Medium Difficulty 3 Flashcards
1
Q
What is the only way for a project management practitioner to resolve conflict of interest?
A
To disclose the conflict to the parties affected by the conflict and let them make a decision on how he/she should proceed.
2
Q
Is making decisions in the best interest of the society an aspirational or a mandatory standard?
A
Aspirational
3
Q
Accepting only those assignments that we are skilled or qualified to do demonstrates which core value?
A
Responsibility
4
Q
Fulfilling our commitment demonstrates which core value?
A
Responsibility
5
Q
Is accepting accountability for our mistakes and the resulting consequences an aspirational standard or a mandatory standard?
A
Aspirational
6
Q
Is the protection of confidential information entrusted on us an aspirational standard or a mandatory standard?
A
Aspirational
7
Q
Is upholding the policies, rules, regulations and laws that govern our work an aspirational or mandatory standard?
A
Mandatory
8
Q
Is reporting unethical or illegal conduct an aspirational or mandatory standard?
A
Mandatory
9
Q
What should we ensure before filing an ethics complaint?
A
Ensure that the ethics complaint is substantiated by facts.
10
Q
What should we do when we come across individuals who knowingly make false allegations against others?
A
We should pursue disciplinary action against them.
11
Q
When we inform ourselves of norms and customs of others, which core value do we exhibit?
A
Respect
12
Q
When we listen to others’ viewpoint and try to understand them, which core value do we exhibit?
A
Respect
13
Q
What should we do with people with whom we have a conflict or disagreement?
A
We should approach them directly and try to resolve the conflict or disagreement.
14
Q
By conducting ourselves in a professional manner, which core value do we exhibit?
A
Respect
15
Q
Is negotiating in good faith an aspirational standard or a mandatory standard?
A
Mandatory
16
Q
Acting in an abusive manner violates which core value?
A
Respect
17
Q
Infringing on the property rights of others is a violation of which core value?
A
Respect
18
Q
By exercising our power of expertise or position to manipulate others, which standard do we violate?
A
Mandatory Standard for Respect
19
Q
By demonstrating transparency in our decision-making, which core value do we exhibit?
A
Fairness
20
Q
By demonstrating impartiality and objectivity, which core value do we exhibit?
A
Fairness
21
Q
By not providing equal access to information to those who are authorized to access it, which standard do we violate?
A
Aspirational Standard for Fairness
22
Q
If we do not provide equal information to all the qualified bidders in a bidding process, which standard are we violating?
A
Aspirational Standard for Fairness
23
Q
Is proactively disclosing all real and potential conflicts of interest to the stakeholders an aspirational standard or a mandatory standard?
A
Mandatory
24
Q
What should we do if we determine that we have a potential conflict of interest?
A
Refrain from decision-making until we have made a full disclosure to the stakeholders and received their consensus to proceed.
25
By discriminating with others based on their religion, gender, caste, creed, race, nationality, age, etc., which standard do we violate?
Mandatory Standard for Fairness
26
Exhibiting nepotism in professional matters is a violation of which standard?
Mandatory Standard for Fairness
27
Being truthful in our communication and conduct is a demonstration of which core value?
Honesty
28
Having the courage to share bad news even if it is received poorly is a demonstration of which core value?
Honesty
29
Is creating an environment in which others feel safe to tell the truth an aspirational or a mandatory standard?
Aspirational
30
Stating misleading or false information is a violation of which standard?
Mandatory Standard for Honesty
31
Is providing accurate information in a timely manner something that is mandatory or something that we should aspire to do?
We should aspire to provide accurate information in a timely manner.
32
Whom does the PMI Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct apply to?
PMI Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct applies to: - All PMI members - PMI credential holders - PMI credential applicants - PMI volunteers
33
Paying fee to government officials in a foreign country is a common practice to get permits to do business in that country. Should you pay such fees?
No. Usually such fees to government officials are considered bribe and are against the law.
34
The belief in inherent superiority of one's own culture or group reflects?
Ethnocentrism
35
What is the best time to assign a Project Manager to a Project?
As early in the project as possible, preferably while the project charter is being developed and always prior to the start of planning. In other words, during project initiation.
36
If the product scope is achieved, is the project complete?
No. The project is only complete after formal closure activities are complete.
37
Why is it important to involve team members in defining activity lists?
It can lead to better and more accurate decomposition of work packages into activities.
38
What are the benefits of continuous improvement?
Continuous improvement reduces waste, eliminates non value-adding activities and hence increases profitability.
39
Why is it important to involve team members early in the project?
It adds their expertise during the planning process and strengthens their commitment to the project.
40
What is important in order to make rewards effective?
Rewards will be effective only if they satisfy a need that is valued by that individual.
41
What is the best time for project managers to do team recognition?
Team recognition should be done throughout the life cycle of the project rather than waiting until the project is completed.
42
When should stakeholders be identified in the project?
Stakeholder identification and engagement should commence as soon as possible after the project charter has been approved, the project manager has been assigned, and the team begins to form.
43
What are the benefits of maintaining an Issue Log on a project?
It helps in timely resolution of issues, and avoiding conflicts and project delays that can result from unresolved issues.
44
When should Plan Risk Management process begin on a project?
As soon as the project is conceived
45
Which item should always be on the agenda at project status meetings?
Risk management
46
When is stakeholder identification performed on the project?
Stakeholder identification is a continuous process throughout the entire project life cycle.
47
What is the main benefit of actively engaging stakeholders?
It reduces the risk of project failure.
48
Should each project management process be applied on every project?
Not necessarily. The appropriate project management processes, inputs, tools, techniques, outputs, and life cycle phases should be selected to manage a project. This selection activity is known as tailoring project management to the project.
49
Give 5 examples of Enterprise Environmental Factors.
- Organizational culture - Industry standards - Existing infrastructure - Existing human resources - Marketplace conditions
50
Is organizational structure of the performing organization considered an Enterprise Environmental Factor or an Organizational Process Asset for the project?
Enterprise Environmental Factor
51
Is resource availability considered an Enterprise Environmental Factor or an Organizational Process Asset for the project?
Enterprise Environmental Factor
52
Are project management plan templates considered an Enterprise Environmental Factor or an Organizational Process Asset for the project?
Organizational Process Asset
53
Give three examples of tangible elements of business value for business driven organizations.
- Monetary assets - Fixtures - Stockholder equity
54
Give three examples of intangible elements of business value for business driven organizations.
- Goodwill - Brand recognition - Trademarks
55
What are the various types of PMO structures within organizations?
- Supportive - Controlling - Directive
56
_________________ aligns projects, programs, or operations to the organizational strategy.
Portfolio Management aligns projects, programs, or operations to the organizational strategy.
57
Are project closure requirements considered an Enterprise Environmental Factor or an Organizational Process Asset for the project?
Organizational Process Asset
58
What are the two types of Enterprise Environmental Factors?
External and Internal
59
What are the two categories of Organizational Process Assets?
- Processes, Policies, and Procedures - Corporate Knowledge Base
60
What are the three organizational system factors that can influence projects?
