Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

a Prometheus book FRCR Part 2A flashcards > Moduel 1: Thoracics > Flashcards

Moduel 1: Thoracics Flashcards

1
Q

opacification of the Raider triangle

A

aberrant right subclavian artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

metallic valves

how to tell mitral from aortia

A

mitral is bigger

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

pacemaker wire going through a valve means it is the

A

tricupsid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

most superior valve is the

A

pulmonary valve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what is luftsichel sign

A

collapse of the left upper lobe

compensatory expansion of the lower lobe, the superior part of which forms and air sickle shape around the left mediasitnum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

the lingula is a part of which lobe

A

the left upper lobe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

list the right teritiary bronchi

A

Apical
Posterior
anterior

medal and lateral

superior
posterior
lateral
anterior
medial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

list the left tertiary bronchi

A

Anterior
apicoposteiror

superior
inferior

superior
posterior
lateral
anteromedialbasal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

chest radiograph

hilum overlay sign is what

A

hilum mass obliterates the silhouette of the pulmonary vessels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

mass differentiatebetween being pulmonary or from mediasitnum

A

loko at the shouldering angle.

acute is from the lung
mediastinal ill be obtuse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

how many layers of pleura does an azygoes lobe have?

A

4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

why does azygoes lobe have 4 layers of pleura

A

folded in on itself

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what is a trcheal bonrhcus

when to call it a pig bronchus

A

bronchus off the trachea. can get infections.

if whole if right upper lobe is from this then pig bronchus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what is proximal interruption of the pulmonary artery

A

congenital absence of one pulmonary artery

but more distal vasculature is present

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

proximal interruption of pulmonary artery

exists on what side
ax to

A

exists opposite to aortic arch side
ax to PDA, TOF and trunchus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

strep pneumo favours where

A

lower lobes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

most common form of pnumonia in AIDS patient sis

A

strep pneumoniae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Endocarditis patients, bacteria can travel to lungs an make an abscess

Classic Bug

A

Staph A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

anthrax pneumonia apperance

A

mediastinal widerning, pleural effusion

haemorrhagic lymphadenitis
mediastinitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

BULGING fissure pneumonia

A

Klebsiella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Which patient stypically get a klebsiella infeciton

A

alcoholics and nuring home patients.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

klebiella sputum is

A

current jelly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

H. Influenza seen in

A

COPDers

aplenia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

H Flu will appear as

A

bronchitis
bilateral lower lobe bronchopneumoinia(sometimes)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Pseudomonas affects who?

A

ICU
CF
Primary cilicary dyskinesia.

pleural effusions common

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Pseudomonas get what in the lung

A

abscess formation and patchy opacitites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

appearance of legionella on radiograph

A

peripheral and sublobar arispace opacity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

who gets legionella

A

COPD
Polutes air conditioners.

immunocompromised will caviate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

actinomycosis is what appearance to the lungs?

A

peripheral airspace changes

can be aggresveia and invade ribs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

mycoplasma chest radiograph appearance

A

fine reticular pattern
tree in bud
patchy opacities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

story for an actinomycosis

A

dental procedure gone wrong with mandible osteomyelitis and aspiration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

what is the time split for post bone marrow

graft vs host

A

Acute 20 - 100
chronic 100+

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

acute graft vs host manifests in which organs

A

extra pulmonary]]so skin, liver, GI tract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

chronic graft vs host disease presents in which organs

A

lungs

lymphocytic infiltration of the airways and obliterative bronchiolitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

post bone marrow transplant

patients are susceptible to diseases based on time frame.

what are the timeframes?

A

Early neutropenic (0 - 30 days)

early (30 - 90)

late (>90)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Early neutropenic (0 - 30 days)

early (30 - 90)

late (>90)

post bone marrow tranplant pulmonary findings by differnetials

A

Early neutropenic (0 - 30 days)
- oedema
- haemorrhage
- drug induced lung injury
-fungal pneumonia

early (30 - 90)
- PCP, CMV

late (>90)
- Bronchiolitis obliterans, COP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

infections in AIDS by CD4 count

what are they

A

> 200 - bacterial and TB
<200 - PCP, atypical mycobacterial
<100 - CMV, disseminated fungal, mycobacterial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

CT patterns in AIDS

focal airspace opacity

ddx

A

Bacterial (strep pneumonia)
TB if low CD4

chronic opacity - lymphoma/Kaposi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

