Flashcards in Misc Deck (123):
Which form would you use for your Sailor's frocking evaluation to PO3? His last regular evaluation period ended on 15JUL15 and he is being frocked on 15DEC10.
How long is a command required to retain copies of E1 to E6 evaluations?
A letter of extension can extend the date of a periodic evaluation up to:
There are 42 Sailors in the E6 summary group. What is the maximum number of EPs/ MPs allowed?
9 / 17
When are E6 evaluations due?
Which instruction prohibits unduly familiar relationships between seniors and subordinates?
Using the Informal Resolution System (IRS), a Sailor can do which of the following?
1) Address the concerns verbally or in writing
2) Request assistance from the COC to mediate and resolve the dispute
3) Request EO or Sexual Harassment Training
4) All of the above
All of the above
Which system is used as a long-term force management tool, balancing manning across rates?
CWAY applies to all Sailors E-3 to _____ with less than _____ years of service.
E-6 and 14
Which Sailor can apply for the US Naval Academy?
An unmarried 23 year old with no dependents
What is required to apply for Officer Candidate School?
A PO2 is interested in becoming a Nurse Corps Officer. Which Enlisted to Officer Program would you recommend?
Which is an example of a line Officer
Surface Warfare Officer
After a CWAY approval, when does your quota expire?
CWAY automatically generates an application 15 months prior to a Sailor's PRD when they?
Have less than 24 months left on their contract, calculated from their PRD to SEAOS
SEAOS CWAY applications are automatically generated at 15 months and processed at 13 months. There are _____ looks for in-rate, _____ looks for conversion.
4 and 4
What instruction contains the concepts, principles, levels, and the process of ORM?
The risk management process is applied on what three levels?
In-depth, deliberate, and time critical
Which is not a basic principle of ORM?
1) Accept risk when benefits outweigh the cost
2) Accept unnecessary risk
3) Anticipate and manage risk by planning
4) Make risk decisions at the right level
Accept unnecessary risk
During which step of ORM would you determine the severity and probability of a consequence?
Assess the hazards
What is the Navy Equal Opportunity/ Sexual Harassment formal complaint system?
Once an EO complaint is submitted, the command must commence an investigation within how many hours?
Which is not an element of OPNAVINST 1720.4?
What instruction provides guidelines and procedures on Sexual Assault Prevention & Response (SAPR) Program?
Who is responsible and accountable for the physical fitness of their personnel and shall establish and maintain an effective year-round physical readiness program?
Unrestricted reports are kept in the Defense sexual asset incident database for how long?
Members failing to meet PFA standards _____ times in the most recent _____ year period shall be processed for administrative separation (ADSEP) from the Navy.
3 times in a 4 year period
The maximum allowable Navy body fat limits are for male & female ages (17-39) & (40-40+) are?
22% Male / 33% Female
23% Male / 34% Female
What instruction covers the Navy's Physical Readiness Program?
The purpose of this instruction is to establish a construct by which transgender service members may transition gender while serving?
DOD INSTRUCTION 1300.28
Is the phase in the gender transition process during which the individual commences living socially in the gender role consistent with their preferred gender.
Real Life Experience (RLE)
It was the decisive defeat of the Japanese that put an end to their thrust in the Central Pacific Ocean. It was the turning point of the Pacific War.
Battle of Midway
How many ships have been named after Corpsman?
_____ - small, fast, flexible, flush-deck ship that carried smooth-bore cannons.
_____ _____ with France. "Baptism of fire" for the US Navy under the new Constitution.
This type of report cover "day-for-day", all naval service; only one that provides continuity.
What kind of report is submitted upon a reduction in rate?
How do the Military Departments and Services recognize a service member's gender?
The member's gender marker in DEERS
What are the two reporting options for sexual assault?
Restricted and unrestricted
How long does a member have to request a "bad day" and how long after must the retest be administered?
24 hours & within the first 7 days of the failure
When a team consists of 4-5 providers how many must be a physician?
How many clinic managers are allotted per department?
What is the minimum amount of patients that can be allotted for a provider?
What is the maximum amount of patients that are allowed for a provider?
Command should strive to have how much of the provider team be civilian?
How many ancillary staff are allotted per provider?
How many behavioral health providers are allotted per 7,500 enrollees?
How many appointment types are used for Medical Home Port teams?
What are the four types of appointments that are used for Medical Home Port teams?
When did all primary care clinics transition to the Medical Home Port model?
30 JUN 2011
Within how many months of establishing a Medical Homeport Clinic must the clinic attain level 1 National Committee Quality Assurance (NCQA) recognition?
Once the clinic has attained level 1 NCQA, how many months does the clinic have to attain level 2 NCQA?
Primary Care Services instruction?
BUMED Instruction 6300.19
CWAY must be submitted by?
The end of each month by 2359 cst
Fraternization Policy instruction?
This instruction establishes nutritional standards for meals served to military personnel under normal, simulated or actual combat conditions.
MREs may be consumed as the sole ration for up to _____ days.
_____ is the most widely abused drug today.
This type of IV fluid is used for fluid resuscitation (Trauma, surgery, and burn injury).
Used for patients who cannot take anything orally, for dehydration or hypovolemia. Rapid infusion can cause metabolic acidosis.
