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Flashcards in Midterm Deck (140):
1

What is the process by which cells program themselves to die?

Apoptosis

2

While planning care for a patient with lysosomal rupture, the nurse recalls lysosomal rupture during hypoxic injury leads to:

Autodigestion of cells

3

Cellular atrophy involves:

A decrease in cell size

4

Adaptive cellular mechanisms function to:

Protect cells from injury

5

Which of the following is most likely to accumulate and be found by a pathologist in any dead or dying tissues?

Calcium

6

All but one of the following statement endings are true regarding the action free radicles; identify the FALSE one. Free radicles directly injure cells by:

Activation of carbohydrate chains

7

Restoration of oxygen deprived tissues may result in:

Reperfusion injury

8

A patient has an increased cardiac workload related to high blood pressure (hypertension). What adaptive process would be expected to occur in the patient’s myocardial cells of the left ventricle?

Hypertrophy

9

When a patient has injury to the endoplasmic reticulum due to hypoxic injury, which of the following would be expected?

Protein synthesis

10

If a patient has hypoxic injury, which of the following would be suspected as the most common cause?

Ischemia

11

Cells respond to environment stress:

True

12

Which of the following reactions would occur in the body spontaneously without energy input (ATP)?

Potassium exiting the cell

13

Which statement ending would be FALSE regarding adaptive changes of cells? Cells can adapt to changes in the environment by:

Catabolism

14

Diffusion and osmosis occur passively

True

15

Glycolysis is the metabolic process of breaking down a glucose molecule to form:

2 ATP and 2 pyruvate

16

The ___ phase of the cell cycle is when DNA replication takes place

S phase

17

GTP-binding proteins (G proteins) function to:

Activate intracellular enzyme systems

18

The energy derived from the transport of electrons along the electron transport chain on the inner mitochondrial membrane is used to:

Synthesize ATP

19

While caring for a pregnant patient, the nurse realizes that the hypertrophy of the uterus myometrium is called:

Physiologic hypertrophy

20

The lipid bilayer of the plasma membrane has low permeability to charged and polar molecules

True

21

A patient has metabolic acidosis. Which of the following conditions will most likely be documented on the chart?

Renal failure

22

Which of the following patients will be most prone to increased capillary hydrostatic pressure and the formation of edema? A patient with:

Congestive heart failure

23

A staff member asks what causes respiratory alkalosis, what would be the nurse’s best answer? Respiratory alkalosis is caused by:

Hyperventilation

24

Which principle should be remembered while giving care to a patient with hyperaldosteronism? Increased aldosterone results in:

Renal retention of sodium and water

25

Which assessment finding would NOT be expected for a patient with hypervolemia (fluid overload/isotonic fluid excess)?

Increased hematocrit

26

Molecules that act as the major plasma buffers for acid in the blood are:

Hemoglobin and bicarbonate ion

27

Moderate to severe hypokalemia in a patient can cause:

Muscle weakness and cardiac dysrhythmias

28

Which principle should remember while planning care for a patient with respiratory acidosis? In general, respiratory acidosis is caused by:

Retention of carbon dioxide

29

Which term should be used to describe the inward-pulling force of particles in the vascular fluid (plasma)?

Capillary oncotic pressure

30

Which information should be included when teaching about acidosis and alkalosis? Compensation for metabolic acidosis and alkalosis is accomplished by the:

Lungs

31

A nurse is checking EKG results and notices a tall T wave. What does the nurse expect the patient is experiencing?

Hyperkalemia

32

While reviewing arterial blood gas results, a nurse finds that the patient has a high bicarbonate level. Which condition would be expected to be documented on the patients’ chart?

Alkalosis

33

Which of the following electrolytes is found in the highest concentration in the intracellular fluid (ICF)?

Potassium

34

A patient asks what aldosterone does. How should the nurse respond? Aldosterone:

Promotes sodium and water retention

35

Which patient should the nurse access first for isotonic fluid excess?

A patient with hypersecretion of aldosterone

36

A nurse is planning care for patients with potassium disorders. Which assessment is priority for these patients?

Cardiac

37

The largest fluid compartment is:

Intercellular

38

Osmosis describes the movement of:

Water

39

Edema is the accumulation of fluid in the:

Interstitial spaces

40

Plasma oncotic (colloid osmotic) pressure is maintained by the quantity of plasma:

Proteins

41

Upon assessment, which of the following would be expected in a patient with local inflammation?

Edema

42

Which signs and symptoms would a nurse expect to find when assessing a patient with systemic acute inflammation?

Fever, leukocytosis, increased plasma proteins

43

A patient has warmth and redness of the skin from inflammation. When the nurse is asked what process is primarily responsible for these assessment findings, how should the nurse respond?

Vasodilation

44

Which cell type is a patient missing if the patient’s immune system cannot ingest microorganisms for the purpose of presenting their antigens to the immune system and activating an immune response?

Macrophage

45

What is the purpose of vasodilation and increased vascular permeability during inflammation?

To bring white blood cells to the area of injury

46

Which cells stimulate both the cell-mediated and humoral immune responses?

