Memorization Flashcards

0
Q

Plasmin

A

Breaks down fibrin, fibrinogen and degrades coag factors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
1
Q

CD28

A

Molecule necessary for T cell activation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Factor V Leiden

A

Produces a factor V resistant to degradation by protein C –> hypercoaguable states!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Acanthocyte

A

Spiny RBCS seen in liver disease and abetalipoproteinemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Basophilic stippling

A

Seen in thalassemia, anemia of chronic disease and lead poisoning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Bite cells

A

G6PD Deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Burton’s line, Ab colic, foot/wrist drop, encephalopathy

A

Lead poisoning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

X linked for deficiency in ALA synthase

A

Sideroblastic anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Child with megaloblastic anemia that can’t be cured with b12 or folate

A

Orotic aciduria

Mutation in uridine monophosphate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Fanconi’s anemia

A

DNA repair defect - cause of aplastic anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

X-linked, back pain and hbglobinuria

A

G6PD defiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Auto recessive, decreased ATP, rigid RBCs

A

Pyruvate kinase deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Glu to Lys on B globin gene

A

HbC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Painful abdomen, port wine colored urine, polyneuropathy, psycho, precipitated by drugs

A

Acute intermittent porphyria
Accumulation of porphobilinogen, ALA, uroporphyrin
Defective porphobilinogen deaminase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Most common porphyria
Tea colored urine
Blistering cutaneous photosensitivity

A

Porphyria cutanea tarda

Defective uroporphyrinogen decarboxylase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Defect in GP1B

A

Bernard soulier

Defective platelet adhesion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Defect in GpIIa/IIIb

A

Glanzman’s thrombasthenia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Anti-GpIIa/IIIb antibodies

A

ITP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Deficiency of ADAMTS 13

A

TTP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

T(8;14), c-myc

A

Burkitt lymphoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

T(11;14) , cyclin D1, CD 5+, associated with chronic inflammatory states

A

Mantle cell lymphoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

T(14;18), b-cl2

A

Follicular lymphoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

T(15;17)

A

M3 AML

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

T(9;22)

