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Part II > Management1 > Flashcards

Flashcards in Management1 Deck (145):
1

Arrange the following steps of the educational process in correct order.
1. expressing needs
2. stimulating motivation
3. recognizing needs
4. evaluating results
5. reinforcing learning
6. setting goals
7. acting to achieve goals

recognizing needs
expressing needs
stimulating motivation
setting goals
acting to achieve goals
reinforcing learning
evaluating results

2

Identify each of the following statements that are true concerning needs and learning.
• needs are driving forces that prompt a person to act
• the process of learning is continuous
• learning occurs as a person attempts to satisfy needs
• expressing needs helps to pinpoint them for the patient and dentist
• recording educational needs can be as important as recording treatment needs
• all of the above statements are true

all of the above statements are true

3

Most researchers believe that changes in behavior are a prerequisite to changes in attitude.
Behavior can be defined as a determined, purposeful unit of activity.
• both statements are true
• both statements are false
• the first statement is true, the second is false
• the first statement is false, the second is true

both statements are true

4

The principal nonverbal cue that two or more persons can use to regulate verbal communication is:
• posture
• facial expression
• eye contact
• gestures
• proximity

eye contact

5

a mutual sense of trust and openness between individuals?

rapport

6

the ability to experience the feelings of another person?

empathy

7

Which term describes a behavioral response that operates by the simple process of association of one stimulus with another?
• operant conditioning
• classical conditioning
• observational learning

classical conditioning

8

positive reinforcement, negative reinforcement, punishment & extinction are four types of ?

operant conditioning (the likelihood of a specific behavior is increased or decreased through positive or negative reinforcement each time the behavior is exhibited)

9

Which type of aggression is an act of hostility unnecessary for self-protection or preservation that is directed toward an external object or person?
• destructive aggression
• inward aggression
• constructive aggression

destructive aggression

10

Which one of the following types of patients is usually considered to be the most difficult?
• the "know-it-all" patient
• the anxious patient
• the shy patient
• the talkative patient
• the stubborn patient

the anxious patient

11

Which type of parent has an excessively demanding attitude?
• neglectful parent
• overprotective parent
• manipulative parent
• hostile parent

manipulative parent

12

Dental fear is an unpleasant mental, emotional or physiologic sensation derived from a specific dental related stimulus.
Someone who experiences fear will not necessarily be anticipating a negative event, their response will occur at the moment the unpleasant event (e.g., pain) occurs.
• both statements are true
• both statements are false
• the first statement is true, the second is false
• the first statement is false, the second is true

both statements are true

13

A 32-year-old woman visits the dental office for a routine dental cleaning. The dental hygienist discovers that the patient has not been following the home care program that was recommended six months ago. The hygienist believes that the problem is not a skills deficiency but a management deficiency instead. What is the best course of action for the hygienist?
• accept that the patient might never change her habits
• provide the patient with a pamphlet on periodontal disease
• collaborate with the dentist to determine the course of action
• go over brushing & flossing techniques

collaborate with the dentist to determine the course of action

14

Behavior shaping is also called:
• aversive conditioning
• successive approximation
• restraining
• hypnodontics

successive approximation

15

using a punishment or something unpleasant to stop an unwanted behavior

aversive conditioning (less effective than reinforcement)

16

any form of restriction of movement by a patient in the dental environment?

dental restraint

17

Which one of the following is a conceptual framework that describes a person's health behavior as an expression of his or her health beliefs?
• health maintenance model
• health role model
• health belief model
• leading circle model

health belief model

18

Behavior modification is also known as:
• behavior evaluation
• behavior therapy
• behavior shaping
• behavior training

behavior therapy

19

Five techniques are used to facilitate patient dialogue: empathy, respect, reflection, interpretation and silence.
Reflection is the explanation and understanding of the patient's comments.
• both statements are true
• both statements are false
• the first statement is true, the second is false
• the first statement is false, the second is true

the first statement is true, the second is false (it is interpretation, reflection is a response that restates or repeats a segment of the patient's statement)

