Lecture 5: Chest Pain Readings Flashcards

1
Q

Classic presentation of cardiac chest pain

A

Retrosternal in the left anterior chest with crushing, tightness, squeezing, or pressure brought on by exertion but relieved with rest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What demographics are more likely to have atypical presentations of cardiac chest pain?

A
  1. Women
  2. Minorities
  3. Diabetics
  4. Elderly
  5. Psychiatric disease
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

How do patients with ACS tend to present on physical?

A

Normal.

Vitals are primarily abnormal.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What EKG findings suggest ACS?

A
  • New STE
  • Q waves
  • New LBBB
  • T-wave inversions or normalizations
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What underlying condition can elevate cTn?

A

Renal failure

This is why we want serial trops

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

If we suspect Pulmonary embolism, what criterias can help us?

A
  • PERC (PE Rule-out Criteria)
  • Wells Score
  • Revised Geneva Scores
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Classic description of aortic dissection

A

Sudden onset of severe, tearing pain that radiates to the intrascapular area of the back.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

RFs for aortic dissection

A
  • Male
  • > 50
  • Uncontrolled HTN
  • Cocaine
  • Atherosclerosis
  • Marfans/EDS
  • Valve replacement
  • Pregnant
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Classic spontaneous pneumothorax case

A
  • Sudden onset, sharp, pleuritic chest pain with dyspnea
  • Tall, slender male who smokes, COPD, and asthma
  • Decreased breath sounds on affected side
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Classic acute pericarditis case

A
  • Sharp, severe, constant, retrosternal pain radiating to back, neck or jaw
  • Pain worse when supine but relieved sitting forward
  • Pericardial friction rub
  • PR depression, diffuse STE or T-wave inversions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the MSK causes of chest pain?

A
  • Costcochondritis
  • Xiphoidynia
  • Precordial catch syndrome
  • Intercostal strain 2/2 coughing, pectoralis muscle strain
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the GI causes of chest pain?

A
  • GERD
  • Dyspepsia
  • Esophageal motility disorder

Need imaging/diagnostics to differentiate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the first medication given to patients at risk for AMI in the ED?

A

Aspirin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What criteria helps with risk stratification of AMI?

A
  • TIMI (Thrombosis in MI)
  • Global Registry of ACE
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What falls under ACS?

A
  • STEMI
  • NSTEMI
  • Unstable Angina
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

RFs for CAD

A
  • Older Male
  • FHx
  • Smoking
  • HTN
  • Hypercholesterolemia
  • DM
  • Cocaine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

If we suspect ACS, what is the workup to order?

A
  • EKG
  • Serum cTn
  • CXR
  • CBC
  • Lytes
  • PT/PTT
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

How is unstable angina dx?

A
  • Lack of STEMI or NSTEMI
  • Began in last 2 months
  • Increased S/S compared to existing angina
  • Existing angina but it also occurs at rest
  • Evidence of CAD
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

STEMI goals

A
  1. Systemic thrombolytic within 30min of arrival
  2. PCI within 90min (PREFERRED)
  3. If you can get PCI within 120 minutes, you go for PCI, even if systemic thrombolytics are available.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

MONA for ACS

A
  • Morphine
  • O2 > 95%
  • NTG
  • Aspirin chewable 160-324 mg
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

When is clopidogrel indicated for ACS?

A
  • High risk STEMI or NSTEMI.
  • Used as adjunct to ASA, but can be used alone if allergy to ASA.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

When to use LWMH/UFH for ACS?

A

Unstable angina or NSTEMI

UFH preferred for CABG.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

When is fondaparinux used in ACS?

A

Replacement of UFH in unstable angina or NSTEMI.

Also usable in STEMI without renal impairment that used streptokinase.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

When can fibrinolytics be used for STEMI?

A
  1. NO timely access to PCI
  2. Time to treat < 6-12 hrs of onset
  3. EKG showing 1mm or greater STE in 2+ contiguous leads
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

If a patient begins significant bleeding post systemic thrombolytics, what do we do?

A
  • Crystalloid + PRBCs
  • Cryoprecipitate + FFP to reverse
  • Last resort: TXA or aminocaproic acid
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What anti-ischemic drug should be given within 24h of ACS?

A

BB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is meant by low-probability ACS?

A
  • Chest pain suggest possible coronary ischemia
  • Lack of STE or depression
  • Initial cardiac biomarkers are not elevated
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

How does low-risk chest pain present?

A

Pleuritic, positional, sharp, stabbing or reproducible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What falls under the primary evaluation for ACS?