CT patterns in AIDS

muti focal air space opacity

ddx

A

bacterial or fungal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

CT patterns in AIDS

GGO

ddx

A

PCP (or CMV if CD4 <100)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

PCP aids infection will appear as

A

GGO.
bilatearlly in perihilar region

SPARES the peripheries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

HIV

flame shaped perihilar region

A

Kaposi sarcoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

HIV persisten opacities think

A

lymphoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Lung cysts in HIV

A

LIP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

HIV

Hypervascular lymph nodes

A

Castlemans or Kaposi

giant lymph node hyperplasia, is an uncommon benign B-cell lymphoproliferative condition is castylemans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

what are the diferent types of TB based on timiing

A

Primary

Primary progressive

Latent

Post primary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Primary TB - what happens

A

inhale a bug
form a granuloma(Ghon focus) (can get nodal expansion)

if node calcifies called a Rnke Complex.

if node bursts then get endobronchial spread or miliary.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

primary progressive TB

what happens

A

local progression WITH CAVITATION

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

what is latent TB

A

Positive PPD, negative CXR, no symptoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

post primary TB

what happens to cause

A

endogenous reactivation of latent TB

evidence of progression, ie cavity. Adjacent vessels can get aneurysms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

how to treate immune reconstituition inflamatory syndrome

A

give steroids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

when do people get pleural effusions with TB

A

3-6 months after primary infection.

need to biopsy as often culture negative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

two non TB mycobateriums to know about are

A

MAC

Kansasii

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

types of lung pattern for non TB mycobacterium

A

Cavitatory
- MAC

Bronchiectatic
-lady windemere(also MAC)

HIV patients
- low immune system, lots of infections

Hypersensitivity pneumonitis
- hot tub lung. GGO centrilobular nodules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

lady windemere lung will look like

A

Middle lobe and lingula

bronchiectasis and tree in bud

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

who gets invasive aspergillus

A

immunosupressed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

what is a halo sign

A

consolidative mass with a halo of GGO around it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

what does the air crescent sign mean ?

A

healing as the ball has gotten smaller

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

allergic bronchopulmonary aspergilloma affects which patients

A

asthmatics

get finger in glove

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

if there is fungal invasion of the mediastinum pleura chest wall

A

Mucomycosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

bone marrow transplant patient can get CMV between 30 - 90 days

how will it appear on chest xr

A

multiple nodules

ground glass

consolidative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

measles chest radiograph

A

multifocal ground glass opacities with small nodular opacities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

influenza appearance

A

coalsecent lower lobe opacity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

SARS appearance on radiograph

A

GGO

lower lobe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

ebstein barr causes

A

big spleen

large lymph nodes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

complictions of septic emboli

A

wedge shaped infarctions
cavitations

empyema
pneumothroax

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Mnemonic for causes of CAVITY

A

CANCER (SCC)
Auto Immune (Caplan, wegners)
Vascular - Septic emboli / bland emboli
I - infection (TB)
T - Truama - pneumatoceles
Y - young - conenital CCAMS, sequestrations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

what is lemierre syndrome ?

A

jugular vein thrombosis with septic emboli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

bacteria responsible for lemierre syndrome

A

Fusobacterium necrophorum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

nodule vs mass based on size

A

<3cm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

benign nodule calcifications patterns

A

Solid
laminated
central
popcorn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

benign nodule doubling times

A

super fast (1 month)
super slow (16 months)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

dodgy nodule

features

A

GGO
air bronchogram through it
spiculated margins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

PET nodule

hot / cold for GGO/nodule

A

GGO - cold likely cancer, hot infection
Solid - hot can be cnacner, infection, grnaulomatous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

four types of lung cancer are

A

SCC

Small cell

large cell

Adenocarcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

SCC lung cancer

A

centrally located
smoking risk
cavitate

can get ectopic PTH production

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Small cell lung cancer

A

central.
some lymphadenopathy.

Paraneoplastic syndromes can occur like Lambert Eaton (Acth)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Large cell lung cancer appears as

A

large and peripheral (4cm + )

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

adeno lung cancer

location and
ax

A

peripheral and upper lobes

ax with lung fibrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

what are the subtypes of adenocarcinoma

A

atypical adenomatous hyperplasia of lung (AAH)
- precursor

Adenocarcinoma in situ (ACIS)
- <3cm

Minimally invasive adenocarcinoma (MIA)
- <3cm but <5mm stromal invasion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

what stage of lung cancer is unresectable ?