20

Each of the following are ways to communicate effectively with patients EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
• describe
• evaluate
• be specific
• be responsive
• pay attention

evaluate

21

Each of the following are considered to be aversive conditions of interaction between the dentist and patient EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
• psychophysiological reactions
• stress, anxiety & fear
• preventive oral health behavior
• pain

preventive oral health behavior

22

Which of the following suggests that change does not happen in one step and people tend to progress through different stages on their way to successful change.
• ABC model (behavior theory model)
• stages of change model (SCM)
• social cognitive theory
• contemporary public health model

stages of change model (SCM)

23

Behavior is preceded by an Antecedent that sets off the behavior and is followed by a Consequence

ABC model (behavior theory model)

24

behaviors are learned through observation, modeling & motivation such as positive reinforcement

social cognitive theory

25

Which of the following is an essential part of risk management?
• veracity
• documentation
• autonomy
• negligence

documentation (legal competence, informed consent, liability, confidentiality and documentation)

26

Identify which one of the following is a false statement concerning personal protective equipment (PPE):
1. protective clothing must be worn by dental professionals when contact with blood or other bodily fluids is anticipated
2. gloves must be worn to prevent contact with blood, saliva or mucous membranes
3. wearing gloves replaces the need for handwashing
4. protective clothing must be removed before leaving the dental office
5. masks must be changed between patients

wearing gloves replaces the need for handwashing

27

Identify each of the following that is a true statement regarding the laundering of contaminated laundry in the dental setting:
1. contaminated laundry must be handled as little as possible
2. the dentist may choose to use an outside laundry service
3. the dentist or assigned office personnel may launder the clothes on-site
4. contaminated laundry should be bagged at the location of use
5. contaminated laundry should be handled with appropriate PPE
6. if contaminated laundry is transported to a laundromat, the employee must be trained in the handling of contaminated laundry

all statements are true

28

any surface directly contaminated from patient materials, gloved hands, blood, or OPIM ((other potentially infectious material)) is called?

clinical contact surface

29

a chemical agent used to destroy recognized pathogens; kills some but not all microorganisms

disinfectant

30

a germicide effective against Salmonella choleraesuis, Staphylococcal aureus and Pseudomonas aeruginosa?

hospital disinfectant

31

a disinfectant that makes the label claim tuberculocidal

intermediate level disinfectant

32

an agent capable of inactivating Mycobacterium tuberculosis

tuberculocidal

33

a germicide effective against HIV and HBV?

low level disinfectant

34

The interpretation of the Centers for Disease Control & Prevention (CDC) recommended infection control practices in dental healthcare settings varies from state to state; not all guidelines apply in all states.
The CDC recommended infection control practices in dental healthcare settings are stand-alone guidelines and are not required to be used in conjunction with OSHA practices & procedures.
• both statements are true
• both statements are false
• the first statement is true, the second is false
• the first statement is false, the second is true

both statements are false

35

Instruments in the dental practice can all be classified as either critical or noncritical.
For infection to occur, these three conditions must be present: a susceptible host, a pathogen with sufficient infectivity and numbers to cause infection, and, a portal of entry through which the pathogen may enter the host.
• both statements are true
• both statements are false
• the first statement is true, the second is false
• the first statement is false, the second is true

the first statement is false, the second is true (classified as critical, semicritical or noncritical)

36

critical instruments such as?

forceps, scalpels, bone chisels, scalers and surgical burs

37

semicritical instruments such as?

x-ray beam alignment devices, mirrors, amalgam condensers and burs

38

noncritical instruments ? come in contact with mucous membranes

do not

39

treatment of water supplies to reduce microbial counts to safe public health levels

sanitization

40

to expose food to an elevated temperature for a period of time sufficient to destroy certain diseasecausing microorganisms;

pasteurization (the target of pasteurization is the destruction of Mycobacterium tuberculosis)

41

Identify each of the following that is a true statement regarding the purpose of cleaning prior to disinfection:
1. cleaning destroys all pathogens
2. cleaning reduces the concentration of pathogens
3. cleaning removes blood and debris which can interfere with disinfection
4. cleaning is optional prior to disinfection

