Miscellaneous Flashcards

(109 cards)

1
Q

Who does medicare provide medical coverage to?

A
  1. individuals > 65 y/o
  2. disabled
  3. those with ESRD
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2
Q

What is Medicare’s prospective payment system based on?

A

Diagnostic-related groups (DRGs)

Places patients into disease categories or groups

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3
Q

(true/false) Medicare A covers all medical expenses of long-term or custodial care.

A

True

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4
Q

(true/false) Medicaid benefits are the same in all states

A

False

individual states determine the scope, duration, and amount of services provided

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5
Q

(true/false) preauthorization is needed for medicare and not medicaid.

A

FALSE (required for medicaid)

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6
Q

What must a person pay for medicare A?

A

Annual deductible fee

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7
Q

What must a person pay for medicare B?

A

Monthly premium

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8
Q

(true/false) With medicare, PT provided by a PT aide is reimbersable regardless of supervision

A

FALSE

Only SPTs

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9
Q

Insurance type that includes commercial insurance, fee-for-service / traditional indemnity plans, or employers who are self-insured

A

private health insurance

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10
Q

What is a HMO?

A

Form of managed care that provides a broad spectrum of health services for a preset amount of money

Allow members to seek healthcare outside of the network but at a higher or additional cost to the patient

Has a small copay for members using providers within the network

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11
Q

(true/false) With a HMO, a patient that is seeking additional care (such as PT), must have authorization through their PCP (“gatekeeper”)

A

true

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12
Q

(true/false) The numer of PT visits when a person is part of an HMO is unlimited

A

FALSE - limited number of visits

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13
Q

What are the two types of HMOs?

A
  1. **Individual practice associations (IPA) **- contract independently with the HMO and work out of their own office
  2. Prepaid Group plan (PGP) - physicians practice in a central facility
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14
Q

What is a PPO?

A

Group of providers that offer healthcare services as an entity to their employers - discount their fees to attract patients

Pts are not locked into the PPO providers but receive financial incentives to use services through that network

Preauthorization is needed before services can be provided

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15
Q

Definition:

A flat bundled reimbursement rate that is established based on the diagnosis- predetermined dollar amount:
- per diem / per day
- per visit
- per episode of service

A

Case-based rate

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16
Q

Definition:

Tax-free savings account that can be used to pay for health-related expenses and reiree health expenses

A

Health Savings Account

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17
Q

(true/false) Those who have a health savings account must have a high-deductible health plan

–> insurance product that covers catastrophic health occurrences

A

true

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18
Q

Stage of RA

  • joint pain and stiffness
  • no visible bone damage on XR
  • slight swelling (primarily in fingers and toes)
  • fatigue and malaise
A

stage I

early RA

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19
Q

stage of RA

  • cartilage damage, stiffness, and decreased ROM
  • persistent symptoms
  • joint swelling that is more noticeable in the morning
A

stage II

moderate RA

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20
Q

stage of RA

  • bone damage, cartilage loss, and joint deformity
  • progressed pain, stiffness, and loss of mobility
  • thickened knuckles
  • twisted fingers
  • higher risk of CTS
A

Stage III

severe RA

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21
Q

stage of RA

  • bony or fibrous ankylosis
  • severe pain, swelling, and stiffness
  • loss of mobility
A

stage IV

end-stage RA

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22
Q

What is the RPE for light exertion?

A

11-12

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23
Q

What is the RPE for hard exertion?

A

15-16

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24
Q

What is the RPE for very hard exertion?