- Management elements - Governance frameworks - Organizational structure types
61
What is the primary function of a PMO?
To support project managers.
62
Give some examples of project stakeholders.
- Customers - End users - Sponsor - Project Management Office (PMO) - Project Managers - Project team - Functional managers - Vendors
63
Whom does the project manager usually report to in a Balanced Matrix organization?
Functional Manager
64
What are the two categories of Organizational Process Assets?
1. Processes, policies, and procedures 2. Organizational knowledge bases
65
What are the 3 primary forms of organizational structures?
- Functional - Matrix - Projectized
66
What are the 3 types of Matrix organizations?
- Weak Matrix - Balanced Matrix - Strong Matrix
67
How much authority do project managers have in a Balanced Matrix organization?
Low to moderate
68
Who controls the project budget in a Balanced Matrix organization?
It's a mixed responsibility between the Functional Manager and the Project Manager.
69
Whom does the project staff report to in a Strong Matrix organization?
Both - the Functional Manager and the Project Manager - but the Project Manager has more authority on the resources than the Functional Manager.
70
In which organizational structure(s), the project has full-time administrative staff?
- Project-oriented - Strong Matrix
71
When can Organizational Process Assets be added or updated?
Organizational Process Assets can be added or updated throughout the project.
72
Are Project Management Information Systems (PMIS) classified as Enterprise Environmental Factors or an Organizational Process Assets?
Enterprise Environmental Factors
73
Is organizational infrastructure considered an Enterprise Environmental Factor or an Organizational Process Asset?
Enterprise Environmental Factor
74
Are employee performance reviews and training records part of Enterprise Environmental Factors or an Organizational Process Assets?
Enterprise Environmental Factors
75
Are change control procedures part of Enterprise Environmental Factors or an Organizational Process Assets?
Organizational Process Assets
76
Is Project Plan template an Enterprise Environmental Factor or an Organizational Process Asset?
Organizational Process Asset
77
Is organizational culture an Enterprise Environmental Factor or an Organizational Process Asset?
Enterprise Environmental Factor
78
Is lessons learned knowledge base an Enterprise Environmental Factor or an Organizational Process Asset?
Organizational Process Asset
79
What are Predictive life cycles also known as?
Waterfall life cycles
80
A project scheduling software, such as MS Project, is an Organizational Process Asset for the project. True or False?
False. Company systems and software applications are considered part of the Project Management Information System (PMIS), which is an Enterprise Environmental Factor.
81
Controlling PMOs maintain the highest degree of control on projects. True or False?
False. Directive PMOs exert the highest degree of control by directly maintaining the projects.
82
Name the two Initiating processes.
- Develop Project Charter - Identify Stakeholders
83
Name the only Closing group processes.
Close Project or Phase
84
What is the total number of project management processes defined in the PMBOK® Guide, 6th Edition?
49 processes, across 5 Process Groups and 10 Knowledge Areas
85
Name the Project Integration Management process(es) under the Initiating Process Group.
Develop Project Charter
86
Name the Project Integration Management process(es) under the Planning Process Group.
Develop Project Management Plan
87
Name the Project Integration Management process(es) under the Executing Process Group.
- Direct and Manage Project Work - Manage Project Knowledge
88
Name the Project Integration Management process(es) under the Monitoring and Controlling Process Group.
- Monitor and Control Project Work - Perform Integrated Change Control
89
Name the Project Integration Management process(es) under the Closing Process Group.
Close Project or Phase
90
Name the Project Scope Management processes under the Planning Process Group.
- Plan Scope Management - Collect Requirements - Define Scope - Create WBS
91
Name the Project Scope Management process(es) under the Monitoring and Controlling Process Group.
- Validate Scope - Control Scope
92
Name the Project Schedule Management processes under the Planning Process Group.
- Plan Schedule Management - Define Activities - Sequence Activities - Estimate Activity Durations - Develop Schedule
93
Name the Project Schedule Management process(es) under the Monitoring and Controlling Process Group.
Control Schedule
94
Name the Project Cost Management process(es) under the Planning Process Group.
- Plan Cost Management - Estimate Costs - Determine Budget
95
Name the Project Cost Management process(es) under the Monitoring and Controlling Process Group.
Control Costs
96
What is/are the Project Quality Management process(es) under the Planning Process Group?
Plan Quality Management
97
What is/are the Project Quality Management process(es) under the Executing Process Group?
Manage Quality
98
What is/are the Project Quality Management process(es) under the Monitoring and Controlling Process Group?
Control Quality
99
Name the Project Resource Management process(es) under the Planning Process Group.
- Plan Resource Management - Estimate Activity Resources
100
What is/are the Project Resource Management process(es) under the Executing Process Group?
- Acquire Resources - Develop Team - Manage Team
101
What is/are the Project Stakeholder Management process(es) under the Initiating Process Group?
Identify Stakeholders
102
What is/are the Project Communications Management process(es) under the Planning Process Group?
Plan Communications Management
103
What is/are the Project Communications Management process(es) under the Executing Process Group?
Manage Communications
104
Name the Project Communications Management process(es) under the Monitoring and Controlling Process Group.
Monitor Communications
105
Name the Project Risk Management process(es) under the Planning Process Group.
- Plan Risk Management - Identify Risks - Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis - Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis - Plan Risk Responses
106
Name the Project Risk Management process(es) under the Monitoring and Controlling Process Group.
Monitor Risks
107
What is/are the Project Procurement Management process(es) under the Planning Process Group?
Plan Procurement Management
108
What is/are the Project Procurement Management process(es) under the Executing Process Group?
Conduct Procurements
109
What is/are the Project Procurement Management process(es) under the Monitoring and Controlling Process Group?
Control Procurements
110
What is/are the Project Procurement Management process(es) under the Closing Process Group?
There is no Project Procurement Management process under the Closing Process Group.
111
What is the primary source of information for how the project will be planned, executed, monitored and controlled, and closed?
The Project Management Plan
112
Which is the process that usually follows the Collect Requirements process?
Define Scope
113
Which Project Schedule Management processes usually precede the Develop Schedule process in the Planning Process Group?
- Plan Schedule Management - Define Activities - Sequence Activities - Estimate Activity Durations
114
Name all the Project Quality Management processes.
- Plan Quality Management - Manage Quality - Control Quality
115
Which Project Management Process Group does the Identify Stakeholders process belong to?
Initiating
116
Which Project Management Process Group does the Manage Team process belong to?
Executing
117
Which Project Management Process Group does the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process belong to?
Executing
118
Which Project Management Process Group does the Manage Communications process belong to?
Executing
119
Which risk management process usually follows the Identify Risks process?
Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
120
Which risk management process usually follows the Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis process?
Plan Risk Responses
121
Which process formalizes the acceptance of completed project deliverables?
Validate Scope
122
Which Project Management Process Group does the Acquire Resources process belong to?
Executing
123
Which Project Management Process Group does the Validate Scope process belong to?