• cleaning reduces the concentration of pathogens
• cleaning removes blood and debris which can interfere with disinfection

42

Identify the term that BEST describes the complete destruction of all forms of microbial life, including heat-resistant bacterial spores:
• pasteurization
• sanitization
• sterilization
• disinfection

sterilization

43

three equipment options for heat sterilization include ?

the autoclave, the chemical vapor sterilizer and the dry
heat oven

44

sterilizers must be monitored for proper functioning. this is done via?

via the use of biological indicators (BI) or spore tests

45

how often spore testing of all sterilizers is recommend ?

weekly

46

Identify the type of pathogen that provides the ultimate test for efficacy of sterilization:
• fungal organisms
• HIV
• hepatitis B virus
• bacterial spores

bacterial spores

47

For a steam autoclave, identify each of the following that lists the correct temperature, pressure and time that must be used for sterilization.
• 250° F, 15 psi, 20 minutes
• 270° F, 30 psi, 08 minutes
• 270° F, 20 psi, 20 minutes
• 320° F, 20 psi, 20 minutes

• 250° F (121 °C), 15 psi, 20 minutes
• 270° F (132 °C), 30 psi, 08 minutes

48

Autoclave disadvantages?

- corrosion of unprotected carbon steel instruments
- dulling of unprotected cutting edges
- packages may remain wet at the end of a cycle
- use of hard water may leave deposits
- possible destruction of heat sensitive materials

49

For a dry heat oven, identify the correct temperature and time that must be used for sterilization.
• 375° F, 60 minutes
• 375° F, 120 minutes
• 320° F, 60 minutes
• 320° F, 120 minutes

320° F, 120 minutes
(375° F, 12 minutes for wrapped items and 6 minutes for unwrapped items)

50

For a chemical vapor sterilizer, identify the correct temperature, pressure and time that must be used for sterilization.
• 250° F, 20 psi, 20-40 minutes
• 250° F, 30 psi, 40-60 minutes
• 270° F, 15 psi, 40-60 minutes
• 270° F, 20 psi, 20-40 minutes

270° F (132 °C), 20 psi, 20-40 minutes

51

chemical vapor sterilizer advantages

- no corrosion of metal instruments including carbon steel
- no dulling of cutting edges
- suitable for orthodontic stainless wires

52

which sterile method can sterilize liquids?

steam autoclave

53

How many hours are required to kill bacterial spores when a dental instrument is placed in a 2% solution of glutaraldehyde ("cold sterilization")?
• 8 hours
• 10 hours
• 12 hours
• 24 hours

10 hours

54

Identify which one of the following is the most efficient way to kill microbes:
• cold sterilization
• heat sterilization
• glutaraldehyde
• all of the above

heat sterilization

55

• moist heat destroys bacteria by ?
• dry heat destroys bacteria by ?

• denaturation
• coagulation

56

Identify which one of the following is a false statement concerning infection control in the dental setting:
• exposure is not synonymous with infection
• do not disinfect what you can sterilize
• environmental surfaces must be sterilized between patients
• all dental patients can be treated using standard bloodborne precautions

environmental surfaces must be sterilized between patients (thorough cleaning of the surfaces is sufficient)

57

Identify which one of the following is a false statement regarding potential operator errors that may cause the failure of a spore test:
• the sterilizer was overloaded
• the sterilizer cycle was interrupted
• improper packaging was used
• inadequate time, temperature and/or pressure was used
• inadequate warm up time was completed
• mineral deposit build up

mineral deposit build up (it is an EQUIPMENT PROBLEM)

58

Identify which one of the following is a true statement concerning chemical monitoring:
• chemical monitoring is a definitive means of determining sterilization
• chemical monitoring determines if critical pressure has been reached
• chemical monitoring uses heat sensitive chemicals
• when a chemical indicator changes color, sterilization is complete
• a chemical indicator is part of the spore strip glassine envelope

chemical monitoring uses heat sensitive chemicals (not spores) confusion often exists between biological monitoring (spore testing) & chemical monitoring