A

17-18

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25
What is the RPE for extremely hard exertion?
19
26
What is the RPE for max exertion?
20
27
What is the RPE for no exertion?
6
28
(true/false) With dehydration, the pinch skin test (turgor) will present with no raising of the skin
FALSE | raised skin for >5 seconds
29
What is scheuermann disease?
Kyphosis of the spine that develops in early adolesence | juvenile kyphosis, juvenile discogenic disease
30
Describe bigemity
every second beat is a PVC ## Footnote trigemity: every third beat is a PVC (wide QRS)
31
# diagnosis - irregular vertebral end plates - anterior wedging of 3+ consecutive vertebrae that measures > 5 degrees - painful EXT and ROT - lordosis and kyphosis - hunchback appearance - disc space narrowing
scheuermann's disease
32
(true/false) EXT acitivities should be avoided in those with osteoporosis
FALSE | FLX should be avoided due to increased risk of vertebral compression fx
33
# definition inability to localize a sensation
atopognosia
34
# definition loss of all pain
analgesia
35
# definition rhythmic oscillations of the head
titubation | commonly seen with cerebellar pathology
36
Those with cerebellar pathology will have (increased/decreased) DTRs and tone
decreased
37
What is pendular nystagmus a symptom of?
central vestibular pathology
38
General outline for low-rate TENS. Pulse freq: Pulse duration:
frequency: 2-10 pps duration: 200-300 microseconds
39
General outline for high-rate TENS. pulse freq: pulse duration
frequency: 100-150 pps duration: 50-80 microseconds
40
What is the cullen sign? What diagnosis does it rule in?
Blue discoloration of the periumbilical area Indicates acute pancreatitis
41
What is the Grey Turner's sign? What diagnosis does it rule in?
red-brown coloring of the abdomen indicates hemorrhagic pancreatitis
42
What gait deviation can a lesion of the superior gluteal nerve cause?
ipsilateral trunk lean
43
What gait deviation can a lesion of the inferior gluteal nerve cause?
posterior thrust of the trunk at initial contact
44
What is Blumberg's sign? What does it indicate?
Rebound tenderness indicating appendicitis
45
What is the pinch an inch test for appendicitis?
Pinch a fold of skin over McBurney's point and look for pain
46
What happens to the piriformis at 120 degrees of FLX
Switches actions becomes a IR and ABD
47
What causes cushing's disease?
tumor on the pituitary gland causing an increased level of ACTH and cortisol to bbe released from the adrenal gland
48
What drug class is candesartan from?
angiotensin receptor blockers (ARB) | regulates HTN, HF, and A-fib ## Footnote Side effects: hypotension and increased potassium
49
What is telangiectasia?
Spider web-like skin condition
50
What is the presentation of homonymous hemianopsia with a R CVA?
Left homonymous hemianopsia with the image displayed on the right side of visual field
51
What are meissner's corpuscles used for?
discriminative touch and movement of objects over the skin
52
What are ruffini endings used for?
joint position
53
What are krause's end bulbs used for?
touch and pressure
54
What are pacinian corpuscles used for?
deep touch and vibration
55
What type of cough will be present with an aortic aneurysm?
Brassy
56
What is the correct exsc prescription for inspiratory muscle training?
minimum 4-5 x/wk with 30% max inspiratory pressure measured at FRC 2x15 min/day
57
What structures are affected by horner's syndrome?
- descending sympathetic tracts - CN IX - CN X - spinothalamic tract
58
What is the triad for horner's syndrome?
miosis (constricted pupils), ptosis, decreased sweating
59
What causes locked-in syndrome?
complete block of the basilar artery | causes tetraplegia and coma with NO impact to cognition
60
What movements must you avoid with anterior THA?
FABER | Also transfer to sound side
61
Describe homan's sign
passive DF with knee EXT | (+) discomfort = indicates possible DVT
62
What is homan's sign used to identify?
DVT
63
What is Cozens test? What is it used for?
Resisted wrist EXT lateral epicondylitis
64
What are the aggs of spondylolisthesis?
repetitive EXT and standing/bending to lift objects
65
What alleviates pain caused by spondylisthesis?
sitting
66
(true/false) A side effect of TB medication is red-orange discoloration of body fluid
true
67
What movements are limited with avascular necrosis of the hip?
FABIR
68
(true/false) Maternal RR during pregnancy adapts to mild exercise and increases proportionately with moderate and high intensity exercise
False: RR adapts to mild exercise but will NOT increase proportionately with moderate or high intensity exercise
69
Maternal hematocrit (increases/decreases) during pregnancy.
decreases | will increase with vigorous exercise
70
What will occur with maternal cardiac reserve during exercise while pregnant?
will decrease
71
What will occur with maternal CO and SV during steady state exercise while pregnant?
increase
72
What are calcium channel blockers commonly used for?
arrythmias
73
# diagnosis - net-like pattern on XR - dry cough - fatigue - weakness - SOB - weight loss and decreased appetite
pulmonary fibrosis
74
How long does normal bone healing occur in children?
4-8 wks
75
How long does normal bone healing occur in adults?
10-18 wks
76
What degree of burn is most likely to develop a keloid scar?
deep-partial thickness
77
Atelectasis pulls the trachea to the (Same/opposite) side
same
78
Pneumothorax pushes the trachea to the (same/opposite) side
opposite
79
What nerve injury causes the hand of benediction?
median nerve | 2nd and 3rd digits are stuck in EXT
80
What is milroy's disease?
genetic condition that affects the lymphatic system and causes fluid build up in the body resulting in swelling | Type I hereditary lymphedema, congenital familial lymphedema
81
For a pt with a meniscus tear, do not perform FLX > ___ degrees for the first 4 weeks
> 45
82
A persistent _____ reflex will interfere with the crawling milestone of an infant
STNR
83
A persistent ____ reflex will interfere with hand-mouth activities and predisposes the child to developing scoliosis
ATNR
84
A persistent ____ reflex will interfere with rolling activities in an infant?
Tonic labyrinthine
85
# Type of posture - pelvis shifts anteriorly causing the hips and knees to be hyperEXT causing a flat back - favored leg tends to be longer in standing - elongated neck flexors
swayback
86
# diagnosis - hypotension - bradycardia - cyanosis - decreased CO - peripheral vasodilation
neurogenic shock | can be mistaken as autonomic dysreflexia (increased BP and tachycardia)
87
What is V-tach?
3+ consecutive PVCs | emergency
88
Terminate exercise if there is more than ____ PVCs within one minute
6+
89
Describe the stork test and what it is used for.
Pt stands on ipsilateral leg resulting in pain within the lumbar region Identifies possible pars interarticularis Fx (spondylothesis)
90
Chronic pedal edema is an important symptom to identify with what type of insufficiency?
chronic venous insufficiency
91
What are side effects of thiazides?
- frequent urination - cramps - weakness - nausea - hyperglycemia - hypokalemia - postural hypotension - flat or inverted T waves
92
What structure regulates the stimulation of the SNS?
hypothalamus
93
What is aldosterone used for?
regulation of fluid balance and BP
94
What acute changes occur after aerobic exercise? SV CO minute ventilation total peripheral resistance
increased increased increased decreased
95
central cord syndrome has greater (motor/sensory) deficits
motor > sensory
96
central cord syndrome has more (LE/UE) neuro involvement
UE
97
paralysis agitans
PD
98
uncoordinated goal-directed action
dysmetria
99
March Fx
metatarsal stress FX
100
Peroneal nerve palsy
drop foot
101
radial nerve palsy
wrist drop
102
acute inflammatory demyelinating polyradiculopathy
GBS
103
iliopsoas muscle test
thomas test
104
Paratendonitis of APL and EPB
de quervain's
105
Bamboo spine
ankylosing spondylitis
106
Marie strumpell disease
ankylosing spondylitis
107
Crutch palsy
radial nerve compression
108
athletic pubalgia
sports hernia
109
FDP tendon rupture
jersey finger