Monitoring and Controlling
124
What is/are the Project Stakeholder Management process(es) under the Planning Process Group?
Plan Stakeholder Engagement
125
What is/are the Project Stakeholder Management process(es) under the Executing Process Group?
Manage Stakeholder Engagement
126
What is/are the Project Stakeholder Management process(es) under the Monitoring and Controlling Process Group?
Monitor Stakeholder Engagement
127
What is the key benefit of the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process?
It allows the project manager to increase support and minimize resistance from stakeholders, and significantly increase the chances of project success.
128
Name all the Project Scope Management processes.
- Plan Scope Management - Collect Requirements - Define Scope - Create WBS - Validate Scope - Control Scope
129
Name all the Project Schedule Management processes.
- Plan Schedule Management - Define Activities - Sequence Activities - Estimate Activity Durations - Develop Schedule - Control Schedule
130
Name all the Project Cost Management processes.
- Plan Cost Management - Estimate Costs - Determine Budget - Control Costs
131
Name all the Project Resource Management processes.
- Plan Resource Management - Estimate Activity Resources - Acquire Resources - Develop Team - Manage Team - Control Resources
132
Name all the Project Communications Management processes.
- Plan Communications Management - Manage Communications - Monitor Communications
133
Name all the Project Risk Management processes.
- Plan Risk Management - Identify Risks - Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis - Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis - Plan Risk Responses - Implement Risk Responses - Monitor Risks
134
Name all the Project Procurement Management processes.
- Plan Procurement Management - Conduct Procurements - Control Procurements
135
Name all the Project Stakeholder Management processes.
- Identify Stakeholders - Plan Stakeholder Engagement - Manage Stakeholder Engagement - Monitor Stakeholder Engagement
136
Name the Project Risk Management process(es) under the Executing Process Group.
Implement Risk Responses
137
Which planning process precedes the Estimate Activity Resources process?
Plan Resource Management
138
Name the Project Resource Management process(es) under the Executing Process Group.
- Acquire Resources - Develop Team - Manage Team
139
Which project management process develops ad hoc reports, project presentations, blogs, and other types of communication about the project?
Manage Communications
140
In which process is a risk owner assigned to each risk?
Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
141
Name all the Project Integration Management processes.
- Develop Project Charter - Develop Project Management Plan - Direct and Manage Project Work - Manage Project Knowledge - Monitor and Control Project Work - Perform Integrated Change Control - Close Project or Phase
142
Which Project Management Knowledge Area spans across all Project Management Process Groups (Initiating, Planning, Executing, Monitoring and Controlling, and Closing)?
Project Integration Management
143
In which process are approved change requests implemented?
Direct and Manage Project Work
144
If you are checking whether quality standards are being followed, which process are you in?
Manage Quality
145
If you are checking whether quality standards are being met, which process are you in?
Control Quality
146
If the project team is performing peer reviews of project deliverables, which process are they in?
Control Quality
147
Which process is used to ensure a timely implementation of approved change requests?
Control Quality
148
In which process are inspections performed on items changed or repaired as a result of approved change requests?
Control Quality
149
In which process is the effectiveness of a project team assessed?
Develop Team
150
In which process are the Performance appraisals of project team members conducted?
Manage Team
151
Name the Project Resource Management process(es) under the Monitoring and Controlling Process Group.
Control Resources
152
Which Process Group does the Identify Stakeholders process belong to?
Initiating
153
Name the Project Risk Management process(es) under the Executing Process Group.
Implement Risk Responses
154
Which process is a rapid and cost-effective way of prioritizing project risks?
Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
155
In which process would you create a risk Probability and Impact Matrix?
Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
156
What is the key benefit of the Identify Stakeholders process?
It allows the project team to identify the appropriate focus for each stakeholder.
157
Which process(es) provide(s) the necessary inputs for the Create WBS process?
- Plan Scope Management - Collect Requirements - Define Scope
158
Which process(es) provide(s) the necessary inputs for the Sequence Activities process?
- Develop Project Charter - Create WBS - Plan Schedule Management - Define Activities
159
What are the benefits of involving the customers and other stakeholders during project initiation?
It increases: - Shared understanding of success criteria - Probability of deliverable acceptance - Customer satisfaction
160
A project phase is also known as a Project Management Process Group. True or False?
False.
161
What should be done to a project if its NPV is less than zero?
Reject the project
162
What should be done to a project if its NPV is equal to or more than zero?
Accept the project
163
Among three projects with low, medium and high opportunity costs, which project is most attractive?
Project with the lowest opportunity cost is the most attractive.
164
What are the various Benefit Measurement methods of project selection?
- Murder Board - Peer Review - Scoring Models - Economic Models
165
What are the various Constrained Optimization methods of project selection?
- Linear programming - Nonlinear programming - Dynamic programming - Integer programming - Multi-objective programming
166
Which type of project selection method is Murder Board?
Benefit Measurement method
167
Which type of project selection method is Dynamic Programming?
Constrained Optimization method
168
Which type of project selection method uses ROI?
Benefit Measurement method
169
What are the various economic models of project selection?
- Present Value (PV) - Net Present Value (NPV) - Internal Rate of Return (IRR) - Return on Investment (ROI) - Payback Period - Benefit-cost Ratio
170
Which is better - a project with higher NPV or a project with lower NPV?
The higher the NPV, the better.
171
What is the term for the planned work contained at the lowest level of the WBS?
Work Package
172
Which requirement gathering technique enhances Brainstorming with a voting process to rank the most useful ideas for further brainstorming?
Nominal Group Technique
173
What is the project planning term for grouping of subtasks or activities across multiple interdependent work packages, between milestones or a given time period?
Summary Activity
174
What is a schedule network diagram without a time-scale, commonly referred to as?
Pure Logic Diagram
175
What is the term to describe the tendency where people start to apply themselves only at the last possible moment before the deadline?
Student Syndrome
176
What is the project management term for the supporting documentation that provides a clear and complete understanding of how the cost estimate was derived?
Basis of Estimates
177
Which graphical analysis technique examines project performance over time to determine if performance is improving or deteriorating?
Trend Analysis
178
What is Pareto's Law popularly known as?
80/20 principle
179
What is the name of the technique used during the Plan Quality Management process to statistically determine the variables which will improve quality?
Design of Experiments (DOE)
180
Which tool is used to determine correlation between two variables?
Scatter Diagram
181
What is the term to describe documented results of quality control activities in the format specified during quality planning?
Quality Control Measurements
182
What is the term for the sum total of money spent during the project to avoid failures, and during and after the project because of failures?
Cost of Quality
183
Which tool illustrates the number of hours a person, a department, or an entire project team is needed each week (or month) over the course of the project?
Resource Histogram
184
Which model classifies project stakeholders by their power, urgency and legitimacy?
Salience Model
185
What is a common way of representing the gap between the current and desired engagement levels of stakeholders?
Stakeholders Engagement Assessment Matrix
186
Which technique helps to determine the risks which have the most potential impact on the project?