59

Identify which one of the following is a false statement concerning the use of alcohol hand gels in the dental setting:
• the convenience of alcohol hand gel use helps to increase compliance with hand washing guidelines
• hand washing with an alcohol product takes less time than using soap & water
• alcohol hand gels can save busy practitioners valuable time between patients
• studies have shown that alcohol hand gels reduce microorganisms significantly better than soap & water
• alcohol hand gels cause more dryness than soap & water hand washing

hand gels cause more dryness than soap & water washing

60

Identify which one of the following is a false statement concerning when to use hand hygiene techniques in the dental setting:
• before touching a patient
• before aseptic procedures
• after donning gloves
• after touching a patient
• after touching patient surroundings

after donning gloves

61

alcohol based hand gel: if hands feel dry after ? or less of rubbing, too little product has been used

10 seconds

62

soap & water hand washing: rub hands together for at least ?

15 seconds

63

Identify which one of the following is a false statement concerning the use of disinfectants in the dental setting:
• the disinfectant used must be registered by the EPA
• each practice must maintain a written schedule for surface disinfection
• PPE must be used when using disinfectants
• when using a disinfectant, the use of vinyl exam gloves is recommended

when using a disinfectant, the use of vinyl exam gloves is recommended

64

surfaces without barriers must be cleaned and disinfected with an ? -level disinfectant

intermediate

65

Between patients, all surfaces without protective coverings must be cleaned and disinfected with an intermediate-level disinfectant.
Between patients, all protective coverings used in place of surface disinfection must be changed/replaced.
• both statements are true
• both statements are false
• the first statement is true, the second is false
• the first statement is false, the second is true

both statements are true

66

areas covered with barriers during the treatment day should be disinfected at ?

the end of the day

67

OSHA stands for?

Occupational Safety and Health Administration

68

The Occupational Safety and Health Administration's (OSHA) Bloodborne Pathogens Standard mandates that all dental healthcare professionals receive, at a minimum, the Hepatitis B vaccination series.
The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) mandates all other vaccinations.
• both statements are true
• both statements are false
• the first statement is true, the second is false
• the first statement is false, the second is true

the first statement is true, the second is false (OSHA defers to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) for all other required vaccinations and screenings)
CDC recommends influenza, mmr, varicella, tdap, hepatitis b

69

All employees with potential exposure to bloodborne pathogens are required to have the Hepatitis B vaccination.
The vaccination record of each employee must be kept for 30 years beyond the employee's last day of employment in the practice.
• both statements are true
• both statements are false
• the first statement is true, the second is false
• the first statement is false, the second is true

both statements are true

70

post vaccination titer testing for hepatitis b must be done ? months after the original vaccine series is completed, its documentation is treated like an employee medical record and kept for ? years from last date of employment

• 1 - 2
• 30

71

A booster dose of the Hepatitis B vaccine is required.
The Hepatitis B vaccine series requires that at least 16 weeks elapse between dose 1 and dose 3.
• both statements are true
• both statements are false
• the first statement is true, the second is false
• the first statement is false, the second is true

the first statement is false, the second is true (and at least 8 weeks must elapse between doses 2 & 3)

72

if the employee is still negative after a second vaccine series, the employee is considered ? and should be tested for ?

• a non-responder
• chronic HBV infection

73

contact dermatitis is classified as ?

either irritant or allergic

74

Identify which one of the following is the most common form of a glove-associated reaction seen on the hands of health care professionals:
• irritant contact dermatitis
• latex allergy /type I immediate hypersensitivity
• allergic contact dermatitis/type IV delayed hypersensitivity
• fungal infection of the cuticles

irritant contact dermatitis

75

type IV hypersensitivity can result from exposure to ?

• accelerators and other chemicals used in the manufacture of rubber gloves
• can result from exposure to other chemicals found in the dental practice setting

76

type IV hypersensitivity often manifests as ?

a rash beginning hours after contact

77

• type I hypersensitivity to ?
• begins within ?
• symptoms ?

