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RUSVM Anesthesiology > Lab Final > Flashcards

Flashcards in Lab Final Deck (90):
1

Which ECG diagnosis indicaes a complete absence of electrical activity?

Asystole

2

Which of the following is the concentration of an anesthetic preventing movement in 50% of patients exposed to a noxious stimulus?

a. Maximum alveolar concentration

b. Minimum alveolar concentration

c. Vaporizer

d. None of the above

b. Minimum alveolar concentration

3

Which of the following drugs is a class 1B antiarrhythmic agent used commonly to treat ventricular arrhythmias?

a. Atenolol

b. Esmolol

c. Lidocaine

d. Dopamine

c. Lidocaine

4

Which of the following induction agents is contraindicated in cats with cardiac or renal disease?

a. Dopamine

b. Alfaxalone

c. Etomidate

d. Ketamine

d. Ketamine

5

Which common induction agent should be used in very low doses or not at all in shocky patients?

a. Etomidate

b. Propofol

c. Benzodiazepine

d. Fetanyl

b. Propofol

6

Which two ECG rhythms are treated with defibrillation ("shockable")?

Ventricular fibrillation Pulseless ventricular tachycardia

7

True/False: Inhalants administered at >1 MAC should be avoided in patietns with increased ICP.

True

8

What is the primary side effect of acepromazine?

a. Vasodilation and hypotension

b. Vasodilation and hypertension

c. Vasoconstriction and hypertension

d. Vasoconstrction and hypotension

a. Vasodilation and hypotension

9

"Triple drip" is an injectable anesthetic mixture commonly used in which species?

a. Dogs

b. Swine

c. Equine

d. Cats

c. Equine

10

What is the diagnosis for the pictured capnograph waveform?

Q image thumb

CO2 rebreathing

11

Which species is especially prone to tracheal tears due to imporper cuff inflation or breathing tube traction?

Cats

12

What is the filling pressure and volume of an O2 E cylinder?

2200 psi and 660L

13

Which of the following sedatives produce vasoconstriction, reflex bradycardia, and decreased CO?

a. Benzodiazepines

b. Opioids

c. Alpha 2 agonists

d. Phenothiazines

c. Alpha 2 agonists

14

What is the PaO2 corresponding to a SpO2 of 90%?

60 mmHg

15

Histamine release may occur with IV administraction of which opioid?

a. Fetanyl

b. Hydromorphone

c. Oxymorphone

d. Morphine

d. Morphine

16

What species is most likely to develop malignant hyperthermia?

Pigs

17

Which group of animals should be extubated with the ETT cuff inflated?

Ruminants

18

Serum sodium levels are a special concern when anesthetizing patients with this disease.

Diabetes insipidus

19

You should check a coagulation profile before surgery in patients with dysfunction in this organ:

liver

20

Bradycardia is the primary indication for administering which class of drug?

a. Phenothiazine

b. Anticholinergics

c. Benzodiazepines

d. Opioids

b. Anticholinergics

21

Which of the following is an alpha and beta agonist that is primarily used for CPR?

a. Ephedrine

b. Epinephrine

c. Dopamine

d. Phenylephrine

b. Epinephrine

22

Which of the following can cause hyperglycemia and should therfore be avoided in patients with diabetes mellitus?

a. Anticholinergics

b. Benzodiazepines

c. Opioids

d. Alpha 2 agonists

d. Alpha 2 agonists

23

What is the treatment for a patient with the following arterial blood gas: pH = 7.238, pCO2 = 68, pO2 = 483, HCO3 = 29, BE = 2

IPPV

24

Which of the following would you least likely see after induction with acepromazine and butorphanol?

a. Sedation

b. Mild analgesia

c. Vomiting

d. All the above

c. Vomiting

25

Which of the following is commonly seen with the use of Propofol?

a. Increased inrtacranial pressure

b. Hypoventilation and Hypotension

c. Vasodilation and hypertension

d. Vasoconstriction and reflex bradycardia

b. Hypoventilation and Hypotension

26

Which of the following do you not want to do when intubating a sheep?

a. Place lube on the cuff before intubating

b. Use the laryngoscope to help guide you when intubating

c. Intubate when the patient is chewing

d. Hold the head extended up towards the ceiling

c. Intubate when the patient is chewing

27

Which of the following is not indicative of a pulse ox?