Sensitivity Analysis
187
Which tool would you use to graphically represent the results of Sensitivity Analysis?
Tornado Diagram
188
Which process verifies the acceptance of all the work and deliverables of the contract?
Control Procurements
189
What is the term to describe an ordered list of all the work, presented in story form?
Backlog
190
What is a commonly used measure for estimating user stories?
Story points
191
What is the term to describe a graphical representation of the work remaining versus the time left in a timebox?
Burndown Chart
192
What is the term to describe a graphical representation of the work completed toward the release of a product?
Burnup Chart
193
What are schedule activities on the critical path called?
Critical Path Activities
194
What is the term to describe a network path with low amount of float?
Near-Critical Path
195
What is total Planned Value (PV) of a project also known as?
Budget At Completion (BAC)
196
What is the ratio of Work Remaining to Funds Remaining known as?
To-Complete Performance Index (TCPI)
197
A documented economic feasibility study used to establish validity of the benefits of a selected component lacking sufficient definition and that is used as a basis for the authorization of further project management activities is termed as?
Business Case
198
In this leadership style, the project manager tells the team members what, when, where, and how to do things. Which leadership style is this?
Directing
199
In this leadership style, the project manager encourages the team members to actively participate in the decision-making process. A lot of authority is delegated to the team members and they play an active role in managing the project. Which leadership style is this?
Democratic or Participative
200
A person's legal or moral responsibility to promote the best interest of an organization or party he/she is affiliated with, is known as?
Duty of Loyalty
201
Judging others' cultures or norms from the perspective of one's own culture or norms is called?
Ethnocentrism
202
What are Functional Managers also referred to as?
Line Managers
203
The process of reviewing all change requests, approving changes and managing changes to deliverables, organizational process assets, project documents, and the project management plan, and communicating the decisions, is known as?
Perform Integrated Change Control
204
Name the process of using existing knowledge and creating new knowledge to achieve the project's objectives and contribute to organizational learning.
Manage Project Knowledge
205
What is the term for the period of time required to recover the investment made in a project?
Payback Period
206
The sum that has already been spent on a project and cannot be recovered is known as?
Sunk Cost
207
Legitimate Power of a Project Manager is also known as?
Formal Power
208
Penalty Power of a Project Manager is also known as?
Punitive or Coercive Power
209
Referent Power of a Project Manager is also known as?
Charisma Power
210
This technique, also known as "job shadowing", provides a direct way of viewing individuals in their environment and how they perform their jobs and carry out processes. It is particularly helpful for detailed processes when users or customers have difficulty or are reluctant to articulate their requirements. What is this technique called?
Observation/Conversation
211
What is a time-scaled schedule network diagram format also referred to as?
Logic Bar Chart
212
What are prevention and appraisal costs collectively known as?
Cost of Conformance
213
What are failure costs also known as?
Cost of Non-Conformance
214
What is the term to describe a risk symptom or warning sign?
Risk Trigger or Trigger Condition
215
What are the various positional powers of a Project Manager?
- Legitimate (or Formal) - Reward - Punitive (or Coercive)
216
What are the various personal powers of a Project Manager?
- Expert - Referent
217
Reputation of a project manager is an example of which form of power?
Expert Power
218
Which form of power of a Project Manager is unlikely to buy commitment from team members?
Punitive (or Coercive) Power
219
Which forms of power of a Project Manager are most effective in getting commitment from team members?
Expert Power and Referent Power
220
Which forms of power of a Project Manager are most effective in getting compliance from team members?
Legitimate Power and Reward Power
221
Who holds more power in a matrix organization - Functional Managers or Project Managers?
Functional managers, because they control human resources directly and provide a permanent "home base" for project personnel to return to, after completion of the project.
222
Which form of power of a Project Manager is the worst choice in most situations?
Punitive (or Coercive) Power
223
Which form of power is derived from the experience of a Project Manager?
Expert Power
224
A Project Manager is able to get work done from a team member ahead of schedule because they are Tennis buddies. This is an example of which form of power of the project manager?
Referent Power
225
Which project document grants formal powers to a Project Manager?
The Project Charter
226
What form of power is gained through flattery or other common ground?
Ingratiating
227
What is the commonality between leadership and management?
Both are about being able to get things done.
228
Which power is associated with Management?
Positional Power
229
Which power is associated with Leadership?
Relational Power
230
Managers ____________ status quo, whereas leaders ____________ status quo.
Managers accept status quo, whereas leaders challenge status quo.
231
Who are the change agents in an organization?
The Project Managers are the change agents in an organization.
232
What are the three legs of the PMI Talent Triangle?
- Technical project management - Leadership - Strategic and business management
233
Name any three leadership skills that a project manager should possess?
- Negotiation - Resilience - Communication - Problem solving - Critical thinking - Interpersonal skills
234
Who provides direction and vision of success for the project?
The Project Manager
235
Top project managers spend about 90% of their time on a project in _____________.
Top project managers spend about 90% of their time on a project in communicating.
236
A project manager may be involved in benefits realization activities even after the project is complete. True or False?
True. A project manager may be involved in follow-on activities related to realizing business benefits from the project.
237
What are the traits of top 2% project managers?
Superior relationship and communication skills while displaying a positive attitude.
238
In order to be the most effective, project managers need to have a balance of which three skill sets?
- Technical project management - Leadership - Business Intelligence (strategic and business management)
239
What is Situational power?
The power gained due to unique situation such as a specific crisis.
240
What is Relational power?
The power gained through networking, connections, and alliances.
241
Project managers need to employ both __________ and management in order to be successful.
Project managers need to employ both leadership and management in order to be successful.
242
What style of leadership is associated with Agile projects?
Servant leader
243
What are the traits of a transactional leader?
A transactional leader focuses on goals, feedback, and accomplishment to determine rewards.
244
What are the traits of a servant leader?
A servant leader demonstrates commitment to serve and put other people first.
245
What is the term to describe leaders who empower followers through idealized attributes and behaviors?
Transformational
246
What is Interactional leadership?
It is a combination of transactional, transformational, and charismatic leadership styles.
247
What are the three dimensions of complexity in projects?
- System behavior - Human behavior - Ambiguity
248
What are Kill Points also referred to as?
- Stage Gates - Phase Gates - Phase Exits - Decision Gates
249
What are other common names for Value Analysis?
Value Engineering or Value Management
250
What are Inspections also known as?
- Reviews - Product reviews - Walkthroughs
251
What is another name for Summary Activity?
Hammock Activity
252
What is a common name for Contingency Reserve?
Schedule Reserve
253
What is another name for float?
Slack
254
What is Precedence Diagramming Method (PDM) also known as?
Activity-On-Node (AON) method
255
What are Mandatory Dependencies also known as?
Hard Logic or Hard Dependencies
256
What are Discretionary dependencies also referred to as?
Preferred Logic, Preferential Logic, or Soft Logic
257
What are Cause and Effect Diagrams commonly known as?
Fishbone Diagrams, Why-Why Diagrams or Ishikawa Diagrams
258
What are the common names used for Inspection activities?