A

3B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

what makes something 3B

A

Supraclavicular, contralateral mediastinum, sclaene hilar adenopathy

Tumour invading different lobes

Malignant pleural efffusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

lobe malignnacy for T3 T4 and M1

A

T3 is two in same lobe

T4 is two in same lung

M1 is different lungs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

bronchopleural fistula sing

A

intially increase pleural fluid but then decreases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

types of mets to the lungs by behaviour

A

Direct invations

haematogenous mets

lymphangetic carcinomatosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

why do mets favour the lower lobes

A

greater blood supply

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

cannonball mets from

A

rcc

choriocarcinoma (testicle)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

carcinoids can be calssfied based on

A

location
- bronchial and peripheral

histroloy
- typical, atypical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Lymphangetic carcinomatosis will have what appearance on imaging

A

nodular thickening of the interlobular septa and subpleural interstitium

does NOT distort the pulmonary lobule (as per IPF)
classically bronchogenic cancer, cervical and others

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

what cancer is this

occurs in bronchus, mre common in trachea than carcinoid

A

adenoid cystic

Second most common after squamous cell carinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

types of pulmonary lymphoma

A

Primary
secondary
HIV
PTLD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Primary lymphoma in lung is what type?

A

usually non hodkin

low grade MALToma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

primary lymphoma of lung defined as

A

lack of extrathoracic involvement for 3 months.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Secondary lymphoma in lung

A

much more common.

NHL more likely, but HL if involving the lung.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Secondary NHL vs secondary HL

A

NHL more common.

HL more likely to have intrathoracic disease at presenetaiton

NHL - no mediastinal disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

PTLD lymphoma

Post-transplant lymphoproliferative disorders

when does it affect

A

within a year of tranpslace.

B cell lymphoma related to EB virus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

AIDS related pulmonary lymphoma

is what type

A

high grade NHL
realtes to EBV.

often in low CD4<100.

98
Q

AIDS patient with lungnodules, pleural effusion, lymphadenopathy

A

lymphoma

99
Q

a bloody pleural effusion is common in

A

kapsoi sarcoma

100
Q

Kaposi sarcoma vs lymphoma on Nuclear medicine

A

Kaposi
Gallium NEGATIVE

Lymphoma
gallium positive

101
Q

Kaposi hiots when CD4 is less than

A

200

102
Q

flame shaped hilar opacities is

A

Kaposi sarcoma

103
Q

microscopic fat and popcorn calcifications

can be hot on PET

dx is

A

Hamartoma

104
Q

what to do with hamartoma

A

nothing

105
Q

What is bronchial atrewsia

A

blind ending bronchus, finger in glove.

distal lung hyperinflated from collateral drift and air trapping

apical posterior segment of the left upper lobe

106
Q

AVM: when to treat

A

afferent vessel is 3mm (though disputed)

107
Q

persistent left SVC will drain in to t

A

coronary sinus

108
Q

Swyer James cuases what

A

unilateral lucent lung
post infectious obliterative bronchiolitis

109
Q

why is extralobar considered the worse sequestration

A

get fewer infecitons due to pleural covering however the associations are worse

CCAM, diaphragmatic hernia, vertebral anomalies, congenital heart diseases, pulmonary hypoplasia

110
Q

CCAM is what

A

malfromation of adenomatoid stuff replacing norma lung.
1 - 4
1 - macrocystic
2 - <2cm
3 - microcystic
4 - looks like 1
5 -

111
Q

list some cystic lung disease

A

LCH
LAM
Brit dog dube
LIP
PCP

112
Q

LCH

affects
location
spares

A

young smokers

centrilobular nodules in upper lobes.

spares the costophrenic angles

113
Q

what spares the costophrenic angles

A

LCH and hypersensitivity pneumonitis

114
Q

Lymphangiomyomatosis is ax with

A

Tuberous sclerosis

estrogen (favours woem nof child bearing age)

115
Q

lymphocytic interstitial pneumonaitis
- what is it

A

benign lymphoproliferative disorder in the lung

116
Q

LIP ax

A

SLE, RA, Sjogrens, HIV

Castlemans .