• latex proteins
• minutes of exposure but can sometimes occur hours later
• runny nose, sneezing, itchy eyes, scratchy throat, hives & itchy burning sensations

78

Identify each of following that is a true statement concerning providing safe treatment for patients with possible or documented latex allergy:
1. be aware of common predisposing conditions (e.g., allergies to avocados, kiwis, nuts, or bananas)
2. be familiar with the different types of hypersensitivity immediate and delayed
3. frequently clean all working areas contaminated with latex powder/dust
4. frequently change ventilation filters and vacuum bags used in latex-contaminated areas
5. have latex-free kits (e.g., dental treatment and emergency kits) available at all times
6. be aware that allergic reactions can be provoked from indirect contact as well as direct contact

all of the statements are true

79

Identify each of following that is a true statement concerning hepatitis C virus (HCV) infection:
1. injection drug users are at risk for HCV infection
2. HCV infection is the leading indication for liver transplants in the United States
3. HCV infection signs and symptoms may include fever, fatigue, dark urine, loss of appetite, nausea, vomiting and jaundice
4. 70-80% of persons with HCV infection are asymptomatic
5. there is no cure for HCV infection

all of the statements are true

80

Identify which one of the following is an option for treating a patient with a confirmed latex allergy:
• wear vinyl or nitrile gloves
• wear hypoallergenic latex gloves
• do not wear any gloves
• refuse to treat the patient

wear vinyl or nitrile gloves

81

An infection caused by normally non-pathogenic microorganisms in a host whose resistance has been decreased or compromised is known as:
• a nosocomial infection
• a secondary infection
• an opportunistic infection
• a recurrent infection

an opportunistic infection

82

a hospital acquired infection?

a nosocomial infection

83

Identify which one of the following that is not a vaccine preventable disease:
• hepatitis A infection
• hepatitis B infection
• hepatitis C infection
•VZV (varicella zoster virus) infection

hepatitis C infection

84

What does OSHA stand for?
• Occupational Safety & Health Administration
• Occupational Safety & Hazard Administration
• Occupational Standards & Health Administration
• Occupational Standards & Hazard Administration

Occupational Safety & Health Administration

85

The Occupational Safety & Health Administration (OSHA) is a federal agency that develops and enforces regulations designed to protect the:
• patient
• employer
• employee
• all of the above

employee

86

Identify which one of the following is considered to be "infectious" and "regulated" medical waste:
• gowns
• plastic barriers
• extracted teeth
• cotton rolls

extracted teeth (others can be disposed of in regular trash)

87

Each one of the following is considered regulated waste EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
• blood soaked gauze
• contaminated needles
• surgically removed tissue
• gloves

gloves

88

Identify which one of the following is a true statement from the American Dental Association's Best Management Practices for Amalgam Waste?
• use bleach to flush waste water lines in order to minimize the dissolution of amalgam
• dispose of teeth with amalgam restorations in biohazard or sharps containers
• salvage amalgam pieces from restoration removal and recycle with amalgam waste
• stock bulk elemental mercury in addition to precapsulated alloys

salvage amalgam pieces from restoration removal and recycle with amalgam waste

89

Identify each one of the following that is a true statement regarding what must be included in the training of employees as detailed by the OSHA Bloodborne Pathogens Standard:
• information on the hepatitis B vaccine
• explanation of biohazard labels used in the office
• a copy of the standard and explanation of its contents
• opportunity for interactive questions & answers with the person conducting the training session
• explanation of the basis for selection of PPE
• general explanation of the epidemiology & symptoms of bloodborne diseases
• explanation of the modes of transmission of bloodborne pathogens
• instructions on disposal of amalgam waste

• information on the hepatitis B vaccine
• explanation of biohazard labels used in the office
• a copy of the standard and explanation of its contents
• opportunity for interactive questions & answers with the person conducting the training session
• explanation of the basis for selection of PPE
• general explanation of the epidemiology & symptoms of bloodborne diseases
• explanation of the modes of transmission of bloodborne pathogens