a. Measures SpO2 with a 2% inaccuracy

b. Measures PaO2 with a 2% inaccuracy

c. A thick pigmented tongue can affect the reading

d. Not as important to use in patients breathing 100% O2

b. Measures PaO2 with a 2% inaccuracy

28

Which of the following is not a cause of hypercapnia?

a. Stuck inspiratory valves

b. Exhausted soda lime

c. Decreased % saturation of Hb in O2

d. Too deep under anesthesia

c. Decreased % saturation of Hb in O2

29

Which artery do you measure blood pressure on a sheep?

a. Auricular artery

b. Dorsal pedal artery

c. Median artery

d. Transverse facial artery

c. Median artery

30

Which of the following is in normal range for a dog under anesthesia?

a. PaO2 of 300 mmHg breathing 100% oxygen

b. Lactate of 4 mmol/L

c. Temperature of 100 degrees F

d. PaCO2 of 25 mmHg

c. Temperature of 100 degrees F

31

Which of the following is the correct lead placement in large animals?

a. Lead II: white on right arm and red on left leg

b. Lead I: white on right jugular furrow, black on apex of heart, and red caudal to that

c. Lead I: black on left jugular furrow, white on apex of heart, and red caudal to that

d. Lead II: red on right arm and black on left leg

b. Lead I: white on right jugular furrow, black on apex of heart, and red caudal to that

32

How many liters are left in an E tank if it shows 1, 100 psi remaining?

330 L

33

How do you know if you're properly intubated?

a. You can visualize the arytenoids

b. The ET CO2 reads 35 mmHg

c. There is condensation in the tube

d. All the above

d. All the above

34

Interpret the following blood gas in a dog: pH = 7.25, PaCO2 = 50 mmHg, TCO2= 25 mEq/L

a. Acidemia with respiratory alkalosis

b. Acidemia with respiratory acidosis

c. Alkalosis with metabolic acidosis

d. Alkasosis with metabolic alkalosis

b. Acidemia with respiratory acidosis

35

Which of the following do you want to use in a patient that is 2.5 kg?

a. Mapelson F

b. Universal F

c. Circle system

d. None of the above

a. Mapelson F

36

An O2 E cylinder tank has 210L remaining with a flow rate of 1.5 L/min. How many minutes do you have until the tank is empty?

140 minutes

37

You have a dog under anesthesia with an MAP of 42 and HR of 30 bpm. Which of the following drugs would you use to treat him?

a. Acepromazine

b. Atropine

c. Xylazine

d. Propofol

b. Atropine

 

**he is hypotensive and bradycardic so we use atropine which will result in increased BP and HR

38

Which of the following is not a common complication of ruminants under anesthesia?

a. Excessive salivation

b. Ruminal tympany

c. Hyperventilation

d. Regurgitation

c. Hyperventilation

39

Which of the following is not true about acepromazine?

a. Antiemetic

b. Hypotension

c. Analgesic

d. Antiarrhythmic

c. Analgesic

40

Which receptors do anticholinergics work on?

a. Muscarinic antagonists on acetylcholine receptors

b. Nicotinic agonists on acetylcholine receptors

c. GABA agonists

d. Partial mu agonist

a. Muscarinic antagonists on acetylcholine receptors

41

What is the main side effect of mechanical ventilation?

a. Hypercapnia

b. Hypoventilation

c. Hypotension

d. Hyperventilation

c. Hypotension

42

What is the action of acepromazine?

a. Vasodilation and hypertension

b. Strong vasoconstrictor and reflex bradycardia

c. Vasodilation and hypotension

d. Vasoconstriction and hypertension

c. Vasodilation and hypotension

43

What is the role of the quick flush?

a. Delivers O2 directly to the patient at 5 mL/min

b. Increases the pressure in the system

c. Increases the CO2 concentration to the patient

d. Decreases the pressure within the system to 50 psi to the flowmeter

b. Increases the pressure in the system

44

What is true regarding the rebreathing system?

a. Circle system contains dead space

b. Unidirectional flow contains dead space

c. Y tube and capnograph constitute dead space

d. Universal F is used for patients that are less than 3 kg

c. Y tube and capnograph constitute dead space

45

Which of the following drugs would you use to induce vomiting in your canine patient?

a. Fetanyl

b. Methadone

c. Cerenia

d. Hydromorphone

d. Hydromorphone

46

Which of the following is true regarding benzodiazepines?

