Module 1 - Chapter 3- Serial Homicide Flashcards
(35 cards)
1
Q
- The following was/were believed to be able to detect criminal predisposition
by examining bumps and abnormalities on the surface of the skull.
a. sociologists
b. phrenologists
c. criminologists
d. neurobiologists
A
b. phrenologists
2
Q
- The role of _____ in violent crime is of growing importance in understanding the dynamics of the interactions among the forces of biology, psychological factors, and our environment.
a. neurobiology
b. sociology
c. podiatry
d. psychology
A
a. neurobiology
3
Q
- What is the hormone that inhibits the secretion of stomach acid, stimulates smooth muscle, and acts as a neurotransmitter in brain functioning.
a. CSF 5-hiaa
b. lithium
c. Haldol
d. serotonin
A
d. serotonin
4
Q
- In their studies of homicide offenders, Virkkunen, et al., and Linnoila, et al., found that:
a. The non-impulsive group reported higher levels of dopamine.
b. The impulsive group reported lower levels of dopamine.
c. The impulsive group reported lower levels of serotonin.
d. The non-impulsive group reported lower levels of serotonin.
A
c. The impulsive group reported lower levels of serotonin.
5
Q
- What did Reiss and Roth find?
a. inhibited children are less prone to violence and aggression
b. inhibited children are more prone to victimization
c. uninhibited children are more prone to victimization
d. uninhibited children are less prone to violence and aggression
A
a. inhibited children are less prone to violence and aggression
6
Q
- According to Eysenck, what is the foundation for criminality?
a. the over-reactive RAS
b. interactions of environmental conditions and inherited personality traits
c. financial gain
d. instrumental conditioning
A
b. interactions of environmental conditions and inherited personality traits
7
Q
- This killer had subpar intelligence, suffered from kryptopyroluria, suffered multiple head traumas, was raised in a dysfunctional family, experienced sexual and physical abuse, had homosexual experiences at age 11, had sex with animals, and went on as an adult to kill female prostitutes. He sometimes returned to the crime scenes days later to mutilate the corpses and take trophies.
a. Ed Gein
b. Juan Cordoba
c. Joseph Kallinger
d. Arthur Shawcross
A
d. Arthur Shawcross
8
Q
- According to Eysenck, who is more likely to be involved in antisocial behavior?
a. extroverts
b. subverts
c. introverts
d. perverts
A
a. extroverts
9
Q
- In her study of psychopathology and mass murder, Souza found that most of these have a history of mental illness.
a. mass murderers
b. serial killers
c. murderers
d. criminals
A
a. mass murderers
10
Q
- Which can best be attributed to the term “insanity?”
a. A diagnosis of insanity automatically follows a diagnosis of psychosis.
b. Insanity is a legal term and judicial determination.
c. A diagnosis of insanity is a psychiatric decision.
d. A diagnosis of insanity is ultimately determined by trained psychologists.
A
b. Insanity is a legal term and judicial determination.
11
Q
- What is the essential inquiry involved when the M’Naughten Rule is applied?
a. Was the act the result or the product of a mental defect?
b. Was the person able to distinguish between right and wrong at the time of the offense?
c. Was the act the result of an “irresistible impulse?”
d. Was the act the result of an addiction?
A
b. Was the person able to distinguish between right and wrong at the time of the offense?
12
Q
- What percentage of all criminal cases uses the insanity defense?
a. 10 percent
b. about half
c. nearly 27 percent
d. less than 1 percent
A
d. less than 1 percent
13
Q
- In _____, the Supreme Court ruled that insanity may continue after the criminal act, and therefore the offender could be placed in a psychiatric facility until such time when he or she is determined to have recovered from his or her afflictions.
a. United States v. Brawner
b. Durham v. United States
c. Jones v. United States
d. Vitek v. Jones
A
c. Jones v. United States
14
Q
- The Brawner Rule intends to exclude _____ from using the insanity defense.
