Module 2 - Chapter 19 Flashcards
Chapter 19 (119 cards)
1
Q
What is anemia?
A
Anemia is a common condition defined as decreased oxygen-carrying capacity of blood.
2
Q
What are the three primary causes of anemia?
A
The three primary causes of anemia are decreased hemoglobin, decreased hematocrit, and abnormal hemoglobin.
3
Q
What reflects decreased oxygen delivery to tissues in anemia?
A
A variety of events or conditions are associated with anemia, many of which have similar symptoms.
4
Q
What are general symptoms of anemia?
A
General symptoms include pallor (pale skin), fatigue, weakness, and shortness of breath.
5
Q
What happens to reticulocyte levels in many types of anemia?
A
Many types of anemia cause elevated numbers of circulating reticulocytes; the body boosts EPO production in response to diminished oxygen-carrying capacity.
6
Q
What can severe anemia elevate?
A
Severe anemia can elevate heart rate; the body attempts to increase cardiac output to match demand for oxygen from oxygen-deprived tissues.
7
Q
What is the average volume of blood in an adult human?
A
About 5 liters
8
Q
What percentage of total body weight does blood constitute?
A
About 8%
9
Q
What are the two major components of blood?
A
- Plasma
- Formed elements
10
Q
What are the three types of formed elements in blood?
A
- Erythrocytes (red blood cells)
- Leukocytes (white blood cells)
- Platelets
11
Q
What are the three distinct layers formed when blood is centrifuged?
A
- Top layer: plasma (about 55% of total volume)
- Middle layer: leukocytes and platelets (buffy coat, 1% of total volume)
- Bottom layer: erythrocytes (44% of total volume)
12
Q
What function does blood perform related to gases?
A
Exchanging gases (transporting oxygen and carbon dioxide)
13
Q
How does blood help in maintaining body temperature?
A
Carries away heat generated as a by-product of chemical reactions
14
Q
What is the normal pH range of blood?
A
Between 7.35 and 7.45
15
Q
What are the main components of plasma?
A
- Water (90%)
- Plasma proteins (9%)
- Small molecules (1%)
16
Q
What is the primary role of albumin in plasma?
A
Responsible for blood’s colloid osmotic pressure
17
Q
What is the structure of a typical erythrocyte?
A
Biconcave disc shape
18
Q
What is the primary function of hemoglobin in erythrocytes?
A
Transporting oxygen and carbon dioxide
19
Q
What happens to erythrocytes after their life span of 100-120 days?
A
They are destroyed in the spleen
20
Q
What is erythropoiesis?
A
The process of producing erythrocytes from hematopoietic stem cells
21
Q
What hormone triggers erythropoiesis?
A
Erythropoietin (EPO)
22
Q
What is the feedback loop involved in regulating erythropoiesis?
A
Negative feedback loop triggered by low blood oxygen levels
23
Q
What are the steps involved in erythrocyte destruction?
A
- Erythrocytes become trapped in the spleen
- Digested by macrophages
- Hemoglobin is broken down into amino acids, iron ions, and heme
24
Q
What is anemia?
A
A condition defined as decreased oxygen-carrying capacity of blood
25
What are the three primary causes of anemia?
* Decreased hemoglobin
* Decreased hematocrit
* Abnormal hemoglobin
26
What is iron deficiency anemia?
The most common form of anemia caused by inadequate dietary iron intake
27
What condition results from vitamin B12 deficiency and affects DNA synthesis?
Pernicious anemia
28
What is sickle-cell disease?
A condition caused by abnormal hemoglobin (hemoglobin S) leading to sickle-shaped erythrocytes
29
What are leukocytes?
White blood cells that use the bloodstream for transportation and perform functions outside of blood
30
What are the two basic categories of leukocytes?
* Granulocytes
* Agranulocytes
31
What distinguishes granulocytes from agranulocytes?
Granulocytes contain cytoplasmic granules that are released when activated
32
What role do leukocytes play in the immune system?
Perform immune functions by transporting throughout the body
33
What happens to iron ions after erythrocyte destruction?
They are recycled to make new hemoglobin in red bone marrow
34
What are Granulocytes?
Granulocytes contain cytoplasmic granules that are released when activated.
35
What distinguishes Agranulocytes from Granulocytes?
Agranulocytes lack visible granules.
36
What is the nucleus structure of Granulocytes?
