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BOLC MIDTERM > MIDTERM > Flashcards

MIDTERM Flashcards

1
Q

Describe the basic army element symbols to the corps level

A

zero team
1, 2, 3 dots = squad, section, platton
I, II = company, bn
X, XX, XXX = brigade, division, corps

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2
Q

Describe the team and squad composition

A

Team: 4-8 PVT or SPC led by a CPL or SGT
- consists of tm leader, rifleman, grenadier, automatic rifleman

Squad: 8-16 soldiers (2-3 teams) led by a SGT or SSG

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3
Q

Describe the composition of a platoon

A

Second or first LT and SFC in HQ

2-3 squads and 30-50 people

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4
Q

3 types of BCTs, their symbols, their equipment and composition

A
  1. Armored, stryker and infantry
  2. Armored = x w/ tank track, stryker = x w/ wheels, infantry = x
  3. COL, 1-5000 people, 2-7 BNs
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5
Q

What is the makeup of an ABCT, their capabilities and limitations?

A

Combined arms battallions, cav, BEB, BSB led by CDR and CSM

Capabilities

  • Sustained combat operations
  • Rapid movement
  • Security for larger forces

Limitations

  • Mobility restricted by urban, jungle, rugged/steep, water
  • Strategic mobility
  • High CONSUMPTION
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6
Q

What is the makeup of an SBCT, their capabilities and limitations?

A

Stryker bns, cav, BEB, BSB

Cap

  • Rapid (less than infantry)
  • More firepower than infantry

Limits
- in between armored and infantry including limited organic sustainment

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7
Q

What is the makeup of an IBCT, their capabilities and limitations?

A

Infantry bns, cav, BEB, BSB

Capabilities
Flexibility to accomplish different missions
Most rapidly and strategically deployable
Effective on different terrain against a variety
of enemy forces

Limitations
In combat predominately dismounted
Vulnerable to enemy artillery attack and heavy forces

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8
Q

What are the multi-functional supporting brigades?

A 
CAB (bowtie)
Fires (hole)
Manuever enhancement (shield)
Sustainment (SUST)
Transportation (wheel)
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9
Q

Commander may delegate authority to his staff but not _______.

Staff establishes and maintains _______ and ______ w/ other staff

A

Responsibility

coordination and cooperation

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10
Q

What is the role of the Chief of Staff/XO?

A

Commander’s principle assistant for directing, coordinating, supervising, and training the staff.

Integrates & synchronizes the war fighting plans

Manages the Commander’s Critical Information Requirements (CCIR)

Establishes, manages, and enforces staff planning time IAW commander’s guidance

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11
Q

What is the role of S1?

A

Personnel

Manning, personnel service support, admin/org of HQ, Coordinate special staff officers
- Adjutant general, surgeon, chaplain, SJA

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12
Q

What is the role of S2?

A

MI (Intel, IPB, help S3 figure our ECOA)

Counter intelligence

Security

Intel training and integration of previous bullets

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13
Q

What is the role of S3?

A

Training

Operations and Plans (including publishing and distro)

Force modernization

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14
Q

What is the role of S4?

A

Logistical operations

Supply

Maintenance

Trans

Mortuary affairs

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15
Q

What is the role of G5?

A

In conjunction with the G-3, the G-5 prepares Annex A (Task Organization), Annex C (Operations), and Annex M (Assessment) to the operation order or operation plan

Overseeing operations beyond the scope of the current order (such as the next operation or the next phase of the current operation)
Developing plans, orders, branches, and sequels
Conducting military deception planning
Developing policies and other coordinating or directive products, such as memorandums of agreement

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16
Q

What is the role of S6?

A

Signal and IT

Infosec

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17
Q

What is the role of G8?

A

Finance and finance policy

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18
Q

What is the role of S9?

A

Civil affairs

Evaluate civil considerations

Transition to civilian control

Civilian impact

Enhancing civilian military relationship

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19
Q

A warfighting function is a group of ________ and ________ united by a common purpose that commanders use to accomplish missions and training objectives

A

Tasks and systems

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20
Q

What is the definition of a warfighting function?

A

A warfighting function is a group of tasks and systems united by a common purpose that commanders use to accomplish missions and training objectives.

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21
Q

What are the six warfighting functions?

A

Command and control

Movement and maneuver

Intel

Fires

Sustainment

Protection

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22
Q

Define the command and control warfighting function

A

The command and control warfighting function is the related tasks and a system that enable commanders to synchronize and converge all elements of combat power.

SYNCHRONIZE AND CONVERGE ELEMENTS

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23
Q

Define the Movement and maneuver warfighting function

A

The movement and maneuver warfighting function is the related tasks and systems that move and employ forces to achieve a position of relative advantage over the enemy and other threats.

MOVE AND EMPLOY FORCES TO ACHIEVE A POSITION OF RELATIVE ADVANTAGE

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24
Q

Define the Intelligence warfighting function

A

The intelligence warfighting function is the related tasks and systems that facilitate understanding the enemy, terrain, weather, civil considerations, and other significant aspects of the operational environment.

UNDERSTANDING ENEMY, TERRAIN, WEATHER, CIVIL AND OTHER aspects of the operational environment

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25
Q

Define the FIRES warfighting function

A

The fires warfighting function is the related tasks and systems that create and converge effects in all domains against the adversary or enemy to enable operations across the range of military operations.

