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vtt 117 - surgical tech > lecture exam 1 > Flashcards

lecture exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

how is rust formed? what is it also called?

A

compound formed when iron is exposed to oxygen and water over time, causes metal to break down and become weak; also called iron oxide

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2
Q

what is stainless steel composed of?

A

chromium and nickel

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3
Q

what is tungsten carbide? how do we identify it? why do we use it?

A

strong, durable metal; gold colored handles; can be replaced when worn out

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4
Q

when do we want to clean instruments?

A

prior to autoclaving to remove debris

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5
Q

list 3 things we want to check to inspect instruments for damage

A

alignment of jaws
stiffness/looseness of box lock
sharpness/dullness of blades

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6
Q

what can be used to lubricate instruments and protect them from rust before autoclaving?

A

surgical milk

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7
Q

Clean

A

the physical removal of organic or inorganic soils and microbial contaminants

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8
Q

Sanitize

A

removal of infectious material and pathogens

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9
Q

Contamination

A

process by which something is rendered unclean or unsterile

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10
Q

Asepsis

A

absence of pathogenic organisms

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11
Q

Sterile

A

absence of all living microorganisms including spores

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12
Q

Disinfectant

A

substance that inhibits or prevents the growth of microbes on an inanimate object

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13
Q

Antiseptic

A

substance that inhibits or prevents the growth of microbes on living tissue

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14
Q

Bacteriostatic

A

agents that prevents the growth of bacteria

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15
Q

Bactericidal

A

substance that destroys or kills bacteria

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16
Q

list 3 factors that impact the control of contamination

A

time
temperature
concentration and preparation

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17
Q

what are the 7 methods of sterilization? (know how each works)

A
  • autoclaving
  • flashing
  • boiling
  • dry heat
  • gas
  • radiation
  • cold disinfecting
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18
Q

what 3 factors does an autoclave use to sterilize?

A

heat
steam
pressure

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19
Q

3 examples of antiseptics

A

alcohol
chlorohexidine
idophors

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20
Q

3 examples of disinfectants

A

alcohol
decon quat
roccal d

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21
Q

what is the difference between aseptic and sterile?

A

sterile is the absence of all living microorganisms and spores, not just pathogens

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22
Q

what are 3 advantages to avagard?

A

quicker
not as harmful to the skin
easier (brushless and waterless)

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23
Q

to anesthetize an animal, the _______ must be anesthetized

A

brain

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24
Q

General anesthesia

A

a reversible state of unconsciousness, immobility, muscle relaxation, loss of sensation throughout the entire body

