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Flashcards in MMNorthstar Deck (2919):
1

What are the two main components of an oil burner?

Atomizer assembly
Air Register assembly.

2

What is the purpose of the atomizer?

Divides the fuel oil into fine particles for combustion.

3

What is the purpose of the air register?

The air register admits combustion air to the furnace and helps mix the air and the fuel oil spray.

4

What function does the safety shutoff device serve?

Prevents oil spillage when an atomizer assembly is removed from a burner while the burner root valve is still open.

5

What are the two types of atomizers used with main propulsion boilers?

Mechanical and steam atomizers.

6

What are the five advantages of steam atomization?

1. High turndown ratio
2. Cleaner burning of residual fuel
3. Less fireside deposits
4. Better combustion in a cold furnace
5. Wider range at lower pressures.

7

How must atomizer sprayer plates be stored?

In their storage tray with a light coat of lubricating oil applied to prevent corrosion.

8

How long must the atomizer barrel be cooled after removal from the burner assembly before disassembly?

15 Minutes.

9

How are atomizer sprayer plate orifices checked for proper size?

With a GO/NO-GO gage.

10

What is used to clean atomizer sprayer plates?

Wood cleaning sticks.

11

Who shall make frequent inspections to ensure that sprayer plates and nozzles are in good condition?

Engineering Officer.

12

What is the normal dismantling period to rebuild a safety shutoff device?

Every 1800 hours.

13

What are the two principal parts of an air register?

The diffuser & the air foils.

14

What is the purpose of the diffuser?

The diffuser provides primary mixing of the fuel droplets with air and prevents blowing the flame away from the atomizer.

15

What are the two types of safety valves used onboard naval vessels?

1. Huddling chamber
2. Nozzle reaction.

16

What causes the initial lifting of a safety valve?

Static pressure.

17

On a nozzle reaction safety valve the guide ring has what function?

To control blowdown.

18

What is the function of the nozzle ring on a nozzle reaction safety valve?

To control the sharpness of the valve opening and closing.

19

Safety valves installed on 1200 psig boilers have a lifting pressure tolerance of what?

Tolerance plus or minus 10 psig. +/- 10 psig

20

All safety valves installed onboard naval vessels have a blowdown range of what?

Blowdown range shall be between 3 and 6 percent. 3 -6 %

21

When shall safety valve gages be placed on the boiler prior to setting safeties?

When steam drum pressure is 100 to 200 psi below the lowest safety valve setting, or 75% of working pressure, whichever is higher.

22

What is the lifting tolerance for safety valves installed on 600 psig boilers?

Plus or minus 5 psig. +/- 5 psig

23

If the safety valves of any boiler cannot be adjusted to lift within the prescribed range, what action must be taken?

The boiler shall not be used for steaming until the fault has been corrected.

24

All safety valves of each boiler shall be tested annually in accordance with what guidelines?

Those guidelines as established by the planned maintenance system.

25

What must be done when safety valves are accidentally lifted by water during boiler hydrostatic testing?

They shall be tested to ensure proper operation.

26

Soot blowers now in service may be classified into two general types?

Rotary and Stationary.

27

The accumulation of heavy fireside deposits can be significantly reduced by what?

Frequent use of soot blowers.

28

What are the three reasons that soot must be removed from a boiler?

1. To prevent fires
2. To maintain excellent heat transfer rates
3. To prevent the formation of sulfuric acid which occurs when soot and moisture combine.

29

What is the reason for operating the soot blowers in a proper sequence?

To sweep the soot toward the uptakes.

30

What is the only authority that can approve the blanking of soot blowers?

NAVSEA.

31

What is the purpose of the scavenging air connection located on the soot blower head?

Supplies air to the soot blower element to prevent the combustion gases from backing up into the soot blower head or the steam piping.

32

Where does the scavenging air system receive its air source?

The boiler air casing.

33

What is the purpose of the bilge drain valve in the soot blower piping system?

To maintain continuous drainage of the system.

34

How is continuous drainage of the soot blower piping system accomplished?

By means of internal hole drilled in the body or seat of the bilge drain valve.

35

What is the size of the internal drain hole on the soot blower bilge valve on 1200 psig systems?

1/16 inch.

36

What is the bilge drain hole size on soot blower systems that operate at 600 psig or below?

1/8 inch.

37

Soot blower piping systems must be warmed up sufficiently to prevent what?

Piping failure.

38

What is the purpose of the nozzles on the soot blower element?

To direct the jets of steam so that they sweep around the tubes, thus preventing direct impingement.

39

What is the purpose of the cams on the soot blower head?

To control the blowing arc of the soot blower element.

40

A broken mica on the gage glass must be replaced at first opportunity to prevent what?

Rapid fogging of the glass.

41

Gage glasses in stowage shall be kept out of contact with what?

Iron or steel to prevent the scratching of the finely polished glass.

42

Why must a predetermined tightening sequence be used when tightening the gage glass studs?

To provide a uniform compression on the sealing surfaces to prevent leakage.

43

Why is a ball check valve installed in the bottom cutout valve of the page glass?

Prevents the escape of hot water in case the gage glass breaks.

44

Over tightening of the gage studs can have what detrimental effect?

Cracking of the cone washers.

45

What is installed on the boiler to allow the operators to observe the water level from their watch stations?

Remote water level indicators.

46

The majority of ships have two remote water indicators that are designated in what manner?

Primary and secondary.

47

The primary water level indicator activates the high and low water alarms and generates an electrical signal that is proportional to what?

Water level.

48

Smoke periscopes are fitted on naval boilers for what reason?

To observe the quality of the combustion gases passing through the uptakes.

49

If mercury filled thermometers are being used in the fireroom, what action must be taken?

They must be removed and replaced when possible.

50

Where can specific information be found concerning pressure gages and thermometers?

NSTM Chap 504.

51

What is the purpose of the boiler internal feedwater pipe?

To distribute feedwater evenly throughout the steam drum.

52

The first stage in the separation of steam and water in a CE boiler is accomplished by what?

Primary separators.

53

What component separate the steam and water mixture by a series of corrugated plates that create rapid changes in direction?

Secondary separators.

54

Where is the desuperheater normally located?

Either the steam drum or water drum.

55

What is the purpose of the desuperheater?

To reduce the temperature of a portion of the superheated steam to be used in auxiliary steam systems.

56

What is the function of the dry pipe in the steam drum?

This is where the final separation of steam and moisture occurs, which is accomplished by one quick rapid change in direction.

57

What purpose does the vortex eliminator serve in the steam drum?

Reduces the swirling motion of the water as it enters the downcomers.

58

What is the purpose of the boiler air cock valves?

The air cock allows air to escape when the boiler is being filled and when steam is first forming; it also allow air to enter the steam drum when the boiler is being emptied.

59

What is meant by the term stop-check valve?

The valve has two functions a feed stop valve or as check valve, depending on the position of the valve stem.

60

What is the frequency of blowing tubes on a steaming boiler?

1. At least every 168 steaming hours
2. Prior to entering port
3. After leaving port
4. As soon as possible after a heavy black smoke condition.

61

The surface blow pipe in the steam drum has what function?

When the surface blow valve is open, this pipe carries off scum and foam from the surface of the water in the drum.

62

The number of pounds of steam generated per hour at the pressure and temperature required for all purposes to develop contract shaft horsepower of the ship divided by the numbers of boilers installed is defined as?

Boiler full power capacity.

63

Boiler overload capacity is normally what percentage of boiler full power capacity?

120%

64

A pressure specified by the boiler manufacturer as a criterion for the boiler design is termed as?

Design pressure.

65

What is the minimum steam drum pressure on an operating boiler?

85% of boiler operating pressure.

66

What type of circulation would installing the generating tubes at an increased inclination be?

Accelerated natural.

67

What type of boiler consists of one or more water drums?

Drum type.

68

Do header type boilers have a water drum?

No.

69

The term high pressure boiler refers to a boiler operating at what pressure?

751 psi or above.

70

What two sheets of steel make up the construction of the steam drum?

Wrapper sheet and tube sheet.

71

What purpose do the generating tubes serve?

Provide the area in which most of the saturated steam is generated.

72

What is the function of the waterwall tubes?

To protect furnace refractories, and allow a higher heat release.

73

Water screen tubes protect the superheater from what?

Direct radiant heat.

74

What is installed between the inner and outer casings of the boiler to carry the downward flow of relatively cool water and thus maintain the boiler circulation?

Downcomers.

75

What portion of the steam drum contains a manhole for access to the drum for cleaning, inspecting and repair?

Drumhead.

76

Which tubes at high firing rates do not generate steam?

Downcomers.

77

What boiler component preheats the feedwater prior to its entering the steam drum?

Economizer.

78

What function do the metal projections on the economizer tubes serve?

To extend the heat transfer surface of the tubes.

79

What is the heating source of the economizer?

Combustion gases.

80

What is the standard size of firebrick?

2 1/2" X 4 1/2" X 9".

81

Insulating block is capable of withstanding surface temperatures of?

1500 Degrees F.

82

What joins the boiler to the smoke pipe?

Uptakes.

83

Refractory expansion joints are normally what size?

1/4"

84

What is the preferred material for expansion joint construction?

Styrofoam.

85

A boiler purge will have how many volumetric air changes?

Five. 5

86

A boiler must always be purged in accordance with what?

Purge table.

87

During a furnace inspection prior to light off the boiler inspection device (bid) fogs up, what is the probable cause?

Presence of fuel oil in the furnace.

88

Can raw fuel be removed from the furnace by purging the boiler?

No, the fuel must be wiped up.

89

Once a boiler purge is complete, fires must be lighted within what time frame?

5 Minutes.

90

If ignition fails to occur within 2 to 3 seconds what action must be taken?

Shut the burner fuel oil manifold valve, safety shutoff device and investigate the cause.

91

During a heavy black smoke condition the burner flame will be what color?

Dark orange.

92

An incandescent dazzling white burner is an indication of what?

Excessive air.

93

Fuel oil temperature at the burner front shall not exceed what temperature?

125 Degrees F.

94

What is the function of the boiler sliding feet?

To allow for expansion and contraction of the boiler during light off and cool down.

95

The steam separators separate the steam and water mixture by what action?

Centrifugal action.

96

The majority of the steam that leaves the superheater goes were?

Main engines.

97

A short term decrease in drum water level which results from a change in firing rate or steam flow without any corresponding change in the feeding rate is termed what?

Shrink.

98

The amount of heat applied to steam to raise its temperature above the saturation temperature, while maintaining constant pressure is defined as?

Superheat.

99

What is the basic cause of all boiler explosions?

The accumulation of unburned fuel or combustion vapors at some point in the system.

100

Steam soot blower elements are rotated at a rate of?

10 to 15 seconds per 90 degrees rotation.

101

The minimum steam atomization temperature at the burner front is?

370 Degrees F.

102

The desired range of steam atomization temperature is?

400 Degrees F. plus or minus 10 degrees F. 400 +/- 10

103

What prevents windmilling of an idle force draft blower, while the other force draft blower is online?

Automatic shutters.

104

The chock facing of the sliding feet is constructed of what material?

Phosphorus bronze.

105

What term is usually attributable to deficiency of air and excessive vibration of the boiler?

Panting.

106

Heavy and prolonged seawater contamination of the fuel oil will form what type of corrosive products on the brick work?

Slag formation.

107

What function does nichrome wire serve in the refractory?

As a anchoring device.

108

A boiler that provides some means of controlling the degree of superheat independently of the rate of steam generation is said to have?

Controlled superheat.

109

Most modern naval boilers are designed for what type of circulation?

Accelerated natural circulation.

110

What is the function of refractory materials?

To confine the heat to the firebox and protect the casing and structural members from overheating.

111

What are the three end points a steaming boiler has?

1. End point of circulation
2. End point of moisture carryover
3. End point of combustion

112

How are individual economizer tubes connected?

By U-bends at the tube ends.

113

What type of refractory is preferred for small repairs or where standard size brick or tile cannot be used?

Castable fireclay.

114

Castable refractory must be air cured for how long prior to baking out?

Two days.

115

What type of tile is made of silicon carbide?

Baffle tile.

116

Who determines the combination of boilers and burners to be used, that gives the greatest plant efficiency with due regard to providing for safety and military requisites?

Engineering Officer.

117

When warming up steam assisted atomizers, how long do you allow for warmup with steam prior to light-off?

3 to 5 minutes.

118

When using compressed air for light-off, what is the required pressure of the compressed air?

85 to 150 psig.

119

Where can guidance and general information on all naval boilers be found?

NSTM 221, Boilers.

120

What component reduces the steam temperature of saturated steam in the 150 psig steam system?

In-line desuperheater.

121

Is it allowable to use shore steam for steam atomization?

No, due to its poor quality.

122

The torch man shall wear what protective gear, during boiler light-off?

Fire retardant coverall, eye shield, and burnerman gloves.

123

During boiler light-off what rule must always be followed?

Two man rule.

124

On a D-type boiler with an integral superheater, what protects the superheater from overheating during the initial steam formation?

Superheater protection steam (SHPS).

125

Superheater protection steam is taken from what system?

150 psig auxiliary steam system.

126

What gage glasses are checked for satisfactory operation after light-off by blowing down, when the D-type boiler reaches what pressure?

100 to 200 psig.

127

Sputtering burner flames are an indication of what?

Water in the fuel oil.

128

White smoke is caused by what?

Excessive air.

129

If you are unable to correct the white smoke condition within one minute, what action must be taken?

Secure the boiler.

130

Adjusting the fuel oil header pressure during a white smoke condition can lead to what?

A boiler explosion.

131

Water contamination tests for fuel oil storage and service tanks and procedures for cleaning such contaminated tanks can be found were?

NSTM 541, Petroleum and fuel oil testing.

132

The term residual fires means what?

The presence of fire at the burner tips or on the firebox deck after the boiler has been secured.

133

What is the total heating surface of a naval boiler defined as?

That portion of the heat transfer tubes which is exposed on one side to the gases of combustion and on the other side to the water or steam being heated.

134

The term steaming hours indicates what?

The time during which the boiler has fires lighted for raising steam and the time during which it is generating steam.

135

Unevaporated boiler water carried out of the steam drum with the steam, caused by the malfunctioning steam drum internals is termed?

Priming.

136

Two or more boilers operating simultaneously and connected so their output forms a common supply, are said to be operating?

In parallel.

137

All boiler tubes are identified in what manner?

Tube rows are identified by lettering and individual tubes in each row by numbering.

138

What function does the steam smothering system serve?

To extinguish boiler air casing fires.

139

Insulating block is capable of withstanding what maximum temperature?

1500 Degrees F.

140

What refractory is used for the innermost layer of the firebox furnace?

Firebrick.

141

What type of burner front cracking, is caused by stresses resulting from the normal expansion and contraction?

Radial cracking.

142

What is used to keep a record of defective boiler tubes and renewed tubes?

Boiler tube renewal sheet.

143

What action shall be taken if you discover lumps in a newly opened bag of castable?

Lumps indicate moisture contamination therefore the castable must be discarded.

144

Except during emergencies, what boiler firing rate shall never be exceeded?

Five percent.

145

Prior to entering the boiler drums or firebox the boiler must be certified to be?

Gas free.

146

Why are all naval boilers layed-up when idle for more than 24 hours?

To prevent oxygen corrosion of the boiler watersides.

147

What are the five wet lay-up methods?

1. Steam blanket
2. Nitrogen
3. Hot deaerated fill
4. Sodium nitrite and Hydrazine/Morpholine.

148

What are the two dry lay-up methods?

1. Heated air lay-up
2. Desiccant.

149

A steam blanket lay-up shall be monitored at what frequency by the responsible watch stander?

Hourly.

150

When is a steam blanket lay-up considered lost?

When the boiler steam pressure falls to atmospheric pressure and cannot be reestablished.

151

What is the maximum time limit for a steam blanket lay-up?

30 consecutive days from securing.

152

What is the minimum pressure required for a nitrogen blanket lay-up?

5 psig.

153

The oil king shall check lay-up status at what interval?

Daily.

154

The deaerated feedwater used in the hot deaerated backfill lay-up shall meet what dissolved oxygen limit?

15 PPB (Parts per Billion).

155

What is the maximum time limit for a hot deaerated fill lay-up?

14 consecutive days from securing.

156

What is the maximum time limit for a nitrogen blanket lay-up?

30 consecutive days from securing.

157

How long is it permissible to interrupt a steam or nitrogen blanket lay-up to perform emergency repairs?

Only once during the lay-up period for a maximum of 8 hours.