- Reviews - Peer Reviews - Audits - Walkthroughs
259
What is another name for Negative Risk?
Threat
260
What is another name for Positive Risk?
Opportunity
261
What are Agreements also referred to as?
- Contracts - Purchase orders - Memoranda of Agreements (MOAs) - Service Level Agreements (SLAs)
262
What is another name for a Fixed Price contract?
Lump Sum
263
______________ is a statistical method that determines the extent to which a relationship exists between two variables.
Regression Analysis is a statistical method that determines the extent to which a relationship exists between two variables.
264
Name any 3 interpersonal and team skills used for helping teams and individuals accomplish project activities?
- Active Listening - Conflict management - Emotional Intelligence - Facilitation - Leadership - Meeting management
265
What tool can be used to develop a scope model?
Context Diagrams
266
Which technique generates the project schedule model?
Schedule Network Analysis
267
What are the two commonly used modeling techniques in schedule management?
- What-If Scenario Analysis - Simulation (using Monte Carlo analysis)
268
What is the 80/20 principle?
80% of the problems are due to 20% of the causes.
269
Which technique is used to confirm the implementation of Approved Change Requests?
Quality Audits
270
What is the X in DfX?
The X in DfX can be different aspects of product development, such as reliability, deployment, assembly, manufacturing, cost, service, usability, safety, and quality.
271
What are the various criteria used for team member selection?
- Availability - Cost - Experience - Ability - Knowledge - Skills - Attitude - International Factors
272
If you are using selection criteria to rate or score potential team members, which technique are you using?
Multicriteria Decision Analysis
273
Give some examples of Personnel Assessment Tools that a project manager or project team can use.
- Attitudinal surveys - Specific assessments - Structured interviews - Ability tests - Focus groups
274
Where might you use Bubble Charts on a project?
Bubble charts may be used for plotting three-dimensional data such as plotting risk categorization data on a chart.
275
When using bubble charts for representing risk categorization data, what does the size of the bubble represent?
Bubble size is the Impact Value of the risk.
276
What are usually the three dimensions of risk represented on a bubble chart?
- Detectability - Proximity - Impact Value
277
What is a Prompt List?
A predetermined list of risk categories that might give rise to individual project risks and that could also act as sources of overall project risk.
278
What are Prompt Lists used for?
Risk identification
279
Name three common strategic frameworks suitable for identifying sources of overall project risk.
- PESTLE (political, economic, social, technological, legal, environmental) - TECOP (technical, environmental, commercial, operational, political) - VUCA (volatility, uncertainty, complexity, ambiguity)
280
What is the main purpose of conducting Procurement Audits?
Procurement Audits are conducted to capture "lessons learned" for the entire procurement.
281
What is the purpose of procurement negotiations at the time of conducting procurements?
To clarify the structure, requirements, and other terms of the purchases so that mutual agreement can be reached prior to signing the contract.
282
What is the purpose of Bidder Conferences?
They are used to ensure that all prospective sellers have a clear and common understanding of the procurement (both technical and contractual requirements), and that no bidders receive preferential treatment.
283
Which technique identifies the interests, expectations, and influence of the stakeholders and relates them to the purpose of the project?
Stakeholder Analysis
284
What are the three key elements of a user story?
- The stakeholder who benefits from the feature (role) - What the stakeholder needs to accomplish (goal) - The benefit to the stakeholder (motivation)
285
What tool is widely used with agile methods to collect user requirements?
User stories
286
In Fist to Five method, what does a closed fist indicate?
Closed fist indicates no support for the proposed decision.
287
An agile release consists of multiple __________________.
An agile release consists of multiple iterations or Sprints.
288
What is a common voting method used on agile-based projects?
Fist of Five
289
What are Bidder conferences also known as?
- Contractor conferences - Vendor conferences - Pre-bid conferences
290
All the stakeholders are identified during project initiation. True or False?
False. While it's important to identify the stakeholders at the beginning of the project, stakeholder identification is a continuous process and new stakeholders may be identified anytime during the life of the project.
291
Configuration Management System is a subset of Change Management System. True or False?
False. Change Management System is a subset of Configuration Management System.
292
Configuration Management System is a part of the Project Management System. True or False?
True.
293
Configuration Management Plan is a subsidiary of the Project Management Plan. True or False?
True.
294
A project charter is considered to be a contract. True or False.
False, because there is no consideration or money promised or exchanged in its creation.
295
Change control process is mandatory for every project. True or False.
True. Change is inevitable; therefore, some type of change control process is mandatory for every project.
296
The Critical Path can have a negative float. True or False?
True. The Critical Path can have a positive, zero or negative float.
297
Activity duration estimates include the activity lag as well. True or False?
False. Lags are not included in duration estimates.
298
A project schedule network diagram is always drawn from left to right. True or False?
True.
299
Float can be used for resource smoothing. True or False?
False. Float is used for leveling resources.
300
Management Reserves are NOT part of the Project Cost Baseline. True or False?
True. Project Cost Baseline includes Project Cost Estimates and Contingency Reserves. Project Cost Budget is determined by adding Management Reserves to Project Cost Baseline.
301
Management Reserves are included as a part of the earned value measurement calculations. True or False?
False.
302
Management Reserves are not included in the Cost Baseline. True or False?
True. Cost Baseline includes Contingency Reserves, but excludes Management Reserves.
303
Contingency Reserves are not included in the Cost Baseline. True or False?
False. Cost Baseline includes Contingency Reserves, but excludes Management Reserves.
304
Net Present Value calculations may be included in the Benefits Management Plan. True or False?
True.
305
Project Quality Management is concerned with project quality and not product quality. True or False?
False. Project Quality Management is concerned with both project quality and product quality.
306
Control Charts are used to track repetitive activities like manufacturing lots. They can also be used to track the project management processes. True or False?
True. Control Charts can be used to determine whether project management processes, such as cost and schedule variances, volume, and frequency of scope changes, are in control.
307
Low quality usually means low grade. True or False?
False.
308
Low grade usually means low quality. True or False?
False.
309
Trade-off between Grade and Quality is usually made in favor of Quality. True or False?
False. The project management team manages the trade-off between Grade and Quality based on project requirements.
310
Quality Metrics are included in the Quality Management Plan. True or False?
False. Quality Metrics are categorized as Project Documents.
311
Resource Breakdown Structure (RBS) is used for categorizing human resources only. True or False?
False. RBS can contain resource categories other than human resources.
312
Diversity is an asset for organizations. True or False?
True.
313
Older workers usually are resistant to change. True or False?
False. This is a common myth about older workers.
314
Diversity in a project environment should be avoided. True or False?
False. Diversity is an asset and should be embraced.
315
Communication preferences may vary with age of the person. True or False?
True.
316
As part of the communications process, the receiver is responsible for confirming that the information is properly understood. True or False?
False. It is sender's responsibility to confirm that the information is properly understood.
317
Risks always have a negative impact on the project. True or False?
False. Risks may positively or negatively impact projects.
