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Flashcards in Micro Deck (94):
1

Viremia:

the presence of viruses in the bloodstream

2

Fungemia:

the condition of fungi multiplying in the bloodstream

3

Bactermia:

the presence of viable bacteria in circulating blood

4

Septicemia:

systemic infection associated with microorganisms multiplying in circulating blood

5

Subacute Endocarditis causes:

usually caused by streptococcal species (especially viridian's streptococci)

6

Subacute Endocarditis symptoms:

fever, early embolization (vegetation dislodging from the heart valve and traveling through the blood stream), acute valvular regurgitation (back flow of blood in the heart), abscess formation (pocket of infection)

7

Bubonic plague causes:

caused by Yersinia pests spread by fleas

8

Bubonic plague Symptoms:

fever, headaches, vomiting, swollen lymph nodes

9

Tularemia causes:

The bacterium F. tularensis causes tularemia. Creatures capable of carrying the bacteria include: rabbit, and deer ticks, deerflies, grizzly bears, hares, rabbits, rodents, cats that go outdoors

10

Tularemia symptoms:

fever, lethargy, loss of appetite, signs of sepsis, and possibly death

11

Lyme Disease Causes:

bacterium Borrelia burgdorferi and is transmitted to humans through the bite of infected blacklegged ticks.

12

Lyme disease Symptoms:

fever, headache, fatigue, characteristic skin rash called erythema migrans

13

Yellow Fever Causes:

it is transmitted by the bite of mosquitoes, usually the Aedes aegypti mosquito, which had become infected by biting an infected human or animal (a monkey)

14

Yellow Fever Symptoms:

Fever, Headache, Muscle aches, particularly in your back and knees, Sensitivity to light, Nausea, vomiting or both, Loss of appetite, Dizziness, Red eyes, face or tongue

15

Dengue Fever Causes:

a mosquito bites a person infected with adengue virus, the virus enters the mosquito. When the infected mosquito then bites another person, the virus enters that person's bloodstream.

16

Dengue Fever Symptoms:

Fever, as high as 106 F (41 C), Headaches, Muscle, bone and joint pain, Pain behind your eyes, Widespread rash, Nausea and vomiting, Rarely, minor bleeding from your gums or nose

17

Otitis Media Causes:

occurs when your child’s Eustachian tube becomes swollen or blocked and traps fluid in the middle ear. The trapped fluid can become infected.

18

Otitis Media Symptoms:

crying, irritability, sleeplessness, pulling on the ears, ear pain, a headache, neck pain, a feeling of fullness in the ear, fluid drainage from the ear, a fever, vomiting, diarrhea, irritability, a lack of balance, hearing loss

19

Whooping Cough Causes:

Whooping cough is caused by bacteria. When an infected person coughs or sneezes, tiny germ-laden droplets are sprayed into the air and breathed into the lungs of anyone who happens to be nearby

20

Whooping cough Symptoms:

Runny nose, Nasal congestion, Red, watery eyes, Fever, Cough

21

Influenza Causes:

Flu viruses travel through the air in droplets when someone with the infection coughs, sneezes or talks. You can inhale the droplets directly, or you can pick up the germs from an object — such as a telephone or computer keyboard — and then transfer them to your eyes, nose or mouth

22

Influenza Symptoms:

Fever over 100.4 F (38 C)Aching muscles, especially in your back, arms and legs, Chills and sweats, Headache, Dry, persistent cough, Fatigue and weakness, Nasal congestion, Sore throat

23

Infectious Mononucleosis (also known as “Mono” or “The Kissing Disease”) Symptoms:

Sore throat, high fever, cervical lymph node adenopathy which develops after a long incubation period (30-50 days), gray-white exudate in the throat, skin rash, enlarged spleen and liver, sudden leukocytosis (consisting initially of infected B cells and later T cells), and fatigue

24

What is the causative organism for malaria?

Malaria is an infectious disease caused by the parasite called Plasmodia. It is transmitted by Female Anopheles Mosquito.

25

Which antibody is concentrated in the respiratory tract?

IgA

26

Which is the most common type of virus that leads to rhinitis?

Rhinovirus

27

Be familiar with the transmission of cold viruses.

Transmission of the common cold is through indirect and droplet contact.

28

What are some possible prevention and treatments for diphtheria?

Prevention: Diphtheria Toxoid Vaccine (DTaP)

Treatment: Antitoxin plus penicillin or erythromycin

29

Be familiar with Escherichia coli. (i.e., involve enterotoxin in traveler’s diarrhea...)

