Flashcards in Midterm Deck (140):
What is the process by which cells program themselves to die?
While planning care for a patient with lysosomal rupture, the nurse recalls lysosomal rupture during hypoxic injury leads to:
Autodigestion of cells
Cellular atrophy involves:
A decrease in cell size
Adaptive cellular mechanisms function to:
Protect cells from injury
Which of the following is most likely to accumulate and be found by a pathologist in any dead or dying tissues?
All but one of the following statement endings are true regarding the action free radicles; identify the FALSE one. Free radicles directly injure cells by:
Activation of carbohydrate chains
Restoration of oxygen deprived tissues may result in:
A patient has an increased cardiac workload related to high blood pressure (hypertension). What adaptive process would be expected to occur in the patient’s myocardial cells of the left ventricle?
When a patient has injury to the endoplasmic reticulum due to hypoxic injury, which of the following would be expected?
If a patient has hypoxic injury, which of the following would be suspected as the most common cause?
Cells respond to environment stress:
Which of the following reactions would occur in the body spontaneously without energy input (ATP)?
Potassium exiting the cell
Which statement ending would be FALSE regarding adaptive changes of cells? Cells can adapt to changes in the environment by:
Diffusion and osmosis occur passively
Glycolysis is the metabolic process of breaking down a glucose molecule to form:
2 ATP and 2 pyruvate
The ___ phase of the cell cycle is when DNA replication takes place
GTP-binding proteins (G proteins) function to:
Activate intracellular enzyme systems
The energy derived from the transport of electrons along the electron transport chain on the inner mitochondrial membrane is used to:
While caring for a pregnant patient, the nurse realizes that the hypertrophy of the uterus myometrium is called:
The lipid bilayer of the plasma membrane has low permeability to charged and polar molecules
A patient has metabolic acidosis. Which of the following conditions will most likely be documented on the chart?
Which of the following patients will be most prone to increased capillary hydrostatic pressure and the formation of edema? A patient with:
Congestive heart failure
A staff member asks what causes respiratory alkalosis, what would be the nurse’s best answer? Respiratory alkalosis is caused by:
Which principle should be remembered while giving care to a patient with hyperaldosteronism? Increased aldosterone results in:
Renal retention of sodium and water
Which assessment finding would NOT be expected for a patient with hypervolemia (fluid overload/isotonic fluid excess)?
Molecules that act as the major plasma buffers for acid in the blood are:
Hemoglobin and bicarbonate ion
Moderate to severe hypokalemia in a patient can cause:
Muscle weakness and cardiac dysrhythmias
Which principle should remember while planning care for a patient with respiratory acidosis? In general, respiratory acidosis is caused by:
Retention of carbon dioxide
Which term should be used to describe the inward-pulling force of particles in the vascular fluid (plasma)?
Capillary oncotic pressure
Which information should be included when teaching about acidosis and alkalosis? Compensation for metabolic acidosis and alkalosis is accomplished by the:
A nurse is checking EKG results and notices a tall T wave. What does the nurse expect the patient is experiencing?
While reviewing arterial blood gas results, a nurse finds that the patient has a high bicarbonate level. Which condition would be expected to be documented on the patients’ chart?
Which of the following electrolytes is found in the highest concentration in the intracellular fluid (ICF)?
A patient asks what aldosterone does. How should the nurse respond? Aldosterone:
Promotes sodium and water retention
Which patient should the nurse access first for isotonic fluid excess?
A patient with hypersecretion of aldosterone
A nurse is planning care for patients with potassium disorders. Which assessment is priority for these patients?
The largest fluid compartment is:
Osmosis describes the movement of:
Edema is the accumulation of fluid in the:
Plasma oncotic (colloid osmotic) pressure is maintained by the quantity of plasma:
Upon assessment, which of the following would be expected in a patient with local inflammation?
Which signs and symptoms would a nurse expect to find when assessing a patient with systemic acute inflammation?
Fever, leukocytosis, increased plasma proteins
A patient has warmth and redness of the skin from inflammation. When the nurse is asked what process is primarily responsible for these assessment findings, how should the nurse respond?
Which cell type is a patient missing if the patient’s immune system cannot ingest microorganisms for the purpose of presenting their antigens to the immune system and activating an immune response?
What is the purpose of vasodilation and increased vascular permeability during inflammation?
