. Fuel temperature on the offloading tanker must be greater than or equal to _______ prior to commencing AR onload.

A

-40 degrees C

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8
Q

Takeoff or landing is prohibited on a contaminated runway when the Pilot Reported Braking Action conditions are _______ or worse (Runway Condition Code _______ or less).

A

Medium-to-Poor; 2

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9
Q

For takeoff, EMCON 4 must remain OFF until climbing through _______. For landing, EMCON 4 must remain OFF below _______ during approach and landing.

A

400 feet AGL; 1000 feet AFE

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10
Q

The use of _______ for RNP approaches is prohibited.

A

Mil-GPS

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11
Q

Severe turbulent air penetration speed is _______/_______, whichever is _______.

A

290 KIAS/0.78M, lower

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12
Q

Do not transmit on HF radios during _______ operations, or during _______ within _______ of another aircraft.

A

Ground refueling, AR, 30 feet

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13
Q

Do not transmit on any HF radios when any personnel are within _______ of the aircraft hull, using _______ connected to the exterior of the airplane, or in proximity to an _______.

A

30 feet, headsets, open aircraft door

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14
Q

The APU starter duty cycle is a maximum of _______ consecutive starts or attempts within a _______ period.

A

3; 60 minute

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15
Q

Do not use FLCH on final approach below _______.

A

1000 feet AFE

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16
Q

The maximum allowable in-flight difference between Captain and F/O altitude displays for RVSM operation is _______. The maximum allowable on-the-ground differences between Captain and F/O altitude displays for RVSM operation is _______ at sea level, _______ at 5,000 feet, and _______ at 10,000 feet.

A

200 feet; 40 feet; 45 feet; 50 feet

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17
Q

On the ground with the aircraft powered, at least one AC pack must be on for OAT at or above _______. If dispatching with the FWD EQUIP COOLING selector in STBY, AC packs must be on for OAT at or above _______. The maximum OAT for dispatching with the FWD EQUIP COOLING selector in STBY is _______.

A

33 degrees C or 91 degrees F; 18 degrees C or 65 degrees F; 35 degrees C or 95 degrees F

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18
Q

Avoid weather radar operation _______.

A

In a hangar

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19
Q

What is the maximum taxi weight of the KC-46A?

A

416,000 pounds

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20
Q

What is the maximum takeoff weight for the KC-46A?

A

415,000 pounds

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21
Q

What is the maximum landing weight of the KC-46A?

A

310,000 pounds

22
Q

What is the maximum zero fuel weight of the KC-46A?

A

273,000 pounds

23
Q

With autopilot disengaged, disregard any NO AUTOLAND annunciation that occurs at or below _______ while flying an IAN approach.

A

100 feet AGL

24
Q

After takeoff, the autopilot must not be engaged below _______.

A

200 feet AGL

25
Q

Use of _______ with the autopilot engaged is prohibited.

A

Aileron trim

26
Q

Without LAND 2 or LAND 3 annunciated, the autopilot must be disengaged below _______.

A

190 feet radio altitude

27
Q

Do not use the autopilot below _______ at airports with a field elevation greater than _______.

A

100 feet radio altitude; 6,200 feet

28
Q

Automatic approaches must be terminated at no less than _______ for airport field elevations between _______ and _______.

A

100 feet AGL; 6,200 feet; 9,500 feet

29
Q

Autoland is limited to flaps _______.

A

25 or 30

30
Q

What are the maximum allowable headwind, crosswind, and tailwind components when landing weather minima are predicated on autoland operations?

A

Headwind: 25 knots
Crosswind: 25 knots
Tailwind: 10 knots

31
Q

Use of APU bleed air above _______ is prohibited.

A

17,000 feet PA

32
Q

During takeoff, the center tank may contain up to _______ of fuel with less than full _______ tanks provided the _______ weight plus actual ZFW does not exceed the maximum ZFW, and CG limits are observed.

A

22,050 pounds; main; actual zero fuel

33
Q

For dispatch with fuel temperature below 5 degrees C/41 degrees F, limit fuel quantity in the forward tank to no greater than _______, and in the aft tank no greater than _______.

A

10,700 pounds; 32,100 pounds

34
Q

Landing with fuel in the _______ tank(s) is prohibited under non-failure conditions.

A

Body

35
Q

When any body tank contains fuel, use of the FUEL OFF switch to offload fuel is limited to a maximum of _______ above the entered offload amount,

A

3,000 pounds

36
Q

Fuel density must be between the minimum allowable fuel density of _______ and the maximum allowable fuel density of _______.

A

6.1 LB/GAL; 7.1 LB/GAL

37
Q

Jettison fuel while _______ is prohibited.

A

On the ground

38
Q

CDS operation is prohibited when the KC-46A TAT indicates below _______. WARPs operation is prohibited when the TAT is below _______.

A

-33 degrees C; -40 degrees C

39
Q

The maximum altitude with flaps extended is _______.

A

20,000 feet PA

40
Q

Avoid rapid and large alternating control inputs, especially in combination with large changes in pitch, roll, or yaw (e.g., large slide slip angles) as they may result in _______ at any speeds, including below _______.

A

Structural failure, VA

41
Q

The use of look-ahead terrain alerting and terrain display functions are prohibited within _______ of takeoff, approach, or landing at an airport or runway not contained in the GPWS database.

A

15 NM

42
Q

With the boom or any drogue deployed, do not exceed _______ wheel and/or _______ pedal inputs, and avoid abrupt control movements in all axes. AR flight maneuvering load acceleration limits are _______.

A

Half; half; +1.5g - +0.5g

43
Q

Operation above _______ with the boom deployed is limited to the extent required to perform a breakaway maneuver or required emergency procedure.

A

325 KIAS or 0.84M

44
Q

Normal WARP operation is limited to flaps _______.

A

UP, 1, and 5

45
Q

During cases of emergency or urgent operational need, WARP drogues can be safely retracted up to _______. The left WARP coupler shroud may be dented/damaged by contact with the WARP exit tunnel upon retraction at airspeeds above _______.

A

325 KIAS or 0.84M; 275 KIAS

46
Q

The boom contact envelope is between _______ left and right roll, _______ elevation, and _______ telescope extension. The largest selectable boom disconnect envelope is _______ left and right roll, _______ degrees elevation, and _______ telescope extension.

A

10 degrees; 25 - 35 degrees; 6 - 21 feet; 25 degrees; 20 - 40 degrees; 6 - 21 feet

47
Q

What are the memory items for an aborted engine start?

A

FUEL CONTROL switch (affected engine)……. CUTOFF

48
Q

What are the memory items for an ENGINE FIRE or Engine Severe Damage or Separation?

A

A/T ARM switch……. OFF
Thrust level (affected engine)…….Confirm…….Idle
FUEL CONTROL switch (affected engine)…….Confirm…….CUTOFF
Engine fire switch (affected engine)…….Confirm…….Pull

49
Q

What are the memory items for Smoke, Fire or Fumes?

A

Don oxygen masks and smoke goggles, as needed…….(ALL)
Establish crew and cabin communications…….(ALL)

50
Q

What are the memory items for Dual Engine Failure?

A

ENG START selectors (both)……. FLT
Thrust levers (both)……. Idle
FUEL CONTROL switches (both)……. CUTOFF, then RUN

51
Q

What are the memory items for CABIN ALTITUDE or Rapid Decompression?

A

Don the oxygen masks……. (ALL)
Establish crew communications……. (ALL)

52
Q

What are the five reasons to abort an engine start?

A
  1. EGT does not increase by 20 seconds after the fuel control switch is moved to RUN
  2. There is no N1 rotation by 40% N2
  3. EGT quickly nears or exceeds the start limit
  4. N2 is not at idle by 2 minutes after the fuel control switch is moved to RUN
  5. Oil pressure indication is not normal by the time that the engine is stabilized at idle

KC-46 PIQ (4 decks)

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