318
Contracts are risk mitigation tools. True or False?
True. Contracts or agreements may be used to transfer liability for specified risks to another party.
319
Project teams should identify and manage both event-based risks and non-event risks. True or False.
True.
320
The project manager should maintain high level of engagement with key stakeholders throughout the project. True or False?
False. The level of engagement varies depending upon the stage that the project is in. For example, senior stakeholders may be highly engaged at the beginning of the project, to remove obstacles.
321
Agreements are an output of the Develop Project Charter process. True or False?
False. They are an input.
322
Project Charter is an input to Develop Project Management Plan. True or False?
True.
323
Work Performance Data is an input to Direct and Manage Project Work. True or False?
False. It's an output.
324
Work Performance Reports are an input to Monitor and Control Project Work. True or False?
False. They are an output.
325
Change Requests are an output of Perform Integrated Change Control. True or False?
False. They're an input.
326
Accepted Deliverables are an output of Close Project or Phase. True or False?
False. They're an input.
327
Requirements Management Plan is an input to Collect Requirements. True or False?
True.
328
Project Charter is an input to Define Scope. True or False?
True.
329
Scope Baseline is an input to Create WBS. True or False?
False. It's an output.
330
Verified Deliverables are an input to Validate Scope. True or False?
True.
331
Work Performance Information is an output of Control Scope. True or False?
True.
332
Scope Baseline is an input to Define Activities. True or False?
True.
333
Project Schedule Network Diagrams are an input to Sequence Activities. True or False?
False. They're an output.
334
Resource Breakdown Structure is an output of Estimate Activity Resources. True or False?
True.
335
Resource Calendars are an output of Estimate Activity Durations. True or False?
False. They're an input.
336
Schedule Baseline is an output of Develop Schedule. True or False?
True.
337
Change requests are an input to Control Schedule. True or False?
False. They're an output.
338
Resource Requirements are an input to Estimate Costs. True or False?
True.
339
Activity Cost Estimates are an output of Determine Budget. True or False?
False. They're an input.
340
Cost Forecasts are an output of Control Costs. True or False?
True.
341
Risk Register is an input to Plan Quality Management. True or False?
True.
342
Quality Metrics are an output of Manage Quality. True or False?
False. They're an input.
343
Work Performance Data are an input to Control Quality. True or False?
True.
344
Resource Requirements are an output of Estimate Activity Durations. True or False?
False. They're an output of Estimate Activity Resources.
345
Project Team Assignments are an output of Acquire Resources. True or False?
True.
346
Team Performance Assessments are an input to Develop Team. True or False?
False. They're an output.
347
Work Performance Reports are an input to Manage Team. True or False?
True.
348
Agreements are an input to Identify Stakeholders. True or False?
True.
349
Stakeholder Register is an output of Plan Stakeholder Engagement. True or False?
False. It's an input.
350
Work Performance Reports are an output of Manage Communications. True or False?
False. They're an input.
351
Change Log is an input to Manage Stakeholder Engagement. True or False?
True.
352
Schedule Forecasts and Cost Forecasts are an output of Monitor and Control Project Work. True or False?
False. They're an input.
353
Project Charter is an input to Plan Risk Management. True or False?
True.
354
Risk Management Plan is an output of Identify Risks. True or False?
False. It's an input.
355
Stakeholder Register is an input to Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis. True or False?
True.
356
Cost Baseline is an input to Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis. True or False?
True.
357
Risk Register is an output of Plan Risk Responses. True or False?
False. It's an input. Risk Register updates (as part of Project Document updates) are an output of Plan Risk Responses.
358
Work Performance Reports are an input to Monitor Risks. True or False?
True.
359
Make-or-Buy Decisions are an input to Plan Procurement Management. True or False?
False. They're an output.
360
Selected Sellers are an input to Conduct Procurements. True or False?
False. They're an output.
361
Procurement Documentation are an input to Control Procurements. True or False?
True.
362
Procurement Documentation is an input to Conduct Procurements. True or False?
True.
363
Project Scope Statement is the main input to Define Scope. True or False?
False. It's the main output of Define Scope.
364
Schedule Forecasts are an input to Control Schedule. True or False?
False. They are an output.
365
Project Communications are an input to Manage Communications. True or False?
False. They're an output.
366
Project Communications are an input to Monitor Communications. True or False?
True.
367
Issue Log can be updated in the Monitor Communications process. True or False?
True.
368
All the lessons learned on the project are documented at the end of the project (or phase), in the Close Project or Phase process. True or False?
False. Lessons learned are documented throughout the project. However, the final lessons learned or any other lessons learned, which had not been documented earlier, are documented in the Close Project or Phase process.
369
Stakeholder satisfaction is one of the key project objectives. True or False?
True.
370
What is the event that officially authorizes a project?
The approval of the Project Charter.
371
Who usually authorizes a project?
Someone external to the project such as a sponsor, a PMO representative, or a portfolio governing body representative.
372
Who can approve changes to the Project Charter?
The Sponsor
373
Who provides funding to the project?
Project Initiator or Sponsor
374
Which Project Management Knowledge Area involves managing the interdependencies among all the Project Management Knowledge Areas?
Project Integration Management
375
Who usually authors the Project Charter?
The sponsor. The project manager may participate in the development of the project charter.
376
Who can provide expert judgment on projects?
- Consultants - Customers, sponsors and other stakeholders - Professional and technical associations - Industry groups - SMEs - PMO - Other departments in the organization
377
If you want to know the project purpose, which document would you refer to?
The Project Charter
378
Which process integrates the baselines and subsidiary management plans from various planning processes?
Develop Project Management Plan
379
What information is usually included in the performance reports?
- Current status - Major accomplishments, current engagements and planned work - Forecasts - Quality reports - Issues - Risks - Contract performance information
380
Where is the status of change requests documented?
In the Change Log.
381
Is the Close Project or Phase process needed if the project is terminated before completion?
Yes, it is used to investigate and document the reason for project termination.
382
Which is usually closed first - project or contract(s)?
Contract(s)
383
In which process do you confirm that all the requirements of the project (or phase) have been met?
Close Project or Phase
384
What is the purpose of knowledge management?
Reusing existing knowledge and creating new knowledge.
385
Knowledge management is primarily concerned with documenting knowledge, so it can be shared. True or False?
False, because only explicit knowledge can be documented. Tacit knowledge cannot be documented and is shared through conversations and interactions.
386
What are the challenges in using codified knowledge?
It lacks context, and isn't easy to understand and apply.
387
What is the advantage of Tacit Knowledge over Explicit Knowledge?
Tacit Knowledge has context built in, and is easier to understand and apply compared to Explicit Knowledge.
388
What is the most important part of knowledge management?
Creating an atmosphere of trust so that people are motivated to share their knowledge.
389
Which type of communication (Formal or Informal) is more effective in creating new knowledge?
Informal communication is more effective for creating new knowledge. Formal, rigid communication requirements are good for sharing information.