Helper T cells

47

When a nurse is asked how cytokines are classified, which of the following is the best response? Cytokines are classified as:

Interleukins and interferons

48

Which of the following statements is NOT a description of the function of antibodies? Antibodies work by:

Directly killing cells through the release of toxic chemicals

49

How do cytotoxic T (Tc) cells destroy infected or cancer cells?

Stimulating apoptosis

50

Which cells of the immune system have the capacity to produce antibodies during an immune response?

Plasma cells

51

During inflammation, which of the following would be acting as phagocytic cells?

Neutrophils and macrophages

52

Prostaglandins cause:

Pain

53

Macrophages and dendritic cells are what type of cells?

Antigen-presenting cells

54

Which statement is true of adaptive immunity?

Both humoral and cell-mediated immunity develop memory cells

55

Which of the following cells produce antibodies during an immune reaction?

Plasma cells

56

One of the functions of the complement system is:

Opsonization

57

What is one of the purposes of inflammation?

Prepares an injured area for healing

58

How do cytotoxic T(Tc) cells destroy infected cells?

By directly killing infected or malignant cells

59

A patient has inflammation. What assessment findings should the nurse observe?

Redness, heat, swelling

60

Which statement best describes antibodies?

Antibodies can neutralize, agglutinate, or precipitate infectious organisms or their toxins

61

Which term can the nurse use to describe a person with type AB blood?

Universal blood recipient

62

A patient’s body mounts an aggressive response against an organ transplanted from another person. What of the following is the best label for this process?

Alloimmune

63

A person with type O negative blood has which of the following antigens on their red blood cells?

None of the antigens

64

A person has a Type I hypersensitivity reaction. Which elevated lab result would the nurse check?

IgE

65

Which statement best describes a known mechanism for the development of an autoimmune disease?

The breakdown of tolerance

66

To prevent hemolytic disease of the newborn, which situation will cause the nurse to intervene?

Rh positive fetus and Rh-negative mom

67

When caring for a patient with immunodeficiencies, which principle should guide nursing care? Patients with immunodeficiencies are most at risk for:

Opportunistic infections

68

Which cells are stimulated to release histamine by the presence of antibodies in a type I hypersensitivity reaction?

Mast cells

69

Which finding will cost the most concern for a patient with a type I hypersensitivity response?

Anaphylaxis

70

In describing HIV pathophysiology, recall that HIV insert its genetic material by binding to the ___ on the helper T cell.

CD4 receptor

71

A patient has poison ivy. Which type of reaction did this patient experience?

Type IV

72

A health care provider is discussing the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) and how it attacks the body. Which answer below correctly completes the following statement? HIB attaches to the CD4 receptors found on:

Helper T cells

73

Which disorder might be expected in a patient with immunodeficiency?

AIDS

74

Which of the following patients would have a transfusion reaction?

A patient with type O receiving from a person with type AB

75

A patient is experiencing an allergic reaction. When the nurse assesses the skin, fluid-filled blisters surrounded by redness (hives) are noted. Which medical term should the nurse use to describe these findings?

Urticaria

76

A patient has systemic lupus erythematosus. This condition would be classified as an ___ disease.

Autoimmune

77

A patient has a phagocyte deficiency. Which of the following cells would be affected?

Macrophages

78

A patient is experiencing an allergic reaction. Which principle should the nurse remember? When mast cells degranulate, they release:

Histamine

79

A nurse is describing the allergic response. Which information should the nurse include? After degranulation, the mast cells release histamine that performs the functions of:

Vasodilation and increased vascular permeability

80

A patient undergoes a kidney transplant. The patient starts to reject the new kidney. Which type of reaction is the patient experiencing?

Alloimmune

81

Which term refers to the process of triggering new blood vessel formation in a tumor?

Angiogenesis

82

Normally, the tumor suppressor gene p53 induces:

Apoptosis

83

Which information should be included when discussing benign tumors?

Benign tumors are usually surrounded by a capsule

84

Which of the following best describes the process when a piece of a chromosome is moved to another chromosome?

Translocation

85

An oncologist is presenting information on the mutation of RAS. Which response would be expected to occur?

Unregulated proliferation of cancer cells

86

A patient has a sarcoma. This type of cancer arises from:

Connective tissue

87

An oncologist is using the TNM system to stage a cancer tumor. In this system the N will denote:

Nodes

88

A nurse is describing the process of metastasis. Which information should the nurse include? ____________ is necessary for metastasis to occur.

Decreased cell adhesions

89

Which of the following viruses would be expected on the lab report of a patient who has developed cervical cancer?

Human papilloma virus

90

Which principal should be used to guide care when administering chemotherapeutic agents? Chemotherapeutic agents primarily target:

All rapidly dividing cells

91

A patient has cancer involving epithelial tissue. Which diagnosis would be documented on the patient’s chart?

Carcinoma

92

Cancer cells stimulate new blood vessel growth by releasing:

Angiogenic factors

93

The most common routes of metastasis are through the lymphatic system and:

Blood vessels

94

Which cancer would be expected in a patient who has chronic infection by the human papilloma virus (HPV)?