CREATE AND CONVERGE EFFECTS

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26
Q

Define the SUSTAINMENT warfighting function

A

The sustainment warfighting function is the related tasks and systems that provide support and services to ensure freedom of action, extended operational reach, and prolong endurance.

PROVIDE SUPPORT AND SERVICES to ensure FREEDOM of ACTION, EXTENDED OPERATIONAL REACH and PROLONG ENDURANCE

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27
Q

Define the Protection warfighting function

A

The protection warfighting function is the related tasks and systems that preserve the force so the commander can apply maximum combat power to accomplish the mission.

PRESERVE THE FORCE TO APPLY MAXIMUM COMBAT POWER

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28
Q

What are examples of cyber attacks?

A

DOS
Exploitation
Misinformation
Cell phone stuff

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29
Q

How does the enemy exploit command post datalinks, active cell phone and mobile radios?

A
  1. detect
  2. coordinate
  3. strike
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30
Q

What is the EMS? What is the Sweet spot?

A

Electromagnetic spectrum (Hz)

60MHz to 6GHz
(FM, TV, GSM, 3G/5G, WIFI, Satcom)

Harris, medium wave and long wave are all outside of the sweet spot

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31
Q

Who designates the order an element moves through their communications pace plan?

A

S6

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32
Q

What are 6 ways to decrease transmission times?

A

Ensure they are necessary

Preplan messages

Transmit quickly

Data burst

Alternate means of Comms

Brevity codes

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33
Q

What is the document used to report Jamming of equipment?

A

JSIR

Joint spectrum interference report

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34
Q

Walk through the jamming smart card left side

A

1 = trouble shoot, issue resolved = cancel JSIR

2 = Increase power or reposition the antenna, issue resolved = cancel JSIR

3 = Execute pace plan and confirm JSIR

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35
Q

Walk through the jamming smart card right side

A
  1. Submit JSIR to HQ
  2. Jamming confirmed? No = notify reporter
  3. Jamming confirmed? Yes = Submit JSIR to division and get SIGINT/ELINT if BCT does not have.
  4. Destroy jammer
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36
Q

Describe the allocation of EW and cyber resources to manuever units

A

BCT and higher will have organic CEMA (cyber electromagnetic activities) sections.

BN will have one EW NCO

**ASK FOR EFFECTS, NOT ENABLERS

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37
Q

Describe an EW PLT and how to employ them

A

**ASK FOR EFFECTS, NOT ENABLERS

One EW PLT will have three teams to support an entire Brigade.
An EW PLT is most effective as a unit of three teams (need three sensors to get a fix on a target).
But, depending on location and terrain, an EW PLT can support multiple BN and CO units without being directly attached.

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38
Q

What joint publication describe an “Effect”

A

JP 3-0

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39
Q

How does JP 3-0 describe an “effect”?

A

The physical or behavioral state of a system that results from an action, a set of actions, or another effect.

The result, outcome, or consequence of an action.

A change to a condition, behavior, or degree of freedom

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40
Q

List effects according to ATP 3-60

A

Effects include: Degrade, Delay, Deny, Destroy, Disrupt, Divert, Exploit, Interdict, Neutralize, or Suppress. (ATP 3-60)

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41
Q

What ATP lists the effects?

A

ATP 3-60

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42
Q

What FM describes EW and Cyber effects?

A

FM 3-12

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43
Q

What are the EW and Cyber effects?

A

Degrade, deny, destroy, disrupt, manipulate

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44
Q

What AR describes the accounting of property acquired by the army?

A

AR 735-5

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45
Q

All property acquired by the Army from any source (bought, _______ or donated) must be accounted for IAW AR _______

A

Scrounged

735-5

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46
Q

What are the TYPES of property (2)?

A

Real (lands and permanent structures)

Personal (equipment and other nonexpendable supplies, consumable supplies and relocatable buildings

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47
Q

What are the CLASSIFICATIONS of property (3)

A

Non expendable
Expendable
Durable

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48
Q

Supplies and equipment on hand at Army Materiel Command (AMC) accountable supply distribution activities and depots will be inventoried _________ IAW DLM 4000.25-2 and more often when described by other regulatory guidance

A

Once a year

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49
Q

Physical Inventory of all supplies and equipment in SSA storage ________ according to AR 710-2 as applicable

A

Annually

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50
Q

User Level- all on hand property on property book records and/or hand receipts will be inventoried ____________________________________

A

Annually or upon change of the primary hand receipt holder

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51
Q

Change of PBO - all property not issued on a hand receipt will be jointly inventoried by the ____________PBOs. (AR 710-2)

A

Outgoing and incoming PBO’s

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52
Q

Real Property heritage assets will be inventoried at least once every ________ years upon change of accountable officer, which ever comes first per AR 405-45

A

3

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53
Q

Real Property, general property and equipment and stewardship land will be inventoried at least once every ____ years

Army Prepositioned Stocks (APS) a 100 percent inventory is required when _____ are off loaded during cyclic maintenance vessel berthing

Library materials accounted for under the provisions of AR 735-17 will be inventoried on _______ so all items are inventories at least once every ___ years

When and where feasible and practical, physical inventories will be accomplished using __________(AIT)

A

5

Ships

Cyclic basis, 3

Automatic identification technology

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54
Q

ACCOUNTABILITY is defined as:

The obligation to keep ______ of property, documents, or funds. These records show __________ (6) on hand or in use

A

Records

identification data, gains, losses, dues-in, dues-out, and balances

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55
Q

What are the 3 types of accountable officers?