To bring white blood cells to the area of injury
Which cells stimulate both the cell-mediated and humoral immune responses?
Helper T cells
When a nurse is asked how cytokines are classified, which of the following is the best response? Cytokines are classified as:
Interleukins and interferons
Which of the following statements is NOT a description of the function of antibodies? Antibodies work by:
Directly killing cells through the release of toxic chemicals
How do cytotoxic T (Tc) cells destroy infected or cancer cells?
Which cells of the immune system have the capacity to produce antibodies during an immune response?
During inflammation, which of the following would be acting as phagocytic cells?
Neutrophils and macrophages
Macrophages and dendritic cells are what type of cells?
Which statement is true of adaptive immunity?
Both humoral and cell-mediated immunity develop memory cells
Which of the following cells produce antibodies during an immune reaction?
One of the functions of the complement system is:
What is one of the purposes of inflammation?
Prepares an injured area for healing
How do cytotoxic T(Tc) cells destroy infected cells?
By directly killing infected or malignant cells
A patient has inflammation. What assessment findings should the nurse observe?
Redness, heat, swelling
Which statement best describes antibodies?
Antibodies can neutralize, agglutinate, or precipitate infectious organisms or their toxins
Which term can the nurse use to describe a person with type AB blood?
Universal blood recipient
A patient’s body mounts an aggressive response against an organ transplanted from another person. What of the following is the best label for this process?
A person with type O negative blood has which of the following antigens on their red blood cells?
None of the antigens
A person has a Type I hypersensitivity reaction. Which elevated lab result would the nurse check?
Which statement best describes a known mechanism for the development of an autoimmune disease?
The breakdown of tolerance
To prevent hemolytic disease of the newborn, which situation will cause the nurse to intervene?
Rh positive fetus and Rh-negative mom
When caring for a patient with immunodeficiencies, which principle should guide nursing care? Patients with immunodeficiencies are most at risk for:
Which cells are stimulated to release histamine by the presence of antibodies in a type I hypersensitivity reaction?
Which finding will cost the most concern for a patient with a type I hypersensitivity response?
In describing HIV pathophysiology, recall that HIV insert its genetic material by binding to the ___ on the helper T cell.
A patient has poison ivy. Which type of reaction did this patient experience?
A health care provider is discussing the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) and how it attacks the body. Which answer below correctly completes the following statement? HIB attaches to the CD4 receptors found on:
Helper T cells
Which disorder might be expected in a patient with immunodeficiency?
Which of the following patients would have a transfusion reaction?
A patient with type O receiving from a person with type AB
A patient is experiencing an allergic reaction. When the nurse assesses the skin, fluid-filled blisters surrounded by redness (hives) are noted. Which medical term should the nurse use to describe these findings?
A patient has systemic lupus erythematosus. This condition would be classified as an ___ disease.
A patient has a phagocyte deficiency. Which of the following cells would be affected?
A patient is experiencing an allergic reaction. Which principle should the nurse remember? When mast cells degranulate, they release:
A nurse is describing the allergic response. Which information should the nurse include? After degranulation, the mast cells release histamine that performs the functions of:
Vasodilation and increased vascular permeability
A patient undergoes a kidney transplant. The patient starts to reject the new kidney. Which type of reaction is the patient experiencing?
Which term refers to the process of triggering new blood vessel formation in a tumor?
Normally, the tumor suppressor gene p53 induces:
Which information should be included when discussing benign tumors?
Benign tumors are usually surrounded by a capsule
Which of the following best describes the process when a piece of a chromosome is moved to another chromosome?
An oncologist is presenting information on the mutation of RAS. Which response would be expected to occur?
Unregulated proliferation of cancer cells
A patient has a sarcoma. This type of cancer arises from:
An oncologist is using the TNM system to stage a cancer tumor. In this system the N will denote:
A nurse is describing the process of metastasis. Which information should the nurse include? ____________ is necessary for metastasis to occur.
Decreased cell adhesions
Which of the following viruses would be expected on the lab report of a patient who has developed cervical cancer?
Human papilloma virus
Which principal should be used to guide care when administering chemotherapeutic agents? Chemotherapeutic agents primarily target:
All rapidly dividing cells
A patient has cancer involving epithelial tissue. Which diagnosis would be documented on the patient’s chart?
Cancer cells stimulate new blood vessel growth by releasing:
The most common routes of metastasis are through the lymphatic system and:
Which cancer would be expected in a patient who has chronic infection by the human papilloma virus (HPV)?
Are usually encapsulated
Which statement correctly describes immortality in cancer cells?
Activation of telomerase allows cancer cells to continue dividing
Which statement is best at defining an oncogene?
Oncogenes stimulate cancer cell growth
The p53 gene is best described as having which function?
A patient with mutations in the BRCA1 and BRCA2 genes would be expected to develop which type of cancer?
An oncologist is using the TNM system to stage a patient’s cancer. The M part of the system stands for __________.
The most important risk factor for developing cancer is exposure to:
A 28-year-old male is admitted to the burn unit 2 hours after receiving second- and third-degree burns over 50% of his body surface in an industrial explosion. Abnormal vital signs include low blood pressure and tachycardia. Lab results show a high hematocrit due to:
Fluid movement out of the vasculature
A 30-year-old male firefighter is badly burned and is admitted to the emergency department. Which of the following would be expected in the first 24 hours?
Increased capillary permeability
A patient wants to know which malignant skin lesion is the most serious. The correct response is:
A 29-year-old female is burned through all her dermis with only epidermal appendages intact. This burn is classified as:
Chromosome aberrations and mutations in cells that were not directly irradiated are referred to as:
New research is revealing that many cancers involve epigenetic alterations of:
Histones, the proteins around which DNA is wrapped
Hypovolemia in the early stages of burn shock is directly related to:
Increased capillary permeability and evaporate water loss
A 50-year-old female develops skin cancer on her head and neck following years of sunbathing. Which of the following cancers is the most likely?
Basal cell carcinoma
When an oncologist is teaching about how radiation induces genomic instability, which of the following should the oncologist discuss?
Facilitating new mutations
Are normal cellular genes that promote cell growth
Which of the following cancers is considered to be the most malignant
The first priority in rescuing a burned individual is
Eliminating the source of the burn
Which of the following burns is the most painful?
Which of the following patients would be at greatest risk for basal cell carcinoma?
Light complexion, light eyes, fair hair
The primary aim of burn wound management is to
Prevent microbial colonization of the wound
An oncologist is describing the process of gene silencing. Which process will the oncologist discuss?
A diet that has which of the following would increase cancer risk?
Grilled Blackened meats
A 28-year-old male is admitted to the burn unit 2 hours after receiving second and third degree burns over 50% of his body surface in an industrial explosion. Abnormal vital signs include low blood pressure and tachycardia. Lab result show a high hematocrit due to:
Fluid movement out of the vascular space
Most of the manifestations of burn shock can be attributed to
Which information should be included when describing the pathophysiology of disseminated coagulation (DIC)?
Clotting and hemorrhaging occur
Which statement is correct?
Sickle cell disease involves a single amino acid chance in hemoglobin
Hemophilia is caused by:
An inherited clotting factor deficiency
In macrocytic-nonmochromic anemia
Erythrocytes are enlarged
A health professional is asked why patients with liver disease have bleeding problems the best answer for the cause of the bleeding problem is:
Thrombocytopenia and abnormal platelet functioning
Maternal-fetal blood incompatibility that can lead to hemolytic disease of the newborn occurs when:
The mother is Rh-negative and the fetus is Rh-positive.
The health care provider discovers a patient has a low platelet count. Which term should be used to describe this finding?
The purpose of erythropoietin is to:
Stimulate erythrocyte production
- Arterioles, capillaries, and venules to dilate
- The heart to contract more forcefully
- The rate and depth of breathing to increase
Anemia refers to a deficiency of:
Excess clotting occurs with:
Heme is an iron-containing moiety found in:
In macrocytic-normochromic anemia
Erythrocytes are enlarged
- Is secreted by the kidney
- Production is stimulated by hypoxia
Which principle should be used to guide nursing care of a patient with disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)?
Tissue ischemia, clotting and significant hemorrhage occur.
Maternal-fetal blood incompatibility may exist in which condition?
Rh-negative mother, Rh-positive fetus
Hemostasis involves all of the following except:
The key protein that polymerizes during clot formation is:
When a blood vessel is damaged:
- Subendothelial collagen is exposed
- Platelets adhere to the damaged area
- Platelet degranulation occurs