Granulocytes have a single nucleus composed of multiple connected lobes.
37
What are the three categories of Granulocytes based on granule color?
Granulocytes are divided into three categories: *light lilac*, *dark purple*, and *red*.
38
What is the most common leukocyte?
Neutrophils.
39
What color do neutrophil granules stain?
Light lilac.
40
What is the main function of Neutrophils?
Active phagocytes that ingest and destroy bacterial cells.
41
What is another name for Neutrophils?
Polymorphonucleocytes (polys or PMNs).
42
What process attracts Neutrophils to the site of injury?
Chemotaxis.
43
What is the role of Eosinophils?
Phagocytes that ingest foreign molecules and respond to infections with parasitic worms and allergic reactions.
44
What type of nucleus do Eosinophils have?
Bilobed nucleus.
45
What color do Eosinophils stain?
Red.
46
What are Basophils known for?
They are the least common leukocyte and mediate inflammation.
47
What is the structure of Monocytes?
Largest leukocyte with large U-shaped nuclei surrounded by light blue or purple cytoplasm.
48
What do Monocytes mature into?
Macrophages.
49
What is Leukopoiesis?
The process in bone marrow in which hematopoietic stem cells form new leukocytes.
50
What are the two cell lines produced during Leukopoiesis?
*Myeloid cell line* and *Lymphoid cell line*.
51
What do Myeloid cell lines produce?
Most formed elements, including erythrocytes and platelets.
52
Where do B lymphocytes mature?
In the bone marrow.
53
Where do T lymphocytes mature?
In the thymus gland.
54
What are Platelets?
Small cell fragments involved in hemostasis.
55
What is the lifespan of Platelets?
About 7–10 days.
56
What is Thrombopoiesis?
Platelet formation that begins as HSCs differentiate into megakaryoblasts.
57
What are the five distinct events in Hemostasis?
*Vascular Spasm*, *Platelet Plug Formation*, *Coagulation*, *Clot Retraction*, *Thrombolysis*.
58
What occurs during Vascular Spasm?
Vasoconstriction and increased tissue pressure reduce blood vessel diameter.
59
What is the role of von Willebrand factor in Platelet Plug Formation?
It binds to receptors on the surface of platelets, making them sticky.
60
What triggers Platelet activation?
Binding of von Willebrand factor and collagen to platelets.
61
What is the intrinsic pathway in Coagulation?
A pathway activated by clotting factors found in blood, starting with factor XII.
62
What is the extrinsic pathway in Coagulation?
A pathway initiated by tissue factor from damaged cells.
63
What is Fibrin?
A threadlike protein that forms a solid mass from the platelet plug.
64
What is Clot Retraction?
The process where actin and myosin fibers in platelets contract to bring edges of the wounded vessel closer together.
65
What initiates Thrombolysis?
Release of tissue plasminogen activator (tPA) from endothelial cells.
66
What does Plasmin do?
Degrades fibrin and dissolves the clot.
67
What type of feedback mechanism regulates blood clotting?
Positive feedback mechanism.
68
What is thrombolysis?
The process of breaking down blood clots
## Footnote
Thrombolysis is part of the hemostasis process.
69
What is the mechanism that produces blood clotting?
Positive feedback mechanism
## Footnote
It is an example of Feedback Loops Core Principle.
70
What are the two chemicals produced by endothelial cells that regulate clot formation?
* Prostacyclin
* Nitric oxide
71
What is the function of prostacyclin?
Inhibits platelet aggregation
72
What does nitric oxide do?
Causes vasodilation
73
What is Antithrombin III (AT-III)?
A protein that binds and inhibits activity of both factor Xa and thrombin
74
What is the role of heparin sulfate?
Enhances antithrombin activity
75
What does activated Protein C do?
Catalyzes reactions that degrade clotting factors Va and VIIIa
76
What is a clotting disorder?
Condition in which clotting is not regulated properly
77
What are the two types of clotting disorders?
* Bleeding disorders
* Hypercoagulable conditions
78
What is Hemophilia A caused by?
A shortage of factor VIII
79
What condition results from hypercoagulable conditions?
Formation of inappropriate clots (thrombosis)
80
What is deep vein thrombosis (DVT)?
A condition caused by thrombi forming in deep veins of legs
81
What is a pulmonary embolism?