A

Transportation officer

Stock record officer

Property book officer

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56
Q

What is the definition of responsibility and waht are the 5 types?

A

Is the obligation of an individual to ensure that Government property and funds entrusted to his or her possession, command, or supervision are properly used and card for and that proper custody and safekeeping are provided.

Command, Direct, Supervisory, Custodial and Personal

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57
Q

Responsibility – Is the obligation of an individual to ensure that Government property and funds entrusted to his or her (3)___________ are properly used and cared for and that proper custody and safekeeping are provided.

A

possession, command, or supervision

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58
Q

What is command responsibility

A

obligation of a commander to ensure all Government property within his or her command is properly used and cared for, and that proper custody and safekeeping of Government property are provided. Command responsibility is inherent in command and cannot be delegated.

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59
Q

What is direct responsibility

A

Obligation of a person to ensure all Government property for which he or she has receipted, is properly used and cared for, and that proper custody and safekeeping are provided.

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60
Q

What is Supervisory responsibility

A

Obligation of the supervisor to ensure all Government property issue to, or used by, his or her subordinates is properly used and cared for and that proper custody and safekeeping of the property are provided

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61
Q

What is custodial responsibility?

A

The obligation of an individual for property in storage awaiting issue or turn-in to exercise reasonable and prudent actions to properly care for and ensure proper custody and safekeeping of the property are provided.

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62
Q

What is personal responsibility?

A

The obligation of a person to execute reasonable and prudent actions to properly use, care for, and safeguard all Government property in their possession.

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63
Q

The obligation of a person to execute reasonable and prudent actions to properly use, care for, and safeguard all Government property in their possession.

A

Personal

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64
Q

The obligation of an individual for property in storage awaiting issue or turn-in to exercise reasonable and prudent actions to properly care for and ensure proper custody and safekeeping of the property are provided.

A

Custodial

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65
Q

Obligation of the supervisor to ensure all Government property issue to, or used by, his or her subordinates is properly used and cared for and that proper custody and safekeeping of the property are provided

A

Supervisory

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66
Q

Obligation of a person to ensure all Government property for which he or she has receipted, is properly used and cared for, and that proper custody and safekeeping are provided.

A

Direct

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67
Q

obligation of a commander to ensure all Government property within his or her command is properly used and cared for, and that proper custody and safekeeping of Government property are provided. Command responsibility is inherent in command and cannot be delegated.

A

Command

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68
Q

What are the 3 p’s of property accountability

A

people property process

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69
Q

Who is involved in prechange of command phase of change of command inventory?

A

2 company commanders, PBO, BN and BDE commanders

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70
Q

What are the tasks of the outgoing commander during pre change of command for change of command inventory

A

Make sure everything is accounted for

Make sure all reciepts, sub hand reciepts (storage locations/SLOC) and annexes (component listing, bill of materials/BOM) are updated

Review DA PAM 25-30 to stay up to date on supply shit

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71
Q

How long will be alloted for joint inventoy during COC? What if you will exceed that? AR 710-2

A

30 days.

Need written extension request to commander (2 x 15 days) AR 710-2

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72
Q

What AR is responsible for COC inventory?

A

AR 710-2

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73
Q

Describe actions at post coc inventory phase

A

Sign COC memorandum

Prepare DA 1687 (delegation of authority signature card) and distribute to agencies

Final brief to BN and BDE commander

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74
Q

What is the principal tool for maneuver sustainment for the army?

A

GCSS-Army (global combat support system)

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75
Q

What is a DA 1687?

A

Delegation of authority SIGNATURE CARD

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76
Q

Who are the unit movement key personnel?

A

Unit/company UMO

BN UMO

BDE mobility warrant officer

Division transportation officer

Installation transportation office

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77
Q

What does the UMO do?

A

The UMO uses TC-AIMS II to ensure Unit Movement Data (UMD) is updated to forscom

maintains/manages shipping containers and 463L pallets

reviewing/approves movement plans

maintains highway files (POCs for state and local authorities).

assists in identifying and obtaining Blocking, Bracing, Packing, Crating, and tie-down materials (BBPCT).

ensures unit equipment is properly marked prior to moving off the installation.

coordinates external transportation support (buses, railcars, MHE etc.)

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78
Q

What does the BN UMO do?

A

Same stuff as unit UMO

Advise BN commander, prep plans/orders, inspect subordinate units, consolidates single BN report

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79
Q

The bottom line in the Brigade MOB (Mobility Officer) is the SME on everything deployment and redeployment for the Brigade and is a great POC for questions or to request assistance such as training or a courtesy inspection of your units Command Deployment Discipline Program (CDDP).

A

Brigade mobility unit officer

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80
Q

Division transportation officer serves in what section?

A

Division G4 trans

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81
Q

Who is the primary POC for USAF airlift for AC and RC?