158

Who administers the hydrazine/morpholine lay-up?

1. Industrial activity
2. Ship's force when Chelant is installed.

159

When is the Industrial hydrazine/morpholine lay-up considered lost?

If the hydrazine concentration falls below 10 ppm the lay-up is lost.

160

How long is the hydrazine/morpholine lay-up good for?

Indefinitely as long as the required hydrazine concentration is maintained.

161

What is the required amount of sodium nitrite, that is used for a sodium nitrite wet lay-up?

10 pounds per 1,000 gallons of feedwater.

162

What is the time limit on a sodium nitrite wet lay-up?

No time limit.

163

Disposal of sodium nitrite shall be in accordance with NSTM chapter?

593, Pollution control.

164

How many pounds of sodium nitrite are added to the boiler, prior to placing the boiler on a dry lay-up?

10 pounds per 1000 gallons.

165

Hot air lay-up installation shall be inspected at what interval to ensure proper operation?

Each watch.

166

How much desiccant is used for a proper dry lay-up?

16 pounds for every 1,000 gallons of cold water capacity.

167

How is desiccant lay-up monitored, after the lay-up is established?

Hourly by the responsible watch stander and daily by the oil king.

168

What is used to indicate that a desiccant lay-up is within requirements?

Humidity indicator cards.

169

When the humidity indicator cards indicate that the humidity is over 50 percent what action must be taken?

Desiccant must be replaced with fresh material.

170

What are the 3 authorized cleaning methods for removing soft deposits?

1. High-pressure water jet
2. EDTA
3. Power driven wire brush.

171

What is the purpose of the apron plates?

They form an annular passageway for the steam and water mixture from the generating tubes to the separators.

172

What type of hazard does soot create?

Fire hazard.

173

How are handhole seats properly cleaned?

With a power driven cup brush.

174

What is installed to keep moisture out of the uptakes and boiler firesides?

Stack covers.

175

Stack rain gutters serve what purpose?

To allow proper draining of the stack.

176

What is the periodicity of lubricating sliding feet?

Monthly in accordance with PMS.

177

What are the three times that sliding feet are checked to verify movement?

1. Before light-off
2. During boiler warmup
3. After the boiler is placed online.

178

What boiler hydrostatic test is required for checking valve and fitting tightness?

100 percent hydro.

179

What hydrostatic test methods use design pressure?

135 percent and 150 percent.

180

What is the minimum water temperature used for hydrostatic testing?

70 degrees F.

181

What is the maximum water temperature used for hydrostatic testing?

120 degrees F.

182

What hydrostatic test methods use boiler steady state operating pressure?

100 percent and 125 percent.

183

How long must hydrostatic pressure be maintained prior to conducting the inspection of pressure parts?

15 minutes.

184

What holds firebrick and burner tile in place?

Anchor bolts.

185

What function do the steam drum swash plates have?

They are used to reduce the surging or swashing of water from one end of the drum to the other as the ship moves.

186

What are the four main kinds of generating and circulating tubes?

1. Generating tubes in the main bank
2. Waterwall tubes
3. Water screen tubes
4. Downcomers.

187

What does the term distillate refer to?

Evaporated water that is discharged from the ships distilling plant.

188

Where is distillate stored?

In the reserve feed tanks.

189

In ships equipped with demineralizers, the water entering the demineralizer from any tank is called reserve feedwater, while the water flowing out of the demineralizer to the condensate system is called?

Makeup feedwater.

190

After steam has done its work, it is returned to the liquid state by cooling in a condenser, what is this liquid termed?

Condensate.

191

What are the principle source of condensate?

Main and auxiliary condensers.

192

A properly operating deaerating feed tank (DFT) will maintain the dissolved oxygen content at or below what level?

15 Parts per billion (PPB).

193

Boiler water is defined as?

The feedwater as it enters the boiler steam drum.

194

If a boiler is producing steam at about 50 percent of its capacity, the dissolved and suspended materials brought into the boiler with the feedwater will concentrate in the boiler at what rate per hour?

10 Fold per hour.

195

What effect will an excess of hydrogen ions have on boiler water?

Increase in acidity.

196

A PH of seven is defined as?

Neutral.

197

What effect will an excessive amount of hydroxyl ions have on boiler water?

Alkalinity will increase.

198

A hydroxyl ion is represented by what?

OH-.

199

A hydrogen ion is represented by what?

H+.

200

What is the initial reaction that takes place between pure oxygen free water and the iron in the boiler water after light-off?

Formation of a magnetite layer.

201

What function does the magnetite layer serve?

To passivate the tube metal and reduce corrosion to minimum.

202

What are the two major hardness constituents and the primary sources of scale in boilers and feed system heat exchange equipment?

Calcium and magnesium.

203

What type of deposits act as insulators and reduce the heat transfer across any surface ?

Scale.

204

Because of very high furnace temperatures, modern naval boilers can tolerate no more than a few thousandths of an inch of scale on tube surfaces without suffering what?

Tube ruptures.

205

What determines the amount of oxygen that will dissolve in water?

Surface pressure and temperature.

206

When dissolved oxygen enters the boiler water, it causes what type of corrosion?

Localized (pitting) corrosion.

207

As the Alkalinity of the boiler water decrease, the severity of dissolved oxygen attack does what?

Increases.

208

Boiler watersides which are open to the atmosphere are subject to what type of corrosion?

Dissolved oxygen.

209

Chloride is an indication of what type of contamination?

Sea water.

210

Chloride is an aggressive ion which causes dissolution of what protective layer?

Magnetite.

211

The ability of a liquid to conduct an electrical current is called what?

Conductivity.

212

Conductivity is expressed in?

Micromhos per centimeter (umhos/cm)

213

Electrolytic corrosion depends upon the presence of what?

Anodes and cathodes.

214

What will an excessively high conductivity cause?

Carryover.

215

How are dissolved and suspended solids controlled in a steaming boiler?

By blowdowns.

216

Which type of carryover is caused by excessive amounts of dissolved and suspended solids?

Foaming.

217

What is the primary source of silica contamination?

Poor quality shore source feedwater.

218

What is the maximum silica content of shore source feedwater?

.20 Parts per million (PPM).

219

Desiccant is mostly comprised of what material?

Silica gel or silicate.

220

What type of deposits are formed in the boiler, when the boiler water is contaminated with oil?

Carbonaceous deposits.

221

What effect does seawater have on boiler water?

Decrease Alkalinity which could lead to acid corrosion.

222

Shore water causes Alkalinity to?

Increase.

223

What type of corrosion is caused by shore water contamination?

Caustic corrosion.

224

What will a malfunctioning or improperly operating DFT cause?

Dissolved oxygen corrosion.

225

Why is Hydrazine added to the condensate/feedwater system?

To reduce corrosion in the pre-boiler system.

226

Where is Hydrazine introduced into the system?

Deaerating Feed Tank.

227

What are the three treatment chemicals used to batch treat the boilers under?

1. Trisodium phosphate (TSP)
2. Disodium phosphate (DSP)
3. Caustic Soda.

228

What effect does trisodium phosphate (TSP) have on boiler water?

Increase Alkalinity, Phosphate and Conductivity.

229

What effect does disodium phosphate (DSP) have on boiler water?

Increase phosphate and conductivity.

230

What effect does caustic soda have on boiler water?

Increase Alkalinity and conductivity.

231

Sludge in boiler water is an agglomeration of what?

Reaction products of boiler water treatment chemicals with calcium and magnesium contaminants.

232

How is sludge removed from the boiler?

By bottom blowdown.

233

Virtually all chemical hideout in naval boilers occurs following what four events?

1. Acid cleaning
2. EDTA cleaning
3. A contamination incident

234

What type of blowdown serves the purpose of reducing the amounts of material dissolved in the boiler water?

Surface blowdown.

235

Hard deposits can only be removed by what type of cleaning?

Acid cleaning.

236

Who is the only authority that can authorize acid cleaning?

NAVSEA.

237

What is the purpose of conducting daily salinity indicator comparisons?

To ensure that the salinity indicator is properly functioning.

238

What does the acronym SI mean?

Salinity indicator.

239

What is the maximum allowable tolerance for the daily salinity indicator comparison test?

Plus or minus .02 equivalent per million (EPM).

240

The maximum final distillate salinity indicator reading is?

.065 equivalent per million (EPM).

241

What is the maximum chloride limit for reserve feedwater?

.10 equivalent per million (EPM).

242

What is the maximum salinity indicator reading on an auxiliary condenser?

.02 equivalent per million (EPM).

243

What is the boiler water phosphate test measured in?

Parts per million (PPM).

244

What is the maximum conductivity reading on the inlet of the demineralizer?

15 microhms per centimeter (umhos/cm).

245

What is the maximum chloride limit for final distillate?

.07 equivalent per million (EPM).

246

Ships equipped with Chelant continuous injection systems shall maintain the feedwater hydrazine level at what range?

10 - 40 PPB.

247

When a salinity indicator is malfunctioning, what action must be taken?

Sample and test the effected salinity indicator every 4 hours until the cell is restored.

248

What is the maximum hardness limit for reserve feedwater?

.10 equivalent per million (EPM).

249

The deaerating feed tank (DFT) is sampled and checmically tested for dissolved oxygen at what interval?

Prior to feeding the boiler, 2 to 3 hours after the boiler is on-line, and daily thereafter while on-line.

250

The dissolved oxygen content of the deaerated feedwater shall not exceed what limit?

15 parts per billion (PPB).

251

What is the required PH limit for shore steam?

8.0 - 9.5 PH units.

252

What is the maximum allowable conductivity of shore steam?

25 microhms per centimeter (umhos/cm).

253

What is the required PH of shore source processed feedwater?

5.4 to 8.2 PH units.

254

What is the maximum silica content of shore steam?

.20 parts per million (PPM).

255

When are idle reserve feed tanks sampled?

Daily, when not in use for more than 24 hours.

256

What is the maximum allowable salinity indicator reading for evaporator air ejector drains?

.065 EPM.

257

What is the Alkalinity range for a boiler with Chelant system installed?

.100 to 1.000 EPM.

258

What is the phosphate range for a boiler with the Chelant system installed?

10 to 40 parts per milion (PPM).

259

What is the maximum allowable conductivity reading on a boiler with Chelant?

500 microhms per centimeter (umhos/cm).

260

What is the maximum allowable difference between measured conductivity and the continuous conductivity reading?

10 percent.

261

How often is the continuous conductivity reading taken?

Hourly.

262

Who takes the continuous conductivity reading hourly?

Fireroom personnel.

263

What is the maximum chloride limit on all naval boilers?

1.00 equivalent per million (EPM).

264

A freshly filled and treated boiler should be steamed within what time frame?

24 hours.

265

Routime boiler water samples are taken at what frequency?

At least every 24 hours.

266

A boiler water sample shall be taken at what periodicity prior to boiler blowdown?

Within 1 hour.

267

When shall boiler water samples be taken after surface or bottom blowdowns?

30 to 45 minutes after blowdown.

268

Prior to securing, the boiler must be sampled within?

90 minutes.

269

Why is a prior to light off sample not necessary on a boiler that has been freshly filled and treated?

The sample would not be representative of the boiler water, due to inadequate circulation.

270

How long is the chemical injection system aligned to the boiler while injecting treatment chemicals?

10 minutes.

271

During a serious contamination incident boiler water samples are drawn at what interval?

Every 15 - 30 minutes.

272

When must the boiler be sampled after chemical addition?

60 to 90 minutes after chemical addition.

273

A normal surface blowdown will result in what percentage of blowdown?

5 percent.

274

When are bottom blowdowns performed?

Every 360 steaming hours, and whenever the boiler is secured for longer than two hours.

275

Is it allowable to bottom blow a steaming boiler?

No, due to the possibility of breaking circulation.

276

What is the minimum pressure, at which a bottom blowdown, shall be performed?

Not less than 100 PSI.

277

What is required to be done to all blowdown valves after completion of a 15 minute cooldown period?

All valves shall be retorqued to prevent leakage.

278

What is the minimum PH required for boiler light off?

.100 EPM Alkalinity.

279

What is the minimum phosphate level required for boiler light off?

10 parts per million (PPM).

280

What is the dump guideline for alkalinity on a chelant boiler?

Alkalinity greater than 2.000 EPM.

281

What is the dump guideline for phosphate on a chelant boiler?

100 parts per million (PPM).

282

What is the dump guideline for conductivity on a chelant boiler?

1200 microhms per centimeter (umhos/cm).

283

What is the dump guideline for Chloride on a chelant boiler?

2.50 EPM.

284

What is the maximum allowable difference between the continuous conductivity meter and measuered conductivity?

10 percent.

285

All boiler sample testing must be completed within how many minutes of drawing the sample?

Thirty minutes.

286

Why are dump guidelines established for main propulsion boilers?

To reduce feedwater consumption on steaming boilers.

287

Who authorized the addition of treatment chemicals, during casualty control procedures?

Engineering Officer of the Watch.

288

What effect does desiccant have on boiler water?

Increases Silica content.

289

HOw is Hydrazine stored onboard ship?

Locked in the approriate locker in the fireroom, Oil king maintains the key.

290

What is the volume of the chemical safety dispensing bottle?

2 1/2 gallons or 10 liters.

291

All treatment chemical injected into the boiler must be weighed and rounded to the nearest?

Half ounce.

292

What must be worn when mixing trisodium phosphate?

Face shield.

293

What is nitrogen used for in the continuous treatment system?

To pressurize the continuous treatment tank and force out treatment solution.

294

When it becomes necessary to increase Nitrogen pressure in the continuous treatment tank it is increased in what pressure increments.

5 psig.

295

What type of damage will occur in the boiler with an Alkalinity of zero a phosphate of less than 10?

Scale formation.

296

Securing the boiler will stop all damage except what?

Acid corrosion and oxygen corrosion.

297

Who must authorized the steaming of a boiler that has a conductivity greater than 2,000 umhos/cm?

Commanding Officer.

298

How can feedwater bicarbonate contamination be confirmed?

By testing the feedwater for phosphate.

299

Feedwater bicarbonate in the feedwater system is indicated by phosphate level of what?

5 parts per million (PPM) or greater.

300

What type of test method is the boiler water phosphate test?

Volumetric.

301

The dissolved oxygen test is an example of what test method?

Colorimetery.

302

What are the two classes of sampling errors?

Random and systematic.

303

If boiler water is inadvertently sampled while a chemical addition is in process and high results are obtained, what type of error has occurred?

Random.

304

What type of error occurs when a sample is drawn from one part of a liquid, when that liquid is not mixed, and different levels of concentration exist throughout?

Systematic.

305

All feedwater testing shall be completed within?

30 minutes of sampling.

306

When reading the buret, if the bottom of the meniscus is below a graduated line, how do you read the value?

Read the next higher value.

307

All graduated cylinders used for boiler water and feedwater testing are designated in what manner?

TD.

308

What does the acronym TD on a graduated cylinder stand for?

To deliver.

309

What is the volume of a graduated cylinder?

100 milliliters (ml).

310

The bottom of the buret with the stopper in place shall be how far from the bottom of the reagent bottle?

1/2 inch.

311

What does the term volumetric test method mean?

Consists of adding a reagent solution of known concentration, from a buret, into a sample of known volume of analyze the concentration.

312

What test method is the DR-100 silica test?

Colorimetery.

313

What is the range of the dissolved oxygen comparator?

0-40 parts per billion (PPB).

314

What color change can be expected, after adding phenolphthalein to the boiler water sample, when conducting a phosphate test?

Pink or red.

315

The boiler water conductivity test is considered what test method?

Electrometric.

316

What is the preferred temperature of the Alkalinity sample, when conducting a boiler water Alkalinity test?

20 to 30 degrees C.

317

What is used onboard ship to calibrate conductivity and PH meters?

Standards.

318

When must conductivity meters be calibrated?

Quarterly and anytime electrical power is interrupted.

319

How is the conductivity meter standardized?

By performing the boiler conductivity standard test.

320

How are bimetallic thermometers checked, when they are first received from the manufacturer?

Ice bath calibration.

321

When preparing nitric acid reagent, how much stock solution is used?

50 milliliters (ml).

322

How must mercuric nitrate waste be disposed?

By turning the waste into public works or any naval shipyard, and conforming to any local or state disposal requirements.

323

How much stock solution is used to prepare mercuric nitrate reagent?

20 milliliters (ml).

324

How much isopropyl alcohol is required to prepare phenolphthalein indicator?

25 milliliters (ml).