A
  • H&P
  • EKG
  • Cardiac biomarker (initial)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What are the categories to classify people into post primary evaluation of ACS?

A
  1. Acute MI
  2. Probable acute ischemia (high risk for MACE)
  3. Possible acute ischemia (intermediate risk for MACE)
  4. Possible acute ischemia (low risk for MACE)
  5. Definitely not ischemia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is the primary goal of a secondary evaluation for ACS?

A
  • Exclude MI
  • Exclude unstable angina
32
Q

Who is noninvasive stress testing recommended to in terms of risk?

A

Low to intermediate risk patients

33
Q

Initial management of suspected ACS in the ED

A
  1. MONA (morphine, oxygen, ntg, asa)
  2. Metoprolol PO
  3. DAPT vs heparin vs enoxaparin
34
Q

MC cardiomyopathy

A

DCM

Usually idiopathic

35
Q

Clinical features of DCM

A
  • S/S of acute HF due to systolic pump dysfunction
  • DOE, Orthopnea, PND
  • Rales, Dependent edema, hepatomegaly, holosystolic murmur, sometimes chest pain
36
Q

Dx of DCM

A

Echocardiogram showing

  • decreased EF
  • ventricular enlargement
  • increased systolic and diastolic volumes

A big ventricle

37
Q

Chronic therapy for DCM

A
  • Diuretics
  • Digoxin
  • ACEi
  • BBs

Edema is a common symptom

38
Q

If ventricular ectopy occurs due to DCM, what drug will treat it?

A

Amiodarone

39
Q

Clinical features of myocarditis

A
  • Myalgias, HA, rigors, fever, tachycardia
  • Chest pain with coexisting pericarditis is common
  • Pericardial friction rub
  • Severe: S/S of HF

Myocarditis is a common cause of DCM

40
Q

Management of Myocarditis

A
  • Supportive care + admission
  • ABX if bacterial is suspected
  • Monitor for HF symptoms
41
Q

What is an LVAD?

A

Left ventricular assist device, which is a pump that transfers blood from the apex of the LV to proximal aorta.

42
Q

Clinical features of an LVAD?

A
  • Continuous pumps may cause abnormal palpable pulses
  • Discernible QRS complexes
  • Whirr like heart sounds from LVAD pump
43
Q

What are the common complications of LVADs?

A
  • Infection (ABX)
  • Anemia (transfusions)
  • Bleeding
  • Thromboembolism (heparin)
44
Q

What is HCM?

A
  • Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, characterized by asymmetric LVH or RVH, resulting in decreased compliance of LV, impaired diastolic function and filling
  • Normal EF, normal CO
  • Often hereditary
45
Q

Clinical Features of HCM

A
  • Worsens with age
  • DOE is MC symptom, followed by angina, palps, and syncope
  • S4 + systolic ejection murmur at LLSB or apex without radiation
  • Murmur is enhanced by valsalva/standing
  • Murmur is decreased by squatting and passive leg elevation

Squatting increases LV filling

LLSB = lower left sternal border

46
Q

EKG findings suggestive of HCM

A
  • LVH
  • LAE
  • Deep S waves with large Q waves

Nonspecific

47
Q

Best diagnostic for HCM

A

Echocardiogram showing disproportionate septal hypertrophy

48
Q

Daily tx of HCM

A

atenolol 25-50 mg daily

49
Q

What is RCM? Common causes?

A
  • Restrictive cardiomypathy, characterized by restricted ventricular filling with diastolic dysfunction
  • Etiologies: Sarcoidosis, scleroderma, amyloidosis, idiopathic
50
Q

Clinical features of RCM

A
  • Dyspnea
  • Orthopnea
  • Pedal edema
  • Angina is uncommon in RCM
  • S3/S4, rales, JVD, kussmaul’s sign, hepatomegaly, pedal edema, or ascites
51
Q

What is the primary thing you need to distinguish RCM from?

A

Constrictive pericarditis, because it is treatable via surgery, while RCM cannot.

52
Q

Main pharm tx for RCM

A
  • Diuretics
  • ACEi
  • Underlying cause (steroids for sarcoidosis or chelation of hemochromatosis)

Edema is a common symptom.

53
Q

Etiologies for acute pericarditis

A
  • Infection
  • Malignancy
  • Drugs
  • Radiation
  • CT diseases
  • Uremia
  • Myxedema
  • Dressler’s (post-MI syndrome)
54
Q

Clinical features of acute pericarditis

A
  • Sharp or stabbing precordial/restrosternal angina radiating
  • Pain worse supine, alleviated by sitting up and leaning forward
  • Radiation to left trapezial ridge is distinct
  • Intermittent friction rub at LLSB
55
Q

How does EKG stage 1 of acute pericarditis present?

A
  • Diffuse STE, esp in I, V5, V6
  • PR depression in 2, aVF, V4-6
56
Q

How does EKG stage 2 of pericarditis present?

A
  • ST segments normalize
  • T-wave amplitude decrease
57
Q

How does EKG stage 3 of pericarditis present?

A
  • T wave inversion in leads that used to have STE
58
Q

How does EKG stage 4 of pericarditis present?

A

Normal EKG

59
Q

What EKG finding is suggestive of acute pericarditis over early repol abnormalities?

A

ST segment/T-wave amplitude ratio > 0.25 in I, V5, V6

60
Q

Management of acute pericarditis

A
  • Viral/idiopathic = NSAIDs like ibuprofen Q6h outpatient
  • Colchicine BID may prevent recurrence
  • If associated myocarditis, admit
61
Q

What autoimmune condition can cause cardiac tamponade?

A

SLE

62
Q

Clinical features of nontraumatic cardiac tamponade

A
  • Mild to severe shock
  • MC: Dyspnea
  • Tachycardia, Low SBP, narrow PP
  • Pulsus paradoxus
  • JVD
  • Distant heart sounds
  • RUQ pain (if hepatomegaly)

Beck’s triad is JVD, hypotension, distant heart sounds

63
Q

EKG findings associated with cardiac tamponade

A
  • Low voltage QRS
  • STE with PR depression
  • Electrical alternans (classic but uncommon)
64
Q

Best test for cardiac tamponade

A

Echo showing large pericardial effusion with RA or RV diastolic collapse

65
Q

Management of Cardiac tamponade

A
  • Resuscitatation
  • IV of 500-1000 mL NS to temporarily improve hemodynamics
  • Pericardiocentesis
66
Q

Clinical features of constrictive pericarditis

A
  • Similar presentation to HF and RCM
  • DOE, pedal edema, hepatomegaly, ascites
  • Kussmaul’s sign (inspiratory neck vein distention)
  • CT/MRI/Doppler Echo is best for Dx
67
Q

What features of an AAA are likely to require surgery?

A
  • > = 5.0cm
  • Symptomatic
68
Q

Clinical features of a ruptured AAA

A
  • Older male smoker with atherosclerosis presenting with sudden severe back or abd pain, hypotension, and pulsatile abdominal mass
  • Retroperitoneal rupture may cause Cullen’s, Grey-Turner, or scrotal hematoma, but is generally rare.

Cullens = periumbilical
Gray cullens = bilateral flank

69
Q

What is the MC misdiagnosis of a AAA?

A

Renal colic :(

70
Q

Imaging for AAA

A
  • Bedside Abdominal U/S can find it and its diameter
  • CT can delineate its full details and associated rupture
71
Q

Management of a AAA

A
  • Vascular consult
  • Stabilize with goal SBP of 90
  • 3-5cm = refer, 5.0cm and higher = monitor closely
72
Q

Clinical features of aortic dissection

A
  • Blood between intimal and adventitial layers of aorta
  • Acute chest pain most severe at its onset and radiating to the back
  • Ascending = anterior chest pain most commonly
  • Descending = abdominal/back pain most commonly
  • Older than 50 with hx of HTN
73
Q

Stanford classification of Aortic Dissections

A
  • Type A for ascending aorta
  • Type B for descending aorta

A = ascending

74
Q

DeBakey classification of aortic dissections

A
  • Type 1: Involvement of both ascending and descending
  • Type 2: Ascending only
  • Type 3: Descending only
75
Q

What are the unique S/S that may suggest aortic dissection?

A
  • Compression of recurrent laryngeal nerve (Hoarse voice)
  • Compression of superior cervical sympathetic ganglion (Horner’s syndrome)
  • Aortic insufficiency
76
Q

Dx of Aortic dissection

A
  • CXR: abnormal aortic contour + mediastinal widening, tracheal deviation
  • CT w/ con can detect the false lumen + identify extent of dissection (IMAGING OF CHOICE)
  • TEE if you can get it
77
Q

Management of aortic dissection

A
  • Vascular consult
  • Manage HTN via esmolol or labetalol
  • Goal HR: 60-70
  • Goal SBP: 100-120
  • Consider nitroprusside or nicardipine once inotropic blockage is achieved but SBP still > 120.