Cervical

95

Benign tumors:

Are usually encapsulated

96

Which statement correctly describes immortality in cancer cells?

Activation of telomerase allows cancer cells to continue dividing

97

Which statement is best at defining an oncogene?

Oncogenes stimulate cancer cell growth

98

The p53 gene is best described as having which function?

Tumor suppressor

99

A patient with mutations in the BRCA1 and BRCA2 genes would be expected to develop which type of cancer?

Breast

100

An oncologist is using the TNM system to stage a patient’s cancer. The M part of the system stands for __________.

Metastasis

101

The most important risk factor for developing cancer is exposure to:

Cigarette smoke

102

A 28-year-old male is admitted to the burn unit 2 hours after receiving second- and third-degree burns over 50% of his body surface in an industrial explosion. Abnormal vital signs include low blood pressure and tachycardia. Lab results show a high hematocrit due to:

Fluid movement out of the vasculature

103

A 30-year-old male firefighter is badly burned and is admitted to the emergency department. Which of the following would be expected in the first 24 hours?

Increased capillary permeability

104

A patient wants to know which malignant skin lesion is the most serious. The correct response is:

Malignant melanoma

105

A 29-year-old female is burned through all her dermis with only epidermal appendages intact. This burn is classified as:

Deep-partial thickness

106

Chromosome aberrations and mutations in cells that were not directly irradiated are referred to as:

Bystander effects

107

New research is revealing that many cancers involve epigenetic alterations of:

Histones, the proteins around which DNA is wrapped

108

Hypovolemia in the early stages of burn shock is directly related to:

Increased capillary permeability and evaporate water loss

109

A 50-year-old female develops skin cancer on her head and neck following years of sunbathing. Which of the following cancers is the most likely?

Basal cell carcinoma

110

When an oncologist is teaching about how radiation induces genomic instability, which of the following should the oncologist discuss?

Facilitating new mutations

111

Proto-oncogenes

Are normal cellular genes that promote cell growth

112

Which of the following cancers is considered to be the most malignant

Melanoma

113

The first priority in rescuing a burned individual is

Eliminating the source of the burn

114

Which of the following burns is the most painful?

Superficial partial-thickness

115

Which of the following patients would be at greatest risk for basal cell carcinoma?

Light complexion, light eyes, fair hair

116

The primary aim of burn wound management is to

Prevent microbial colonization of the wound

117

An oncologist is describing the process of gene silencing. Which process will the oncologist discuss?

DNA methylation

118

A diet that has which of the following would increase cancer risk?

Grilled Blackened meats

119

A 28-year-old male is admitted to the burn unit 2 hours after receiving second and third degree burns over 50% of his body surface in an industrial explosion. Abnormal vital signs include low blood pressure and tachycardia. Lab result show a high hematocrit due to:

Fluid movement out of the vascular space

120

Most of the manifestations of burn shock can be attributed to

Hypovolemia

121

Which information should be included when describing the pathophysiology of disseminated coagulation (DIC)?

Clotting and hemorrhaging occur

122

Which statement is correct?

Sickle cell disease involves a single amino acid chance in hemoglobin

123

Hemophilia is caused by:

An inherited clotting factor deficiency

124

In macrocytic-nonmochromic anemia

Erythrocytes are enlarged

125

A health professional is asked why patients with liver disease have bleeding problems the best answer for the cause of the bleeding problem is:

Thrombocytopenia and abnormal platelet functioning

126

Maternal-fetal blood incompatibility that can lead to hemolytic disease of the newborn occurs when:

The mother is Rh-negative and the fetus is Rh-positive.

127

The health care provider discovers a patient has a low platelet count. Which term should be used to describe this finding?

Thrombocytopenia

128

The purpose of erythropoietin is to:

Stimulate erythrocyte production

129

Hypoxemia causes:

- Arterioles, capillaries, and venules to dilate
- The heart to contract more forcefully
- The rate and depth of breathing to increase

130

Anemia refers to a deficiency of:

- Erythrocytes
- Hemoglobin

131

Excess clotting occurs with:

Thrombocythemia

132

Heme is an iron-containing moiety found in:

Erythrocytes

133

In macrocytic-normochromic anemia

Erythrocytes are enlarged

134

Erythropoietin:

- Is secreted by the kidney
- Production is stimulated by hypoxia

135

Which principle should be used to guide nursing care of a patient with disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)?

Tissue ischemia, clotting and significant hemorrhage occur.

136

Maternal-fetal blood incompatibility may exist in which condition?

Rh-negative mother, Rh-positive fetus

137

Hemostasis involves all of the following except:

Prostacyclin I.

138

The key protein that polymerizes during clot formation is:

Fibrin

139

When a blood vessel is damaged:

- Subendothelial collagen is exposed
- Platelets adhere to the damaged area
- Platelet degranulation occurs

140

In an attempt to compensate for the hypoxemia resulting from anemia, which of the following would be expected?

The heart contracts more forcefully