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Flashcards in Microbiology Deck (183):
1

dipicolinic acid is found in

spores

2

organisms that don't gram stain well

treponema, leptospira
mycobacteria
mycoplasma, ureaplasma
legionella, rickettsia, chlamydia, bartonella, ehrlichia, anaplasma

3

alternate to Ziehl-Neelsen stain

auramine-rhodamine

4

PAS stain for this microbe

t whipplei

5

India Ink for this microbe

crytococcus neoformans

6

Bordet-Gengou medium (use, contents)

bordetella pertussis. (must be collected with calcium alginate swab). contains charcoal and hoarse blood

7

tellurite agar use

corynebacterium diptheria. positive colonies usually black on these plates

8

Lowenstein agar use

TB

9

Charcoal yeast extract agar (buffered with cysteine and iron) use

Legionella

10

Obligate intracellulars

rickettsia, chlamydia, coxiella

11

Urease positive organisms

Proteus, H. pylori, ureaplasma, Nocardia, cryptococcus, staph epidermidis and saprophyticus, klebsiella

12

these have IgA protease

s pneumo, h flu, neisseria

13

these have T3SS

pseudomonas, salmonella, shigella, e coli (EPEC)

14

toxins encoded in lysogenic phage

GAS erythrogenic toxin, botulinum, cholera, diphtheria, shiga

15

diphtheria toxin MOA

inactivate elongation factor. similar to pseudomonas exotoxin A

16

pseudomonas aeruginosa exotoxin A MOA

inactivate elongation factor. similar to diphtheria toxin

17

shiga (and shiga-like) toxin MOA

inactivate 60S ribosome. SLT is in EHEC/STEC

18

ETEC LT MOA

increases cAMP to increase gut secretion

19

ETEC ST MOA

increases cGMP to decrease gut reabsorption

20

anthracis edema toxin MOA

mimics cAMP. causes black eschar

21

cholera toxin MOA

increases cAMP (via Gs activation) to increase gut secretion

22

pertussis toxin MOA

increases cAMP (via Gi inhibition) to imapir phagocytosis and permit survival of microbe

23

c perfringens alpha toxin MOA

phospholipase

24

gram-positive, aerobic bacilli

listeria, bacillus, corynebacterium

25

gram-positive, sporulating bacteria

bacillus (aerobic), clostridium (anaerobic). both bacilli

26

gram-positive, anaerobic bacilli

clostrdium

27

gram-pos, branching filaments

nocardia (aerobic), actinomyces (anaerobic)

28

gram-pos, acid-fast branching filaments

nocardia

29

gram-pos, aerobic branching filaments

nocardia

30

gram-pos, anaerobic branching filaments

actinomyces

31

gram-pos, catalase-pos cocci

staphyloccus

32

gram-pos, catalase-pos, coagulase-pos cocci

s aureus

33

gram-pos, catalase-pos, coagulase-neg cocci

staph saprophyticus (novobiocin resistant), staph epidermidis (novobiocin sensitive)

34

gram-pos, catalase-pos, coagulase-neg, novobiocin-resistant cocci

saprophyticus

35

gram-pos, catalase-pos, coagulase-neg, novobiocin-sensitive cocci

epidermidis

36

gram-pos, catalase-neg cocci

strep

37

gram-pos, catalase-neg, alpha-hemolytic, optochin sensitive cocci

s pneumo

38

gram-pos, catalase-neg, alpha-hemolytic, optochin resistant cocci

s viridans

39

gram-pos, catalase-neg, alpha-hemolytic, bile soluble cocci

s pneumo

40

gram-pos, catalase-neg, alpha-hemolytic, bile-insoluble cocci

s viridans

41

gram-pos, catalase-neg, beta-hemolytic, bacitracin-sensitive cocci

GAS (pyogenes)

42

gram-pos, catalase-neg, beta-hemolytic, bacitracin-resistant cocci

GBS (agalactiae)