a. Vasodilation and hypertension are a major side effect

b. They shouldn't be used in your at risk or hemodynamically unstable patients

c. They have minimal cardiovascular and respiratory effects

d. They're strong vasoconstrictors and can lead to reflex bradycardia

c. They have minimal cardiovascular and respiratory effects

47

What is true about a mixed mu agonist like Butorphenol?

a. They activate one receptor type and inhibit the other

b. They bind to receptors but don't activate them

c. They activate receptors but don't trigger a full response even at high doses

d. Activate receptors and trigger full tissue responses

a. They activate one receptor type and inhibit the other

48

Which of the following is false regarding the ECG machine?

a. It measures the contractility of the heart and electrical activity

b. It determines the HR and rhythm

c. Used to help diagnose hyperkalemia or chamber enlargement

d. It can give clues about mocardial oxygenation and perfusion abnormalities

a. It measures the contractility of the heart and electrical activity

 

**doesn't measure contractility of the heart

49

What is false about breathing systems?

a. The O2 flush valve bypasses the vaporizer and delivers O2 to the patient at a high pressure

b. Mapelson F uses soda lime and unidirectional valves

c. There is no dead space in the circle system becuase it has unidirectional valves

d. Universal F uses a soda lime and unidirectional valves

b. Mapelson F uses soda lime and unidirectional valves

50

Which of the following is false regarding ketamine?

a. Its the most common induction drug used in equine

b. It shoulnd't be used in patients with increased intraocular or intracranial pressure

c. Its a direct negative inotrope and indirectly releases catecholamines

d. Its a GABA agonist

d. Its a GABA agonist

51

Which of the following ET tubes is used in avian species?

a. Cole

b. Murphy

c. Wire

d. Armored

a. Cole

52

Which of the following is absorbed by the F air canister?

a. N2O

b. Halogenated vapors and CO2

c. Halogenated vapors

d. N2O and anesthetic vapors

c. Halogenated vapors

53

What reservoir bag would you use for a re-breathing system on a patient that is 17kg in liters?

1.5 L (17 kg x 15 mL/kg) x 6 = 1530 mL / 1000 = 1.5 L

54

What are the maintenance and induction O2 flow rates in both small and large animal?

Small animal:

Induction/Recovery: 50-100 mL/kg/min

Maintenance: 20-50 mL/kg/min

 

Large animal:

Induction/Recovery: 20-50 mL/kg/min

Maintenance: 10-20 mL/kg/min

55

True/False: pulse ox or arterial blood gas are used to measure ventilation.

False

 

**used to measure oxygenation

56

Which of the following is not a cause of hypoxemia?

a. Hypoventilation

b. Diffusion impairment

c. V/Q mismatch

d. Atelectasis

d. Atelectasis

57

Which of the following corresponds to the eyes of an animal on ketamine?

a. Eyes rotated down

b. Eyes remain fixed central

c. Reflexes of the eye are increased

d. Constricted pupils

c. Reflexes of the eye are increased

58

Which of the following is true regarding atelectasis?

a. The main cause is V/Q mismatch

b. It can be defined as “lung collapse"

c. It can cause hypoxemia

d. All the above are true

b. It can be defined as “lung collapse"

59

What is the parameter used to measure blood gas ventilation?

a. PaCO2

b. PaO2

c. TCO2

d. SpO2

a. PaCO2

60

Which stage of anesthesia is a patient with adequate muscle relaxation, weak palpebral and strong corneal reflexes?

a. Stage 2

b. Stage 3 Plane 1

c. Stage 3 Plane 2

d. Stage 3 Plane 3

c. Stage 3 Plane 2

61

Which stage of anesthesia is a patient with dilated pupils, central eyes and no palpebral/corneal reflexes?

a. Stage 2

b. Stage 3 Plane 1

c. Stage 3 Plane 2

d. Stage 3 Plane 3

e. None of the above

d. Stage 3 Plane 3

62

Which stage of anesthesia are surgeries and intubation performed?

Stage 3 Planes 2-3

63

What is the mean and systolic pressure measurements in both large and small animal anesthesia?

Smal animal:

MAP: >60

Systolic: >80

 

Large animal:

MAP: >70

Systolic: >90

64

Which blood pressure measurement do we use in a horse who has been under anesthesia for an hour?