325

How long is prepared phenolphthalein indicator good for?

Indefinitely.

326

What is the expiration date of prepared methyl purple indicator?

6 months.

327

What amount of the sample is used during the boiler alkalinity/phosphate test?

200 milliliters (ml).

328

What is the expiration date of prepared chloride indicator?

9 months.

329

What is the conductivity probe stored in?

Distilled water.

330

How many flakes of caustic soda are required to prepare dilute caustic soda indicator?

3 flakes.

331

What is available to ascertain the reliability of technique and equipment?

Standards.

332

What are the three times that standards are conducted?

Quarterly in acordance with PMS, When in doubt, When new reagents are prepared.

333

What is the only feedwater standard?

Hardness standard.

334

The alkalinity standard has a range of what?

5.4 to 6.6 equivalent per million (EPM).

335

All stock and treatment chemicals shall be stored at what temperature?

Below 100 degrees F.

336

Where can specific information be found concerning boiler water/feedwater testing and treatment?

NSTM 220 V2.

337

What will a salinity indicator panel read in the check position?

.261 equivalent per million (EPM).

338

All acids must never be stored with what class of chemicals?

Alkali.

339

What is the flash point of isopropyl alcohol?

59 degrees F.

340

What NSTM covers specific information on stowage and handling hazardous waste?

NSTM 670.

341

What shall be worn when conducting a dissolved oxygen test to prevent glass cuts?

Finger cot.

342

All feedwater and boiler water samples, taken to be tested for chloride and hardness, shall be cooled below what temperature?

100 degrees F.

343

How many drops of chloride indicator are required to perform the feedwater chloride test?

4 to 6 drops.

344

Why are dimethylgloxime (DMG) crystals used in the feedwater hardness test?

To eliminate nickel interference.

345

What is the amount of sample required for the boiler water chloride test?

25 milliliters (ml).

346

What is the expiration date of the hydrazine ampoule comparator?

48 months.

347

Automatic sampling is accomplished by what means?

Conductivity and salinity indicating cells.

348

What is the major interference, in the boiler water alkalinity/phosphate test?

Absorption of carbon dioxide, which lowers alkalinity.

349

What is the amount of sample required to perform the feedwater chloride test?

100 milliliters (ml).

350

While performing the boiler water conductivity test, how much sample is required?

Enough sample to cover the air holes in the conductivity electrode by 1/2 inch.

351

Who is responsible for all boiler water/feedwater checmistry actions?

Engineering officer.

352

Who recommends treatment action based on log entries?

Oil king.

353

Who initials any feedwater reading that is out of limits?

Engineering officer of the watch (EOOW) and the Engineering officer.

354

Who supervises the maintenance of records and reviews the records daily?

Leading chief petty officer (LCPO).

355

Who circles any result which is out of limits on the boiler water/feedwater logs?

Oil king.

356

Who else besides the Engineering officer signs the monthly water treatment log cover sheet?

Commanding officer.

357

A complete machinery plant water treatment log package consists of what logs?

1. Cover sheet and monthly boiler data sheet,
2. The daily feedwater chemistry worksheet/log,
3. The daily boiler water chemistry worksheet/log,
4. Boiler chemical inventory log.

358

How long is the machinery water treatment package retained onboard?

2 years.

359

How long is thereserve/makeup feedwater log retained onboard?

3 months.

360

How long is the daily fuel and water report retained onboard?

1 month.

361

What log would have the latest setting, for main feed pump governors?

Monthly boiler data sheet/log.

362

What log lists the latest boiler safety valve settings?

Monthly boiler data sheet/log.

363

What log is used for daily salinity/conductivity indicator comparison readings?

The daily feedwater chemistry worksheet/log.

364

What log is used for shore source feedwater tests?

Reserve/makeup feedwater log.

365

What log is used to record the ships liquid loading percentages?

The daily fuel and water report.

366

Who signs the fuel and water report?

Engineering officer and Main propulsion assistant.

367

When does the LCPO, MPA, and Engineering officer review and initial the boiler water/feedwater chemistry worksheet logs?

Daily.

368

EDTA is considered what type of cleaning?

Mechanical.

369

On what log would the entry for hours since last acid cleaning be logged?

Monthly boiler data.

370

How many stir rods are stored in the boiler water test cabinet?

Six.

371

What is the volume of chloride indicator dropper bottle?

60 milliliters (ml).

372

What is the expiration date for trisodium phosphate?

Indefinite.

373

With few exceptions, what is the normal expiration date for stock chemicals?

Two years.

374

What is imposed to prevent chemicals from deteriorating in storage?

Shelf life.

375

What is the expiration date of mixed bed ion exchange resin?

Five years or 60 months.

376

What is the expiration date for all standards?

Two years.

377

How must dissolved oxygen ampules be stored when not in use?

Stored in their box away from direct light.

378

What log would you find the latest boiler hydrostatic test data for a 150 percent hydrostatic test?

Monthly boiler data sheet.

379

When sending reports to higher authorities, who are the reports sent to?

Type Commander, with an information copy sent to ISIC, NAVSEA, NAVSSES.

380

How is an error corrected on any boiler water/feedwater log entry?

Line through the error and initial the error, then enter the correct number.

381

When making log entries, what are the two allowable writing instruments, that may be used?

Pen or pencil, when using pencil no erasure is allowed.

382

What is meant by the term positive displacement pump?

Each stroke displaces a definite quantity of liquid, regardless of the resistance against the pump.

383

What is an example of a positive displacement pump?

Reciprocating or rotary pump.

384

What are the two main parts of a reciprocating pump?

Water end and steam end.

385

If a reciprocating pump is driven by an electric motor, what is this pump referred to as?

Power pump.

386

What is the most common type of reciprocating pump used in the Navy?

Direct-acting with double-action.

387

What is meant by the term direct-acting?

This is when the pump rod is a direct extension of the piston rod.

388

What does the term double-actinig refer to?

Each stroke serves both to draw in liquid and to discharge liquid.

389

How is it determined whether a pump is high or low pressure?

Dependent on the size of the steam cylinder in relation to the size of the cylinder in the liquid end.

390

What pressure would a reciprocating pump have if the steam cylinder was larger than the cylinder in the liquid end?

High pressure.

391

The term high pressure, when associated with reciprocating pumps means what?

That the pressure being discharged is greater than the steam that drives the pump.

392

If a reciprocating pump was identified as 12 X 8 X 16 VSDA, what would this refer to?

The pump has an 12 inch steam cylinder, an 8 inch water cylinder, and 16 inch stroke, and is a vertical single double-acting pump.

393

What is the purpose of cushioning valves at each end of the steam cylinder?

These valves are adjusted to trap a certain amount of steam at the end of the cylinder, thus cushioning each stroke.

394

What part of a reciprocating pump is referred to as the power end?

Steam end of the pump.

395

What is the function of the snifter valves?

Smooth out discharge flow, absorb shock and prevent pounding.

396

What reciprocating pump does not use snifter vlaves?

Emergency feed pump.

397

What publication can you use to find pertinent information on pumps?

NSTM 503.

398

Groaning in the pump end of a reciprocating pump is generally caused by what?

Over tightening of the pump packing.

399

What type of pump works by means of rotating parts, which trap liquid at the suction side, and force it through the discharge outlet?

Rotary pump.

400

Rotary pumps are particularly useful for pumping what type of fluids?

oil and other heavy viscous fluids.

401

Why are rotary pumps designed with very small clearances between rotating parts?

To minmize slippage from the discharge side to the suction side.

402

If rotary pumps are operated at higher than normal speeds, what will occur?

Erosion and excessive wear.

403

What type of rotary pump is frequently used as a lubricating pump on pumps and other auxiliary machinery?

Simple gear pump.

404

What is the major advantage of using a helical gear pump?

Smoother discharge and increased capacity.

405

What is used on a helical gear pump to properly maintain alignment and reduce friction on the gear shaft?

Roller bearings.

406

What is used on a helical pump to prevent leakage at the shafts?

Stuffing boxes.

407

What type of pump uses the throwing force of a rapidly revolving impeller?

Centrifugal pump.

408

The main feed pump is an example of what type of pump?

Centrifugal.

409

Where does the liquid enter the impeller on a centrifugal pump?

The eye (center).

410

Capacity and discharge pressure can be varied on a centrifugal pump by changing what?

Pump speed.

411

What term refers to the flooding of the pump casing with fluid before it can operate?

Pump priming.

412

What prevents the main feed pump from overheating at no load and low load conditions?

Recirculating lines.

413

What is installed on a centrifugal pump, to eliminate the renewing of an entire impeller and pump casing due to rapid wear?

Wearing rings.

414

What is installed on the pump shafts to prevent the total replacement of the shaft due to excessive wear and scoring?

Shaft sleeves.

415

What is the function of seal piping?

To cool the shaft and packing, and to seal the joint between the shaft and the packing against air leakage.

416

Seal piping leads liquid from the discharge side of the pump to the annular space within what component?

Lantern ring.

417

Main feed pumps are fitted with what two types of governors?

Constant-pressure and speed-limiting.

418

What supports the weight of the impeller and maintains the position of the impeller both radially and axially?

Bearings.

419

To minimize leakage from the discharge side of the pump casing to the suction side of a centrifugal pump what must be maintained?

Close clearances.

420

What is meant by the term axially flow?

Liquid flow that is parallel to the shaft.

421

Why are centrifugal pumps located below the level from which suction is to be taken?

To simplify pump priming.

422

A main feed pump is classified as what type of pump?

Multistage, high speed, turbine driven.

423

What provides a positive suction head to the main feed pump?

Feed booster pump.

424

Impellers on main condensate pumps are constructed from special materials to resist what?

Cavitation.

425

How is entrapped air removed from pump casings?

Vent valves.

426

What is the function of water flinger rings installled on main feed pump shafts?

To prevent stuffing box leakage from following along the shaft and entering the bearing housing.

427

In order to feed the boiler the main feed pump must operate at what pressure above steam drum pressure?

At least a 150 psig above drum pressure.

428

How often are main feed pumps checked for proper operation while online?

Hourly.

429

What type of pump is the main air ejector?

Jet pump.

430

What is the primary use of jet pumps onboard ship?

To remove air and other noncondensable gases from main and auxiliary condensers.

431

What type of jet pump uses liquid rather than steam to operate?

Eductor type.

432

A jet pump contains how many moving parts?

None.

433

On a main fuel oil or lube oil service pump fitted with a constant-pressure governor, were does the oil actuating line connect?

Discharge side of the pump.

434

What is the purpose of the needle valve installed on the constant-pressure governor?

Reduces hunting, and stabilizes pump discharge pressure.

435

What device allows a steam turbine to operate under all conditions from no load to overload, but will not exceed 110 percent of normal operating speed?

Speed-limiting governor.

436

On a centrifugal mechanical type governor what causes the steam admission valve to open and close?

The movement of the flyweights and spring compression.

437

What device ensures that the steam turbine will not exceed a predetermined speed and shuts off the steam when the turbine exceeds 110 percent?

Overspeed trip.

438

Carbon packing rings must never be lubricated with what?

Grease or oil.

439

The final diameter of the carbon ring jig, including the raised cutting edge, should be equal to what?

The required inside diameter of the carbon ring.

440

Carbon rings are held together with what type of fastener?

Springs.

441

When carbon rings are properly fitted what type of joint is formed?

Butt joint.

442

What systems use cabon rings?

Low pressure and low temperature.

443

How are carbon rings prevented from rotating with the shaft?

By lugs attached to the springs.

444

When examining the shaft after carbon ring removal, you notice scoring on the shaft, what is the corrective action?

Smooth the shaft with an oil stone.

445

Labyrinth packing segments are held in place by what?

Springs.

446

What is the operating principle of labyrinth packing?

As the steam passes along the shaft, the pressure drops in the labyrinth.

447

What device is desinged to take care of very slight misalignment between the driving and the driven shafts?

Flexible coupling.

448

What are the three kinds of friction?

Sliding, rolling, and fluid.

449

What is the maximum allowable temperature rise in oil through a bearing?

50 degrees F.

450

What is the maximum allowable bearing temperature?

180 degrees F.

451

What are radial sleeve bearings lined with?

Babbitt metal.

452

In what publication would you find general information on all bearings

NSTM 244.

453

What type of bearing measurement uses a micrometer with a ball attachment?

Crown-thickness.

454

When measuring a bearing with the lead wire and micrometer method, how is a reading attained?

By measuring the leads in several places to see whether they are uniform and measuring them to determine the clearance.

455

What size of lead wire is used for bearing measurement?

Lead wire must be .003 inch thicker than the desired bearing oil clearance.

456

What type of bearing measurement uses a feeler gage to determine clearances?

Bridge gage method.

457

When using a mandrel to hand fit a bearing, what can be used to indicate high spots on the bearing surface?

Prussian blue.

458

What is used to dissipate heat on a radial sleeve bearing?

Babbitt metal.

459

What rides against the thrust collar, on a kingsbury thrust bearing?

Shoes.

460

What type of bearing is used for high speeds and heavy loads?

Kingsbury thrust bearing.

461

How are the shoes kept in alignment and equalized with pressure?

By leveling plates.

462

How is thrust clearance reading taken on a kingsbury thrust bearing?

By moving the shaft axially in each direction and by measuring the amount of end play with a dial indicator.

463

What is babbitt composed of?

Lead base and tin base alloys.

464

What is another name for a antifriction bearing?

Ball bearing.

465

What is the fuction of flexible couplings?

To join the driver and driven shafts and take care of very slight misalignment between the driving and driven shafts.

466

What is the flexible component in a grid type coupling manufactured from?

Spring steel.

467

When should oil coolers be put into operation on auxiliary machinery?

When the temperature of the lube oil leaving the cooler is 100 degrees F.

468

What are the two main types of forced draft blowers used onboard naval ships?

Centrifugal and propeller.

469

Forced draft blowers serve what function?

To furnish a large amount of air required for combustion of the fuel oil.

470

As a rule, how many main force draft blowers are provided per boiler?

Two.

471

How is the air intake protected to prevent entry of foreign objects?

Screened intakes.

472

What publication lists general information on all force draft blowers?

NSTM 554.

473

What is the function of the diffuser vanes installed downstream from the fan wheel?

To straighten the air flow as it leaves the blower.

474

When the blower is secured, what is the position of the shutters?

Locked closed.

475

Failure to lock the shutters on an idle blower can result in what, if another blower is operating?

Windmilling of the idle blower.

476

What is the discharge duct of the force draft blower connected to?

Boiler air casing.

477

On blowers that use nozzle valves, how are they designed to control speed?

By opening in sequence.

478

What is the major difference between centrifugal and propeller blowers?

Direction of air flow.

479

What is the most common force draft blower found onboard naval vessels?

Propeller type.

480

How is the blower speed checked for revolutions per minute (RPM)?

By the use of tachometers.

481

What is installed to prevent the force draft blower turbine from exceeding the maximum safe operating speed?

Speed-limiting governors.

482

What is the power source of the port-use blower?

Electric motor.

483

What type of lubrication system is installed on steam force draft blowers?

Force feed.

484

What is the temperature of the oil cooler outlet maintained at on all steam driven auxiliary machinery?

Between 120 degrees F and 130 degrees F.

485

What are the stationary diffuser blades on a vaneaxial force draft blower called?

Stator blades.

486

What is the FDB tachometer, that is driven by the governor spindle calibrated to indicate?

Main shaft speed in revolutions per minute (RPM).

487

What device prevents carryover in the distilling plant?

Moisture or vapor separators.

488

What does the term evaporation refer to?

The process of boiling seawater to separate it into freshwater vapor and brine.

489

In the distilling plant what is the first stage of distillation defined as?

Evaporation.

490

What is the second stage of distillation in the distilling plant called?

Condensation.

491

In the distilling process the term vapor means?

The end product of the evaporated seawater.

492

What is the most widely used distilling plant in the Navy?

Flash type.

493

What is the major heating source of the seawater heater?

Auxiliary exhaust.

494

What type of heat exchanger is used for fuel and lube oil coolers?

Counterflow.

495

The main condenser is an example of what type of heat exchanger?

Crossflow.

496

What are the five classifications of heat exchangers?

1. Path of heat flow
2. Direction of fluid flow
3. Number of passes
4. Type of surface
5. Type of construction.

497

What does the term parallel flow mean?

When both fluids flow in the same direction.

498

What does the term counterflow mean?

When the two fluids flow in opposite directions.

499

What does the term crossflow mean?

When one fluid flows at right angles to another.

500

If the surface of a heat exchanger is fitted with rings, fins, studs, or some other kind of extension it is termed what type?

Extended surface.

501

What publication lists general information on heat exchangers, condensers, and air ejectors?

NSTM 254.

502

A condenser changes a gas to a liquid by causing the gas to?

Lose its latent heat.

503

What type of heat exchanger is the deaerating feed tank (DFT)?

Direct contact.

504

A plain surface heat exchanger is constructed to have what type of surface?

Very smooth.

505

What type of heat exchanger is constructed of pairs of flat oblong strips?

Strut tube and plate tube.

506

What type of heat exhanger is constructed to have one tube inside another?

Double tube.

507

What type of heat exchanger is constructed to have coils of tubing?

Helical or spiral tube.

508

What type of heat exchanger uses U-shaped tubes, on one tube sheet?

Return bend.

509

What is the function of an air ejector?

To remove air and noncondensable gases from condensers.

510

How is flow through the air ejector maintained?

By a jet of high velocity steam passing through a nozzle.

511

What is the first stage of the main air ejector called?

Intercondenser.

512

What is the second stage of the main air ejector called?

Aftercondenser.

513

Where does the aftercondenser take a suction from?

Intercondenser.

514

What is used to cool the main air ejector assembly?

Condensate.

515

What prevents the main air ejector from overheating?

Thermostatic recirculating valve.

516

What system provides steam to the main air ejector?

Auxiliary steam system.

517

What are the three functions of the main air ejector?

1. Initiates the vacuum in the main condenser
2. Helps maintain the vacuum in the main condenser
3. Removes air and noncondensable gases.

518

What is meant by the term helical flow turbine?

When steam enters at a tangent to the periphery of the rotor and impinges upon the moving blades.

519

What are the blades on a helical turbine called?

Buckets.

520

What is the primary purpose of the turbine wheel or rotor?

To carry the moving blades.

521

What converts the thermal energy from the steam into rotary movement of the shaft?

The moving blades.

522

What is the purpose of the equalizing hole drilled through the rotor on an impulse turbine?

To prevent the development of a pressure difference between the two sides.

523

How are impulse blades attached to the rotor?

By either an inverted circumferential dovetail or a pine tree dovetail.

524

On an impulse turbine what is the function of the nozzle?

To guide the steam from the steam chest to the moving blades.

525

What are the three functions of the deaerating feed tank?

1. To free the condensate of oxygen and other noncondensable gases
2. To preheat the feedwater
3. To act as a reservoir in which to store feedwater.

526

What is the major heating source of the deaerating feed tank?

Auxiliary exhaust.

527

The deaerating feed tank is designed to operate at what pressure and temperature?

15 psig and 240 to 250 degrees F.

528

What assists the dearating feed tank atomizing valve in opening?

High pressure drains.

529

What protects the deaerating feed tank from excessive internal pressure?

A relief valve.

530

What pressure is the deaerating feed tank relief valve set to lift at?

Approximately 30 psig.

531

What device is installed on the deaerating feed tank to protect it from excessive external pressure from the atmosphere?

Vacuum breaker.

532

What is the deaerating feed tank vacuum breaker set to lift at?

Approximately 13 psia.

533

What is the minimum recirculation time of the deaeating feed tank, prior to alignment to the feed system?

10 minutes.

534

Normally what is the pressure drop between the auxiliary exhaust steam line and the deaerating feed tank?

1/2 psig or less.

535

What component receives a steam-air mixture from the deaerating feed tank and from the glands of auxiliary steam turbines?

Gland leakoff condenser.

536

What is installed in the deaerating feed tank to minimize turbulence of the water, due to the ships movement?

Swash plates.

537

What two types of lube oil purifiers are currently in use today?

Delavel and Sharples.

538

A disk type purfier would be constructed by what manufacturer?

Delavel.

539

A Sharples purifier uses what type of rotating element?

A tubular type.

540

Both lube oil purifiers employ what type of force to separate water from the oil?

Centrifugal.

541

For maximum efficiency lube oil purifiers should be operated in what manner?

Operate the purifier at maximum designed speed and rated capacity.

542

When oil becomes emulsified you should lower the percent of lube oil purifier rated capacity to?

80 percent of rated capacity.

543

When a purifier is being operated as a separator the bowl must be primed with?

Fresh water.

544

How often must you clean an operating lube oil purifier?

It is dependent on the amount of foreign matter in the oil. If the amount of foreign matter is not known you should shut down the purifier and check it. Cleaning is normally accomplished after 12 hours of continuous sump to sump purification.

545

If the water seal fails on an operating purifier what could be the end result?

Lube oil can be dumped to a drain tank or the bilges.

546

What can be used to preheat the lube oil prior to it reaching the lube oil purifier?

A steam heater.

547

Information on proper idle condenser layup can be found in what NSTM?

NSTM 254.

548

What is the composition of main condenser tubes?

90/10 copper-nickel alloy.

549

What divides the main condenser seawater side and condensate side?

A tube sheet.

550

Ship's not equipped with air ejectors establish main condenser vacuum by?

By using vacuum pumps.

551

Most modern steering gear units are driven by what type of unit?

Electrohydraulic type.

552

The electrohydraulic steering unit consists of what two major parts?

The ram unit and power unit.

553

What causes the ram to move on a electrohydraulic steering unit?

Oil pressure applied to one end of the operating cylinder.

554

What will move along with the ram unit?

The rudder.

555

The power unit consists of how many independent units?

Two, one is online and the other in standby.

556

What protects the steering pump unit from over pressurization?

A relief valve.

557

In case of a failure to both hydraulic pumps what is provided as backup pumping system?

A hand pump.

558

The trick wheel allows local control of what?

The rudder.

559

What three types of anchor windless will you find onboard ship?

Electric, electrohydraulic and hand driven.

560

How many pumps normally drive one wildcat?

One.

561

Hand-driven windlasses are used on what type of vessels?

Small ships where the anchor gear can be handled without excessive effort by operating personnel.

562

When operating the anchor windlass care must be taken to inspect what frequently?

Compression of brake linings and the clearance between the brake drum and band.

563

Navy electrohydraulic winches are all classified as what type?

Drum type.

564

The drum shaft on an electrohydraulic winch is normally driven by what?

Hydraulic motor.

565

Where band brakes are used on the winch drums what should be inspected frequently?

The friction linings.

566

What prevents slippage of the winch when in operation?

A locking device.

567

Cranes are designed to withstand what percent of rated load at no speed?

150 percent.

568

All cranes must withstand a static load of what?

200 percent of rated load without damage or distortion.

569

Kingpost bearings allow for what types of load?

Vertical or horizontal.

570

Define the term boom when associated with a shipboard crane?

A structural unit used to lift, transfer or support heavy weights.

571

The kingpost bearing is located were?

At the top of the kingpost.

572

Modern aircraft carrier elevators are powered by what?

An electrohydraulic power unit.

573

What is the lifting capacity of an aircraft elevator?

79,000 to 105,000 pounds.

574

What medium is used along with oil pressure to power the aircraft elevator?

Nitrogen.

575

Movement of the balanced piston-type valve to the off center position will cause the aircraft elevator to?

Move upward.

576

What prevents overtravel of the aircraft elevator?

An electrical stopping device which limits the stroke of the ram.

577

Classify the two types of conveyors commonly used aboard ship?

Gravity and powered.

578

Conveyors are usually what size?

18 inches wide, but they can be 12 inches wide for use in restricted passageways.

579

Powered conveyors are configured in what two ways?

Vertically or horizontally.

580

Steam jacketted kettles operate at a maximum pressure of what?

45 psi.

581

What prevents steam jacketted kettle over pressurization?

A relief valve set at 45 psi.

582

Steam jacketted kettles are made of what material?

Corrosion resisting steel.

583

A steamer operates at what pressure?

5 - 7 psi.

584

Dishwashing machines are classified into what three groups?

One, two or three-tank machines.

585

Which dishwashing machine is fully automatic?

Three-tank machine.

586

The temperature of the washwater must be maintained within what parameters?

140 - 160 degrees F.

587

Bacteria in the water is maintained by what?

Regulation of water temperature.

588

The hot water rinse is controlled by an automatic steam mixing valve which regulates temperature to?

180 - 195 degrees F.

589

What is used to descale a dishwasher?

Orthophosporic acid, 85 percent.

590

Prevention of scale in dishwashing machines is essential for what two reasons?

First, excessive scale will clog pipes and drains. Second, scale deposits provide a haven for harmful bacteria.

591

In order to calculate the required amount of descaling solution what must be known about the diswashing machine?

Capacity in gallons.

592

Propellers are visually inspected at what periodicity?

Semi-Annually.

593

What is used to clean the prairie holes on a propeller?

Low pressure air.

594

What reference can be used to find general information on Main engine reduction gears?

NSTM 9420.

595

What two types of reduction gear teeth are in use today on propulsion reduction gears?

Herring bone and Helical gears.

596

Main reduction gear pinion's are made from what material?

Forged steel.

597

The maximum allowable bearing temperature during engine operation is?

180 degrees F.

598

What device prevents rotation of the propeller during a casualty?

Main engine locking device.

599

What medium is used to cool the stern tube during operation?

Seawater.

600

After securing the engine, equalized cooling of the shaft is made possible by what device?

Main engine jacking gear.

601

The main engine locking device should only be engaged when?

The ship is dead in the water and the propeller is not turning.

602

When approaching port or an anchorage, Main engine lube oil temperature is reduced to what temperature?

100 Deg. F.

603

Why is the main engine lube oil temperature lowered to 100 deg F upon reaching port or an anchorage?

To minimize moisture buildup and rust formation on the reduction gears.

604

When laying up reduction gears for an extended period what is used to keep them moisture free?

Dehumidifier's.

605

The main reduction gear dehumidifier system must be checked at what frequency for correct operation?

Daily.

606

Permission to open any access to the main engine reduction gears must be obtained from whom?

Engineering Officer.

607

Who maintains the main engine reduction gear keys at all times?

Engineering Officer.

608

Backlash of main engine reduction gears refers to what?

The gear play between the surfaces of the teeth in mesh measured at the pitch circle.

609

What increases engine backlash?

Gear wear.

610

Reduction gear tooth contact can be inspected by applying what?

Red or blue dykem to the gears.

611

What NSTM deals with propulsion and SSTG turbines?

NSTM 231.

612

The high pressure turbine element is normally defined as what type of turbine?

Impulse type.

613

The low pressure turbine element is normally defined as what type of turbine?

Reaction type.

614

What connects the high pressure turbine to the low pressure turbine?

Crossover or Crossunder pipe.

615

Why are extraction valves fitted on some LP and HP turbines?

To increase steam cycle efficiency.

616

What does the term impulse turbine refer to?

A turbine in which the steam impinges upon the rotor blades and moves the rotor by a direct push.

617

What type of steam turbine moves the rotor by the force of reaction?

Reaction turbine.

618

What two main factors determine whether the rotor is moved by a direct impulse or reaction?

By the angle at which the steam hits the moving blades.

619

On an impulse turbine were does the steam lose pressure and gain velocity?

The nozzle.

620

In the moving blades of an impulse turbine, steam loses velocity, and pressure does what?

Remains constant.

621

What type of turbine does not have a nozzle to direct steam, but has a set of fixed blades?

Reaction.

622

What is the function of the fixed blades of a reaction turbine?

To direct the steam flow to the moving blades.

623

What is considered a stage on an impulse turbine?

One set of nozzles and the succeeding row or rows of moving and fixed blades.

624

What is a single stage impulse turbine usually called?

Rateau.

625

What is the definition of a curtis stage turbine?

A velocity-compounded impulse turbine.

626

What does the term radial flow mean?

Steam flows radially either toward or away from the axis of the rotor.

627

The astern turbine elements are located in what turbine?

The low pressure turbine.

628

What prevents foreign material from entering the High pressure turbine steam chest?

The main steam strainer.

629

What is the purpose of gland sealing steam?

Prevents steam from leaking out of the main engine and air from being introduced into the engine.

630

Turbine casing drains normally drain to what piece of equipment or system?

Low pressure drain system or main condenser.

631

The maiin engine thrust bearing is normally what type?

Kingsbury pivoted-segmental-shoe type.

632

The Kingsbury thrust bearing shoes serve what purpose?

The shoes are free to tilt and form the hydrodynamic wedge of oil between its babbitt-face and the thrust colloar.

633

What device is installed on main engine thrust bearings to indicate flow?

Bullseye bubblers or as properly termed- sight flow indicators.

634

What is the minimum allowable lube oil temperature prior to jacking the main engine over?

90 Deg. F.

635

A bowed rotor is caused by what?

Improper warmup or overheating of the rotor.

636

Information on correcting a bowed rotor casualty can be found were?

Engineering operational casualty control (EOCC) guide or NSTM 231.

637

What does the term Singled-up refer to when dealing with propulsion turbines?

Singled-up is used as an emergency means of getting underway when a casualty occurs to either the HP or LP turbine in which on e is placed out of commission. Singled-up of a turbine requires the operator to disconnect one of the turbine's power driven unit.

638

What does the term locked train reduction gear refer to?

The tow first-reduction pinions are locked between the two first reduction gears and transmit power from the turbines equally to the two gears.

639

The main engine flexible coupling serves to protect the engine from?

Longitudal and angular forces.

640

The propeller and shaft is supported outside the hull of the ship by?

Strut and strut bearing.

641

What device is installed on the main engine to prevent the leakage of steam from the engine?

Labyrinth seals.

642

What is the function of a check valve?

To permit the flow of the fluid in one direction only.

643

A gate valve is an example of what class of valves?

Stop valves.

644

What is the most common stop valve?

Globe valve.

645

What is the purpose of a bridge-wall marking on a globe valve?

Indicate the direction of flow.

646

What type of valve is always open or always closed, and does not regulate fluid flow?

Gate valve.

647

What is meant by the term rising stem gate valve?

Both the gate and the stem move upward when the valve is opened.

648

What prevents gate valves used in high pressure steam systems from binding?

Flexible gates.

649

What are the disks and seats of valves used in high temperature steam systems surfaced with?

Stellite.

650

What type of valve is shaped to hold a cylindrical or tapered plug?

Plug valve.

651

What are plug valves commonly used for?

Petcocks on auxiliary machinery.

652

What type of valve is a combination gate valve and plug valve?

Piston valve.

653

What determines the tightness of a piston valve?

The closeness of fit between the piston and the inside of the cylinder.

654

What type of valve is used to make relatively fine adjustments?

Needle valve.

655

What is the needle valve installed on an auxiliary turbine used for?

As an overload nozzle.

656

What type of valve is light in weight, takes up less space than a gate or globe valve, and is relatively quick acting?

Butterfly valve.

657

How far must a butterfly valve be rotated to open or close the valve?

¼ turn or 90 degrees.

658

What type of seat does a butterfly valve have?

Resilient.

659

What type of check valve, does the disk move up and down in response to changes in the pressure of incoming fluid?

Lift check.

660

What type of check valve, does the disc move in an arc to open or close the valve?

Swing check.

661

On a stop check valve, the maximum lift of the disk is controlled by?

The position of the valve stem.

662

What type of valve opens automatically when the pressure in the line or in the unit becomes too high?

Relief valve.

663

What prevents a relief valve from lifting at normal operating pressure?

Spring tension.

664

How are relief valves set?

By the adjusting screw or adjusting nuts.

665

At what pressure does the combination exhaust relief valve lift?

2 psi above auxiliary exhaust line pressure.

666

What type of valve, gives an audible warning to the operator, when it lifts?

Sentinel valve.

667

What are the tow opposing forces on a spring-loaded reducing valve?

1. The downward force of the spring
2. The upward force of steam pressure.

668

On a spring-loaded reducing valve, what tertermines the position of the auxiliary valve?

Position of the controlling diaphragm.

669

Automatic unloading valves are installed to exhaust to what major components?

Main and auxiliary condensers.

670

What is the function of an unloading valve?

To discharge steam from the auxiliary exhaust line to the condenser whenever the auxiliary exhaust exceeds 15 psi.

671

What component is used when it is necessary to take suction from one of several sources and discharge to another unit or several units of the same or a separate group?

Valve manifold.

672

What allows an operator to operate certain valves from distant locations?

Remote operating gear.

673

What is the cooling source for the inline desuperheater?

Feedwater.

674

What device is installed in steam lines to drain condensate from the lines without allowing steam to escape?

Steam trap.

675

What type of steam traps are considered to be mechanical traps?

Ball-float and bucket-type.

676

How is the operation of a bellows type steam trap controlled?

By the expansion of the vapor of a volatile liquid which is enclosed in the bellows.

677

What type of steam trap operates under the principle that hot water under pressure flashes into steam when the pressure is reduced?

Impulse.

678

What is the only moving part in an impulse steam strap?

The disk.

679

Constant flow drain orifices are used in what systems?

150 psi or above, where condensate load and pressure remain near constant.

680

What type of steam trap relies on variable density of condensate?

Orifice.

681

What type of steam trap uses dissimilar metals to operate?

Bimetallic.

682

Where can installation and other information be found pertaining to flange shields?

NSTM 505.

683

What are the two types of piping expansion joints used onboard ship?

Sliding and flexible type.

684

What type of piping expansion joint absorbs motion by the movement of a bellows or some similar device?

Flexible type.

685

What does a valve that has a markiing on the body 2000 WOG indicate?

Valve is suitable for water, oil, or gas service at 2000 psi.

686

How is tubing indentified in the Navy?

By outside diameter (OD) and by actual measured wall thickness.

687

What is the composition of copper-nickel alloy tubing used onboard surface ships?

90 percent copper and 10 percent nickel.

688

What are the two classes of packing and gasket joints?

Moving and fixed.

689

What type of joint uses gasket material?

Fixed.

690

What type of joint uses packing material?

Moving.

691

A fixed joint is identified by the first digit in the symbol number, which would be?

Two.

692

A moving joint is identified by the first digit in the symbol number, which would be?

One.

693

What is used to identify each type or style of packing and gaskets?

Symbol number.

694

What does the second digit of the symbol number indicate?

Packing or gasket composition.

695

How can practically all shipboard packing and gasket problems be solved?

By proper selection from the packing and gasket chart.

696

Low pressure packing must NEVER be used to pack what type of system valves?

High pressure.

697

What type of packing is constructed of 100 percent graphite?

Corrugated ribbon packing (CRP).

698

What lubricates the corrugated ribbon packing (CRP)?

Graphite.

699

What kind of warning stickers must be afficed to all corrugated ribbon containers?

WARNING: CRP conducts electricity.

700

What is the purpose of using graphite filament yarn (GFY) for the first and last packing rings on valves packed with corrugated ribbon?

They are used as anti-extrusion rings to prevent the corrugated ribbon packing from being forced out of the stuffing box.

701

What systems do not use corrugated ribbon packing?

Fuel oil and lube oil systems.

702

How is the outlet temperature of the inline desuperheater controlled?

By thermostatic and diaphragm control valves.

703

Where can detailed information on the selection of insulation, lagging, and fastening be found?

NSTM 635.

704

A tubular product is called pipe if its size is identified by what?

Iron pipe size (IPS) and by reference to wall thickness schedule of piping.

705

How are flanges installed in nonferrous systems?

By brazing.

706

How are steel flanges installed?

By welding.

707

What does a red sealant on lagging cloth indicate?

The material is asbestos free.

708

When removing lagging, if you are unsure of what material you are working with, who should you contact immediately?

Your supervisor.

709

On ships with steam atomization, what is used to lag the atomization piping at the burner front?

Epoxy coating.

710

What are the three positions of the combination exhaust relief valve?

1. Normal
2. Relief
3. Safety.

711

What position of the combination relief valve is used, when performing turbine overhaul?

Safety position.

712

The term energy is defined as?

The capacity for producing effect.

713

What is the definition of mechanical energy?

Energy associated with large bodies or objects.

714

What is the definition of thermal energy?

Energy associated with very small particles called molecules.

715

What is the definition of chemical energy?

Energy that arises from the forces that bind the atoms together in a molecule.

716

What is potential energy?

Energy at rest; stored energy.

717

Kinetic energy is defined as?

Energy in motion, producing work.

718

Combustion is an example of what type of energy?

Chemical energy.

719

Thermal energy in transition is termed?

Heat.

720

Mechanical energy in transition is termed?

Work.

721

What are the two forms of mechanical energy?

Mechanical potential and mechanical kinetic energy.

722

What is mechanical potential energy measured in?

Foot-pounds.

723

What is the potential energy of an object that weights 5 pounds and is held 20 feet off earth?

100 foot-pounds.

724

Potential energy euals what?

Work times distance (W X D = PE).

725

Force times distance (F X D) equals?

Work.

726

What is the definition of power?

The rate at which work is done.

727

Power is measured in what common unit?

Horsepower.

728

One horsepower is equivalent to what?

33,000 foot pounds of work per minute or 550 foot pounds of work per second.

729

A 3 horsepower engine generates how many foot pounds per second?

1650.

730

What is the horsepower generated, if an engine is producing 5,500 foot pounds of work per second?

10 horsepower.

731

What are the two forms of stored thermal energy?

Internal potential energy and internal kinetic energy.

732

What unit is heat measured in?

British thermal units (BTU).

733

What is defined as the quantity of heat required to raise the temperature of 1 pound of water through 1 degree on the Fahrenheit (F) scale?

1 British thermal unit (BTU).

734

How many calories equal 1 BTU?

Approximately 252.

735

What is defined as the quantity of heat required to raise the temperature of 1 gram of water through 1 degree on the Celsius (C) scale?

Calorie (cal).

736

What are the three types of heat transfer?

1. Conduction, 2. Radiation, 3. Convection.

737

What is the mode of heat transfer by which heat flows from a hotter to a colder substance when there is physical contact between the two substances?

Conduction.

738

What is a mode of heat transfer that does not require any physical contact between the warmer substance and the cooler substance?

Radiation.

739

What type of heat transfer is generated b the sun as it heats the earth without heating space?

Radiation.

740

What is the mode of heat transfer that occurs by transmission of heat by the circulation of a liquid or a gas such as air?

Convection.

741

What are the three basic physical states of all matter?

Solid, liquid, and gas.

742

What are the two effects that the flow of heat has on a substance?

Sensible and latent.

743

Sensible heat is defined as?

When the flow of heat is reflected in a temperature change and not in a change in physical state.

744

Latent heat is defined as?

When the flow of heat is not reflected in a temperature change but is reflected in the changing physical state of a substance.

745

To change a pound of ice at 32 degrees F. to a pound of water at 32 degrees F, we must add how many BTU?

144.

746

What is the term associated with a substance that changes from a gas or vapor to a liquid?

Latent heat of condensation.

747

What is the definistion of specific heat?

A thermal property of matter that must be determined experimentally for each substance.

748

How is the principle of the conservation of energy most simply stated?

Energy in = Energy out.

749

What is the formula for converting heat to work?

1 BTU = 778 foot pounds.

750

Themal energy of main steam is transformed to mechanical energy at what point in the basic steam cycle?

High and low pressure tubines.

751

Fuel oil used in the boiler is considered what type of energy?

Chemical.

752

When a vapor is in contact with the liquid from which it was generated, it remains the same temperature as the boiling liquid. In this condition the liquid and the vapor are said to be in?

Equilibrium contact.

753

The tempeature at which a liquid boils under pressure is called the Saturation temperature, and the corresponding pressure is called what?

Saturation pressure.

754

Atmospheric pressure is expressed as?

14 psia at sea level and lesser at higher altitudes.

755

What term is used when the water and steam reach a point that they are no longer indistinguishable from each other, and no further changes in state can occur with the addition of heat or pressure?

Critical point.

756

Steam which has been heated above its saturation temperature for any given pressure is called what?

Superheated steam.

757

The amount by which the temperature of the superheated steam exceeds the temperature of the saturated steam at the same pressure is known as what?

Degree of superheat.

758

If saturated steam at a pressure of 1200 psia and the corresponding saturation temperature of 567 degrees F. is superheated to 900 degrees F., what is the degree of superheat?

333 degrees F.

759

What is the saturation pressure for water at a saturation temperature of 212 degrees F.?

14.7 psia.

760

The changing of steam to condensate in the main condenser is an example of what heat effect?

Latent heat of condensation.

761

The circulation in a natural circulation boiler is an example of what kind of heat transfer?

Natural convection.

762

When the main feed pump discharges feedwater toward the boiler, the feedwater is transported by what kind of heat transfer?

Forced convection.

763

What is the primary fuel used in all shipboard power plants?

Fuel, Naval Distillate (F-76).

764

Who must be notified for technical advice as soon as possible when using emergency substitute fuel?

Type Commander (TYCOM) or Naval Sea Systems Command (NAVSEASYSCOM).

765

What is the total quantity of fuel needed to conduct the Bottom Sediment and Water (BS&W) test?

100 milliliters per centrifuge tube for a total of 200 milliliters.

766

What is the minimum temperature at which the fuel oil BS&W test is to be performed?

60 degrees F.

767

What is the required centrifuge revolutions per minute (RPM), when conducting the fuel oil BS&W test?

About 1500 revolutions per minute (RPM).

768

How is the BS&W reading recorded from the centrifuge tubes?

The readings shall be a direct percentage of water and sediment read from the tube.

769

What is the proper procedure, if the readings from the two tubes differ?

The readings shall be added together and divided by two to determine the BS&W.

770

What type of fuel oil test uses the Pensky Martin closed cup tester?

Flashpoint.

771

What is the purpose of filtering the fuel through filter paper, when conducting the flashpoint test?

To remove all water.

772

What is the required length of the test flame on the flashpoint tester, when conducting testing?

4 millimeters (mm) or 5/32 inch.

773

The temperature is raised at what rate, when performing the flashpoint test?

9 degrees F. to 11 degrees F. per minute.

774

At what temperature is the test flame applied to the sample, when conducting the flashpoint test?

When the temperature of the sample is not higher than 30 degrees F. below the expected flashpoint temperature.

775

After the test flame is applied, what is the rate at which the temperature is increased?

In 2 degree F. increments until flashpoint is achieved.

776

What is the minimum flashpoint of F-76?

140 degrees F.

777

What is the minimum flashpoint of JP-5 (F-44)?

140 degrees F.

778

The flashpoint tester stirring mechanism rotates at what speed?

90 to 120 revolutions per minute (RPM).

779

The thermometer used for flashpoint testing has a range of what?

20 to 230 degrees F.

780

What fuel oil test uses a hydrometer?

API gravity.

781

When conducting an API gravity test, how is the hydrometer read?

After the hydrometer is released in the sample, adequate time must be allotted for the hydrometer to reach equilibrium, once equilibrium is reached the reading is recorded.

782

What is the standard temperature for determining volume on all petroleum products?

60 degrees F.

783

The term clear refers to what, when applied to fuel oil samples?

Free of solid particulate.

784

The term bright refers to what, when applied to fuel oil samples?

Free of water.

785

How long is the sample bottle inverted, when conducting fuel oil clear and bright observations?

Minimum of one minute.

786

What is the minimum amount of times that the sample bottle is inverted, during clear and bright observations?

3 times.

787

During clear and bright observations, you notice a cloud in the sample bottle that disappears at the top of the bottle, what is this an indication of?

Water in present.

788

What is the range of the thermometer used in API gravity testing?

-5 to plus 215 degrees F.

789

What is the volume of the graduated cylinder that is used for BS&W testing?

100 milliliters (ml).

790

In order to standardize the Navy terminology with the North Altlantic Treaty (NATO), Naval distillate fuel has been given what code number?

F-76.

791

More information concerning fuels and substitute fuels can be found in what publication?

NSTM 541.

792

What term is defined as the lowest temperature at which a liquid gives off sufficient vapor to form a flammable mixture with air above the liquid surface?

Flashpoint.

793

The term wicking is described as?

Fuel drawn onto an absorbent solid material that can be ignited.

794

If fuel is obtained from outside the military supply system, the greatest concern from a safety standpoint is what?

Flashpoint.

795

Naval distillate lower pour point fuel is given what NATO symbol?

F-75.

796

What fuel is used by Navies operating in colder climates?

F-75.

797

JP-5 is what tyype of fuel?

Turbine fuel, Aviation.

798

Heating value of fuel is measured by what?

BTU's per pound or per gallon.

799

The lowest temperature at which vapor remains burning after flashing is called what?

Fire point.

800

Viscosity is defined as what?

The measurement of resistance to flow.

801

What device is used to determine visosity?

Viscometer.

802

What type of viscometer is commonly used to determine fuel oil and lube oil viscosity?

Saybolt viscometer.

803

What term is defined as the lowest temperature at which the fuel will flow when it is chilled under prescribed conditions?

Pour point.

804

When fuel is mixed with water, the two liquids usually separate upon standing. This ability to separate is termed what?

Demulsification.

805

How often are bilges inspected for fuel accumulation?

Twice daily.

806

How are oily waste and rags stored onboard ship?

In steel oil-tight containers with self-closing covers until disposal can be accomplished in a manner established by the Commanding Officer.

807

No person shall enter a tank known or suspected to contain fuel or fuel vapors at any time without first having secured permission from whom?

Commanding Officer and Gas Free Engineer.

808

How often are fuel tanks emptied to reduce heavy sludge deposits?

At least every 12 months.

809

The fueling-at-sea hose is tested at what hydrostatic pressure?

200 psi.

810

How long must hydrostatic pressure be maintained on the fueling-at-sea hose?How long must hydrostatic pressure be maintained on the fueling-at-sea hose?

A minimum of 5 minutes.

811

What is the required fluid that is used for hydrostatic testing of the fueling-at-sea hose?

Water.

812

What fueling system has been adopted by NATO as the standard method for refueling at sea?

Probe fueling system.

813

What is the required relative force of the centrifuge, when conducting the fuel oil BS&W test?

Between 500 and 800 relative centrifugal force (RCF).

814

Prior to receiving fuel, a fuel analysis is required to show what specifications?

API gravity, flashpoint, and water & sediment.

815

In what publication would you find a listing of applicable Foreign commercial source fuel supplies?

NAVPETOFFNOTE 4295.

816

When fuel is received from a fuel contractor, what is the required sediment and water content?

.01 percent.

817

At what frequency are visual samples taken during refueling operations?

Every 15 minutes.

818

What is the maximum BS&W content of fuel received from Navy sources?

.1 percent maximum.

819

What is used to test fuel oil 24 hours after receiving the fuel?

Water indicating paste.

820

Steam propelled ships shall take water indicating paste cuts on idle fuel tanks at what periodicity?

Monthly.

821

On steam propelled ships, all fuel oil service tanks are tested prior to use for what?

Sediment and water (BS&W).

822

Before transferring fuel from fuel oil storage tanks to ships fuel oil service tanks the fuel must be tested for what?

Sediment and water (BS&W).

823

When stripping fuel oil tanks, the system is aligned to draw off how many gallons of fuel?

150 to 300 gallons.

824

Who must authorize the discharge of ballast water to the sea?

Commanding Officer.

825

Discharge of all ballast water must be in accordance with what publication?

NSTM 593, Pollution control.

826

What tanks provide stability at sea, torpedo protection, and flooding control during underwater damage?

Fuel oil ballast tanks.

827

What is the liquid medium used to ballast tanks?

Seawater.

828

Fuel oil storage tanks are filled to what percentage and maintained at what percentage at all times?

95 percent.

829

What does tank free surface contribute to?

Causes a reduction in stability and makes a ship more sensitive to heeling moments.

830

Overboard discharge of fuel contamination shall not be undertaken within how many nautical miles from shore?

50 miles

831

What is the rated capacity of a fuel tank?

95 percent of total capacity as computed after allowance has been made for all obstructions in the compartment.

832

Fuel tank air escape outlets are fitted with removable flash screens consisting of an inner screen of what dimension?

40 mesh.

833

Overboard overflows are fitted with a check valve to prevent back flow of what?

Water from the sea.

834

How often are overflow line valves that are accessible without entering the tank, inspected and cleaned?

Annually.

835

One fuel oil service tank per compartment must be inspected at what interval?

Every 18 months.

836

What type of strainer consists of one or more cylindrically shaped fine mesh screens or perforated metal sheets?

Simplex strainer.

837

What type of strainer is constructed to house two single element filters?

Duplex strainer.

838

What is the maximum allowable pressure drop across a fuel oil duplex strainer when online?

3 percent.

839

How often is the pressure drop across a duplex strainer monitored?

At least each watch.

840

What must be done daily, to knife edge type strainers, while online?

Rotate the cleaning handle and clean the strainer.

841

What type of strainer is prohibited for use in the fuel oil system?

Inline or cone type.

842

What type of sample must be drawn prior to starting any steam driven, turbine equipment?

Lube oil.

843

What is the minimum allowable temperature of the oil supplied to the reduction gears before jacking over the gears?

90 degrees F.

844

If lube oil pressure at the pump increases suddenly, what is the probable cause?

Clogged strainer.

845

Turbine line shaft bearings and thrust bearings are designed to use what type lubricating oil?

2190 TEP.

846

What is the required outlet temperature range to the bearings, during normal operation?

120 to 130 degrees F.

847

What publication covers specific lube oil testing requirements?

NSTM 262.

848

The friction loss in a journal bearing is directly proportional to what?

Viscosity of the oil in the bearing.

849

What is the lube oil cooler outlet temperature maintained at?

120 to 130 degrees F.

850

What must be done to lube oil coolers that are idle for more than 24 hours?

Drain the seawater side.

851

What causes lube oil to break down prematurely?

Water in the lube oil.

852

What is the required information on a lube oil sample bottle label?

Equipment, oil type, date, time.

853

Lube oil samples are taken at intervals specified by what?

Planned maintenance system (PMS), and engineering operating sequencing system (EOSS).

854

Idle line shaft bearing lube oil must be sampled within what periodicity?

Weekly.

855

What is the lube oil sampling frequency on operating machinery?

Daily.

856

When conducting a lube oil transparency test, what is failure criteria?

If the printed words on the PMS card cannot be read.

857

What test is performed to determine water and sediment content of lube oil?

BS&W.

858

Who must be informed if the lube oil sample fails transparency testing?

Engineering Officer of the Watch.

859

What is the volume of the pear-shaped centrifuge tubes, used for centrifuge testing of lube oil?

100 milliliters (ml).

860

What is the quantity of Biotek Hi-Solvent used per centrifuge tube, when conducting the lube oil BS&W test?

50 milliliters (ml).

861

When is a hot water bath required?

When the sample is cloudy after sitting for ½ hour.

862

Prior to start lube oil samples are good for how long?

24 hours.

863

When placing the stopper in the centrifuge tube, what is the recommended covering for the stopper?

Cellophane.

864

Prior to inserting the centrifuge tube in the centrifuge, how many times must you invert the tube, to ensure complete mixing?

At least 5 times.

865

After completion of the centrifuge test, how is the pear-shaped centrifuge tube read for lube oil sediment and water?

Add the readings of the two tubes together to obtain the percentage of BS&W.

866

What does a lube oil BS&W warning condition mean?

BS&W exceeds .2 percent but is less than or equal to .4 percent.

867

How long can equipment be operated in the BS&W lube oil warning range?

Maximum of 7 days from the date of the contamination.

868

Should an operational necessity exist, who can authorize the continued operation of the equipment past the 7 days warning limit for lube oil?

Commanding Officer.

869

What constitutes a satisfactory lube oil BS&W test?

If there is less than or equal to .1 percent sediment and the combined BS&W is less than or equal to .2 percent.

870

If the combined lube oil BS&W exceeds .4 percent or if the sediment exceeds .1 percent at any BS&W level, the lube oil is said to be in what limitation?

Condemning limit.

871

The centrifuge is operated in what time intervals, during centrifuge testing?

30 minute intervals.

872

What is the required speed of the centrifuge during lube oil BS&W testing?

1500 revolutions per minute (RPM).

873

Main engine purifiers should be run periodically everyday while steaming for a period of how many hours per day?

12 hours (good engineering practice).

874

When heating a lube oil sample in the water bath, what is the temperature to which the sample is heated?

120 degrees F.

875

If the lube oil becomes clear and bright upon heating, the sample is said to be?

Satisfactory for use.

876

How long must a lube oil sample be allowed to settle after being taken to be observed for clear and bright criteria?

30 minutes.

877

What is the size of the lube oil sample bottle?

8 ounce square bottle.

878

What must be done if a lube oil sample contains free water?

A BS&W test must be performed.

879

Oil that is to be discarded shall be deposited into what?

Oily waste holding tank.

880

What type of rags must be used to wipe the inside of a lube oil tank, a bearing, or any lubrication system part?

Lint-free.

881

How often is spring bearing lube oil level and temperature checked while in operation?

Hourly.

882

What does the 2 in 2190 TEP lube oil stand for?

Class or series of oil.

883

What does the 190 in 2190 TEP lube oil mean?

Viscosity at testing temperature.

884

What does the TEP stand for in 2190 TEP?

Indicates that the oil contains additives for special purposes.

885

During refueling, when are fuel oil BS&W tests conducted?

At the beginning, midpoint, and end.

886

Because of the importance of good quality lubricating oil, what program was established?

Lube oil quality management (LOQM) program.

887

What act prohibits the discharge of oil or water having oil in it into the sea within 50 miles of any land and establishes prohibited zones?

Oil Pollution Control Act of 1961.

888

What act prohibits any person to discharge oil from any water borne vessel or onshore or offshore facility into upon certain waters, and established restrictions within the contiguous zone?

Federal Water Pollution Control Act of 1970.

889

What is the contiguous zone?

12 miles from the baseline from which the territorial sea is measured.

890

All oil spills that produce a visible sheen in the United States navigable waters and the contiguous zone must be reported immediately to whom?

Commander of local Coast Guard district.

891

What instruction outlines the provisions of the Federal law that deals with pollution control?

OPNAVINST 5090.1

892

The Federal Water Pollution Control Act was amended in what year?

1970.

893

If oil is spilled between two ships, how can this spillage be effectively contained until help arrives?

By directing fire hose streams into both ends of the slick to keep it from moving.

894

What Naval ships technical manual covers pollution control procedures?

NSTM 593.

895

What are the two subdivisions of the Engineering Operational Sequencing System (EOSS)?

Engineering Operating Procedures (EOP), and Engineering Operational Casualty Control (EOCC).

896

What is used by watch-standers to correctly identify casualties and properly control casualties?

Engineering Operational Casualty Control (EOCC) guidelines.

897

What is the purpose of EOSS?

To detail the sequential operational functions for the complete cycle of plant operations.

898

What documents describe the knowledge and skills a trainee must have to perform certain duties?

Personnel Qualification Standards (PQS).

899

What are the 4 major sections of the Personnel Qualification Standards (PQS)?

1. Fundamentals 2. Systems 3. Watchstanding 4. Qualification cards.

900

What PQS section is termed the 100 series?

Fundamentals.

901

What PQS section is termed the 200 series?

Systems.

902

What PQS section is termed the 300 series?

Watchstations.

903

What PQS section is termed the 400 series?

Qualification cards.

904

The sources from which rating exam questions are taken are listed in what publication?

Bibliography for Advancement and Study, NAVEDTRA 10052 SERIES.

905

What manual provides information about minimum requirements for advancement to each pay grade within each rating?

NAVPERs 18068 SERIES, Manual of Navy Enlisted Manpower and Personnel Classifications and Occupational Standards.

906

What catalog lists all current training manuals and course?

List of Training Manuals and Correspondence Courses, NAVEDTRA 12061 SERIES.

907

The onboard ships drawings and blueprints are listed in an index termed what?

Ship Drawing Index (SDI).

908

The onboard ships drawings are identified in the ship drawing index by what special marking?

An asterisk*.

909

Drawings in the ship drawing index are listed in what order?

Numerical.

910

What is the primary objective of the 3-M system?

To provide a means of managing maintenance and maintenance support in a way to ensure maximum operating readiness.

911

What are the 3 separate subsystems of the 3-M system?

1. Planned Maintenance System (PMS) 2. Maintenance Data System (MDS) 3. Intermediate Maintenance Management System (IMMS).

912

What 3-M system establishes preventive maintenance, reduces the need for major corrective maintenance, increases economy, and saves the cost of repairs?

Planned Maintenance System (PMS).

913

What document contains a numerical listing of outstanding deficiencies for all work centers aboard ship?

Current Ships Maintenance Project (CSMP).

914

If a problem arises with a piece of equipment that cannot be repaired within 30 days, you must prepare a deferred action using what form?

OPNAV Form 4790/2K.

915

If a problem with a piece of machinery is beyond ships force repair capability what form must be filled out?

OPNAV Form 4790/2K.

916

Because of rapid changes in the 3-M system, you should refer to a current copy of what publication?

COMNAVAIRFORINST 4790.2.

917

What log is used to record important daily events and data pertaining to the engineering department and the operation of the engineering plant?

Engineering Log.

918

Personnel casualties (injuries) that occur, while underway in the engineering plant are documented in what log?

Engineering Log.

919

The original Engineering Log, is prepared using what instruments?

Pencil or Pen (ink).

920

The Engineering Log is a legal record that must be retained onboard for how long?

3 years.

921

What signs the Engineering Log underway every watch?

Engineering Officer of the Watch (EOOW).

922

How are corrections made to the Engineering Log?

A single line is drawn through the original entry so that it remains legible, then the correct entry is logged, and then the required person initials the margin of the page.

923

Who reviews the Engineering log daily?

Engineering Officer.

924

Who signs the Engineering log monthly?

Commanding officer.

925

What document is used to record all orders received by the station in control of the throttles regarding a change in the movement of the propellers?

The Engineer’s Bell Book.

926

Who specifies which engineering operating records will be maintained and prescribes the form to be used when no standard record forms are provided?

Type Commander.

927

Who approves and signs the Engineroom/Fireroom operating logs on a daily basis?

Engineering Officer.

928

How long must the Engineroom/Fireroom operating log be retained onboard?

2 years.

929

Who prepares the daily liquid load plan?

Oil King.

930

PMS schedules are categorized in what manner?

Cycle, Quarterly, Weekly.

931

What schedule displays the planned maintenance requirements to be performed between major overhauls of the ship?

Cycle schedule.

932

Who signs and dates the PMS Cycle schedule?

Engineering Officer.

933

What PMS schedule is a visual display of the work center’s PMS requirements to be performed during a specific 3-month period?

Quarterly schedule.

934

Who signs and dates the PMS Quarterly schedule?

Engineering Officer.

935

Who updates the PMS Quarterly schedule weekly?

Division Officer.

936

How long are PMS Quarterly schedules kept on file?

1 year.

937

What PMS schedule is a visual display of planned maintenance scheduled for accomplishment in a given work center during a specific week?

Weekly schedule.

938

Who updates the PMS Weekly schedule daily?

Work center supervisor.

939

Who signs the PMS Weekly schedule?

Division Officer.

940

What form provides maintenance personnel with the means to report discrepancies and problems with the PMS system?

PMS feedback report form 4790/7B.

941

Who receives the green copy of the PMS feedback report 4790/7B, and files it?

Originating work center.

942

Who receives the blue copy of the PMS feedback report 4790/7B?

3-M Coordinator.

943

When is the Current Ships Maintenance Project (CSMP) verified and updated?

Monthly.

944

What document contains orders for the night, and engineering department standing orders issued by the Engineering Officer?

Engineer Officer’s Night Order Book.

945

All equipment operating logs are prepared with High-and-Low limit set points printed on each reading. All out of limits readings must be handled in what manner?

Circle the out of limits reading in Red, and annotate the action taken in the remarks section.

946

Who has the overall responsibility of the ships tag-out program?

Commanding Officer.

947

Who authorizes a system or piece of equipment to be tagged out?

Authorizing Officer.

948

If the system or equipment tagged is placed out of commission, the authorizing officer must get permission from whom, before tagging out?

Engineering Officer and Commanding Officer.

949

Who normally fills out and signs the tag-out record sheet and prepares the tags?

Petty Officer in Charge of the work.

950

After the Petty Officer in Charge of the work completes filling out the tags and record sheet, who makes an independent check of the tag coverage?

Second Person.

951

When does the second person independently verify proper tag placement, signs the tags, and initials the record sheet?

After all tags are attached.

952

What are the two types of tags?

Caution and Danger.

953

What tag is used as a precautionary measure to provide temporary special amplifying instructions or to indicate that unusual caution must be exercised to operate equipment?

Caution tag.

954

What is the color of a Caution tag?

Yellow.

955

What tag is used to prohibit the operation of equipment that could jeopardize the safety of personnel or endanger equipment?

Danger tag.

956

What is the color of the Danger tag?

Red.

957

What labels are used to identify instruments that are out of calibration and may not work properly?

Out of Calibration labels.

958

What color distinguishes an out of calibration labels?

Orange.

959

Red labels that are used to identify instruments that do not work properly because they are defective or isolated from the system are termed what?

Out of Commission labels.

960

Who authorizes out of calibration and out of commission labels?

Authorizing Officer.

961

How often is the tag-out log audited?

Every 2 weeks.

962

What does the acronym APL stand for?

Allowance Parts Lists.

963

What does acronym AEL stand for?

Allowance Equipage Lists.

964

The NAVSUP form 1250 is used onboard what type of ships?

Non-automated.

965

What NAVSUP form is used on mechanized (automated) ships?

DD form 1348.

966

When a repair part is required and no NSN can be determined, the part must be ordered using what form?

NAVSUP form 1348-6.

967

Who approves all supply requisitions for the engineering department?

Engineering Officer.

968

When a repair part is not listed in an APL, complete information on the equipment must be known, what are the three major sources of this information?

1. Name plate data
2. Technical manuals
3. Blueprints and drawings.

969

When the supply material is received, the departmental representative receipts for it on the NAVSUP 1250 and is given what color copy of the form?

Yellow copy.

970

What is one of the primary publications for shipboard use in identifying material and also provides information as to how much of what material to stock aboard ship?

Coordinated Shipboard Allowance List (COSAL).

971

What is the common language of supply material identification?

The National Stock Number (NSN).

972

Which form is used as a Ship submittal of Configuration Change?

4790/CK.

973

What publication provides general information on Records, Tests, Inspections, and Reports?

NSTM 090.

974

While inport, urgent requirements that are available locally may be procured by use of what?

A “bearer” (walk through) requisition.

975

What does the job sequence number (JSN) identify?

A specific or nonspecific maintenance action.

976

What does it mean, if block 12 of NAVSUP form 1250 is marked NIS?

Material is Not in Stock.

977

What does it mean, if block 12 of NAVSUP form 1250 is marked N/C?

Material is Not Carried onboard.

978

Who designates the fund codes that may be used by each ship and under what circumstances they may be used?

Type Commander.

979

What form is designed to serve a dual purpose: as a custody record and an inventory control document?

NAVSUP form 306.

980

When is it mandatory to use NAVSUP form 306?

When dealing with controlled equipage.

981

What is listed in block 15 of NAVSUP form 1250?

Job sequence number (JSN).

982

How is the requisition date recorded on NAVSUP form 1250?

Using block 1, record the requisition date as that days Julian date.

983

Proper procedures for tag-out are delineated in what reference?

OPNAVINST 3120.32B.

984

If a tag-out is requested by a repair activity, the repair activity representative must sign what, to indicate the repair activity is satisfied with the completeness of the tag-out?

Tag-out record sheet.

985

Why does the authorizing officer notify damage control central (DCC) that a tag-out is in progress?

To ensure that damage control central is fully cognizant of the extent of the tag-out and the status of the material condition of the unit.

986

How does the authorizing officer annotate that damage control central (DCC) was notified?

Annotates upper right hand corner with the words “DCC Notified” followed by the authorizing officer initials.

987

Who is authorized to attach Danger/Caution tags?

Only qualified ships force personnel.

988

A completed PMS check is indicated by what on the PMS weekly schedule?

The PMS check is marked completed by a X.

989

A PMS check that has not been completed during the week is indicated by what?

The PMS check is circled.

990

Who approves the recopying of a Quarterly PMS schedule?

Division Officer.

991

A PMS periodicity code of “M” indicates what?

Monthly check.

992

A PMS periodicity code of “W” indicates what?

Weekly check.

993

A PMS periodicity code of “S” indicates what?

Semi-Annual check.

994

A PMS periodicity code of “A” indicates what?

Annual check.

995

A PMS periodicity code of “R” indicates what?

Situation Requirement check.

996

A PMS periodicity code of “Q” indicates what?

Quarterly check.

997

A PMS periodicity code of “D” indicates what?

Daily check.

998

A PMS periodicity code of “2W” indicates what?

Accomplished every 2 weeks.

999

On the PMS Quarterly schedule what is listed in the “Nest Four Weeks” column?

All PMS requirements due in the next four weeks.

1000

What does the List of Effective Pages (LOEP), in the departmental PMS manual contain?

Provides the most current listing of the maintenance index pages (MIP) assigned to each department, divided by work center.

1001

What is the purpose of the PMS maintenance requirement card (MRC)?

To provide detailed procedures for performing maintenance requirements and tell who, what, how, and with what resources a specific requirement is to be accomplished.

1002

What are the 4 inactive equipment maintenance (IEM) PMS periodicity codes?

1. LU-Lay up
2. PM-Periodic maintenance
3. SU-Start up.
4. OT-Operational test.

1003

What function does the PMS equipment guide list (EGL) serve?

Used with a maintenance requirement card (MRC) when the MRC applies to a number of identical items.

1004

What action must be taken by maintenance personnel when tools, parts, materials, or test equipment prescribed by the maintenance requirement card (MRC) are not available?

Notify work center supervisor immediately.

1005

When maintenance personnel obtain PMS assignments from the weekly PMS schedule, to whom do they report completed and uncompleted actions?

Work center supervisor.

1006

When is PMS feedback reports considered urgent?

When safety of personnel and equipment are involved.

1007

How do maintenance personnel verify that the maintenance requirement card (MRC) is up to date and current?

By cross checking the MRC to the maintenance index page (MIP).

1008

What would a Danger tag with the serial number 9-19 indicate?

19th tag of log serial number 9.

1009

How is the amount of tags needed for a tag-out determined?

By the use of schematics or diagrams.

1010

What is done with the Danger/Caution tags after the tag-out action is complete and the tags are removed?

They are immediately removed and destroyed.

1011

For routine maintenance inport, who will normally be the authorizing officer for a tag-out in the Fireroom?

Engineering Duty Officer (EDO).

1012

Information on the operation of the EOSS can be located in what document?

EOSS users guide.

1013

What does the term “blueprint reading” refer to?

Means the interpreting the ideas expressed by others on drawings, whether the drawings are blueprints or not.

1014

When preparing blueprints what is the original drawing normally referred to as?

The master copy.

1015

A patented paper blueprint identified as “BW” paper will produce what type of print?

Black lines on a white background.

1016

What is another term for an ammonia process paper print?

Ozalid print.

1017

A type of paper print process that produces a white line on a dark brown background is called what?

Vandyke prink.

1018

In which corner of a blueprint is the title block located?

Lower right hand corner.

1019

What block contains the drawing number?

Title block.

1020

In which corner of a blueprint is the revision block located?

How are all blueprints identified?

1021

How are all blueprints identified?

By drawing number.

1022

What purpose does the revision block serve?

Used to record all changes to the blueprint, changes are identified by a letter.

1023

If a blueprint with a drawing number of 456321-A is revised, the revised drawing number would be what?

456321-B.

1024

The drawing number is located were in the title block?

Lower right hand corner.

1025

What do reference numbers located in the title block refer to?

To numbers of other blueprints.

1026

What function do zone numbers serve on blueprints?

The same purpose as the numbers and letters printed on maps to help you locate a particular point.

1027

What block contains the scale of the blueprint?

Title block.

1028

If a blueprint indicates that the scale is 1” = 2”, what does this mean?

Each line on the print is shown one-half its actual length.

1029

If the actual length of an object is 10 inches, what is the length of its drawing on a blueprint with a scale of 2” = 1”?

5 inches.

1030

Graphic scales are read in what increments?

Number of feet or miles represented by an inch.

1031

How is the triangle architects’ scale read?

Six scales read from the left end, while five scales read from the right end.

1032

What drawings use engineer’s scales?

Plotting and map drawing and in graphic solution of problems.

1033

What scale is divided into centimeters and millimeters?

Metric scale.

1034

What block on a blueprint contains a list of the parts and or material used on or required by the print concerned?

Bill of material block.

1035

What block on a blueprint identifies directly or by reference the larger units of which the detail part of assembly on the drawing forms a component?

Application block.

1036

What are finish marks on a blueprint used to indicate?

To indicate surfaces that must be finished by machining.

1037

What is the normal location of the blueprint legend?

Upper right hand corner under the revision block.

1038

Visible lines on a blueprint are indicated by what?

Heavy unbroken line.

1039

Hidden lines on a blueprint are indicated by what?

Medium lines with short evenly spaced dashes.

1040

Dimension lines on a blueprint are indicated by what?

Thin lines terminated with arrow heads at each end.

1041

Thin unbroken lines on a blueprint indicate what?

Extension lines.

1042

How is a leader line indicated on a blueprint?

Thin line terminated with arrow head or dot at one end.

1043

Medium series of one long dash and two short dashes evenly spaced ending with a long dash is an indication of what type of line on a blueprint?

Phantom or datum.

1044

What type of plans illustrate the final ship and system arrangement?

Corrected plans.

1045

Which plans are necessary for the construction of a ship?

Working plans.

1046

What plans illustrate design features of a ship that are mandatory?

Contract plans.

1047

What type of plans are submitted prior to award of a contract?

Preliminary plans.

1048

What type of plans illustrate arrangement or details of equipment?

Standard plans.

1049

What are the two health programs you must be concerned with in the engineering plant?

Heat stress and hearing conservation.

1050

What causes heat stress?

High heat and humidity.

1051

How often are heat stress readings taken at each watch station or work station in an operating fireroom?

Hourly.

1052

What is the maximum allowable temperature in any manned and operating engineering space, before you must take a heat stress survey?

When the temperature exceeds 100 degrees F.

1053

How is the temperature monitored hourly in an operating fireroom?

By dry-bulb thermometer.

1054

Radiant heat in the environment is measured with what?

Globe thermometer.

1055

What does the acronym WBGT refer to?

Wet-bulb globe temperature.

1056

What does the acronym PHEL indicate?

Physiological heat exposure limit.

1057

The physiological heat exposure limit (PHEL) reading is used to determine what?

The maximum time an average individual may work in a hot environment and the threshold temperatures that induce heat stress.

1058

Personnel working in hot climates are subject to three heat stress conditions which are?

1. Heat cramps 2. Heat stroke 3. Heat exhaustion.

1059

When a heat stress dry-bulb thermometer reading exceeds 100 degrees F. in an operating fireroom, who must be notified immediately?

Engineering Officer of the Watch (EOOW).

1060

High bilge level, steam leaks, poor insulation will all increase what?

Heat stress conditions.

1061

Hearing protection must be worn when the sound level reaches what?

84db (decibels) or greater.

1062

How are areas excessing 84 db sound level indicated?

By posting warning signs cautioning personnel about a noise hazard.

1063

What color are the hearing conservation warning signs?

Yellow.

1064

Double hearing protection must be worn in an area where the noise is at what level?

104 db (decibles).

1065

What device(s) are used to conduct a heat stress survey?

Wet-bulb globe thermometer and dry-bulb thermometer.

1066

Cadmium plated fasteners are not used in systems with temperatures exceeding what?

400 degrees F.

1067

What publication lists general information on threaded fasteners?

NSTM 075.

1068

Male threads on threaded fasteners, when installed and tightened, shall protrude the distance of at least how many threads?

At least one thread length beyond the top of the nut.

1069

What is the maximum thread protrusion allowed after installation and tightening of threaded fasteners?

10 threads maximum.

1070

A nut designated B-16 is considered what level of threaded fastener?

Level one.

1071

Anaerobic compounds, when used with threaded fasteners, serve what purpose?

Used as a thread locking compound.

1072

A stud or nut marked “NC” indicates what?

Nickel-Copper (Monel) composition.

1073

At what boiler pressure is the sodium nitrite solution injected into the boiler, prior to placing the boiler on a dry lay-up?

100 psig or less.

1074

All bilge water contaminated with hydrazine must be disposed of in accordance with what publication?

NSTM 593.

1075

What must be done to boilers under Deaerated backfill, Steam blanket, or Nitrogen blanket lay-ups prior to shifting to hydrazine lay-up?

The boiler must be dumped.

1076

Prior to entering the boiler to perform fireside cleaning, what must be done to the steam smothering system?

Wire and tag the valves in the closed position.

1077

Main propulsion boilers are inspected at what periodicity?

Every 18 months.

1078

High pressure water-jet cleaning is used to remove what type of waterside deposits?

Soft deposits.

1079

EDTA cleaning is considered what type of cleaning?

Mechanical.

1080

When dumping EDTA to the bilge, what is added to the bilge water to neutralize the EDTA corrosive properties?

Citric acid.

1081

How often is the power driven tube cleaner lubricated while in operation?

Every 10 minutes.

1082

How often are boiler firesides cleaned?

Every 1800 to 2000 steaming hours.

1083

What type of plug is normally used in plugging boiler tubes?

Standard taper plug.

1084

What is the normal length of a tapered plug?

3 inches.

1085

What is the recommended taper of a standard taper plug?

¾” per foot.

1086

What type of plug would be used to plug a drum or header tube hole after tube removal if replacement tubes are unavailable?

Blind nipple.

1087

Boiler full power capability will be affected if what percentage of generating tubes are plugged?

Greater than 5 percent.

1088

What is the allowable percentage of economizer tubes, that can be plugged without affecting boiler full power capability?

20 percent.

1089

When measuring a handhole seat with a feeler gauge what is the maximum taper allowed?

.008.

1090

When measuring a manhole seat with a feeler gauge what is the maximum taper allowed?

.012.

1091

What is the maximum shoulder clearance on a manhole plate?

3/32”.

1092

What hydrostatic test pressure requires the renewing of all boiler handhole and manhole gaskets after testing?

150 percent of boiler design.

1093

Desuperheaters shall be hydrostatic tested at what pressure?

350 psig.

1094

What is the purpose of backflushing heat exchangers?

To remove soft fouling.

1095

What is used as the flushing medium for backflushing heat exchangers?

Firemain.

1096

High pressure water-jet or acid cleaning.

High pressure water-jet or acid cleaning.

1097

In what publication will you find guidance on acid cleaning of heat exchangers?

NSTM 531.

1098

What size fire hose is used for the backflushing procedure?

2 ½ inch.

1099

What acid cleaning method is used onboard ship for coolers?

Sulfamic acid cleaning.

1100

What type of plugs are used to plug blocked tubes temporarily in heat exchangers?

Tapered phenolic plugs.

1101

What is installed in heat exchangers to combat against galvanic corrosion?

Zincs.

1102

What type of fasteners must be used in salt water coolers?

Non-ferrous.

1103

What tool is used to split boiler tubes in preparation for removal?

Safety ripping chisel.

1104

A firebrick with the following dimensions 2 ½” X 4 ½ X 13 9/16 is often referred to as?

Brick and a half.

1105

What type of brush is used to clean handhole seating surfaces?

Cup brush.

1106

Rotary soot blowers are tested in accordance with PMS to have an operating pressure of what?

300 psi plus or minus 25 psi.

1107

What is the required frequency of cleaning boiler watersides with the chelant system installed?

Every 18 months during boiler inspection.

1108

What is the periodicity for testing boiler safety hand easing gear?

Every 1800 to 2000 steaming hours.

1109

What tool is used to resurface handhole seats?

Handhole seat refacing tool.

1110

The handhole refacing tool must only be used by what personnel?

Qualified personnel.

1111

In general, what is the allowable thrust clearance end play on an auxiliary turbine?

.010 to .015 inch.

1112

Air compressors are divided into what three classes?

Low, medium, and high pressure.

1113

A medium pressure air compressor operates between what pressure ranges?

151 psig to 1000 psig.

1114

A high pressure air compressor operates above what pressure?

1000 psig.

1115

What is the function of the check valve installed at each end of the feed line of the air compressor?

To keep the compressor air from forcing lube oil back to the lubricator.

1116

What is the cooling medium used for most air compressors in the Navy?

Seawater supplied from ship’s firemain.

1117

How often are low pressure air compressor relief valves lifted by hand?

Prior to first daily use.

1118

What is the periodicity of testing air compressor relief valves that cannot be tested by hand?

Semi-annually in accordance with PMS.

1119

In what publication can you find general information on compressed air systems?

NSTM 551.

1120

What device is installed to stop the high pressure air compressor automatically when the cooling water rises above a safe limit?

Automatic temperature shut down device.

1121

Control or regulating systems for naval air compressors are mainly what type?

Start-stop type.

1122

What function does the air compressor unloading system serve?

To remove all but the friction load on the air compressor.

1123

Wire-twister pliers are designed to reduce the time used to install what type of wiring?

Safety wiring.

1124

What is used to cut threads in metal, plastics, and rubber?

Tap and dies.

1125

Taps are used to cut what type of threads?

Internal threads.

1126

Dies are used to cut what type of threads?

External threads.

1127

What tool is used to dress bruised or rusted threads?

Dies.

1128

What tool is used to remove broken screws without damaging the surrounding material or the threaded hole?

Screw extractor.

1129

How can you retrieve small articles that have fallen into places where you cannot reach them by hand?

Mechanical fingers.

1130

What tool is used to tighten nuts, bolts, and fasteners to a specific tolerance?

Torque wrench.

1131

Before using a torque wrench you must ensure that the wrench has been what?

Calibrated and label affixed.

1132

What type of caliper has the ability to provide very accurate measurements over a large range?

Vernier caliper.

1133

What type of micrometer would be used to measure a piece of round stock?

Outside micrometer.

1134

What type of micrometer would measure holes or recesses?

Depth micrometer.

1135

The types of micrometers commonly used are made so that the longest movement possible between the spindle and the anvil is one inch. What is this movement called?

The range.

1136

What two parts of an outside micrometer do you take the reading from?

Sleeve and thimble.

1137

When the outside micrometer spindle is rotated one revolution, the spindle advances or recedes what distance?

.025 inch.

1138

What parts of an outside micrometer are adjusted to touch the piece being measured?

Anvil and spindle.

1139

The thimble on an outside micrometer is divided into what increments?

Increments of 5 (0, 5, 10, 15, 20 etc.).

1140

The ratchet stop on an outside micrometer serves what purpose?

To lock the micrometer reading in place, preventing slippage.

1141

When maximum operability and reliability is needed in the engineering plant what configuration is used?

Split plant operation.

1142

What configuration method is used in-port steaming and at other times, such as when economy or maintenance considerations assume greater importance?

Cross connected operation.

1143

What is the shortest of all the major engineering piping systems aboard ship?

Main steam.

1144

Any piping that carries superheated steam is considered what system?

Main steam.

1145

In a single furnace “D” type boiler, where is the steam cooled for auxiliary use?

The desuperheater.

1146

What function does steam escape piping serve?

Provides an unobstructed passage for the escape of steam from boiler safety valves.

1147

What system protects a turbine from air leaking in and steam leaking out?

Gland sealing steam system.

1148

Pressure in the gland sealing steam system is maintained at what pressure range?

½ psig to 2 psig.

1149

A valve handwheel color coded dark green, would be used in what system?

Saltwater system.

1150

A purple valve handwheel indicates what system usage?

JP-5 Aviation fuel.

1151

What is the valve handwheel color code for the fuel oil system?

Yellow.

1152

What is the valve handwheel color code for lube oil systems?

Striped yellow/black.

1153

Feedwater valve handwheels are color coded in what manner?

Light blue.

1154

A dark gray valve handwheel indicates what system usage?

High pressure air.

1155

What is the valve handwheel color code for low pressure air systems?

Tan.

1156

Nitrogen valve handwheels are painted what color?

Light gray.

1157

In what publication will you find a comprehensive listing of all valve and piping color coding?

NSTM 505.

1158

Aboard most ships, gland sealing steam is supplied from what system?

Auxiliary exhaust.

1159

What type of feed system is used for boilers having an operating pressure at and above 600 psig?

Pressure-closed.

1160

The main condenser is maintained at what approximate vacuum?

25 to 28.5 inches of mercury.

1161

What is the valve handwheel color code for steam systems?

White.

1162

What is the valve handwheel color code for potable-water systems?

Dark blue.

1163

What is meant by the term pumping down?

Removal of refrigerant before maintenance on a reciprocating system which is to be opened to the atmosphere.

1164

What is meant by the term purging when dealing with refrigerant?

The release of air and non-condensable gases from a system.

1165

What is meant by the term slugging?

The liquid refrigerant returning to the compressor causing noisy valves.

1166

What does the term low side refer to?

The part of a system lying between the expansion valve and the suction valve of the compressor.

1167

The term frosting back refers to what?

The appearance of frost on the suction line extending as far back as the compressor.

1168

What NSTM would you use when researching refrigeration systems?

NSTM 516.

1169

What two types of refrigeration compressors are used onboard naval ships?

1. Reciprocating 2. Centrifugal.

1170

The capacity of a reciprocating compressor plant is expressed in?

Tons of refrigerant.

1171

All current high speed compressors operate at what RPM?

1750 rpm.

1172

What type of lube oil system would be found on a high speed compressor?

Force-feed lubrication.

1173

What is the purpose of a thermal expansion valve?

Control the quantity of refrigerant that is admitted to the cooling coil and to reduce the pressure of the refrigerant.