43

gram-pos, catalase-neg, gamma-hemolytic cocci that grow in 6.5% NaCl

Group D (enteroccus != enterobacter) i.e. E faecium, E faecalis

44

gram-pos, catalase-neg, gamma-hemolytic cocci that do NOT grow in 6.5% NaCl

nonenterococcus: s bovis

45

which strep are PYR positive

GAS and enterococcus

46

use this drug to tx tetanus muscle spasms

diazepam

47

C diff A and B toxins

A binds to brush border. B causes cytoskeleton disruption.
Note: these aren't the A and B subunits that mean active and binding for other toxins

48

tx nocardia

sulfonamides

49

tx actinomyces

penicillin

50

gram-neg coccobacilli

h flu, bordetella pertussis, pasteurella, brucella, francisella tularensis

51

gram-neg diplococci

Neisseria and moraxella

52

gram-neg diploccoci that do NOT ferment maltose

n gonorrhoeae and moraxella

53

gram-neg diplococci that ferment maltose

n meningitidis

54

gram-neg, comma-shaped rods

(all oxidase positive): campylobacter, cholerae, h pylori

55

gram-neg, comma-shaped rod, grows in 42C

campy

56

gram-neg, comma-shaped rod, grows in alkaline media

cholerae

57

gram-neg, urease-pos, comma-shaped rod

h pylori

58

gram-neg, lactose fermenting bacilli

fast: klebsiella, e coli, enterobacter
slow: citrobacter, serratia

59

gram-neg non-lactose fermenting bacilli

pseudomonas (oxidase-pos), salmonella, proteus, shigella, yersinia

60

gram-neg non-lactose fermenting, oxidase-pos bacilli

pseudomonas (aerobic)

61

gram-neg non-lactose fermenting, oxidase-neg bacilli

H2S + : salmonella, proteus
H2S - : shigella, yersinia

62

gram-neg non-lactose fermenting, oxidase-neg, H2S pos bacilli

salmonella, proteus

63

gram-neg non-lactose fermenting, oxidase-neg, H2S neg bacilli

shigella, yersinia

64

bug causing relapsing fever

borrelia recurrentis

65

bug causing undulating fever

brucella

66

pasteurella multocida causes

cellulitis, osteomyelitis

67

bug causing epidemic typhus

rickettsia prowazekii. can transport human to human

68

bug causing endemic typhus

rickettsia typhi

69

bug causing rocky mountain spotted fever

rickettsia rickettsii. tick vector

70

lab findings in ehrlichiosis

monocytes with morulae

MEGA berry

71

lab findings in anaplasma

granulocytes with morulae

MEGA berry

72

bacteria that can mimic TB

klebsiella, nocardia

73

treatment for blood-borne trypanosoma brucei

suramin

74

tx for CNS penetration of trypanosoma brucei

melarsoprol

75

Schuffner stippling is a characteristic of this infection

plasmodium vivax/ovale. (red granules in RBCs)

76

what are nematodes? name them and mode of contact

round worms

ingested: enterobius, ascaris, toxocara, trichinella

cutaneous: strongy, ancylostoma, necator

bites: loa loa, onchocerca volvulus, wuchereria bancrofti, brugia

77

what are trematodes? name them and mode of contact

flukes
shisto - contact
clonorchis - ingestion

78

what are cestodes? name them and mode of contact

tapeworms. all ingestion
fish (diphyllobothrium latum), beef (taenia saginatum), pork (t solium), dog (echinococcus granulosus)

79

life cycle for enterobius vermicularis

fecal-oral

80

life cycle for ascaris lumbricoides

fecal-soil-oral + lung

81

life cycle for toxocara canis/cati

pet feces-human mouth

82

life cycle trichinella spiralis

carnivore meat-human mouth

83

life cycle trichuris trichuria (whipworm)

fecal-soil-oral

84

life cycle ancylostoma and necator (hook worms)