A dangerous complication of DVTs where emboli lodge in small blood vessels in lungs
82
What are blood transfusions?
Blood taken from donor is given to recipient
83
What led to the development of safer transfusion practices?
Discovery of surface markers or antigens on erythrocytes
84
What are antigens on erythrocytes responsible for?
Giving rise to different blood groups
85
What are the two groups of antigens particularly useful for clinical use?
* ABO blood group
* Rh blood group
86
What are the four ABO blood types?
* Type A
* Type B
* Type AB
* Type O
87
What is the Rh blood group based on?
Presence of Rh antigen (D antigen)
88
What blood type is considered the universal donor?
O−
89
What blood type is considered the universal recipient?
AB+
90
What happens during blood typing?
Antibodies bind to individual antigens on erythrocytes
91
What indicates that a specific antigen is present on erythrocytes during blood typing?
Agglutination
92
What are anti-A antibodies responsible for?
Binding and agglutinating A antigens
93
What is the consequence of a transfusion reaction?
Recipient antibodies bind to donor antigens, causing agglutination and destruction of donor erythrocytes
94
Fill in the blank: Anti-Rh antibodies are produced only if a person has been exposed to _____ antigens.
Rh+
95
What does the immune system do regarding self antigens?
Does not produce antibodies to self antigens
96
What type of antibodies are present in plasma if antigens are absent from erythrocytes?
Foreign antigens
97
What blood types can Sue, with type B− blood, safely receive?
* B−
* O−
98
What is the role of antibodies in blood matching?
To screen for compatibility prior to blood administration
99
True or False: Type O− blood can be given to any other blood type in an emergency.
True
100
What blood type can generally receive blood from any donor?
AB+
101
Where are central chemoreceptors located?
Located in the medulla oblongata of the brainstem.
102
What is the primary stimulus for central chemoreceptors?
Sensitive to changes in the partial pressure of carbon dioxide (PCO2) in the arterial blood.
103
How does an increase in PCO2 affect central chemoreceptors?
An increase in PCO2 leads to a decrease in CSF pH, stimulating the central chemoreceptors.
104
Where are peripheral chemoreceptors located?
Located in the carotid bodies and aortic bodies.
105
What is the primary stimulus for peripheral chemoreceptors?
Primarily sensitive to decreases in the partial pressure of oxygen (PO2) in the arterial blood.
106
How do peripheral chemoreceptors respond to increased PCO2?
They are sensitive to increases in PCO2, but their response is less significant than that of central chemoreceptors.
107
How do peripheral chemoreceptors respond to decreased PO2?
Primarily detected by the peripheral chemoreceptors, leading to an increase in ventilation.
108
How do central chemoreceptors respond to decreased PO2?
Not directly sensitive unless it is severe and causes a significant increase in lactic acid.
109
What happens to ventilation with increased PCO2?
Increased PCO2 strongly stimulates both central and peripheral chemoreceptors, leading to a significant increase in ventilation.
110
How do central chemoreceptors respond to decreased pH?
A decrease in pH in the CSF stimulates central chemoreceptors.
111
How do peripheral chemoreceptors respond to decreased pH?
A decrease in arterial blood pH directly stimulates peripheral chemoreceptors.
112
What is the effect of increased PO2 on peripheral chemoreceptors?
Primarily detected by peripheral chemoreceptors, leading to a decrease in their activity.
113
What happens to ventilation with increased PO2?
Increased PO2 inhibits the peripheral chemoreceptors, leading to a slight decrease in ventilation.
114
How do central chemoreceptors respond to increased pH?
An increase in pH in the CSF inhibits central chemoreceptors.
115
How do peripheral chemoreceptors respond to increased pH?
An increase in arterial blood pH directly inhibits peripheral chemoreceptors.
116
What happens to ventilation with increased pH?
Increased pH inhibits both central and peripheral chemoreceptors, leading to a decrease in ventilation.
117
How do central chemoreceptors respond to decreased PCO2?
A decrease in PCO2 leads to an increase in CSF pH, inhibiting central chemoreceptors.
118
How do peripheral chemoreceptors respond to decreased PCO2?
A decrease in arterial PCO2 also inhibits peripheral chemoreceptors.
119
What happens to ventilation with decreased PCO2?
Decreased PCO2 inhibits both central and peripheral chemoreceptors, leading to a decrease in ventilation.