American oxygen tanks color coded _____. International color code is _____.
Green / White
During this phase of rescue operations casualties where removal is difficult and time consuming are curing during which phase?
During this phase of rescue operations lightly pinned patients are removed.
During this phase of rescue operations casualties in more difficult circumstances are removed.
During this stage of extrication access is gained to the casualty.
During this stage of extrication lifesaving care is given.
During this stage of extrication disentanglement takes place.
The _____ stretcher is the most commonly used stretcher and can be used for ship-to-ship transfer.
This instruction establishes policy, procedures and assigns responsibility for Quality Assurance and RM activities in Navy MTFs/DTFs
This instruction defines DON policy and guidance for medical surveillance and medical event reporting.
NMCPHC - TM 6220.12
How soon must urgent medical event reports be reported?
Within 24 hours
How soon must routine medical event reports be reported?
Within 7 days
What system is used to report medical events?
What does DRSi stand for?
Disease Reporting System internet
Which disease is urgently reportable?
- All of the above
All of the above
_____ requires lifesaving surgery. The surgical procedures should not be time-consuming and should concern only patients with high chances of survival.
Relatively minor injuries and can effectively care for themselves or can be helped by non-medical personnel.
Which of the following is NOT immediate injuries?
1) Head injury requiring decompression
2) Facial fractures without airway compromised
3) Uncontrolled hemorrhage
4) Multiple extremity amputations
Facial fractures without airway compromised
Group of injured requires attention within 2 hours on arrival to avoid death or major disability.
Which of the following is NOT characteristic of Role 1 of care?
1) Patient holding time limited to 48 hours
2) Surgical capabilities
3) Self-aid / buddy aid / combat medic / TCCC Corpsman
4) None of the above
Constructed of an outer plastic shell with an injected foam core of polyurethane foam. It is impervious to chemicals and the elements and can be used in virtually every confined space rescue and vertical extrication. Narrow design allows passage through hatches and crowed passageways.
What are the injuries to the ligaments and soft tissues that support a joint called?
The general treatment for severe anaphylaxis is the subcutaneous injection of what amount of epinephrine?
0.3 - 0.5 cc
What is the first method to detect for the presence of a chemical agent?
M9 Agent Detector Paper
Contaminated material is placed in plastic bags, store in closed airtight containers, or covered with earth to prevent the escape of toxic vapors, on land it is dumped _____ downwind from the MTF and living quarters.
Established the policy and procedures to make sure that there is accurate completion of all deployment health assessments in a timely manner and report the compliance to the CNO.
_____ can be done by a NMPS or at the home station no earlier than 120 days prior to expected deployment date.
This type of lacrimator agent is bluish white and smells like sour fruit.
CA - Bromo Benzylcyanide
This type of vomiting agent is canary yellow and causes violent uncontrollable sneezing, coughing, nausea, vomiting, and a general feeling of bodily discomfort.
DM - (Adamsite) Diphenylaminochloroarsine
What are the dosing intervals for anthrax immunization?
0, 2, & 4 weeks / 6, 12, & 18 months with annual booster
Cutaneous anthrax accounts for more than what percent of all anthrax cases?
What is/are the most common symptoms of Brucellosis?
Bone and joint disease
Signs and symptoms will show how many days after inhalation of melioidosis?
10-14 days after inhalation
How is Melioidosis transmitted?
1) Contract with contaminated soil or water
2) Animals and rodents
3) A and B
4) A only
A and B
Case fatality rate for acute septicemic disease exceeds?
Accountable equipment records are also known as what?
Property account records
Who is responsible for maintaining the consolidated inventory list?
1) Personal Property Manager
2) Equipment Manager
4) A and B only
A and B only
When does the Consolidated Inventory List get updated?
Annually or within 20 days prior to RO/Custodian turnover
How many copies of the updated inventory list are prepared?
What instruction establishes DON Personal Property accountability procedures?
What does DMLSS stand for?
Defense Medical Logistics Standard Support
PP&E must be bar-coded and entered in DMLSS within how many days?
Who should be notified if a nomenclature cannot be found on the DMLSS table?
Who's responsible for conducting physical inventories and reconciliation of records of all classes of Personal Property?
What should be the accuracy rate for physical inventories?
What type of inventory is required for replacement facilities?
Wall to Wall inventory
TRUE or FALSE: Walk through inspections are conducted biannually.
Property Managers will retain walk-through inspection results for how many years?
What form is used for Financial Liability Investigation of Property Loss?
DD Form 200
What instruction governs the equipment loans to patients?
What forms are used to document equipment loans?
1) DD Form 1348-1A
2) GSA Optional Form 7
3) DD Form 200
4) A and B only
A and B only
Equipment loans from an activity to another activity is known as?
Who is the only individual authorized by the CO to transfer personal property and retains all original copies of documents?
How many components are there in a Deployment Health Assessment?
Pre-Deployment Health Assessment Form?
Post Deployment Health Assessment (PDHA) Form?
Post Deployment Health Re-assessment (PDHRA) Form?
When should the Pre-Deployment Health Assessment be administered?
No earlier than 120 days prior to the expected deployment
What do you use for numbering in letters?
What numbering system does dental use?
Universal numbering system
HIV is documented on all forms except?
What other reason would you use an SF509?
Dental Inpatient Care