E. coli O157:H7 is the agent of a spectrum of conditions, ranging from mild gastroenteritis with fever to bloody diarrhea

30

What is hepatitis?

Hepatitis is the inflammation and necrosis of the liver that is often the result of viral infection.

31

What is Enterobius vermicularis?

Pinworm or seat worm.
It is the most common worm disease of children in temperate zones.

32

What are some cases of trichinosis?

People acquire trichinellosis by consuming raw or undercooked meat infected with the Trichinella parasite, particularly wild game meat or pork.

Pigs, cougars, and black bears are all known to harbor Trichinella infection.

33

What route does infection travel to the middle ear?

middle ear infection "Otitis Media"

Viral infections of the upper ear lead to inflammation of Eustachian tubes, buildup of fluid and bacterial multiplication in the fluid.

34

What does erythrogenic toxin cause in relation to scarlet fever?

Erythrogenic toxin causes the bright red rash and fever of scarlet fever.

35

What illness results in the formation of a pseudomembrane in the back of the throat?

Diptheria

36

Respiratory Syncytial Virus (RSV) Cause:

enters the body through the eyes, nose or mouth. It spreads easily through the air on infected respiratory droplets.

37

Respiratory Syncytial Virus (RSV) Symptoms:

Congested or runny nose,Dry cough,Low-grade fever,Sore throat,Mild headache. Will become severe by spreading to the lower respiratory tract, causing pneumonia or bronchiolitis .

38

Respiratory Syncytial Virus (RSV) Treatment:

over counter medicine like tylenol, nasal saline drops for stuffy nose, IV fluids and humidified oxygen if in hospital. Antibiotics only if bacterial pneumonia is suspected.

39

How would you treat a drug-resistant strain of Streptococcus pneumoniae?

Wait for resolution; if needed, amoxicillin (high rates of resistance) or amoxicillin + clavulanate or cefuroxime; in Serious Threat category in CDC Antibiotic Resistance Report

40

What is the most predominant microorganism found in the female reproductive tract during childbearing years?

Lactobacillus

41

Urinary Tract Infections Cause:

E. coli

42

Urinary Tract Infections Signs and Symptoms:

Pain, frequent urges to urinate even when the bladder is empty, and burning pain accompanying urination (called dysuria) along with cloudy urine, fever, orange tinge and nausea.

43

What is the most common mode of disease transmission for a UTI?

The most common cause of a urinary tract infection is a bacterium commonly found in the gut called Escherichia coli (E. coli). It is usually spread to the urethra from the anus (back passage).

44

What is the most common cause (microorganism) for vaginitis?

The most common causes of vaginitis is Candida albicans. This infection can cause genital itching and a thick, white vaginal discharge that is similar to cottage cheese. Antibiotics can kill the antifungal bacteria that normally live in the vagina. Others that can cause an infection include: bacterial vaginosis, and trichomoniasis.

45

What is pelvic inflammatory disease? What is the cause, symptoms, possible outcome if left untreated?

An infection of the uterus and fallopian tubes that has ascended from the lower reproductive tract. Caused by gonococci and chlamydias.

46

What is the most commonly reported STD in the United States?

Genital chlamydia is the most commonly reportable STD in the US with 1 million cases reported annually. Fundamentals of Micro page 610

47

How long does the latency period last for syphilis?

The latency period for syphilis can last for 20 years or longer and happens in about 30% of infections.

48

What is a cause associated with warts?

Human Papillomavirus Infection
These viruses are the causative agents of genital warts.

49

A foreign molecule that causes a specific immune response is a(n)?

Antigen

50


Acquired specific immunity involves the response of _______.

B and T lymphocytes

51

The progeny cells of a B-cell clone are called_______.

Plasma cells

52

What do Helper T cells do?

Activate B cells and other T cells

53

What do plasma cells do?

Secrete antibodies

54

Which of the following is involved with specific resistance?

Lymphocytes

55

The specificity of an antibody is due to

The variable portions of the H and L chains

56

The antibodies found in mucus, saliva, and tears are

IgA

57

The molecular fragment on a antigen molecule that a lymphocyte recognizes and responds to is called an _______.

Epitope

58


Small foreign molecules that are too small by themselves to elicit an immune response are termed ________.

Hapten

59

Antigens that elicit allergic reactions are called _________.

Allergens

60

Antigen-presenting cells ________.