390
Which component of the project management plan describes how the information about the items of the project (and which items) will be recorded and updated so that the product, service, or result of the project remains consistent and/or operative?
Configuration Management Plan
391
What does the project scope baseline consist of?
Approved versions of: - Project Scope Statement - WBS - WBS Dictionary
392
The requirement to make an earthquake-proof structure in a construction project is a __________ (Project or Product) requirement.
The requirement to make an earthquake-proof structure in a construction project is a Product requirement.
393
The requirement to deliver the project within $500,000 is a __________ (Project or Product) requirement.
The requirement to deliver the project within $500,000 is a Project requirement.
394
Which requirement gathering technique is most effective in quickly defining cross-functional requirements and reconciling stakeholder differences?
Facilitation
395
List any 3 data gathering techniques that can be used to identify project and product requirements.
- Brainstorming - Interviews - Focus Groups - Questionnaires and Surveys - Benchmarking
396
List the various methods of reaching a group decision.
- Voting - Autocratic Decision Making - Multicriteria Decision Analysis
397
List a few advantages of using Prototypes for requirement gathering.
- Provides a "proof of concept" to attract funding - Gives visibility of the final product to the customers - Encourages active participation from the users - Cost effective (reduces development cost) - Reduces risk associated with the project
398
What are the characteristics of good requirements?
- Unambiguous (measurable and testable) - Traceable - Complete - Consistent - Acceptable to key stakeholders
399
What are the typical attributes in the requirements traceability matrix?
A unique identifier, a textual description of the requirement, the rationale for inclusion, owner, source, priority, version, current status (such as active, cancelled, deferred, added, approved) and date completed.
400
Name the 2 data representation techniques that can be used to collect requirements.
- Affinity Diagrams - Mind Mapping
401
What does a Requirements Management Plan describe?
- How requirements activities will be planned, tracked, and reported - Configuration management activities - Requirements prioritization process - Product metrics - Requirements traceability structure
402
List at least 4 Product Analysis techniques.
- Product breakdown - Systems analysis - Requirements analysis - Systems engineering - Value engineering - Value analysis
403
In the context of a WBS, what is the relationship between a control account and a work package?
Each control account may include two or more work packages, but each of the work packages must be associated with only one control account.
404
Which subsidiaries of the Project Management Plan are created in the Plan Scope Management process?
- Scope Management Plan - Requirements Management Plan
405
WBS is a _____________-oriented hierarchical decomposition of the statement of work of the project.
WBS is a deliverable-oriented hierarchical decomposition of the statement of work of the project.
406
What are the 2 categories of product requirements?
- Functional requirements (features and functions) - Non-functional requirements (performance, security, reliability, etc.)
407
Give at least 3 categories of requirements.
- Business requirements - Stakeholder requirements - Solution (or product) requirements - Transition requirements - Project requirements - Quality requirements
408
Who defines the product scope?
The customer
409
Is Scope Baseline considered a component of the Project Management Plan, or a project document?
Scope Baseline is a component of the Project Management Plan.
410
If you want to know a project's acceptance criteria, which document would you refer to?
Project Scope Statement
411
If you want to get a list of project's deliverables, which document would you refer to?
Project Scope Statement
412
If you want to get a list of items explicitly excluded from the project, which document would you refer to?
Project Scope Statement
413
Completion of the project scope is measured against the ______________________.
Completion of the project scope is measured against the Project Management Plan.
414
Completion of the product scope is measured against the ______________________.
Completion of the product scope is measured against the product requirements.
415
Resource leveling is performed ___________ (before or after) analyzing the schedule with CPM.
Resource leveling is performed after analyzing the schedule with CPM.
416
What are the various reasons for performing Resource Leveling?
Resources are limited, over-allocated, or only available during certain times.
417
What is Schedule Data comprised of?
- Schedule milestones - Schedule activities - Activity attributes - Assumptions and constraints
418
What are the various graphical formats that can be used to present project schedule?
- Bar Charts - Milestone Charts - Project Schedule Network Diagrams
419
Which format is usually used to communicate project schedule progress to management?
Bar Chart
420
What are the drawbacks of Fast Tracking a project schedule?
- Increased Risks - Rework
421
What are the drawbacks of Crashing a project schedule?
- Increased Risks - Increased Costs - May not always result in schedule compression
422
What are the two common schedule compression techniques?
- Crashing - Fast Tracking
423
Which technique can be used to simulate various outcomes of What-If Scenario Analysis?
Monte Carlo technique
424
Free Float of an activity is determined _______ (before or after) determining the total float of the activity in CPM?
Free Float of an activity is determined after determining the total float of the activity in CPM?
425
What are the supporting details that can be included with the schedule data?
- Resource histograms
- Alternative schedules
- Scheduling of contingency reserves
- Cash-flow projections
- Order and delivery schedules
426
What are the various activity attributes which can be used to describe an activity?
Activity ID, WBS ID, activity name, codes, description, predecessor and successor activities, logical relationships, leads and lags, resource requirements, imposed dates, assumptions and constraints, person assigned, place where the work has to be performed, level of effort (LOE), discrete effort, and apportioned effort (AE).
427
What are the two common types of milestones?
- Mandatory, such as those required by contract - Optional, such as those based on experience or historical information
428
In Precedence Diagramming Method (PDM) method, what do boxes and arrows represent?
Boxes (also known as nodes) represent Activities, and Arrows represent the Logical Relationships between activities.
429
What are the four types of logical relationships in a schedule network?
- Finish-to-start (FS) - Finish-to-finish (FF) - Start-to-start (SS) - Start-to-finish (SF)
430
Give an example of Finish-to-start (FS) dependency.
Oven must be heated (predecessor) before cake can be baked in it (successor).
431
Give an example of Finish-to-finish (FF) dependency.
Electrical (predecessor) and painting (successor) work of a building can proceed in parallel, but electrical work must finish before the final coat of paint can be applied.
432
Give an example of Start-to-start (SS) dependency.
The vote counting (successor) in the polls can begin as soon as the polling begins (predecessor).
433
What are the four types of dependencies that are used to define the sequence among activities in a schedule network?
- Mandatory dependencies - Discretionary dependencies - External dependencies - Internal dependencies
434
What are the benefits of using a Resource Breakdown Structure (RBS)?
The RBS is used for planning, managing and controlling project work.
435
Give an example of Analogous estimating.
A similar, but less complex application took 8 man months for development. The new application development should take about 10 man months.
436
Give an example of Parametric estimating.
It takes 8 hours to carpet a 1,000 sq. ft. apartment. Therefore it should take about 80 hours to carpet a 10,000 sq. ft. office space.
437
When is Analogous estimating used?
When there is limited amount of detailed information on the project.
438
Which estimation technique is relatively fast and less costly, though less accurate?
Analogous Estimating
439
What does schedule related Work Performance Data include?
Actual start and finish dates of schedule activities, actual duration, list of activities that have started, their progress, and list of the activities that have finished.
440
What is the schedule related Work Performance Information?
Earned value measurements such as SV, SPI, EAC, ETC, etc.