Arterial catheter

65

What do we use to monitor ventilation?

arterial blood gas or capnograph

66

Which of the following is not a normal anesthesia limit?

a. Temp: 98-102.5 degrees F

b. ETCO2: 35-45 mmHg

c. SpO2: 98-100%

d. All the above are normal limits

c. SpO2: 98-100%

 

**95-100%

67

Which of the following is not a component of "Triple Drip"?

a. GGE

b. Ketamine

c. Xylazine

d. Guafenesin

e. Guaiacol glycerol amide

e. Guaiacol glycerol amide

68

Which of the following is not used in cats becuase it can cause Heinz body anemia?

a. Cerenia

b. Alfaxalone

c. Etomidate

d. Propofol

d. Propofol

69

Your feline patient has a MAP of 54, HR of 120 bpm, and ETCO2 of 40 mmHg. What is the first line of treatment for this cat?

a. Ketamine

b. Dopamine

c. Dobutamine

d. Epinephrine

b. Dopamine

70

Which of the following are predisposed to Sick Sinus Syndrome?

a. Miniature schnauzer

b. Doberman

c. Yorkie

d. Boxers

a. Miniature schnauzer

71

True/False: All opioids cause post op hyperthermia in cats.

True

72

Which of the following can be used in your at risk/ hyemodynamically unstable patients?

a. Alpha 2 agonists

b. Phenothiazines

c. Etomidate

d. Propofol

c. Etomidate

73

Which of the following is not an effect of Benzodiazepines?

a. Anticonvulsant

b. Analgesia

c. Sedative

d. Muscle relaxant

b. Analgesia

74

Which of the following is contraindicated in sheep becuase it can cause hypoxemia?

a. Xylazine

b. Ketamine

c. Butorphanol

d. Etomidate

a. Xylazine

75

All of the following cause vasodilation and hypotension except:

a. Acepromazine

b. Propofol

c. Thiopental

d. Etomodate

d. Etomodate

 

**has almost no CV effects

76

Which of the following is a partial mu agonist?

a. Hydromorphone

b. Oxymorphone

c. Buprenorphine

d. Butorphanol

c. Buprenorphine

77

Which of the following can be used to reverse an opioid?

a. Yohimbine

b. Antipamezol

c. Naloxone

d. Flumazenil

c. Naloxone

78

Which drug is used to treat malignant hyperthermia?

a. Guafenesin

b. Propofol

c. Thiopental

d. Dantrolene

d. Dantrolene

79

Which of the following is ideal for TIVA because of the fact that it doesn't accumulate?

a. Propofol

b. Etomidate

c. Thiopental

d. Ketamine

a. Propofol

80

Which of the following decrease CO and perfusion?

a. Epinephrine

b. Phenylephrine

c. Norepinephrine

d. Vasopressin

b. Phenylephrine

81

Which of the following can be used for CPR or anaphylactic shock?

a. Dopamine

b. Ephedrine

c. Epinephrine

d. Norepinephrine

c. Epinephrine

82

Which of the following can only be used IV?

a. Propofol

b. Etomidate

c. Thiopental

d. Ketamine

a. Propofol

83

What is the main effect of vasopressin?

a. Vasodilation

b. Vasoconstriction

c. Hypotension

d. Bronchodilation

b. Vasoconstriction

84

Which of the following is not an effect of anticholinergics?

a. Bronchodilation

b. Miosis

c. Paradoxical bradycardia

d. Sedation

b. Miosis

 

**Mydriasis

85

True/False: You don't want to give doxopram to a cariopulmonary arrested patient because it can increase oxygen demand to the brain.

True

86

There is an apneic unresponsive cat in the recovery room, rate’s are normal, what do you want to do next?

a. Chest compressions at 100 -120 per minute

b. Monitor with a Doppler

c. Give dopamine

d. Cardiac massage

a. Chest compressions at 100 -120 per minute

87

What is used to treat a paitent with this ECG?

a. Lidocaine

b. Defibrillation

c. Vasopresin

d. Dobutamine

Q image thumb

c. Vasopresin

 

**this is asystole

88

What is the waveform in this capnograph indicative of?

Q image thumb

Hyperventilation

89

What does the arrow indicate in this capnograph?

a. Measurement of ET CO2

b. Peak inspiration

c. Expiration ends

d. Alveolar plateau 

Q image thumb

a. Measurement of ET CO2

90

How can you treat a patient that is showing this kind of ECG?

 

a. Dobutamine

b. Dopamine

c. Epinephrine

d. Phenylephrine

Q image thumb

c. Epinephrine

 

**this is V-fib