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E6 EAP 2017 > Misc > Flashcards

Flashcards in Misc Deck (123):
1

Which form would you use for your Sailor's frocking evaluation to PO3? His last regular evaluation period ended on 15JUL15 and he is being frocked on 15DEC10.

NAVPERS 1616/26

2

How long is a command required to retain copies of E1 to E6 evaluations?

2 years

3

A letter of extension can extend the date of a periodic evaluation up to:

90 days

4

There are 42 Sailors in the E6 summary group. What is the maximum number of EPs/ MPs allowed?

9 / 17

5

When are E6 evaluations due?

November 15th

6

Which instruction prohibits unduly familiar relationships between seniors and subordinates?

OPNAVINST 5370.2

7

Using the Informal Resolution System (IRS), a Sailor can do which of the following?

1) Address the concerns verbally or in writing
2) Request assistance from the COC to mediate and resolve the dispute
3) Request EO or Sexual Harassment Training
4) All of the above

All of the above

8

Which system is used as a long-term force management tool, balancing manning across rates?

CWAY

9

CWAY applies to all Sailors E-3 to _____ with less than _____ years of service.

E-6 and 14

10

Which Sailor can apply for the US Naval Academy?

An unmarried 23 year old with no dependents

11

What is required to apply for Officer Candidate School?

Bachelor's degree

12

A PO2 is interested in becoming a Nurse Corps Officer. Which Enlisted to Officer Program would you recommend?

MECP

13

Which is an example of a line Officer

Surface Warfare Officer

14

After a CWAY approval, when does your quota expire?

13 months

15

CWAY automatically generates an application 15 months prior to a Sailor's PRD when they?

Have less than 24 months left on their contract, calculated from their PRD to SEAOS

16

SEAOS CWAY applications are automatically generated at 15 months and processed at 13 months. There are _____ looks for in-rate, _____ looks for conversion.

4 and 4

17

What instruction contains the concepts, principles, levels, and the process of ORM?

OPNAVINST 3500.39C

18

The risk management process is applied on what three levels?

In-depth, deliberate, and time critical

19

Which is not a basic principle of ORM?

1) Accept risk when benefits outweigh the cost
2) Accept unnecessary risk
3) Anticipate and manage risk by planning
4) Make risk decisions at the right level

Accept unnecessary risk

20

During which step of ORM would you determine the severity and probability of a consequence?

Assess the hazards

21

What is the Navy Equal Opportunity/ Sexual Harassment formal complaint system?

NAVPERS 5354/2

22

Once an EO complaint is submitted, the command must commence an investigation within how many hours?

72 hours

23

Which is not an element of OPNAVINST 1720.4?

1) Training
2) Supporting
3) Intervention
4) Reporting

Supporting

24

What instruction provides guidelines and procedures on Sexual Assault Prevention & Response (SAPR) Program?

SECNAVINST 1752.4B

25

Who is responsible and accountable for the physical fitness of their personnel and shall establish and maintain an effective year-round physical readiness program?

CO

26

Unrestricted reports are kept in the Defense sexual asset incident database for how long?

50 years

27

Members failing to meet PFA standards _____ times in the most recent _____ year period shall be processed for administrative separation (ADSEP) from the Navy.

3 times in a 4 year period

28

The maximum allowable Navy body fat limits are for male & female ages (17-39) & (40-40+) are?

22% Male / 33% Female

23% Male / 34% Female

29

What instruction covers the Navy's Physical Readiness Program?

OPNAVINST 6110.1J

30

The purpose of this instruction is to establish a construct by which transgender service members may transition gender while serving?

DOD INSTRUCTION 1300.28

31

Is the phase in the gender transition process during which the individual commences living socially in the gender role consistent with their preferred gender.

Real Life Experience (RLE)

32

It was the decisive defeat of the Japanese that put an end to their thrust in the Central Pacific Ocean. It was the turning point of the Pacific War.

Battle of Midway

33

How many ships have been named after Corpsman?

14

34

_____ - small, fast, flexible, flush-deck ship that carried smooth-bore cannons.

Schooner

35

_____ _____ with France. "Baptism of fire" for the US Navy under the new Constitution.

Quasi War

36

This type of report cover "day-for-day", all naval service; only one that provides continuity.