a. defendants under the influence of alcohol at the time of the offense
b. defendants with antisocial personality disorders
c. defendants under the influence of drugs at the time of the offense
d. defendants who refuse to undergo psychiatric evaluation
A
b. defendants with antisocial personality disorders
15
Q
- Formerly known as multiple personality disorder, this is the most widely known dissociative disorder.
a. dissociative identity disorder
b. dissociative fugue
c. depersonalization disorder
d. psychopathy
A
a. dissociative identity disorder
16
Q
- This mental disorder or syndrome is unintentionally caused in a patient by a clinician or practitioner.
a. iatrogenic
b. tautological fallacy
c. anterograde syndrome
d. symptom substitution
A
a. iatrogenic
17
Q
- Formerly called “psychogenic amnesia,” this is a loss of memory due to psychological reasons rather than organic problems.
a. depersonalization-derealization disorder
b. dissociative amnesia
c. negative affectivity
d. sociopathy
A
b. dissociative amnesia
18
Q
- This suggests that a person feels that his or her surroundings are not real or are detached.
a. derealization
b. unrealization
c. detachment
d. hyper-realization
A
a. derealization
19
Q
- According to _____, the mind is constantly engaged in balancing the three-part personality structure of id, ego, and superego.
a. Freud
b. Hickey
c. Fuller
d. Hare
A
a. Freud
20
Q
- Which dissociative disorder involves a person feeling detached from his/her mental processes or physical body?
a. fugue
b. depersonalization
c. amnesia
d. identity
A
b. depersonalization
21
Q
- Which is not part of the “Big Five” theory of personality?
a. neuroticism
b. introversion
c. openness to experiences
d. agreeableness
A
b. introversion
22
Q
- Which of the DSM-V classifications of personality disorders is characterized by social and interpersonal deficits, and eccentric behaviors that inhibit the development of close relationships?
a. borderline
b. schizoid
c. narcissistic
d. schizotypal
A
d. schizotypal
23
Q
- This type is a pervasive pattern of detachment from relationships, including limited expression of emotions.
a. paranoid
b. schizotypal
c. histrionic
d. schizoid
A
d. schizoid
24
Q
- Which one of the following sets of descriptors best applies to paranoid personality disorders?
a. unpredictable, irresponsible, guiltless
b. theatrical, dependent, dysphoric
c. pervasive distrust, suspiciousness of others
d. aloof, detached, humorless
A
c. pervasive distrust, suspiciousness of others
25
25. This disorder is characterized by orderliness, perfectionism, and inflexible behaviors.
a. post-traumatic stress disorder
b. non-phobic panic disorder
c. kleptomania
d. obsessive-compulsive disorder
d. obsessive-compulsive disorder
26
26. At his trial, Ted Kaczynski was found to be _____.
a. paranoid schizophrenic
b. insane
c. suffering from a personality disorder
d. suffering from Asperger’s disorder
a. paranoid schizophrenic
27
27. This term was introduced by J. L. A. Koch in 1891.
a. histrionic
b. criminology
c. psychopath
d. sociopath
c. psychopath
28
28. What is the condition of the primary psychopath?
a. usually neurotic
b. always criminal
c. usually violent and destructive
d. always a social chameleon
d. always a social chameleon
29
29. Which of the following is NOT a Factor 2 characteristic found in Hare’s Revised Psychopathy Checklist?
a. parasitic lifestyle
b. early behavioral problems
c. need for stimulation
d. promiscuous sexual behavior
d. promiscuous sexual behavior
30
30. Criminal psychopaths make up about what percentage of the male inmate population in prison?
a. 10-15
b. 20-30
c. 85-90
d. 45-55
b. 20-30
31
1. There is a correlation between head trauma and violent behavior.
True
32
2. Recent research has suggested that serotonin has no role in creating violent behavior.
False
33
3. Dissociative identity disorder is sometimes referred to as the "UFO of psychiatry."
True
34
4. Asperger's Disorder is a milder variant of autism.
True
35
5. Worry and anxiety about future is a characteristic of the psychopath.
False