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25
Topical anesthesia
loss of sensation of a localized area by administration of a local anesthetic applied directly to the body surface or wound
26
Local anesthesia
loss of sensation in a small area of the body by the administration of a local anesthetic agent
27
Regional anesthesia
loss of sensation in a limited area of the body by administration of a local anesthetic agent in close proximity to sensory nerves
28
Pre medication
administration of medications and anesthetic agents to calm and prepare the patient for anesthetic induction
29
Anesthetic induction
process by which an animal loses consciousness and enters surgical anesthesia
30
Anesthetic maintenance
the process of keeping a patient unconscious/under general anesthesia
31
name 3 reasons we perform anesthesia
surgery restraint pain control
32
what are 3 roles of a cvt during anesthesia
- anesthetic control - operate and maintain anesthetic equipment - patient monitoring
33
where is the central respiratory system located?
medulla oblongata
34
what is the equation to calculate the rebreathing bag size?
tidal volume x 6
35
what is the equation to calculate oxygen flow rate at maintenance and induction?
maintenance: kg x 30 mL/kg/hr induction: kg x 100 mL/kg/hr
36
name the 3 main body systems effected by anesthesia
CNS pulmonary cardiovascular
37
what causes an animal to inhale?
when there is an increase in levels of CO2
38
mechanical dead space?
endotracheal tube, Y piece (machine)
39
anatomical dead space?
conducting passageways (trachea, bronchi)
40
what is 1 advantage and 1 disadvantage of an active scavenger system?
efficient; expensive
41
what is 1 advantage and 1 disadvantage of a passive scavenger?
portable and cheaper; less efficient
42
how do we control the amount of inhalant gas that goes to the patient?
the vaporizer
43
saturated vapor pressure
- Measures how likely the inhalant is to vaporize in the oxygen - Increased SVP = less amount of inhalant
44
minimum alveolar concentration? does mac increase or decrease with age?
MAC = Vapor concentration in alveoli to prevent motor response to surgical stimulus in 50% of patients; decreases with age
45
what is the blood:gas coefficient? is a lower blood:gas coefficient more or less soluble in the blood? is a lower blood:gas coeffient associated with a quicker or slower induction and recovery?
gas partition coefficient quantifies solubility; less soluble; quicker induction and recovery
46
what is the highest concentration of anesthetic gas when at the beginning of an anesthetic event? what about the end of an anesthetic event?
highest is in the machine (y-piece) in the beginning; highest in the brain during recovery
47
name 2 advantages of isoflurane and 2 advantages of sevoflurane
most common and more cost efficient; faster induction and faster recovery
48
normals: * HR * RR * Blood Pressure * SPO2 * EtCO2 * CRT * MM color
HR: 60-120; 120-180 bpm RR: 8-20 rpm blood pressure: 100-150 mmHg 60-100 mmHg 40-60 mmHg SPO2: 95-100% EtCO2: 35-45 mmHg CRT: 1-2 seconds MM: pink
49
what stage and plane of anesthesia is optimal? how are the eyes positioned during this plane? how are the eyes positioned if the animal is too light or too deep?
stage 3 plane 2; rolled ventrally; too light is central/slightly downward; too deep is central with large pupils since muscle tone is lost
50
Pre-meds
* Atropine * Butorphanol * Dexmedetomidine
51
Induction Drugs
* Ketamine * Midazolam * Propofol
52
Reversals
* Atipamezole * Naloxone
53
Other
* Epinephrine * Lidocaine * Doxapram
54
which drugs that we will use are controlled?
hydromorphone buprenorphine ketamine diazepam midazolam butorphanol
55
how many schedules of controlled substances are there
5
56
which drugs can be/are commonly mixed together?
Dexmedetomidine and butorphanol Midazolam and ketamine
57
which drugs that we use can be reversed and what is the name of the reversals?
- Atipamezole reverses Dexmedetomidine - naloxone reverses opioids
58
Tachycardia
fast heart rate
59
Bradycardia
slow heart rate
60
Hypertension
high blood pressure
61
Hypotension
low blood pressure
62
Dyspnea
difficulty breathing
63
Apnea
repeatedly stoping and starting your breathing (while sleeping)
64
Respiratory arrest
cessation of breathing; stopped breathing for a long period of tine
65
Tachypnea
rapid breathing
66
Bradynea
slow breathing
67
Cyanosis
lack of oxygen in the blood
68
Pulse deficit
there isn't a pulse beat for every heart beat
69
Cardiac arrest
the heart stops beating suddenly
70
isoflurane
inhalant
71
Sevoflurane
inhalant
72
Desflurane
inhalant
73
Nitrous Oxide – N2O
inhalant
74
Atropine
administration: injectable category: anticholinergic mechanism of action: Blocks the receptors for acetylcholine and Inhibits the vagal nerve
75
Butorphanol
administration: IV or IM category: opioid tranquilizer mechanism of action: Mixed agonist-antagonist
76
Dexmedetomidine
administration: IM or IV category: Alpha-2 agonist mechanism of action: Decreases the production of norepinephrine
77
Benzodiazepine
administration: IM or IV category: tranquilizer mechanism of action: Potentiate the effects of gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA)
78
Midazolam
administration: IV category: Benzodiazepine tranquilizer mechanism of action: Depress the CNS by increasing GABA (inhibitory neurotransmitter)
79
Diazepam
administration: IV category: Benzodiazepine tranquilizer mechanism of action: Depress the CNS by increasing GABA (inhibitory neurotransmitter)
80
Ketamine
administration: IV category: Dissociative general anesthetic mechanism of action: Causes disruption of nerve transmission of some parts and stimulates other parts. Animal feels disoriented (apart) from body
81
Propofol
administration: IV slowly category: Hypnotic Induction agent mechanism of action: Enhances the action of GABA inhibitory neurotransmitter
82
Lidocaine
administration: IV category: Local anesthetic mechanism of action: Prevents transmission of nerve impulses
83
Atipamezole
administration: Give IM (occasionally IV in emergency) category: Alpha 2 Antagonist mechanism of action: Displaces the agonist (dexmedetomidine)
84
Naloxone
administration: IM or IV category: Opioid antagonist mechanism of action: Pure mu (μ) antagonist. Has a higher affinity for mu receptor than mu agonists
85
Epinephrine
administration: IV or ET tube category: Adrenergic Catecholamine, Sympathomimetic mechanism of action: Acts on a1, β1, β2 receptors
86
Doxapram
administration: sublingually category: Analeptics mechanism of action: Stimulates respiratory center
87
Glycopyrrolate
administation: IM or IV category: Anticholinergic mechanism of action: Similar to atropine except it is less likely to cause CNS effects because it does not cross the blood-brain barrier also less likely to cause arrythmia

vtt 117 - surgical tech (8 decks)

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