fecal-soil-skin + lung

85

life cycle strongy

fecal-soil-skin + lung

86

life cycle schistosoma

waste-water-snail-skin

87

life cycle clonorchis sinensis

from undercooked fish, up biliary tract

88

human role in fish tapeworm life cycle

definitive

89

human role in beef tapeworm life cycle

definitive

90

human role in dog tapeworm life cycle

intermediate

91

human role in pork tapeworm lifecycle

both definitive and intermediate

92

DNA viruses

hepadena, herpes, adeno, pox, parvo, papilloma, polyoma

93

the only ssDNA virus

parvovirus

94

circular DNA virus(es)

papilloma, polyoma, hepadena viruses

95

DNA virus(es) that replicate(s) in cytoplasm

poxvirus

96

RNA virus(es) that replicate(s) in nucleus

flu and retroviruses

97

the only dsRNA virus

reovirdae

98

positive-stranded RNA viruses

retrovirus, togavirus, flavivirus, coronavirus, hepevirus, calcivirus, picornavirus
("I went to a Retro Toga party where I drank Flavored Corona and ate Hippie California Pickles")

99

naked viruses

papilloma, adeno, parvo, polyoma, calici, picorna, reoviridae, hepevirus

100

HBV is a ____ virus

DNA hepadenavirus

101

HAV is a ___ virus

RNA picornavirus

102

HCV is a ___ virus

RNA flavivirus

103

HDV is a ___ virus

RNA deltavirus

104

HEV is a ___ virus

RNA hepevirus

105

JC and BK are viruses are ___ viruses

polyoma

106

receptor used by CMV

integrins (heparan sulfate)

107

receptor used by EBV

CD21

108

receptor used by rhinovirus

ICAM1

109

receptor used by rabies

nicotinic AChR

110

reoviruses medical importance

coltivirus (colorado fever), rotavirus (#1 cause fatal diarrhea in children)

111

picornaviruses medical importance

polio, echovirus, rhino, coxsackie, HAV
("PERCH")

112

hepevirus medical importance

HEV

113

caliciviruses medical importance

norovirus

114

flavivirus medical importance

HCV, yellow fever, Dengue, St. Louis encephalitis, West Nile virus

115

togavirus medical importance

Rubella, Eastern equine encephalitis, Western equine

116

retroviruses medical importance

HTLV, HIV

117

coronaviruses medical importance

cold, SARS, MERS

118

orthomyxovirus medical importance

flu

119

paramyxovirus medical importance

parainfluenza, RSV, Measles, mumps

120

rhabdovirus medical importance

rabies

121

filovirus medical importance

ebola

122

arenavirus medical importance

LCMV (lymphocytic choriomeningitis virus), lassa fever (spread by rodents)

123

bunyavirus medical importance

california encephalitis, sandfly/rift valley fevers, crimean-congo hemorrhagic fever, hantavirus (hemorrhagic fever, pneumonia)

124

deltavirus medical importance

HDV

125

negative-stranded RNA viruses

arena, bunya, paramyxo, orthomyxo, filo, rhabdo
("always bring polymerase or fail replicaiton")

126

segmented viruses

all are RNA. bunya, orthomyxo, arena, reo
("BOAR")

127

councilman bodies are found in

liver biopsy in yellow fever infection and HAV

128

what is 3rd disease

rubella/german measles/3-day measles. recall lymphadenopathy + 3C's before rash

129

forchheimer sign and disease

petichiae on palate and uvula, rubella/german measles

130

what is 5th disease

erythema infectiosum/slapped cheek

131

what causes 5th disease

(slapped cheek), parvovirus B19

132

what is 6th disease

roseola/exanthem subitum

133

what causes 6th disease

HHV 6 (sometimes 7)

134

which morbilliform disease has high fevers that can cause seizures

roseola (6th). disappears before onset of rash

135

what are nagayama spots, and which disease

red papules on soft palate and uvula. roseola

136

hepatocyte sweling, monocyte infiltration, and councilman bodies found on liver biopsy of this hepatitis virus

HAV

137

granular eosinophilic ground glass found on liver biopsy of this virus

HBV (and HDV)

138

lymphoid aggregates with focal areas of macrovesicular steatosis found on liver biopsy of this virus