A

Installation transportation office (ITO) AKA the logistics readiness center in/outbound freight (LRC)

82
Q

What is the definition of mode, node, embarkation and debarkation?

A

Mode is a mode of trans of people or material

Node is a location where movement is originated, processed for onward movement or terminated

Embark = load

Debark = unload

83
Q

Define marshalling area, staging area, alert holding area and frustrated cargo

A

The marshalling area is defined as a location in the vicinity of a reception terminal or pre-positioned equipment storage site where arriving unit personnel, equipment, materiel, and accompanying supplies are reassembled, returned to the control of the unit commander, and prepared for onward movement.

Staging Areas are defined as a general locality established for the concentration of troop UNITS and transient PERSONNEL between movements over the lines of communications.

The alert holding area is the equipment, vehicle, and passenger control area. It is normally located in the vicinity of the DEPARTURE airfield and is used to assemble, inspect, hold, and service aircraft loads. Control of loads is transferred from the individual unit to the A/DACG at this point.

Any shipment of supplies and/or equipment which, while en route to destination, is stopped prior to receipt and for which further disposition instructions must be obtained. (JP 4-01.5) Generally this is occurs when a shipper refuses to move/take control of cargo due to an issue with the cargo. Those issues can range from documentation, loading, to the contents.

84
Q

The _________ is defined as a location in the vicinity of a reception terminal or pre-positioned equipment storage site where arriving unit personnel, equipment, materiel, and accompanying supplies are reassembled, returned to the control of the unit commander, and prepared for onward movement.

A

Marshalling area

85
Q

__________ are defined as a general locality established for the concentration of troop UNITS and transient PERSONNEL between movements over the lines of communications.

A

Staging areas

86
Q

The ____________ is the equipment, vehicle, and passenger control area. It is normally located in the vicinity of the DEPARTURE airfield and is used to assemble, inspect, hold, and service aircraft loads. Control of loads is transferred from the individual unit to the A/DACG at this point.

A

Alert holding area

87
Q

Any shipment of supplies and/or equipment which, while en route to destination, is stopped prior to receipt and for which further disposition instructions must be obtained. (JP 4-01.5) Generally this is occurs when a shipper refuses to move/take control of cargo due to an issue with the cargo. Those issues can range from documentation, loading, to the contents.

A

Frustrated cargo

88
Q

If weight of military cargo is annotated on the package what must you still do?

A

Verify actual weights

89
Q

Unmarked cargo must be _______ before loading and _____ shipment weight shoud be equal to the _____ of the individual cargo weights

A

weighed

total, sum

90
Q

What are 8 cargo loading considerations

A

Use boxes

Pack so cargo doesnt shift (BBPCT)

Keep load low

Consider off loading priorities

Load stuff in uniform size/shape

TB 55-46-1 provides cargo body dimensions for vehicles

consider deployment configuration of vehicles carrying secondary loads

Loads cannot exceed reduction dimensions

91
Q

What TB provides base and reduced cargo body dimensions for vehicles

A

TB 55-46-1

92
Q

What is the army ethic

A

The Army ethic is the set of enduring moral principles, values, beliefs, and laws that guide the Army profession and create the culture of trust essential to Army professionals in the conduct of missions, performance of duty, and all aspects of life

93
Q

The essence of the Army ethic is captured in our ______, _______, and the ________.

A

Creeds, ethos, army values

94
Q

What are the six overarching characteristics of a healthy army culture and organizational climate?

A
  1. Foster UNITY, COHESION and TRUST
  2. Promote and award MENTAL AGILITY
  3. Reward members who demonstrate ABILITY
  4. Require and reward DELEGATION
  5. Select and reward leaders who provide CLEAR PRIORITIES
  6. demand DIVERSITY
95
Q

What are the 3 levels of leadership?

A

Direct

Organizational

Strategic

96
Q

How does direct leadership develop subordinates

A

coaching, counseling, mentoring and setting the example

97
Q

What are the 3 approaches to counseling?

A

Nondirective, directive and combined

98
Q

What is the four step counseling process?

A

ID, Prep, Conduct, Follow up

99
Q

What is the outline of the counseling?

A

Open, discuss, plan of action, close

100
Q

What is the developmental counseling form?

A

DA 4856

101
Q

What are the sections of the DA 4856?

A

Purpose of counseling, key points, plan, closing, leader responsibilities, assessment

102
Q

What is the primary function of the NCOER?

A

Primary function of the evaluation report is to provide key information to HQDA for use in making critical personnel management decisions.

103
Q

Primary function of the evaluation report is to provide key information to HQDA for use in making ______________.

A

Critical personnel management decisions

104
Q

Senior rater profile for senior raters of SSG-CSM/SGM; limited to ______% for the “MOST QUALIFIED” selection

A

24%

105
Q

Three NCOER forms aligned with Army Leadership Doctrine (ADP 6-22)
2166-9-__ SGT/SGT(P) (Direct)
2166-9-___ SSG-1SG/MSG (Organizational)
2166-9-__ CSM/SGM (Strategic)

A

1, 2, 3

106
Q

The leadership requirements model lists what attributes on the NCOER/leadership?

A

Character, Presence, Intellect, Leads, Develops, Achieves

107
Q

What are the senior rater requirements for NCOER?