in a kid then HIV

117
Q

PCP buzzword

A

GGO, hilar and mid lung zones

118
Q

types of emphysema

A

centri-lobular

pan-lobular

para-septal

119
Q

pan-lobular emphysema favours where

A

lower lobes

120
Q

ax for pan-lobular emphysema

A

alpha 1 antitrypsin

121
Q

par-septal found where

A

adjacent to the pleura and septal line.

peripheral distribuion in the secondary pulmonary lobule

122
Q

saber sheath trachea is considered pathognomonic of

A

COPD

123
Q

vanishing lung syndrome is ax with

A

20% have alpha antitrypsin deficiency

bullousemphysema

124
Q

inhaled substance end up in which part of the lung

A

upper lobes

125
Q

location of pneumoconiosis nodules

A

centrilobular - from inhalation

perilymphatic

126
Q

how ti dfferentiat e Asbestosis from UIP

A

pareital pleural thickening in asbestosis

127
Q

What are the benign asbestosis related changes

A

pleural effusion
plaques (spare the apices)

128
Q

Malignant mesothelioma

features

A

extention in to the fissure

pleural ring

129
Q

who gets silicosis

A

miners

130
Q

What is PMF

A

progressive massive fibrosis

large masses in the upper lobe with radiating strans

131
Q

Silicotuberculosisi

A

silicosis raises chances of TB
if cavitation in setting of silicosis then think TB

132
Q

nodule pattern is perilymphatic

ddx

A

sarcoid
lymphangitic spread of CA
Silicosis

133
Q

Random nodule pattern

ddx

A

Miliary TB
Mets
Fungal

134
Q

Centrilobular nodule pattern

A

Infection
RB- ILD
Hypersnesitivity pneumonitis

135
Q

interlobular septal thickening

usually from

A

pulmonary oedema

136
Q

honeycombing is a hallmark of

A

UIp

137
Q

how to distinguish between the honeycombing and paraseptal emphysema

A

two to three rows –> honeycombing

138
Q

If idiopathic interstitial penumonia aren’t diseases what are they

A

lung reactions to lung injury

139
Q

When UIP lung s are considered idiopathic what are they called

A

IPF

140
Q

first finding for UIP

A

reticular pattern in the posterior costophrenic angle

141
Q

UIP pattern

A

Apical to basal gradient

traction bronchiectasis

honeycombing

heterogenous in histoloy

142
Q

NSIP histology

A

homogenous inflammation / fibrosis

143
Q

NSIP pattern is seen in what

A

vascular disease and drug reaction

144
Q

Types of NSIP

A

cellular / fibrotic

145
Q

If NSIP and GGO

A

cellular

146
Q

if NSIP

GGO and reticulation

A

Cellular or fibrotic

147
Q

NSIP

Reticulation and traction bronchiectasis

A

Fibrotic NSIP

148
Q

NSIP

Honeycombing

A

uncommon

149
Q

Location for NSIP

A

lower lobe posterior

peripheral predominance

spares immeidate subpleural lung

GGO

150
Q

Which fibrosis do scleroderma get

A

NSI P

151
Q

Smoking related lung fibrosis are

A

RB-ILD

DIP

152
Q

pattern in RB- ILD

A

apical centrilobular GG nodules

153
Q

pattern in DIP

A

diffuse GGO, patchy, subpleural distribution

small cystic spaces

154
Q

Sarcoid elevated blood marker

A

ACE
calcium

155
Q

Sarcoid appearanc e

A

perilymphatic nodules
upper lobe predominance

156
Q

which infection common in end stage sarcoid

A

aspergillomas

157
Q

3 stages to CHF

A

redistribution - big vascular pedicle, big heart

interstitial - Kerley Lines, duffing, central vessels contour

alveolar - airpsace fluffy opacity. pleural effusion

158
Q

TIMEframe for lung transplant complications

A

Immediate - less than 24 hours

Early complications - 24 hrs to 1 week

intermediate complicaiton - 1 week to 2 months

late complications - 2-4 months

later complications > 4 months

159
Q

Lung transplant immediate

A

Donor recipient mismatch

Hyperacture rejection - HLA and ABO antigens. rapid and fatal.

160
Q

Early complications post lung transplant

A

reperfusion injury - peak day 4.

air leak - more than 7 days continuous leak.

161
Q

Intermediate complications post lung transplant

A

Acute rejection - GGO and interlobular thickening.

bronchial anastomotic complications - leaks occur in the first month, stenosis can develop later.