Regular

37

What kind of report is submitted upon a reduction in rate?

Special

38

How do the Military Departments and Services recognize a service member's gender?

The member's gender marker in DEERS

39

What are the two reporting options for sexual assault?

Restricted and unrestricted

40

How long does a member have to request a "bad day" and how long after must the retest be administered?

24 hours & within the first 7 days of the failure

41

When a team consists of 4-5 providers how many must be a physician?

2

42

How many clinic managers are allotted per department?

1

43

What is the minimum amount of patients that can be allotted for a provider?

1,100

44

What is the maximum amount of patients that are allowed for a provider?

1,300

45

Command should strive to have how much of the provider team be civilian?

50%

46

How many ancillary staff are allotted per provider?

2.5

47

How many behavioral health providers are allotted per 7,500 enrollees?

1

48

How many appointment types are used for Medical Home Port teams?

4

49

What are the four types of appointments that are used for Medical Home Port teams?

- Acute

- Established

- Wellness

- Procedure

50

When did all primary care clinics transition to the Medical Home Port model?

30 JUN 2011

51

Within how many months of establishing a Medical Homeport Clinic must the clinic attain level 1 National Committee Quality Assurance (NCQA) recognition?

4 months

52

Once the clinic has attained level 1 NCQA, how many months does the clinic have to attain level 2 NCQA?

6 months

53

Primary Care Services instruction?

BUMED Instruction 6300.19

54

CWAY must be submitted by?

The end of each month by 2359 cst

55

Fraternization Policy instruction?

OPNAVINST 5370.2C

56

This instruction establishes nutritional standards for meals served to military personnel under normal, simulated or actual combat conditions.

BUMEDINST 10110.6

57

MREs may be consumed as the sole ration for up to _____ days.

21

58

_____ is the most widely abused drug today.

Alcohol

59

This type of IV fluid is used for fluid resuscitation (Trauma, surgery, and burn injury).

Lactated Ringers

60

Used for patients who cannot take anything orally, for dehydration or hypovolemia. Rapid infusion can cause metabolic acidosis.

Normal Saline

61

American oxygen tanks color coded _____. International color code is _____.

Green / White

62

During this phase of rescue operations casualties where removal is difficult and time consuming are curing during which phase?

3rd Phase

63

During this phase of rescue operations lightly pinned patients are removed.

1st Phase

64

During this phase of rescue operations casualties in more difficult circumstances are removed.

2nd Phase

65

During this stage of extrication access is gained to the casualty.

1st stage

66

During this stage of extrication lifesaving care is given.

2nd Stage

67

During this stage of extrication disentanglement takes place.

3rd Stage

68

The _____ stretcher is the most commonly used stretcher and can be used for ship-to-ship transfer.

Stokes Stretcher

69

This instruction establishes policy, procedures and assigns responsibility for Quality Assurance and RM activities in Navy MTFs/DTFs

BUMEDINST 6010.13

70

This instruction defines DON policy and guidance for medical surveillance and medical event reporting.

NMCPHC - TM 6220.12

71

How soon must urgent medical event reports be reported?

Within 24 hours

72

How soon must routine medical event reports be reported?

Within 7 days

73

What system is used to report medical events?

DRSi

74

What does DRSi stand for?

Disease Reporting System internet

75

Which disease is urgently reportable?

- Polio
- Anthrax
- Rabies
- All of the above

All of the above

76

_____ requires lifesaving surgery. The surgical procedures should not be time-consuming and should concern only patients with high chances of survival.

Immediate

77

Relatively minor injuries and can effectively care for themselves or can be helped by non-medical personnel.

Minimal

78

Which of the following is NOT immediate injuries?

1) Head injury requiring decompression
2) Facial fractures without airway compromised
3) Uncontrolled hemorrhage
4) Multiple extremity amputations

Facial fractures without airway compromised

79

Group of injured requires attention within 2 hours on arrival to avoid death or major disability.

Immediate

80

Which of the following is NOT characteristic of Role 1 of care?

1) Patient holding time limited to 48 hours
2) Surgical capabilities
3) Self-aid / buddy aid / combat medic / TCCC Corpsman
4) None of the above

Surgical capabilities

81

Constructed of an outer plastic shell with an injected foam core of polyurethane foam. It is impervious to chemicals and the elements and can be used in virtually every confined space rescue and vertical extrication. Narrow design allows passage through hatches and crowed passageways.