A

Direct line of supervision

> 60 days

Fair

Forward to HQDA NLT 60 days past thru date

(2 ranks above rated soldier or GS-9)

AR 623-3

108
Q

What is the senior raters role in NCOER?

A

Potential, overwatch performance eval and mentoring

109
Q

Describe the DA 2166-9-1

A

Focuses on proficiency and is developmental in nature; aligns with Army Leadership Doctrine

Assessment based on 2-box scale
MET STANDARD
DID NOT MEET STANDARD

Rater – bullet format (8 lines), overall performance = 5 lines

Unconstrained Senior Rater box check

Senior Rater – narrative format

110
Q

Describe the DA 2166-9-2

A

Focuses on organizational systems and processes; aligns with Army Leadership Doctrine

Rater – bullet format

Assessment based on 4-box scale
FAR EXCEEDED STANDARD
EXCEEDED STANDARD
MET STANDARD
DID NOT MEET STANDARD

Unconstrained Rater Tendency

Senior Rater Profile is limited to 24% for “MOST QUALIFIED” selection; no credit applied – only one of the first eight reports may be “MOST QUALIFIED

Senior Rater – narrative format

111
Q

Describe the DA 2166-9-3

A

Focuses on large organizations and strategic initiatives; aligns with Army Leadership Doctrine

Rater – narrative format 5 lines

Rater Overall Performance is not limited

Senior Rater Profile is limited to 24% for MOST QUALIFIED selection); no credit applied – only one of the first four reports may be MOST QUALIFIED

Senior Rater – narrative format 4 lines

112
Q

The senior rater will identify two successive duty assignments and one broadening assignment for which the rated NCO is best suited, focusing ______ years out.

A

3-5

113
Q

What are the rated officers responsibilities?

A

Meet with rater within 30 days

Initiate discussion of duties and objectives

Assess and update objectives

Complete DA Form 67-10-1A (Officer Evaluation Support Form)

114
Q

Who is qualified to be a rater for an officer?

A 
Immediate supervisor
U.S.  / Allied Armed Forces Officer / U.S. Government Employee
Senior in grade or date of rank
Command position exception
Normally must serve 90 days
115
Q

What are the responsibilities or the officer’s rater

A

Provide rater and senior rater support forms
Discuss job description and performance objectives with rated officer within 30 days
Counsel quarterly throughout rating period
Assess the performance of the rated officer
Verify height/weight and APFT data

116
Q

What are the intermediate rater qualifications for OER?

A

Between rater/senior rater
Limited to special branches and dual supervision situations
U.S. / Allied Armed Forces Officer / U.S. Government Employee
Senior in grade or date of rank to rated officer
Must serve minimum of 60 days
Technical expert

117
Q

What are senior rater qualifications for OER?

A 
Senior to rater and intermediate rater
U.S. Armed Forces Officer or U.S. Government Employee
Minimum grade:
Military:  O-4
Civilian:   GS-13
Must serve minimum of 60 days
118
Q

What are the senior rater responsibilities for OER?

A 
Ensure support form is distributed 
Review DA Form 67-10-1A 
Ensure rater counsels rated officer 
Evaluate officer’s potential relative to peers
Conducts final review of report 
Refer reports as required
119
Q

What are the four seperate OER reports?

A

There are four separate evaluation reports, based on grade:
DA Form 67-10-1: Company Grade (2LT-CPT & WO1-CW2)
DA Form 67-10-2: Field Grade (MAJ-LTC & CW3-CW5)
DA Form 67-10-3: Strategic Leaders (COL)
DA Form 67-10-4: Brigadier General
The OER Support Form, DA Form 67-10-1A, is mandatory for COL and below.

120
Q

Define the rater box check for perfomance on OER

A

Excels: Results far surpass expectations.
Proficient: Consistently produces quality results with measurable improvement in unit performance.
Capable: Meets requirements of position and additional duties.

121
Q

Describe senior rater box check on OER

A

Four box profile is consistent and provides more options for senior raters
Highly Qualified and Qualified enable greater stratification
Most Qualified becomes the control box (limited to less than 50%)

HQ = current COM, qualified is not referred/promote if able

122
Q

As a key counseling tool, the OER Support Form is used to ________ subordinates, and aids in defining/guiding goals and objectives tied to leadership attributes and competencies.

A

mentor and develop

123
Q

What are the mandatory reports for OER?

A 
Change of Rater*
Change of Duty / PCS
Annual Evaluation
Extended Annual
Departure on TDY /  Special Duty
Officer Non-select for Promotion
Relief For Cause
Initial tour of extended active duty (AMEDD, JAG, Chaplain)
Human Resource Command directed
124
Q

What are optional reports for oer?

A 
Complete the Record
Senior Rater Option
Rater Option
Special Situations:
Soldiers assigned to a Warrior Transition Unit (WTU) may receive an OER (AR 623-3, Chapter 3, Section 3-34)
125
Q

What is the minimum rating period?

A

90 days for Active Duty
120 days for Reserve Component*
U.S. Army Reserve (USAR)
Army National Guard (ARNG)

126
Q

Differentiate the 2 different types of appeals

A

There are two types of appeals:
Administrative
- Only for administrative errors
- Adjudicated by Evaluation Appeals Branch, HQDA

Substantive

  • Differences of opinion
  • Prejudice
  • Inaccurate / unjust ratings
  • Adjudicated by Army Special Review Board (ASRB)
127
Q

Can a whole OER be appealed? What about just part?

A

Both yes (AR 623-3)

128
Q

What are the rules with OER appeals?

A

An appeal may be approved in whole or in part, or may be denied
Preponderance of evidence is the rated officer’s responsibility
Lengthy process; done by priority
3 year time limit for substantive appeals
No time limit for administrative appeals

129
Q

What is the purpose of OPMS?

A

OPMS deals with strength management, accessions, and assignments (and professional development)

130
Q

Who manages AMEDD officer and how?

A

The Surgeon General exercises personnel management authority over AMEDD officers

The Surgeon General will —

Designate the AMEDD officer initial branch and medical functional area (MFA) to meet Army requirements. (Individual preferences will be considered)

Develop and execute professional development policy for AMEDD officers

131
Q

List procurement sources for OPMS accessions

A

Officer Candidate School (OCS)
U.S. Army Recruiting Command (USAREC)
Health Profession Scholarship Program (HPSP)
Direct accessions (fully qualified and licensed in respective specialty)
Reserve Officer Training Command (ROTC)
United States Military Academy at West Point (USMA)
Branch transfers (voluntary and involuntary)
Interservice transfers from other uniformed service components
U.S. Army Reserve or National Guard accessions to active duty
Financial Assistance Program (FAP)
Civilian Education Delay

132
Q

What are the 6 corps of amedd

A 
Medical Corps (MC)
Dental Corps (DC)
Veterinary Corps (VC)
Nurse Corps (AN)
Medical Specialist Corps (SP)
Medical Service Corps (MS)
133
Q

Describe the progression of assignments (in general) for amedd officers

A

Progressively Challenging
Career Progression Tracks (AMEDD HRC Web Page)
Variety (MTOE vs. TDA / CONUS vs. OCONUS)

134
Q

List types of voluntary seperations programs

A 
VSI = voluntary separation incentive
SSB = special separation bonus
VERP = boluntary early release program
135
Q

List types of involuntary separations

A 
SERB= selective early retirement board
RIF = reduction in force
136
Q

What are the two types of officer evaluations?

A 
DA 67-10-x (OER)
DA 1059 (AER)
137
Q

What is an ORB

A

DA 4037

Maintained by officer records branch, updated via S1

Update at least annually or after significant change

138
Q

Describe decentralized officer promotions

A

2LT to 1LT and WO1 to CW2
Fully qualified criteria
No numerical limits
Yes / No recommendation by local CDR (O-5

139
Q

Describe centralized officer promotions

A 
Beyond 1LT and CW2
Best qualified criteria
Numerical limits
Fully qualified versus Best qualified
Best qualified are selected for promotion first
Order of merit list
140
Q

What is army competitive category vs. special branches?

A

Army Competitive Category (ACC)
Includes Infantry, Quartermaster, Engineers, Signal, and most other branches

Special Branches
AMEDD (All 6 Corps), JAG, Chaplain
Separate promotion boards
Special pays, depending on the specialty

141
Q

Define the “strategic environment”

A

the global environment in which the US President employs all the elements of national power (diplomatic, informational, military, and economic).

142
Q

the global environment in which the US President employs all the elements of national power (diplomatic, informational, military, and economic).

A

Strategic environment

143
Q

Define operational environment according to JP 3-0

A

a composite of the conditions, circumstances, and influences that affect the employment of capabilities and bear on the decisions of the commander (JP 3-0).

144
Q

a composite of the conditions, circumstances, and influences that affect the employment of capabilities and bear on the decisions of the commander (JP 3-0).

A

Operational environment

145
Q

List the 8 operational variables of the operational environment

A

Political military economic social info infrastructure physical environment and time (PMESII-PT)

146
Q

What is PMESII-PT?

A

8 OPERATIONAL VARIABLES (Operational environment)

political military economic social infrastructure information physical time

147
Q

What AR governs enlisted promotion and reduction?

A

AR 600-8-19

148
Q

Describe decentralized, semi-centralized and centralized promotions for enlisted members

A

DECENTRALIZED: (Chapter 2)
Promotion to SPC/CPL and below
Promotion Authority: Unit Commander

SEMI-CENTRALIZED: (Chapter 3)
Promotions to SGT and SSG
Promotion Authority: Battalion Commander

CENTRALIZED: (Chapter 4)
Promotions to SFC thru SGM
Promotion Authority: Headquarters, Department of the Army (HQDA) (HRC)

149
Q

Describe the roles involved in semi-centralized promotion for enlisted members

A

Battalion Commanders:
(LTC or higher)
Have promotion authority
Conduct promotion boards
Integrate Recommend Soldiers on HQDA List
Execute Promotions – Orders and Ceremonies

Army Human Resources Command:
Receive and monitor promotion points from the field
Determine promotion cut-off scores by MOS/grade
Announce monthly by-name promotion list

Battalion S-1
Produce the Enlisted Promotions Report NLT 3d day of each month and provides to Company Commander
Schedules appointment for recommended Soldiers to assist with pre-board preparation.

Company Commander
Circles YES / NO for each Soldier and returns to S-1 NLT 5th day of the month. Soldiers not recommended and fully qualified must be counseled on a DA 4856.