-Include dendritic cells

-Include macrophages

-Engulf and modify antigen to be more immunogenic

-Hold and present processed antigen on their cell membrane surface

All of the choices are correct

61

Which is mismatched?

-Food allergy-immediate hypersensitivity

-Poison ivy dermatitis - cell-mediated hypersensitivity

-Serum sickness - immune complex hypersensitivity

-Transfusion reaction - antibody-mediated cytotoxic hypersensitivity

-Hay fever - cell-mediated hypersensitivity

Hay fever - cell-mediated hypersensitivity

62

Any heightened or inappropriate immune response resulting in tissue damage is called a ________.

Hypersensitivity

63

Fungal spores and animal dander are considered to be which type of allergen?

Inhalant

64


The initial encounter with an allergen is called the ________.

Sensitizing dose

65

A second encounter with an allergen that causes a response is called the ____.

Provocative dose

66

Which event is the process of releasing chemical mediators?

Degranulation

67

Which of the following is not a possible symptom of type I immediate hypersensitivity?

-Rhinitis

-Rashes

-Sneezing

-Diarrhea

-Contact dermatitis

Contact dermatitis

68

If a patient shows the presence of antibodies against epidemic typhus this indicates all of the following EXCEPT

-a recent transfusion may have passively introduced the antibodies

-the patient may have had the disease and has recovered

-the patient may have the disease

-the patient may have been vaccinated

-the patient was near someone who had the disease

the patient was near someone who had the disease

69

This type of response involves mast cells and IgE.

Anaphylatic shock

70

A systemic, sometimes fatal reaction with airway obstruction and circulatory collapse is ________.

Systemic anaphylactic

71

Allergic patients receive small, controlled injections of specific allergens are undergoing ________.

Desensitization

72

Which of the following is NOT a phenotypic method of identification?

-Morphology

-Gram stain reaction

-Acid-fast reaction

-Antibody response

-Endospores

Antibody response

73


Biochemical tests include all of the following EXCEPT ________.

-Presence of catalase

-Presence of oxidase

-Colony morphology

-Sugar fermentation

-Gas production

Colony morphology

74

Specimen collection _______.

Must utilize aseptic techniques

75


Each of the following are appropriate specimens for bacterial culture EXCEPT ______.

-Saliva

-Skin

-Spinal fluid

-Hair

-Throat

Hair

76

What sample is NOT typically collected by sterile needle aspiration?

-Blood

-Urine

-Cerebrospinal fluid

-Tissue fluids

-All of the choices are collected by sterile needle aspiration

Urine

77

Phage typing is useful in identifying ______.

Salmonella

78

Which test is especially good for bacteria that are not readily cultivated in the lab?

Direct fluorescence antibody (DFA) testing

79

Which of the following is involved in the in vitro diagnostic testing of serum?

Serology

80

What does a serum titer involve?

Determine the highest dilution of serum that produces a visible reaction

81

A positive serological test for tuberculosis indicates that _____.

The patient has been exposed to tuberculosis

82

Titer is the amount of ______________.

Antibody in the serum

83

Indirect ELISA tests for the presence of

Antibody

84

What type of test will detect whole antigens?

Agglutination

85

How can syphilis be diagnosed?

Rapid plasma reagin test

86


The integument includes all of the following EXCEPT ______.

-Skin

-Hair

-Nails

-Sweat glands

-Surface capillaries

Surface capillaries

87

Many skin diseases like measles and chicken pox enter through this portal of entry.

respiratory

88

Protective features of the skin include all BUT ______.

-Keratinized surface

-Resident biota

-Antimicrobial peptides

-High pH

-Lysozyme

High pH

89

What material in skin cells provides protection from abrasions, water damage, and microorganism entry?

Keratin

90

All Staphylococci can be differentiated from all Streptococci because Staphylococci produce the enzyme ______ that is easily detected in the lab.

Catalase

91

Which of the following is the most common form of microbe transmission in impetigo?

Direct contact

92

MRSAs are Staphylococcus aureus strains that are ______.

Resistant to penicillin derivatives

93

Streptococcus pyogenes causes all of the following EXCEPT ______.

-Necrotizing fasciitis

-Erysipelas

-Impetigo

-Scarlet fever

-Scalded skin syndrome

Scalded skin syndrome

94


Which of the following is NOT true of cellulitis?

-Caused by Staphylococcus aureus or Streptococcus pyogenes

-Occurs in the epidermis

-Causes pain, tenderness, swelling, and warmth

-Lymphangitis may occur

-Treated with oral or IV antibiotics

Occurs in the epidermis