90

Identify which one of the following is a false statement regarding the OSHA Bloodborne Pathogens Standard training of employees:
• training must be provided at no cost to the employee
• training must be conducted during normal working hours
• training must be reviewed twice per year
• training must take place as soon as the employee is hired

training must be reviewed twice per year (must take place annually, employer must document attendance of the employee and maintain attendance records for a minimum of 3 years)

91

The OSHA Bloodborne Pathogens Standard requires that a written exposure control plan (ECP) be reviewed:
• biannually
• annually
• quarterly
• none of the above

annually

92

Which of the following diseases prompted OSHA to adopt the Bloodborne Pathogens Standard for dentistry:
• tuberculosis
• HIV disease
• HBV/hepatitis B
• HCV/hepatitis C
• all of the above

HIV disease

93

The OSHA Bloodborne Pathogens Standard is a comprehensive set of rules and regulations that have been created to prevent the transmission of bloodborne diseases:
• to patients
• to employers
• to employees
• to all of the above

to employees

94

As defined by OSHA, an exposure incident is a specific eye, mouth, other mucous membrane, non-intact skin or parenteral contact with blood or other potentially infectious materials (OPIM) which results from the performance of a worker's duties.
An example of an exposure incident is a needle stick.
• both statements are true
• both statements are false
• the first statement is true, the second is false
• the first statement is false, the second is true

both statements are true

95

Unless the employer can establish that identification of the source individual is infeasible or prohibited by state or local law, following an exposure incident — the source individual must be identified and the HBV and HIV status must be determined.
If the source individual does not consent, the employer must establish that legally required consent cannot be obtained.
• both statements are true
• both statements are false
• the first statement is true, the second is false
• the first statement is false, the second is true

both statements are true

96

In 1996, Universal Precautions were revised and renamed:
• mandatory precautions
• hazard precautions
• standard precautions
• OSHA precautions

standard precautions
• the practice of considering that all blood & body fluids might be contaminated with blood and should be treated as infectious
• all patients must be treated with the same infection control procedures
• standard precautions must be used for all patient encounters

97

According to the CDC, which of the following are common infection control violations observed in the dental office:
• improper disposal of biohazardous waste
• improper biological monitoring of sterilizer
• improper disposal of sharps
• improper hand hygiene
• improper storage of dental instruments
• improper flushing of dental water lines
• improper disinfection of environmental surfaces
• improper instrument debridement

all

98

Identify each one of the following that is a true statement concerning the use of a face mask in the dental setting:
• a new mask should be used for each patient
• a mask should have a 95% filter efficiency for small particle aerosols
• a mask is required when spatter of blood or body fluids is likely
• a mask is used to protect nose & mouth from spatter
• a mask that is damp is still effective as a barrier

• a new mask should be used for each patient
• a mask should have a 95% filter efficiency for small particle aerosols
• a mask is required when spatter of blood or body fluids is likely
• a mask is used to protect nose & mouth from spatter

99

OPIM stands for ?
• other possibly irritating materials
• only potential infectious matter
• only potently infectious matter
• other potentially infectious materials

other potentially infectious materials

100

Documents that contain information concerning hazardous chemicals are called
• MDDS
• MSSD
• MSDS
• MDSD

MSDS (Material Safety Data Sheets)

101

Material Safety Data Sheets (MSDS) must be readily available to employees for all potentially hazardous chemicals used in the dental practice. Identify each one of the following that is found on the MSDS:
• fire & explosion data
• hazardous ingredients
• dental office contact information
• chemical & common names
• protection information
• reactivity data

• fire & explosion data
• hazardous ingredients
• chemical & common names
• protection information
• reactivity data

102

Which one of the following is regulated by OSHA?
• all sharps
• contaminated sharps
• non-contaminated sharps
• none of the above

contaminated sharps

103

Identify each one of the following that is a true statement concerning sharps containers.
• must be puncture-resistant
• must have sides & bottom that are leak proof
• must be labeled or color-coded as hazardous
• must be a reusable containers
• must be closable
• must be kept upright
• must be replaced routinely and not be overfilled