The Battalion CSM–with NCO Support Channel Input – validates Company Commander’s recommendation to the promotion authority with a YES / NO vote. (in a board)

150
Q

Describe promotion board composition for enlisted soldiers

A

Minimum three voting members appointed in writing
President must be CSM or SGM (unless an officer is present)
Voting members must be senior in rank
Include minority member if reasonably available
At least one voting member will be same gender as Soldiers recommended

151
Q

What are the TIS and TIG eligibility criteria for SGT and SSG?

A

PZ TIS = 35 months, 71 months
SZ = 17 months, 47 months

PZ TIG = 7 months, 9 months
SZ = 5 months, six months

152
Q

SSG must complete what military education prior to board appearance?

A

BLC and SSD2

153
Q

What is the mandatory list intergration for SGT and SSG?

A 
TIS = 47 and 83 months
TIG = 11 and 11 months
154
Q

Describe the centralized selection board

A

Minimum of 5 members including commissioned officers and senior NCOs; female and minority representation, if available
President of board is a General Officer
Non-selects for promotion are not given specific reasons
No Soldier may personally appear before the board
Letters to the board are authorized, but discouraged

155
Q

What are the categories of individual awards?

A

Decorations

Good Conduct Medal

Service Medals / Service Ribbons

Badges / Tabs

Certificates / Letters

Foreign Awards

156
Q

What is the difference between the medal of honor and the distinguished service cross (besides precedence?)

A

DSC can be awarded to foreign military

157
Q

Who is eligible for the AGCM and why do they get it?

A
  • Active Component enlisted Soldiers
    - Active Guard Reserve (AGR) enlisted personnel
    - Retroactively to eligible Army of the United States (AUS) enlisted
    - Other Army enlisted as directed by the Secretary of the Army
    - Ready Reserve enlisted ordered to AD under Title 10, USC

Awarded for exemplary behavior, efficiency, and fidelity throughout a specified period of continuous enlisted active Federal military service (3 years).

158
Q

Awarded for exemplary behavior, efficiency, and fidelity throughout a specified period of continuous enlisted active Federal military service (3 years).

A

AGCM

159
Q

What is a service medal or ribbon?

A

Service (campaign) medals and service ribbons denote honorable performance of duty within specified limited dates in specified geographical areas.

160
Q

honorable performance of duty within specified limited dates in specified geographical areas earns what type of decoration?

A

Service medal/ribbon

161
Q

What is special leave accrual?

A

Provides relief to Soldiers who are not allowed leave when undergoing lengthy deployment or during periods of hostility.

Is authorized for Soldiers who served in an area in which he or she was entitled to hostile fire or imminent danger pay for at least 120 continuous days.

Authorizes Soldiers to carry forward up to 90 days of leave at the end of a Fiscal Year (FY) (60 days normal leave carry over plus 30 days special leave accrual).

162
Q

an authorized absence from duty and is essential to the health, welfare, and morale of all Soldiers of a unit

A

Leave

163
Q

What is leave?

A

an authorized absence from duty and is essential to the health, welfare, and morale of all Soldiers of a unit

164
Q

List types of chargeable leave

A

Ordinary, transition, emergency, PCS, TDY

165
Q

List types of nonchargeable leave

A

Convalescent, PTDY, Excess, Passes

166
Q

Describe the leave sections on the LES

A

BF – The brought forward leave balance at the beginning of the current FY.
ERND – Cumulative amount of leave earned in the current FY. Normally increases by 2.5 days each month.
USED – Cumulative amount of leave used in the current Fiscal Year.
CR BAL – Current leave balance as of the end of the period covered by the LES.
ETS BAL – Projected leave balance to the Soldier’s ETS.
LV LOST – Number of days of leave that has been lost.
LV PAID – Number of days of leave paid to date.
USE/LOSE – Projected number of days of leave that will be lost if not taken in current FY on a monthly basis. The number of days of leave in this block will decrease with any leave usage.

167
Q

List non-transferable flags

A 
Adverse Actions –
Charges, restraint, or investigation
Court-martial
Non-judicial punishment
Absent without leave (AWOL)

Involuntary separation or discharge (field initiated)
Removal from selection list (field initiated)
Referred OER or Relief for Cause NCOER
Commander’s Investigation
Failure to provide and maintain an adequate Family Care Plan
Security violation
Drug or alcohol related offenses

168
Q

List transferable flags

A

APFT failures

Soldiers in Weight Control Program

Punishment phase of adverse action

169
Q

What is the effective date of a FLAG, give examples

A

Unless otherwise specified, it is the date that the circumstance(s) requiring the flag occurred, not the date the flag was initiated.

Soldier is absent without leave (AWOL), submit the initial flag on the second day of AWOL, with an effective date of the first day of AWOL.

The effective date of the flag will be the date the commander signs the intent to separate notification memorandum to the Soldier or the date HQDA initiates an involuntary separation action.

170
Q

Can a flab be initiate based on ASAP program stuff?

A

No

171
Q

When should flags be removed?

A

A flag based on arrest, investigation, court-martial, or Article 15 must be removed as soon as the Soldier is released without charges, the charges are dropped, or the punishment (confinement, probation, restriction, extra duty, etc.) or adverse action is completed.