Miller board

82

What are the injuries to the ligaments and soft tissues that support a joint called?

Sprain

83

The general treatment for severe anaphylaxis is the subcutaneous injection of what amount of epinephrine?

0.3 - 0.5 cc

84

What is the first method to detect for the presence of a chemical agent?

M9 Agent Detector Paper

85

Contaminated material is placed in plastic bags, store in closed airtight containers, or covered with earth to prevent the escape of toxic vapors, on land it is dumped _____ downwind from the MTF and living quarters.

75 yards

86

Established the policy and procedures to make sure that there is accurate completion of all deployment health assessments in a timely manner and report the compliance to the CNO.

OPNAVINST 6100.3A

87

_____ can be done by a NMPS or at the home station no earlier than 120 days prior to expected deployment date.

DD 2795

88

This type of lacrimator agent is bluish white and smells like sour fruit.

CA - Bromo Benzylcyanide

89

This type of vomiting agent is canary yellow and causes violent uncontrollable sneezing, coughing, nausea, vomiting, and a general feeling of bodily discomfort.

DM - (Adamsite) Diphenylaminochloroarsine

90

What are the dosing intervals for anthrax immunization?

0, 2, & 4 weeks / 6, 12, & 18 months with annual booster

91

Cutaneous anthrax accounts for more than what percent of all anthrax cases?

90%

92

What is/are the most common symptoms of Brucellosis?

Bone and joint disease

93

Signs and symptoms will show how many days after inhalation of melioidosis?

10-14 days after inhalation

94

How is Melioidosis transmitted?

1) Contract with contaminated soil or water
2) Animals and rodents
3) A and B
4) A only

A and B

95

Case fatality rate for acute septicemic disease exceeds?

90%

96

Accountable equipment records are also known as what?

Property account records

97

Who is responsible for maintaining the consolidated inventory list?

1) Personal Property Manager
2) Equipment Manager
3) Custodian
4) A and B only

A and B only

98

When does the Consolidated Inventory List get updated?

Annually or within 20 days prior to RO/Custodian turnover

99

How many copies of the updated inventory list are prepared?

Two

100

What instruction establishes DON Personal Property accountability procedures?

SECNAVINST 7000.10

101

What does DMLSS stand for?

Defense Medical Logistics Standard Support

102

PP&E must be bar-coded and entered in DMLSS within how many days?

7 days

103

Who should be notified if a nomenclature cannot be found on the DMLSS table?

NAVMEDLOGCOM

104

Who's responsible for conducting physical inventories and reconciliation of records of all classes of Personal Property?

BUMED activities

105

What should be the accuracy rate for physical inventories?

98%

106

What type of inventory is required for replacement facilities?

Wall to Wall inventory

107

TRUE or FALSE: Walk through inspections are conducted biannually.

False

108

Property Managers will retain walk-through inspection results for how many years?

Three

109

What form is used for Financial Liability Investigation of Property Loss?

DD Form 200

110

What instruction governs the equipment loans to patients?

NAVMEDCOMINST 6320.1B

111

What forms are used to document equipment loans?

1) DD Form 1348-1A
2) GSA Optional Form 7
3) DD Form 200
4) A and B only

A and B only

112

Equipment loans from an activity to another activity is known as?

Inter-Activity Loans

113

Who is the only individual authorized by the CO to transfer personal property and retains all original copies of documents?

Equipment Manager

114

How many components are there in a Deployment Health Assessment?

3

115

Pre-Deployment Health Assessment Form?

DD 2795

116

Post Deployment Health Assessment (PDHA) Form?

DD 2796

117

Post Deployment Health Re-assessment (PDHRA) Form?

DD 2900

118

When should the Pre-Deployment Health Assessment be administered?

No earlier than 120 days prior to the expected deployment

119

What do you use for numbering in letters?

Arabic Numberals

120

What numbering system does dental use?

Universal numbering system

121

HIV is documented on all forms except?

NAVMED 6230/4

122

What other reason would you use an SF509?

Dental Inpatient Care

123

Where do you find the instructions in procuring pest control?

NAVSUP P487