• must be puncture-resistant
• must have sides & bottom that are leak proof
• must be labeled or color-coded as hazardous
• must be closable
• must be kept upright
• must be replaced routinely and not be overfilled

104

Engineering controls are controls that are intended to isolate or remove hazards in the workplace.
Work place controls are controls that are intended to reduce the likelihood of exposure by altering the manner in which a task is performed.
• both statements are true
• both statements are false
• the first statement is true, the second is false
• the first statement is false, the second is true

both statements are true

105

For each employee whose job involves occupational exposure to blood and OPIM, what must be maintained in the employee medical record by the dentist employer?
• occupational exposure/incident records
• test results pertaining to exposure incident
• hepatitis B vaccine record
• all of the above

all of the above

106

Transferring Employee Medical Records?

• when selling a dental practice, the employee medical records must be transferred to the new owner
• in cases where there is no new owner of the dental practice, you must notify the director of NIOSH (National Institute for Occupational Safety & Health) at least 3 months prior to closing the dental practice and offer to
transmit/transfer the employee records to NIOSH

107

Per the current CDC guidelines, dental unit water lines should be flushed at the beginning of the day for how long?
• 30 seconds
• 45 seconds
• 60 seconds
• none of the above

30 seconds

108

flush air/water through handpieces for ? after each patient

20-30 seconds

109

Per OSHA guidelines, what is the minimum amount of time required for employers to keep employee training records?
• 2 years
• 3 years
• 5 years
• 7 years

3 years

110

Per OSHA guidelines, what is the minimum amount of time required for employers to keep a sharps injury log?
• 2 years
• 3 years
• 5 years
• 7 years

5 years

111

Per OSHA guidelines, no employee in the dental practice may decline the hepatitis B vaccination.
The hepatitis B vaccination is non-infectious and there is no risk of developing
HBV from the vaccine.
• both statements are true
• both statements are false
• the first statement is true, the second is false
• the first statement is false, the second is true

the first statement is false, the second is true

112

Identify which one of the following is the organization that maintains records on all diseases that occur in the United States.
• CDC (Centers for Disease Control & Prevention)
• OSHA (Occupational Safety & Health Administration)
• FDA (Food & Drug Administration)
• EPA (Environmental Protection Agency)

CDC (Centers for Disease Control & Prevention)

113

Identify which one of the following is the test result that erroneously assigns an individual to a specific diagnostic or reference group, due to insufficient exact methods of testing:
• a false negative test
• a true negative test
• a false positive test
• a true positive test

a false positive test

114

Identify which one of the following is defined as the percent of persons without the disease who are correctly classified as not having the disease:
• specificity
• sensitivity
• reliability
• validity

specificity

115

refers to whether questions asked by the study are answered by the method?

Validity

116

• is the repeatability & reproducibility of test AND
• produces very similar results when used to measure a variable at different times

Reliability

117

percent of persons with the disease who are correctly classified as having the disease (true positive and false negative)

Sensitivity

118

Identify which one of the following is defined as the measure of quality of care provided in a particular setting:
• quality assurance
• quality control
• quality assessment
• quality inspection

quality assessment

119

Identify which TWO of the following indices were developed in an attempt to provide a standardized method of measuring periodontal disease, and, are criticized because they combine gingivitis and periodontitis measures into a common score?
• PDI (periodontal disease index)
• OHI-S (simplified oral hygiene index)
• PI (periodontal index)
• GI (gingival index)

• PDI (periodontal disease index)
• PI (periodontal index)

120

If the major purpose of an epidemiologist's study is to determine caries susceptibility instead of immediate treatment needs, the best caries index to use is:
• TSIF
• PSR
• DMFT
• CPITN

DMFT for teeth and DMFS for surfaces (is an irreversible index)