A flag based on APFT failure or weight control failure must be removed as soon as the Soldier either passes the APFT or meets weight standards.

** Remember: A Soldier can have multiple flags!

172
Q

What are the 5 steps of the risk management process

A
  1. Identify hazards
  2. assess hazards
  3. develop controls and make decisions
  4. implement controls
  5. supervise and evaluate
173
Q

What are the guiding principles of Risk Management?

A

Integrate RM into all phases of missions and operations (on and off duty)

Make risk decisions at the appropriate level

Accept no unnecessary risk

Apply the process cyclically and continuously

174
Q

What are the 2 application levels of risk management?

A

Deliberate and Real time

175
Q

What is deliberate risk management?

A

Ample time is available to apply the five-step process as part of detailed planning for an operation.

Missions, tasks, events
Recreational activities
Emergency response plans

176
Q

What is real time risk management?

A

Immediate management of hazards as they occur, usually during execution of an operation or performance of a task.

Unexpected enemy action
Emergency situations
Accidents

177
Q

Define METT-TC mission variables

A

Mission, enemy, terrain/weather, troops/equipment, time, and civil considerations

178
Q

Match METT-TC with its qualifying questions

A

What hazards are associated with the mission we’re planning to conduct?

What can the enemy do to defeat or degrade our mission?

What are the unique environmental hazards? (Desert, mountain, jungle, arctic, etc.)

What hazards and risks are associated with the level of training, staffing, and equipment maintenance and condition?

Is there enough time to plan and prepare before we have to execute? (2/3 Rule)

Will operations threaten civilian populations or noncombatants?

179
Q

In risk management we assess hazards based on what 3 things

A

Probability, severity, risk level

180
Q

What are the five levels of probability?

A

Frequent

Likely

Occasional

Seldom

Unlikely

181
Q

Define severity

A

the degree to which an incident will impact combat power, mission capability, or readiness.

182
Q

What are the four levels of severity used in RM

A

Catastrophic, critical, moderate, negligible

183
Q

The army standard risk assessment matrix is found in what ATP?

A

ATP 5-19

184
Q

What are the levels of risk on the ASRAM in ATP 5-19?

A

Extremely High: Mission failure is likely
High: Mission degraded; partially complete; below standards
Medium: Mission complete, but below standards
Low: Little or no negative impact on mission

185
Q

Describe effective controls

A

Effective controls must be suitable, feasible, and acceptable; they’re no good if they can’t be implemented.

Effective controls specify who, what, where, when, and how

186
Q

Suitable, feasible and acceptable describe what in risk management

A

Controls

187
Q

What are 3 catagories of controls

A

Educational Controls
Training
Battle Drills
Briefings

Physical Controls
Barriers
Signs
Guards

Hazard Elimination Controls
Engineering
Administrative
Personal Protective Equipment (PPE)

188
Q

What is the key to effective control measures

A

that they reduce or eliminate the identified hazard

189
Q

What are sources that can provide or identify possible control measures?

A

Lessons learned

RMIS (risk management information system)

AARs

Personal experience

190
Q

A dynamic process used by small-unit leaders to analyze a mission, develop a plan, and prepare for an operation.

A

TLPs

191
Q

TLPs are a _______ process used by small-unit leaders to ________ a mission, ________ a plan, and _______ for an operation.

A

dynamic

analyze

develop

prepare

192
Q

TLPs are a dynamic process used by small-unit leaders to analyze a ________, develop a _______, and prepare for an ______.

A

mission

plan

operation

193
Q

What are the 8 TLPs

A

recieve the mission

issue warno

make a tentative plan

initiate movement

conduct recon

complete the plan

issue the order

supervise and refine

194
Q

When does receive the mission occur?

A

When given initial opord or warno OR anticipation of mission

195
Q

When receiving the mission, leaders use what two acronyms to assess the situation?

A

PMESII-PT and METT-TC

196
Q

How long do leaders at all levels use for planning and issuing the OPORD?

A

1/3rd available time

197
Q

When do leaders issue a WARNO?

A

As soon as leaders finish their initial assessment of the situation and available time

Leaders do not wait for more information.

198
Q

Analysis of terrain and weather includes what memory aid?

A

OAKOC

observation and FOF
Avenues
key terrain
obstacles
cover/conceal
199
Q

In analyzing civil considerations, the mnemonic ASCOPE means what?

A 
Areas
Structures
Capabilities
Organizations
People
Events
200
Q

Why do leaders conduct rehearsals?

A

Practice essential tasks
Identify weaknesses or problems in the plan
Coordinate subordinate element actions
Improve Soldier understanding of the concept of operations
Foster confidence among Soldiers

201
Q

Companies and below use what four types of rehearsals?

A

Back brief’s (Select people in the platoon).

Combined arms rehearsal.

Support rehearsal (Aid and Litter Team).

Battle drill or SOP rehearsal .

202
Q

On completion of inventory, certification of receipt can be annotated via what forms?

A

The transfer of accountability of property provided to a contractor will be accomplished by using a DD Form 1149
(Requisition and Invoice/Shipping Document) or DD Form 250 (Material Inspection and Receiving Report) or DD
Form 1348–1A (Issue Release/Receipt Document).

BOLC MIDTERM (1 decks)

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