A

CML or ALL subtype

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
S100+, CD1a+, birbeck granules
Langerhans histiocytosis
25
Where does the upper body and lateral breast drain?
Axillary lymph nodes
26
What lymph nodes does the stomach drain to?
Celiac nodes
27
What lymph nodes do the duodenum, jejunum drain to?
Superior mesenteric
28
What lymph nodes does the sigmoid colon drain to?
Colic to inferior mesenteric
29
Which lymph nodes does the rectum drain to?
Internal iliac
30
Which lymph nodes does the anal canal drain to?
Superficial inguinal
31
Which lymph nodes do the testes,scrotum, superficial thigh drain to?
Superficial inguinal | Testes to superficial inguinal and then para aortic
32
Where does the lateral foot drain to?
Popliteal
33
What does the right lymphatic duct drain?
The right arm, right chest, right half of the head
34
Where are T cells found in the spleen?
In the periarterial lymphatic sheath within the white pulp
35
What are the encapsulated organisms?
``` Shin Skis Strep pneumo H. Flu Neisseria meningitidis Salmonella Klebsiella Group B strep ```
36
What can be seen postsplenectomy?
Howelljolly bodies Target cells Thrombocytosis
37
Where does the thymus originate from embryologically?
The 3rd brachial pouch
38
What does MHC I bind?
TCR and CD8
39
Which cells express MHC I?
All uncleared cells
40
What kind of immunity does MHC I mediate?
Viral
41
What does MHC II bind?
TCR and CD4
42
Which cells express MHC II?
APC Cells
43
Which disease is associated with HLA A3?
Hemochromatosis
44
B27
Psoriasis Ankylosing spondylitis IBD Reiter's syndrome - conjunctivitis, urethritis, arthritis
45
DQ2/DQ8
Celiac disease
46
DR2
MS, hay fever, SLE, Goodpasture's
47
DR3
DM I | Graves
48
DR4
RA | DM I
49
DR 5
Pernicious anemia | Hashimoto's thyroiditis
50
Which cytokines are NK cells activated by?
IL-2 IL-12 IFN-b IFN-a
51
Which 2 antibodies activate complement?
IgM and IgG
52
Where does negative selection occur in the thymus?
Medulla - non reactive to self, the ones that are active to self undergo apoptosis Become CD8 or CD4
53
What does IL-12 do?
Causes differentiation of CD4 T cell to become Th1 | Activates NK CELLS
54
What does IL-4 do?
Causes differentiation of helper T cell to become th2
55
What are the costimulatory signals for naive T cell activation?
B7 and CD28
56
What needs to happen for B cell activation?
``` Presentation by B cell on MHC II to t helper Bind CD40 to CD40L on T cell --> cytokines determine class switching needed for the antibody production ```
57
What does th1 secrete?
IFN-gamma to activate macrophage
58
What do macrophages secrete to activate lymphocytes?
IL-1 and TNF-a
59
What do th2 cells secrete?
``` IL-4 IL-5 IL-10 IL-13 To activate eosinophils and promote IgE production ```
60
What are th1 cells inhibited by?
IL-4 and IL-10
61
What are th2 cells inhibited by?
INF-gamma
62
What is perforin?
Helps deliver content of granules into target cells
63
What is granzyme?
Serine protease | Activates apoptosis in target cell
64
What is granulysin?
Anti microbial that induces apoptosis
65
What markers to regulatory T cells express?
CD3, CD4, CD 25
66
Which cytokines do regulatory T cells secrete?
IL-10 and TGF-b - non inflammatory
67
What is the most abundant antibody?
IgG
68
What is the lowest antibody in the serum?
IgE
69
What defends us against gram negative bacteria?
MAC complex
70
What does C3b do?
Opsonization
71
What do C3a, C5a do?
Anaphylaxis
72
What does C5a do?
Neutrophil chemotaxis
73
What happens in the alternative pathway for complement activation?
C3b binds the bacterial surface
74
What happens in the lectin pathway?
Complement is activated by lectin or mannose or other sugars on a microbial surface Use MBL and MASP1 and 2 to make C1 like complex that will cleave C4
75
What is the C3 convertase in the lectin and classic pathway?
C4b2a
76
What is the C3 convertase in the alternative pathway?
C3bBb
77
What is the C5 convertase in the classic and lectin pathway?
C4bC2a3b
78
What is the C5 convertase in the alternative pathway?
C3bBb3b
79
What is the classic complement pathway activated by?
IgM and IgG antigen-antibody complexes
80
What is the function of IL-1?
Pyrogen Acute inflammation Activates endothelium to express adhesion molecules Induces chemokine secretion
81
What is the function of IL-2?
Stimulates T cells
82
What is the function of IL-3?
Stimulates BM stem cells
83
What is the function of IL-4?
Stimulates IgE production and IgG | Stimulates differentiation in Th2
84
What is the function of IL-5?
Stimulates IgA production and eosinophils
85
What is the function of IL-8?
Neutrophil recruitment
86
What is the function of IL-12?
Induces differentiation of Th1 cells | Activates NK cells
87
What is the function of TNF-a?
Mediates septic shock - causes vascular leakage and leukocytes recruitment Also responsible for cachexia in cancer
88
What is the function of INF-a?
Activates macrophages and Th1 cells Suppresses Th2 Increasing MHC I and II presentation of all cells Increasing antigen presentation in all cells
89
What is the function of IL-10?
Inhibit activated T cells
90
What is the function of interferon a and b?
Inhibiting viral protein synthesis by induction of ribonuclease that inhibits viral protein synthesis by degrading viral mRNA
91
What are the B cell markers?
CD19, 20, 21 CD40 MHC II B7
92
What is the B cell marker used by EBV?
CD21
93
What are the markers for macrophages?
``` CD14 CD40 MHC II B7 Fc C3b receptors ```
94
What are the markers for NK cells?
CD16 - binds Fc of IgG | CD56- unique!
95
What is the auto antibody associated with SLE?
Antinuclear Anti-dsDNA anti-smith
96
Anti-CCP
RA
97
Anti histone
Drug induced lupus
98
Anti centromere
CREST syndrome | Scleroderma
99
Anti-Scl-70 (DNA topoisomerase I)
Diffuse scleroderma
100
Antimitochondrial
Primary biliary cirrhosis
101
IgA endomysial | IgA anti-transglutaminase
Celiac
102
Anti-basement membrane
Goodpasture's
103
Anti-desmoglein
Pemphigus vulgaris
104
Antimicrosomal | Antithyroglobulin
Hashimoto's
105
Anti-Jo 1 Anti-SRP Anti- mi2
Polymyositis | Dermatomyositis
106
Anti-SSA (anti-ro) | Anti-SSA (anti-la)
Sjogren's
107
Anti-u1 RNP
Mixed CT disease
108
Anti-smooth muscle
Autoimmune hepatitis
109
Anti-glutamate decarboxylase
Type I DM
110
C-Anca
Wegener's
111
P-Anca
Microscopic polyangitis, Churg-Strauss
112
Live attenuated vaccines
``` Measles Mumps Rubella Polio (Sabin) Varicella Yellow fever ```
113
Inactivates vaccines
Cholera Hep A Polio (Salk) Rabies