121

PI scores the plaque present according to ? at the gingival margin rather than its coronal extent as seen with the OHI-S

thickness

122

80-90% of children have inflammatory periodontal disease (gingivitis or periodontitis) by age of 15 and ? is the most common form

localized acute gingivitis

123

Identify which one of the following describes the gingival index (GI):
• reversible index
• irreversible index

reversible index

124

Identify which one of the following is a system where a provider of coverage contracts to pay for some of the patient's dental treatment:
• first-party dentistry
• second-party dentistry
• third-party dentistry
• fourth-party dentistry

third-party dentistry

125

The major objective of public health programs is:
• prevention
• cost efficiency
• teamwork
• all of the above

prevention

126

Fluoride supplements are available by prescription only.
Fluoride mouth rinses are the most popular school-based fluoride regimen in the United States.
• both statements are true
• both statements are false
• the first statement is true, the second is false
• the first statement is false, the second is true

both statements are true
NaF usually used for mouth rinses

127

most common fluoride gel which is used is ?

acidulated phosphate fluoride

128

In regards to reporting child abuse, a dentist is:
• morally obligated to report suspected cases
• ethically obligated to report suspected cases
• legally obligated to report suspected cases
• all of the above

all of the above

129

Identify which one of the following describes the proportion of existing cases of disease in a population at one point in time, or, during a specified time:
• incidence
• prevalence
• epidemiology
• frequency

prevalence (depends on both the incidence and the duration of the problem, expressed as percentage of the population)

130

? is the most common site of cancers of the oral cavity

the tongue

131

? rather than leukoplakia, may be the first sign of cancerous change in a lesion

erythroplakia

132

Random assignment and blinding are methods used in clinical trials to enhance study validity and ?
• increase bias
• decrease bias
• have no change on bias
• none of the above

decrease bias

133

The most important concept of public health as defined by C.E.A. Winslow is:
• to encourage mental and physical efficiency
• promotion of health through organized community effort
• individuals acting alone can solve any problem
• the science and art of preventing disease

promotion of health through organized community effort

134

As used in epidemiology, the term MORTALITY refers to:
• disease
• life span
• death
• birth

death rate

135

the incidence of a specific disease within a given population?

morbidity (illness)

136

the birth rate; ratio of births to the general population?

natality

137

A method of payment for dental services in which the provider is paid a fixed amount without regard to the actual number or nature of services provided to each patient is called a:
• capitation fee
• fixed fee
• contractual fee
• managed fee

capitation fee

138

Identify which one of the following is NOT a fundamental principle defined in the American Dental Association Code of Professional Conduct:
• justice
• autonomy
• beneficence
• maleficence
• veracity

maleficence

139

the American Dental Association Code of Professional Conduct:
• justice
• autonomy
• beneficence
• nonmaleficence
• veracity

• justice= fairness
• autonomy= self-governance
• beneficence= do good
• nonmaleficence= do no harm
• veracity= truthfulness

140

All of the following are true concerning the ADA (Americans with Disabilities Act) EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
• a dentist cannot deny anyone care due to a disability
• dental offices must structurally allow access for the disabled
• a dentist cannot dismiss an employee due to a disability
• a person with HIV is not protected by the ADA

a person with HIV is not protected by the ADA

141

A descriptive epidemiological study helps to define the ? of disease in a population.
• cause
• cure
• extent
• mortality

extent

142

Identify which one of the following is the part of a published research study that includes the statement of intent, theory and hypothesis:
• abstract
• introduction & literature review
• methods
• results
• discussion
• summary & conclusion

introduction & literature review
Format of a Research Study (Title, Abstract, Introduction & literature review, Methods, Results, Discussion, Summary & Conclusion, Bibliography & References)

143

Identify which one of the following is described as the presentation, organization and summarization of data:
• inferential statistics
• descriptive statistics
• informative statistics
• reliability statistics

descriptive statistics

144

? allow someone to generalize from the sample of data to a larger group of subjects

inferential statistics

145

The portion of covered dental care costs for which the covered person has a financial responsibility, usually a fixed percentage is called:
• copayment
• coinsurance
• deductible
• balance billing

coinsurance (usually applies after the insured meets his/her deductible)