1174

The load on the Vapor compression air-conditioning plant is determined by what?

The desired chill water temperature.

1175

Two basic types of chilled water air conditioning systems are now in use, they are?

Vapor compression and lithium bromide absorption.

1176

What purpose does the refrigerant compressor receiver serve?

Acts as a surge tank and a temporary storage space for the liquid refrigerant.

1177

Where is the dehydrator located in the refrigerant compressor system?

In the liquid refrigerant line between the TXV and the receiver.

1178

The dehydrator contains what type of drying agent?

Silica-gel or activated alumina.

1179

A pink indication on a moisture indicator means?

Excessive moisture has damaged the indicator, it must be replaced.

1180

Proper refrigerant temperature of a space is maintained by what?

A solenoid valve and its related thermostatic switch.

1181

What automatically stops a refrigerant compressor when a failure of circulating water supply occurs?

Water failure switch.

1182

The refrigerant liquid strainer is designed to protect what?

The solenoid valves and TXV.

1183

Refrigerant piping is made of what material?

ACR seamless copper.

1184

Nearly all hand-operated valves in large refrigeration systems are packless for what reason?

To facilitate maintenance of the valves without valve removal.

1185

How are refrigerant leaks found?

By use of an electronic leak detector or by the soapsuds test.

1186

When properly tightened a V-belt can be depressed how far?

½ to ¾ inch by the pressure of one finger at a point midway between the flywheel and the motor pulleys.

1187

Is it allowable to use belt dressing on a V-belt?

Never.

1188

Before handling refrigerant bottles you should read what NSTM?

NSTM 670.

1189

Refrigerant cylinders must always be stowed in what manner?

In a cool, dry place, in an upright position.

1190

Never allow a refrigerant cylinder to reach what temperature?

130 deg. F.

1191

Cylinder valves must always be protected by what?

Cylinder top caps.

1192

What must be done to a refrigerant cylinder when refrigerant has been discharged?

Immediately weigh the cylinder and record the weight.

1193

Refrigerants are considered to be deadly due to their composition of what?

Halocarbons.

1194

It is ever allowable to mix refrigerant gases?

Never.

1195

When measuring a certain space temperature, what two temperature readings determine air conditioning effectiveness?

Wet-bulb and dry-bulb thermometer readings.

1196

Dry-bulb temperature is a measurement of what?

Sensible heat.

1197

What approval is required before using self-contained air conditioners?

NAVSEA.

1198

What type of heat exchanger is used in the lithium bromide absorption unit?

Regenerative type.

1199

What manual contains safety precautions for forces afloat when dealing with refrigerants and air conditioners?

OPNAVINST 5100.19 SERIES.

1200

What is the latent heat of fusion?

144 BTU’s.

1201

The most commonly used refrigeration system used aboard ship is?

Vapor compression type with reciprocating compressors.

1202

What purpose does the compressor in a refrigeration unit serve?

Acts as a pump.

1203

Heat is absorbed by refrigerant stored normally in what component?

The refrigerant evaporator.

1204

The float valve in a centrifugal refrigeration plant serves what purpose?

Releases the refrigerant to the chiller.

1205

What are 4 basic things that nay control system must perform?

1. Measure 2. Compare 3. Compute 4. Correct.

1206

What does the term manipulated variable mean?

Any quantity or condition that is varied by a control system to affect the value of the controlled variable.

1207

What does the term controlled variable mean?

Any quantity or condition that is measured and controlled by a control system.

1208

An example of a final control element in the three element feed system would be what?

The feedwater control valve.

1209

The steady-state difference between the control point and the value of the controlled variable corresponding to the set point is called what?

Offset.

1210

Deviation is the instantaneous difference between the actual value of the controlled variable and the value of the controlled variable corresponding to what?

Set point.

1211

The term dead time refers to what?

The time required to transport a change from one place to another.

1212

What are 3 ways that computing and comparison can be accomplished in a pneumatic transmitter?

1. The nozzle and vane assembly 2. Bellows 3. Escapement valves.

1213

Continuous changing of the controlled variable is called what?

Cycling.

1214

What are the three modes of control in the automatic boiler control system?

1. Automatic 2. Remote manual 3. Local manual.

1215

What are three loops associated with the automatic boiler control system?

1. Steam pressure control loop 2. Airflow control loop 3. Fuel flow control loop.

1216

What will be the position of the feedwater control valve if the diaphragm ruptures?

100% Open.

1217

What is the only authoritative source of information on the boiler control system on any ship?

The manufacturer’s technical manual.

1218

What does the term supply air pressure refer to?

The compressed air that is supplied to each pneumatic unit.

1219

Compressed air that goes from one pneumatic unit to another pneumatic unit is known as?

Loading pressure.

1220

A General Regulator automatic combustion control system on a 600 psi steam plant is designed to maintain what set-point when measured from the superheater outlet?

600 – 615 psig.

1221

What is the effective loading pressure range on a General Regulator combustion control system?

3 – 15 psi.

1222

What component within the General Regulator combustion control system develops a demand signal to maintain the boiler at a desired standard for any boiler load?

Steam pressure controller.

1223

What is the desired set-point on a General Regulator steam pressure transmitter?

7 psi.

1224

What is the function of the high limit and low limit relays on a General Regulator combustion control system?

To prevent the master demand signal from bleeding out of range on the high end or the low end of the signal range operating pressure.

1225

The output of the high limit relay is applied to what component?

Low-limit relay.

1226

What is the function of the airflow transmitter?

Measures the pressure differential across the burner opening and develops a loading signal proportional to the rate of airflow per burner.

1227

The air flow controller serves what function?

Develops a loading signal for the force-draft blower speed control.

1228

The airflow controller is what type of controller?

Proportional plus reset.

1229

What component within the General Regulator combustion control system is designed to speed up force draft blower response time?

Steam flow rate relay.

1230

What component converts the fuel oil demand signal a nonlinear signal?

Characterizing relay.

1231

How is the minimum fuel oil pressure set on General Regulator FO control valve?

By adjusting the spring force in the valve with the external spring adjusting screw and locking it in place with a jam nut.

1232

A blown diaphragm within the FO characterizing relay on a General Regulator combustion control system will have what effect on fuel oil header pressure?

Fuel oil pressure will go to maximum and cause a black smoke boiler casualty.

1233

What three elements are measured within the feedwater control system?

Boiler drum level, steam flow and feed flow.

1234

What component within the three element feedwater control system develops a pneumatic signal proportional to actual boiler water level?

Drum level transmitter.

1235

What terms are used to describe the three pneumatic signals associated with the feedwater control system?

Drum level = Supervisory signal, Steam Flow = Demand signal, Feed Flow = Response signal.

1236

What component within the three element feedwater control system compares the steam flow signal, feed flow signal and setpoint signal and develops a pneumatic output signal proportional to the difference between its inputs?

Steam flow / Feed flow differential relay.

1237

What is the set-point adjuster set at to maintain a normal water level on the three element feedwater control system?

9 psi.

1238

What type of positioner is always used in conjunction with the feedwater control valve?

Reverse acting.

1239

The fuel oil control valve will always fail to what position if control air pressure is lost?

Minimum.

1240

The main feed pump control valve will fail to what pressure if control air pressure is lost?

Maximum.

1241

The force draft blower final control element will fail in what position if control air is lost?

Minimum.

1242

What is the maximum allowable rpm differential on two force draft blowers operating in parallel?

300 rmps.

1243

What system is designed to hold on final control elements in their last known position upon a loss of control air pressure?

The air lock system.

1244

What is the master air lock trip valve spring set at?

65 psig.

1245

A pressure reducing valve is installed upstream of the air lock system and maintains the control air pressure at what?

80 psig.

1246

Individual final control element air lock valves are set to trip at what control air pressure?

40 psig.

1247

Air lock is designed to hold for what minimum time frame IAW PMS?

10 minutes.

1248

What procedures are used to verify that each automatic boiler control component is functioning properly prior to conducting boiler flex testing?

Online verification procedures (OLVs).

1249

A boiler flex test shall be conducted in what manner?

An up and down ramp with a boiler load change of 70 percent 45 seconds, within a range from 15 – 95 percent of boiler full power.

1250

Who must witness or designate someone to ensure all boiler flex testing is conducted within PMS requirements?

Engineer Officer.

1251

Boiler flex testing is conducted at what interval IAW PMS?

Semi-annually.

1252

After conducting a boiler flex up ramp or down ramp the boiler parameters must stabilize within what time frame?

4 minutes.

1253

All boiler flex testing is conducted in accordance with what document?

Pertinent PMS Maintenance Requirement Card (MRC).

1254

Who conducts boiler flex testing?

The person assigned as the Automatic Boiler Control Tech.

1255

What NSTM contains general information on various automatic boiler control systems?

NSTM 255.

1256

Who is tasked with ensuring the boiler flex up ramp or down ramp only lasts 45 seconds?

The person operating the main engine ahead throttle valve (Throttleman).

1257

The maximum signal selector selects the higher of the steam pressure signals and sends it to what component?

The steam pressure controller.

1258

What are the two inputs to the minimum signal selector?

Master demand and airflow.

1259

What is the function of the fuel air ratio relay?

Provides the operator with a means of adjusting the airflow signal as necessary to provide optimum combustion throughout the firing range of the boiler.

1260

The term bias refers to what?

The act of adding or subtracting from a control system signal.

1261

What are three loops associated with the automatic boiler control system?

Steam pressure, airflow and fuel flow.

1262

How is biasing accomplished?

By manually adjusting the hand-wheel on the compensating relay (AM station), this can only be accomplished on a 4-way compensating relay.

1263

The compressed air that goes from a pneumatic unit to a motor operator of a final control element is defined as?

Control pressure.

1264

What component cuts down lag time caused by forced draft blower inertia?

Steam flow rate relay.

1265

Who must accomplish adjustment or repair of automatic boiler controls?

Only authorized and qualified individuals.

1266

The interval of time between the start of a response and its completion is termed what?

Lag time.

1267

A closed loop system gives a comparison with the desired condition by using?

Feedback.

1268

Output of an escapement valve is determined by?

Position of the valve seats.

1269

On a nozzle and flapper assembly, what device is used to restrict the flow through the nozzle?

Flapper.

1270

An orifice plate, flow nozzle, thermometer bulb, and air registers are all examples of what?

Primary elements.

1271

The time interval by which rate action advance the effect of proportional position action is?

Rate time.

1272

An uncontrolled oscillation of a controlled variable is termed?

Hunting.

1273

On a nozzle and flapper assembly, when the flow through the nozzle is decreased, the output will?

Increase.

1274

A desired restriction in the path of flow is a?

Primary element.

1275

The automatic control system compares the measured value with?

The desired value.

1276

What integral action of a controller will bring it back into balance, after a load change, at set point?

Reset.

1277

Boiler flex testing is measured in how many levels IAW PMS?

Five.

1278

What boiler flex level is considered optimum for plant operation?

Level one.

1279

Is it allowable to conduct Engineering Training Team (ETT) drills on a boiler that cannot conduct a satisfactory level three or higher boiler flex test?

Never, ETT drills shall only be conducted on boilers that have achieved a level three or higher flex test.

1280

What effect will a failure of an airflow transmitter have on an operating steam plant?

Fuel oil header pressure will decrease to minimum.

1281

When performing master light off checks (MLOCs) what is the reason for conducting the engineering operating procedure (EOP) CTRM on the automatic boiler control system?

To verify that the airflow transmitter and minimum signal selector are functioning properly.

1282

What automatic boiler component must be adjusted prior to conducting a boiler soot blow?

The fuel air ratio relay must be adjusted to increase windbox pressure IAW EOSS.

1283

What is meant by the term two knob control when dealing with automatic boiler controls?

Fuel and air controls are being manipulated by remote manual means.

1284

During a white smoke condition on an operating boiler, what must never be adjusted?

Fuel oil header pressure.

1285

What action must be taken if a controlled variable oscillates about the set-point at a high frequency?

Reduce the controller sensitivity.

1286

What is the most common cause of a control valve or actuator not responding to a position input signal?

Mechanical interference.

1287

The primary function of the automatic feed-water control system is to maintain boiler water level within what set-point?

Normal with a maximum deviation of +- one inch at all boiler loads.

1288

If a boiler tube cannot be removed immediately because of its location in the boiler, and a decision is made to plug the tube, what must be done to the tube after plugging?

Puncture the tube to prevent an increase in pressure and the possibility of blowing the plug out of the tube.

1289

When laying firebrick with mortar in place, what is the proper procedure for dipping the bricks in mortar?

Dip one end of the brick into the mortar, and then with a wiping motion, dip the bottom of the brick.

1290

Once the mortared firebrick is laid into position, how is it tapped in place?

Tap it firmly, both sidewise and backwards, so that it will be forced into position.

1291

What is the required size of mortared joints when installing firebrick?

1/16 inch.

1292

What type of burner front cracks are caused by stresses resulting from normal expansion and contraction?

Radial cracks.

1293

What type of burner front cracks eventually results in extensive damage and run approximately parallel to the surface of the burner front?

Parallel cracks.

1294

What is the probable cause of a castable burner front breaking up after very little use?

Too much water was used in mixing the material during installation.

1295

The loss of firebrick through cracking and subsequent breaking or crumbling is called what?

Spalling.

1296

What are the two main causes of refractory deterioration?

Spalling and slagging.

1297

What forms slag?

Ash and other unburnable materials such as seawater solids that react with brick work.

1298

Lowering boiler furnace temperature too rapidly will likely cause what damage to firebrick?

Deep fractures.

1299

Raising the boiler furnace temperature too rapidly will likely cause what damage to firebrick?

Firebrick will break at the anchor bolts.

1300

What is installed to provide space for the refractories to expand without putting pressure on the linings?

Expansion joints.

1301

Castable should not mixed until all preparations have been made for installing the burner front, since the material begins to set a once and must be discarded if it is not used within what time frame?

30 minutes.

1302

When using plastic fireclay for burner cone installation, the plastic is vented at what intervals?

Every 2 inches centerline.

1303

What is used to vent plastic fireclay burner fronts?

A 3/16 inch rod tapered to a blunt point in the last half-inch.

1304

When compared to insulating block, firebrick has an insulating value of what?

Less than 1/10th that of insulation block.

1305

What is FC-25 fiberfax tamping mix used for?

To repair cracks in deteriorated or failed refractory.

1306

Anchors used for castable or plastic refractory shall be what type?

Pennant type.

1307

When working in large areas the refractory anchors should be spaced at what intervals?

Every 10 to 12 inches.

1308

What is the maximum gap between two sidewall tubes in a D-Type boiler?

¼ inch.

1309

What is the corrective action for a gap exceeding ¼ inch on two sidewall tubes?

Fill the gap with ceramic fiber or ceramic fiber rope.

1310

Castable refractory shall be air-cured for how long?

Two days or more.

1311

Lighting fires in a boiler with newly installed castable refractory after an air-cure of only one day is prohibited without approval from whom?

NAVSEA.

1312

A mechanical strain caused by improper operation of the boiler (panting and vibration) will cause what detrimental effect of the furnace wall?

The wall will weaken and become dislocated.

1313

How can you visually tell if an expansion joint is closing completely?

If the inside of the expansion joint is light in color, the joint is closing properly. If the inside is dark and discolored, it is not closing properly.

1314

What are the major causes of burner front parallel cracking?

Improper installation and boiler operation.

1315

What is the only way to really determine the condition of a furnace wall?

Measure the wall thickness at its thinnest point.

1316

The entire furnace deck must be renewed when the firebrick reaches what minimum thickness?

When the thickness is reduced to ½ inch for unanchored decks and 3 inches for anchored decks.

1317

When treating a boiler with EDTA waterside cleaning chemicals, what is the required percentage of the EDTA solution?

One percent.

1318

EDTA used for waterside cleaning must be disposed of in accordance with what publication?

NSTM 593.

1319

How often must the boiler be bottom blown, after lit-off following EDTA cleaning?

At least every 72 hours and preferably every 48 hours if possible.

1320

If the EDTA cleaning is successful, the boiler hours are adjusted in what manner?

The mechanical cleaning hours are zeroed.

1321

Following EDTA cleaning the boiler is freshly filled and treated with what chemical in accordance with NSTM 220 V2?

Disodium phosphate (DSP) only.

1322

How often must the boiler be surface blown, after lit-off following EDTA cleaning?

A 10 percent surface blowdown is conducted every 24 hours.

1323

The boiling out procedure for naval boilers is used to remove what type of