162
Q

Late complications post transplant

A

CMV infeciton

GGO
tree in bud

163
Q

Late complications post lung transplant

A

Chronic rejection

cryptogenic organizing pneumonia
PTLD
upper lobe fibrosis

164
Q

Post lung tranpalnt

air trapping on expiraiton at 6 months

A

chronic rejection

/ bronchiolitis obliterans

165
Q

what is the most common recurrent primary disease after transplant

A

sarcoid

166
Q

Pulmonary alveolar proetinosis pattern

A

Craz paving pattern

167
Q

what is crazy paving

A

interlobular septal thickening with GGO

168
Q

how to treat pulmonary Alveolar Proetinosis

A

bronchoalveolar lavage

169
Q

Crazsy paving

ddx

A

oedema
haemorrhage
BAC
Acute interstitial pneumonia

and of course Pulmonary alveolar proteinosis

170
Q

fat density in the consolidaiton

A

lipoid pneumonia

171
Q

with organizing pneumonia

if the cause is not known

A

Crytpogenic

172
Q

Causes of orgnaizing pnuemonia

A

idiopathic
infection
drugs
collagen vascular disease
fumes

173
Q

appearance of COP

A

patchy air space consolidaiton or GGO
peripheral / peribronchial distribution

174
Q

What is the Atoll sign

A

consolidaiotn around GGO

175
Q

difference in location of Chronic Esingophilic pneumonia and COP

A

CEP likes apices

176
Q

lung transplant complications

what are the timings?

A

Immediate - 24 hours

Early - 1 week

Intermediate - 2 months

late - 4 months

Later - 4 month ++

177
Q

immediate massive homogenous infiltration due to

A

hyperacute rejection

HLA and ABO antigens, rapid and fatal

178
Q

ground glass opacities, intrtalobular sepctal thickening. Intermediate complications for lung tranplsant

A

acute rejection

improves with steroids

179
Q

COP pattern of GGO

A

peripheral and peribronchial

180
Q

stages of hypersenstivity pneumonitits

A

acute
subacute
chronic

181
Q

HP in subacute phase will look like

A

patchy ground glass opacities.

ill defined centrilobular ground glass nodules

mosaic perfusion
air trapping

182
Q

Chronic HP will look like

A

UIP wth air trapping

183
Q

reverse halo ddx

A

COP
fungal pneumonia
TB
Wegeners
Pulmonary infarct

184
Q

Halo sign

ddx

A

invasive aspergillosis
other fungus
haemorrhagic mets
wegeners

185
Q

normal transverse diameter of trachea

A

no more than 2.5cm

186
Q

three questions about trachea disease to asnwer

A

posterior membrane

focal or diffuse

calcification

187
Q

spares the posterior membrane
diffuse thickneing of trachea

what disease

A

relapsing polychondritis

188
Q

focal subglottic curcumferential stenosis, hourglass configuration to trachea

A

post intubation stenosis

189
Q

ciurcumferential thickneing of traceha, focal or long segment.

no calc.

A

wegeners

190
Q

spares posterior membrane. cartilaginous osseous nodules in the submucosa of tracheal and bronchial walls

A

Tracheobronchopathia Osteochondraplastica

191
Q

tracheal tumours types

A

SCC - most common, prefers lower
Adnoid cystic
Mets
Squamous cell papilloma - most common benign

192
Q

cystic fibrosis starts as what and finishes as what

A

bronchiectasis - cylindrical and end as varicoid

predminnace to upper lobes

193
Q

primary ciliary dyskinesia get what other issues

A

fertility issues
mastoid ieffusions
conductive hearing loss

only 50% have kartageners

194
Q

what is kartageners

A

PCD and situs inversus

195
Q

massive dilated traches

A

mounier-kuhn

196
Q

where will you find tree in bud

A

5 - 10 mm from the pleural surface

ax centrilobular nodules

197
Q

what is follicular bronchiolitis?

A

inflammatory process seen in RA/ Sjogrens.
centrilobular ground glass nodules with bornhcial dilation

198
Q

what is constrictive bronchiolitis?