HCV

139

patchy necrosis found on liver biopsy of this virus

HEV

140

microbe in food poisoning from reheated meat

c perfringens

141

microbe in food poisoning from contaminated sea food

v parahaemolyticus and v vulnificus. can also cause wound infections

142

organisms not covered by cephalosporins

listeria, atypicals (chlamydia and mycoplasma), MRSA (except ceftaroline), enterococci

143

which cephalosporins cover pseudomonas

3rd and 4th gen

144

indication for monobactams

aerobic gram negatives only e.g. pseudomonas

145

AE vanco

nephro, oto, thrombophlebitis

146

AE aminoglycosides

nephro, oto, neuromuscular blockade, teratogen

147

AE tetracyclines

discoloration of teeth, inhibits bone growth, photosensitivity

148

antibiotic that cannot be taken with milk, antacids, or iron

tetracyclines

149

clindamycin indication

anaerobic infections above diaphragm

150

metranidazole indication

anaerobic infections below diaphragm

151

AE linezolid

bone marrow suppresion, peripheral neuropathy, serotonin syndrome

152

AE macrolides

GI motility, arrhythmias (long QT), acute cholestatic hepatitis, rash, eosinophilia
("MACRO")

153

AE sulfonamides

hemolysis with G6PD, nephro (tubulointerstitial nephritis), photosensitivity, kernicterus in infants

154

AE dapsone

G6PD def. hemolysis

155

AE TMP

treats marrow poorly. can alleviate with folinic acid

156

AE FQs

tendonitis/rupture, bad for cartilage in children, may prolong QT

157

do not give this drug with antacids (iron and milk are okay)

FQs

158

AE metronidazole

disulfiram-like reaction

159

AE cephalosporins

disulfiram-like rxn, vit k def, increases nephrotox of aminoglycosides

160

drugs to use for MRSA

vanco > linezolid, dapto, ceftaroline

161

drugs to use for VRE

linezolid, dapto, streptogrammins

162

KatG encodes the bacterial peroxidase to convert this drug to active metabolite

INH

163

AE: INH

hepatotoxicity, P450 inhibition, drug-induced lupus, B6 deficiency

164

AE pyrazinamide

hyperuricemia, hepatotoxicity

165

AE ethambutol

optic neuropathy (red-green color blindess)
("EYEthambutol")

166

HIV prophylaxis for PCP and toxo

TMP-SMX

167

HIV prophylaxis for MAC

clarithromycin or axithromycin

168

testosterone synthesis inhibition is a side effect of this class of antimicrobials

azoles, especially ketoconazole

169

terbinafine MOA

inhibits squalene epoxidase

170

griseofulvin MOA

interfere with microtubule formation

171

tx for t cruzi

nifurtimox

172

tx leishmania

sodium stibogluconate

173

anti-mite/louse therapy

permethrin (Na blockade), malathion (AChE inhibitor), lindane (blocks GABA)

174

drugs that need to be activated by viral enzymes

acyclovir/famciclovir/valacyclovir by viral thymidine kinase

ganciclovir by CMV viral kinase

175

viral DNA polymerase inhibitors (not guanosine analogs)

cidofovir, foscarnet

176

MOA fibavirin

inhibits guanine nucleotide synthesis (blocks IMP dehydrogenase). used for RSV and HCV

177

AE NRTIs

bone marrow suppression, peripheral neuropathy, lactic acidosis (except tenofivir)
anemia - ZDV/AZT
pancreatitis - didanosine

178

AE NNRTIs

rash and hepatotoxicity
vivid dreams - efavirenz

179

AE protease inhibitors

lipodystrophy

180

drugs used in HCV therapy and MOA

ribavirin - inhibits IMP dehydrogenase
Sofosbuvir - inhibits RNA-dependent RNA polymerase
Simeprevir - HCV protease inhibitor (AE photosensitivity)

181

AE of ribavirin

hemolytic anemia, severe teratogen

182

what is 2nd disease

scarlet fever

183

what is first disease

measles