Management Flashcards

(43 cards)

1
Q

Features of life threatening asthma

A

PEFR < 33% best or predicted
Oxygen sats < 92%
‘Normal’ pC02 (4.6-6.0 kPa)
Silent chest, cyanosis or feeble respiratory effort
Bradycardia, dysrhythmia or hypotension
Exhaustion, confusion or coma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Management of acute asthma

A
  1. Admit
  2. O2 15L non re breathe
  3. SABA nebulised
  4. all patients should be given 40-50mg of prednisolone orally (PO) daily, which should be continued for at least five days or until the patient recovers from the attack
  5. Ipatropium Bromide (SAMA)
  6. IV MgSO4
  7. IV aminophylline
  8. ITU AND Ventillation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

When can be discharged for asthma attack

A

been stable on their discharge medication (i.e. no nebulisers or oxygen) for 12-24 hours
inhaler technique checked and recorded
PEF >75% of best or predicted

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Difference between STEMI and NSTEMI

A

NSTEMI no ST elevation but raised cardiac biomarkers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Management of all ACS

A

MONA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is management for STEMI

A

if within 2 hours then PCI with drug eluting stent otherwise fibrinolysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Drug therapy prior to PCI

A

Asprin + prasugrel (if on oral anticoag give clopidogrel instead)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

NSTEMI management

A

Asprin 300mg and fondaparinux then measure GRACE score

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

NSTEMI conservative treatment

A

Further drug therapy
further antiplatelet (‘dual antiplatelet therapy’, i.e. aspirin + another drug)
if the patient is not at a high risk of bleeding: ticagrelor
if the patient is at a high risk of bleeding: clopidogrel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Indication for adenosine and MOA

A

SVT - transient block of AV node (A1 receptor)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Angina management

A

aspirin and a statin in the absence of any contraindication
sublingual glyceryl trinitrate to abort angina attacks
BB (atenolol) OR CCB then dual therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which CCB in angina

A

if a calcium channel blocker is used as monotherapy a rate-limiting one such as verapamil or diltiazem should be used

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What CCB not used with BB

A

Verapamil - will cause heartblock

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What CCB to be used with BB in angina

A

if used in combination with a beta-blocker then use a longer-acting dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker (e.g. amlodipine, modified-release nifedipine)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Severe - life threatening asthma in a child immediate symptomatic relief

A

salbutamol 2.5 mg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Acute exacerbation of COPD

A

Prednisolone 30mg PO 7-14 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

First line COPD treatment

A

SAMA + ICS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

When is LTOT required in COPD

A

LTOT – PaO2 <7.3 or PaO2 <8 with pulmonary hypertension, polycythemia, nocturnal hypoxaemia or peripheral oedema

19
Q

DVT anticoagulation

A

Apixaban 10mg PO 2X day

20
Q

Anti coagulation in renal failure patient

A

unfractioned heparin 5000 units SC twice daily

21
Q

What is prophylactic dose of anticoagulation

A

LMWH - Dalteparin 2500 units 1 dose in surgical patients
prophylaxis in medical patient 5000 units SC

22
Q

Neuropathic pain

A

amitriptyline, pregabalin, gabapentin
If unable to take tablets and pain localised – lidocaine patch

23
Q

Trigeminal neuralgia treatment

A

Trigeminal neuralgia – carbamazepine

24
Q

Migraine treatment

A

Acute treatment: no aura = aspirin or ibuprofen, aura = sumatriptan
Prevention: propranolol

25
Low back pain/sciatica
NSAID
26
Hypocalcaemia treatment
Calcium glutinate 10% 10ml IV
27
Symptoms Hypocalcaemia
CATS go numb - Convulsions Arrythmias tetany numbness QT prolongation
28
Hyperkalemia treatment
Calcium glutinate 10% 30ml IV
29
BPH
tamsulosin (alpha blocker) 5 alpha-reductase inhibitors e.g. finasteride
30
Addisonian crisis
Hydrocortisone 100mg IV
31
Adrenal insufficiency (Addisons) symptoms
Low aldosterone, cortisol, DHEA, androstenedione Symptoms/signs? Normocytic anaemia, weight loss, pigmentation, postural hypotension, mood changes, GI changes (N&V, diarrhoea, constipation) Metabolic acidosis, hyponatraemia, hyperkalaemia
32
Addisons diagnosis
Synacthen test
33
Hyper aldosteronism - Adrenal adenoma conns
High aldosterone Symptoms/signs? Hypertension Metabolic alkalosis, hypernatraemia, hypokalaemia Diagnosis? #1 aldosterone:renin ratio, #2 CT
34
Conns treatment
100–400 mg daily, may be used for long-term maintenance if surgery inappropriate, use lowest effective dose. Then resection
35
Pregnant woman UTI
first-line: nitrofurantoin (should be avoided near term) second-line: amoxicillin or cefalexin trimethoprim is teratogenic in the first trimester and should be avoided during pregnancy Nitrofurantoin 50mg PO 4x day
36
When to give trimethoprim
Third trimester
37
Best antiemetic for Parkinson's disease
Domperidone 10mg PO
38
Best antiemetic for vertigo and motion sickness
Cyclizine
39
Best anti emetic for palliative care
cyclizine, levopromazinzine
40
Chemotherapy induced N+V
Acute – ondansetron Delayed – metoclopramide
41
Treatment for Hyperemesis gravidarum
Promethazine
42
Meningitis in community
Benpen 600mg, 1.2g IM
43