441
What does Schedule Performance Index (SPI) indicate?
Schedule efficiency of the project
442
What are the commonly used resource categories?
Labor, material, equipment, and supplies.
443
What are the commonly used resource types?
Skill Level, Grade Level, and Required Certifications
444
What do zero duration events on the schedule network represent?
Milestones
445
What are the units of measure for cost estimates?
Cost estimates are usually expressed in currency units, but other units such as staff hours or staff days can also be used.
446
What is the range for Rough Order of Magnitude (ROM) estimates?
-25% to +75%
447
What do basis of estimates typically include? (4)
1) How the estimate was developed
2) Assumptions and constraints
3) Range of estimates (e.g. $10,000 ± 10%)
4) Confidence level of the estimate
448
What information does a Cost Management Plan include?
- Level of precision and accuracy of cost estimates - Unit of measure for costs - Cost accounting procedures - Control thresholds - Rules of performance measurement - Reporting format
449
Why is Life Cycle Costing important in Project Cost Management?
Project Cost Management should look at the cost throughout the entire life of the product, service or result, and not just the project cost. For example, reducing the number of design reviews can reduce the project cost at the expense of increasing the customer's operating costs.
450
Which project document would tell you whether indirect costs are included or excluded from the project cost estimates?
Basis of Estimates
451
Why is the Cost Baseline an S-shaped curve (S-curve)?
Project spending is less at the beginning of the project as the work is ramping up, grows steadily in the middle as the work is executed and then slows down again at the end as the work is completed.
452
What is the key to effective cost control?
Effective cost control is about managing the Cost Baseline and the changes to that baseline.
453
Summarize Cost Control in one sentence.
Cost control involves analyzing the relationship between consumption of project funds and the value of the work accomplished.
454
What is a Rough Order of Magnitude (ROM) estimate used for?
It is used for financial planning during project initiation.
455
Give 3 examples of Direct Costs?
- Labor costs - Materials costs - Equipment rental costs
456
Give 4 examples of Indirect Costs?
- Management costs - General administration costs - Building rental - Utility costs
457
Quality Assurance is ______________ (proactive or reactive), whereas Quality Control is ______________ (proactive or reactive).
Quality Assurance is proactive, whereas Quality Control is reactive.
458
Which quality expert developed the 14 steps to Total Quality Management?
W. Edwards Deming
459
What are the quality principles advocated by Phillip Crosby?
- Conformance to requirements - Prevention over inspection - Zero Defects - Cost of Poor Quality
460
Give examples of Internal Failure Costs.
Rework and Scrap
461
Give examples of External Failure Costs.
- Liabilities - Warranty work - Lost business
462
What are the components of Cost of Quality (COQ)?
COQ = Prevention Costs + Appraisal Costs + Failure Costs
463
Give examples of Appraisal Costs.
Costs of testing, destructive testing and inspections are Appraisal Costs.
464
Give examples of Prevention Costs.
Costs of training, documenting processes, and equipment are Prevention Costs.
465
Why is Cost-Benefit Analysis done in quality planning?
To compare the cost of quality activities with the expected benefit. For example, if a quality improvement activity costs $10,000 and results in only a marginal increase in quality, then it's probably not worth doing.
466
What is the range of Control Limits for repetitive processes?
Mean ± 3 sigma
467
What is the range of Specification Limits for repetitive processes?
Specification Limits are not calculated based on the control charts, but are set by the customers.
468
When is a process considered to be "out of control"?
When a data point falls outside the control limits or when seven consecutive data points fall on the same side of the mean (either above or below the mean) on a control chart.
469
Which tool is used to determine whether a process is stable or has predictable performance?
Control Charts
470
When is Statistical Sampling used?
Statistical Sampling is used when: - Not many defects are expected - Testing entire population would take too long - Testing is destructive - Testing is costly
471
Give at least 3 examples of Quality Metrics.
- On-time performance - Number of production issues per month - Defects per 1,000 lines of code - System Availability - Rework Index
472
What are Fishbone Diagrams used for?
Identifying root causes of problems or risks
473
What is the purpose of a Histogram?
It illustrates the most common cause of problems in a process by the number and relative heights of the bars.
474
In which process are defect repairs validated?
Control Quality
475
Which technique is used to validate defect repairs?
Inspection
476
What is needed for JIT manufacturing to be successful?
Strict adherence of quality standards by the suppliers.
477
Who has the ultimate responsibility for quality on a project?
The Project Manager
478
Who is responsible for quality in the organization as a whole?
The senior management of the organization
479
What is the potential impact of poor quality on the project?
- Higher costs - Schedule delays - Higher risk - Lower customer satisfaction - Lower team morale
480
According to which quality expert, quality is free, and the only associated costs of quality should be those of nonconformance?
Crosby
481
The definition of quality as defined by Dr. Joseph M. Juran is?
Fitness for use
482
Give 3 examples of Cost of Conformance.
- Quality training
- Quality planning
- Quality systems
483
Give 3 examples of Cost of Non-Conformance.
- Rework - Scrap - Warranty costs
484
If you are creating a Responsibility Assignment Matrix, which process are you in?
Plan Resource Management
485
Which plan describes when and how project human resource requirements will be met?
Team Management Plan
486
What are the common ways to arrange an Organizational Breakdown Structure?
By departments, units, or teams with the project activities or work packages listed under each department
487
What is the benefit of using a Responsibility Assignment Matrix (RAM)?
It ensures that there is only one person accountable for any one task, and thus avoids confusion.
488
When is it particularly important to use a RACI matrix?
When the team consists of internal and external resources (to ensure clear divisions of roles and expectations).
489
What specific information needs to be identified when defining Roles and Responsibilities on a project?
- Role - Authority - Responsibility - Competency
490
What is usually included in the Resource Management Plan?
- Identification of resources - Resource acquisition guidance - Roles and responsibilities - Project Organization Charts - Guidance for Project team resource management - Training needs - Recognition and rewards - Methods for resource control.
491
What are the two common resource leveling strategies?
- Add more resources - Modify the project schedule
492
What do you do when resources are loaded beyond the maximum number of hours available?
Resource Leveling
493
What assumes increased importance in a Virtual Team model?
Communication planning
494
What needs to be done to make Virtual Teams effective?
- Set clear expectations - Facilitate communications - Develop protocols for resolving conflict - Include people in decision-making - Improve cultural awareness - Share credit in successes
495
How are project team assignments documented?
By updating the team directory, project organization chart, and project schedule.
496
Whom do project managers have to negotiate with to get competent staff for the project?
1) Functional managers
2) Other project management teams in the organization
3) External organizations, vendors, contractors, etc.
497
What are Tuckman's five stages of team development?
Forming, Storming, Norming, Performing, and Adjourning
498
At what stage of the team development do team members begin to work together and trust each other?
Norming
499
Which stage of team development has the most potential for conflict, but is also necessary for the growth of the team?
Storming
500
Who has the responsibility to provide adequate resources for the project?
Functional Managers