A

2 to viral illnes, tx patients, drug reaction ect.

mononuclear cells form granulation tissue and plug the airway.

causes Swyer-Jame’s hyperlucent lung

199
Q

List some types of small airways disease

A

infectious bronchiolitis

RB-ILD
Sub-acute hypersensitivity pneumonitis
follicular bronchiolitis
constrictive bronchiolitis

200
Q

favoured location of aspiration

A

posteiror segment of upper lobes
superior segment of lower lobes (if supine)

basal lower lobes id upright

201
Q

aspiration of gastric acid cayuses

A

airspace opacity

202
Q

aspiration of water

A

fleeting opactiy will resolves in hours

203
Q

aspiration of bugs (eg mouth)

A

pneumonia,

204
Q

aspiration of oil

A

lipoid pneumonia (low density)

205
Q

what is caplan syndrome

A

RA
upper lobe lung nodules can cavitate
pleural effusion

206
Q

Lupus in the lungs

A

pleural effusion
pericardiac effusions

207
Q

Rheumatoid arthritis in lungs

A

UIP and COP

lower lobes favoured

208
Q

SCleroderma appearance in lungs

A

dilated fluid filled osophagus
NSIP>UIP

209
Q

Sjogrens

A

LIP
extensive ggo with scattered thin walled cysts

210
Q

ANk spond

A

upper lobe fibrobullous disease

211
Q

shrinking lung affects

A

lupus

212
Q

what is hepatopulmonary syndrome

A

liver patients, short of breath when sitting up

due to distal vascular dilation in the lung bases, dilated subpleural vessels that don’t taper and instead extend to the pleural surface

213
Q

wegeners lung appearance

A

nodules with caviation

214
Q

pleural plaque of asbestosis typically spares the

A

costophrenic anles

215
Q

is mesothelioma dose dependnat

A

no

216
Q

pleural rind extends int othe fissues

A

mesothelioma

217
Q

fibrous tumours of the pleura are ax with

A

hypoglycaemia
hypertrophic osteoarthropathy

218
Q

mets to the pleura what are they likely to be

A

adeno

lung
breast then lymphoma

219
Q

what to look for in mets to the pleura

A

pleural effusion

220
Q

features of an empyema

A

enhacnement of pleura
obvious septations
gas

221
Q

what can cause empyema necessitans

A

TB

actinomyces

222
Q

what is pancoast syndrome

A

sholder pain
c8 - t2 radiculopathy
horner syndrome

Normally an SCC

223
Q

what can cause pancoast syndrome

A

superior sulcus tumour
- SCC or bronchogenic adenocarcinoma

224
Q

large thymus

rebound vs residual lymphoma

A

PET - lymphoma would be hotter
(both still hot though)

MRI - rebound would drop on in and out, due to fat in it.

225
Q

Thymic cyst on MRI

A

t2 bright

226
Q

why image the abdomen in thymic cancer

A

drop met into the pleural and retroperitoneum

227
Q

thymoma ax

A

Myasthenia gravis
pure red cell aplasia
hypogammaglobulinemia

228
Q

thymolipoma - looks like

A

fatty mass with interspersed soft tissue

229
Q

association of mature teratomsas with

A

linefleters

230
Q

what are the middle mediastinal masses

A

fibrosing mediastinitis
bronchogenic cyst
lymphadenopathy
mediastinal lipomatosis

231
Q

what causes fibrosing mediastinitis

A

histoplasmosis

or idiopathic
but also tb, radidaiton, sarcoid

232
Q

bronchogenic cyst will cause obliteration of what chest xr line

A

asygooesophageal line

233
Q

posterior mediastinal masses are

A

neurogenic
- schwannomas, neurofibroams, malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumour

bone marrow
- Extramedullary haemopeis. CML, PCRV, myelofibrosis, sickle cell, thalassemia

234
Q

causes of a pulmonary artery aneusrysm

A

iatrogenic

behcets

chronic PE

235
Q

rasmussen aneurysm is what

A

pseudloaneurysm seocndary to pulmonary TB

236
Q

what is pulmonary veno-occlusive disease

A

variant pof primary pulmonary hypertension.

post capillary pulmonary vasculature is affected .

Normal edgie pressure.

237
Q

what is the macklin effect?

A

pneumomdediastinum from truama.
burst alveoli, air dissects backwards.

238
Q

inversion of the ipsilateral diaphragragm

A

pneumothorax

239
Q

low grade carcinoids will have what kind of FDG

A

low enhacnement

poorly differentiated/high grade ones will have higher enhancement

240
Q
A

a Prometheus book FRCR Part 2A flashcards (9 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions