MQF-APR22 Flashcards by BIT FLV

A reduction in flaps UP climb performance of up to _____ may be observed with the defog ON and the PCL retarded to maintain the ITT within limits.

A. 10 %
B. 47 %
C. 50 %
D. 95 %

B. 47%

Reference: T.O. 1T-6A-1

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Aircraft performing a go-around will attain 1,500’ MSL and turn crosswind _____ past departure end. Offset aircraft that are not cleared closed or directed to turn crosswind by the RSU will proceed to ____ past departure end prior to turning crosswind.

A. ½ NM / ½ NM
B. 1 NM / 1 NM
C. ½ NM / 1 NM
D. 1 NM / ½ NM

D. 1 NM / ½ NM

Reference: AFI 11-2T-6v3 80 OG Sup

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Make all turns during entry and while holding at: (NAS only) ____ degrees per second, ____ degrees bank angle, or ____ degrees bank angle when using a flight director system.

A. 3, 30, 25
B. 3, 15, 30
C. 2, 15, 30
D. None of these

A. 3, 30, 25

Reference: AFMAN 11-202v3

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Engine bleed air is used for:

A. canopy seal, emergency gear extension, OBOGS
B. cockpit heating and defogging, OBOGS, anti-G system
C. ECS, anti-G system, fuel system pressurization
D. OBOGS, anti-G system, rain removal system

B. cockpit heating and defogging, OBOGS, anti-G system

D. Reference: T.O. 1T-6A-1

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To provide positive cockpit air ventilation and improved air quality, the RAM AIR FLOW switch should be placed in the NORM or HI position.

True
False

True

Reference: T.O. 1T-6A-1

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For entry to an uncontrolled airfield other than by an instrument approach, aircrews must maintain cloud clearances and visibility appropriate for their type of flight plan (IFR or VFR) and airspace. If an aircrew is approaching the airfield on an IFR clearance and not intending to fly an instrument approach, weather conditions must permit a VFR descent from the appropriate IFR enroute altitude.

True
False

True

Reference: AFI 11-2T-6v3

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You are planning to fly the Lawton Stereo route. When in the hammerhead, what is the correct radio call to Cooter on initial contact?

A. “Cooter, Blade XX, hammerhead X.”
B. “Cooter, Blade XX, hammerhead X, IFR to Lawton.”
C. “Cooter, Blade XX, hammerhead X, Lawton Stereo.”
D. “Cooter, Blade XX, hammerhead X, ready for departure.”

C. “Cooter, Blade XX, hammerhead X, Lawton Stereo.”

Reference: AFMAN 11-2T-6v3 80 OG Sup

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An intersection takeoff must provide at least ____ of usable runway:

A. 2500’
B. 3500’
C. 4000’
D. Not specified

C. 4000’

Reference: AFMAN 11-2T-6 Vol 3

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Once takeoff trim is set, the TAD will make no further trim inputs until:

A. the pilot moves the rudder out of trim
B. the aircraft accelerates to at least 80 KIAS
C. there is no weight on the wheels
D. b and c above
E. all of the above

D. b and c above

E. Reference: T.O. 1T-6A-1

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Most blown tires occur prior to tire spin-up or below ____. Holding excessive brake pressure as the aircraft slows below ____ may result in locking the brakes and blown tires.

A. 80 knots//40 knots
B. 60 knots//40 knots
C. 80 knots//20 knots
D. 40 knots//20 knots

D. 40 knots//20 knots

Reference: T.O. 1T-6A-1

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Practice slow flight using the Flaps UP configuration and ____ knots.

A. 80-85
B. 85-90
C. 90-95
D. 95-100

C. 90-95

Reference: AETCMAN 11-248

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Aircrews should use TO or UP flap settings for full-stop and touch-and-go landings when the crosswind (steady state or gust) exceeds ____ knots.

A. 5
B. 10
C. 13
D. 15

B. 10

Reference: AFMAN 11-2T-6 Vol 3

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After cancellation of IFR, aircraft conducting ELPs at Chattanooga will squawk .

A. 4000
B. Normal (42xx)
C. 1200
D. 0377

A. 4000

Reference: AFI 11-2T-6v3 80 OG Sup

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Emergency flap operation is available when the auxiliary battery is the only source of electrical power.

True
False

False
Reference: T.O. 1T-6A-1

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If Instrument Approach Currency is lost, pilots will:

A. Fly VFR only
B. Not fly instrument approaches
C. Stay VMC if flying IFR
D. Not fly instrument approached lower than 1,500’/3SM

B. Not fly instrument approaches

D. Reference: AFMAN 11-2T-6 Vol 1

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All of the following may be flown at an uncontrolled airfield except ____ .

A. overhead patterns
B. instrument approaches
C. ELPs
D. rectangular patterns (as depicted in FAA AIM)
E. all of the above may be flown

E. all of the above may be flown

Reference: AFMAN 11-2T-6 Vol 3

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When flying a Reverse LL route T-6’s will terminate the route no later than ____ prior to Waurika Bridge.

A. 10 NM
B. 15 NM
C. 20 NM
D. 25 NM

A. 10 NM

Reference: AFI 11-2T-6v3 80 OG Sup

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The minimum T-6 emergency runway length is:

A. 2500 Ft
B. 3000 Ft
C. 4000 Ft
D. Not specified

D. Not specified

Reference: AFI 11-2T-6v3

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ATC issues speed adjustments to pilots of radar-controlled aircraft to achieve or maintain required or desired spacing. Speed adjustments are indicated airspeed expressed in ____ increments. Pilots complying with speed adjustments must maintain a speed within ____ of the specified speed:

A. 5 knots//+/- 5 knots
B. 10 knots//+/- 10 knots
C. 1 knot//+/- 1 knot
D. 5 knots//+/- 10 knots

B. 10 knots//+/- 10 knots

Reference: AFMAN 11-202v3

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Minimum altitude to fly extended trail, aerobatics, stalls, or slow flight is ____ .

A. 5,000’ AGL
B. 6,000’ AGL
C. 6,000’ MSL
D. Not specified

B. 6,000’ AGL

Reference: AFMAN 11-2T-6 Vol 3

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When a conflict develops between an aircraft in the final turn and straight-in traffic, the final turn aircraft should immediately go around and offset. The straight-in should only maneuver to preserve safety of flight.

True
False

True

Reference: AFI 11-2T-6v3 80 OG Sup

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During a high fuel flow situation (above 799 PPH) you should execute a PEL. Reducing power with ITT within limits could result in engine flameout.

True False

True

Reference: T.O. 1T-6A-1

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A visual reference for proper no-wind spacing (0.7 to 1.0 NM) on inside downwind (Flaps TO), is approximately when the landing runway is placed half way between the ____ and the ____ .

A. fuel filler cap, white/blue color change
B. fuel filler cap, wingtip
C. mid-point of wing, wingtip
D. AOA vane, wingtip

B. fuel filler cap, wingtip

Reference: AETCMAN 11-248

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During some nose-high, low airspeed situations, when the aircraft responds to inputs slowly due to low airspeed or torque effect, a reduction in power may be required (usually below ____ ) and all available control authority may be required to smoothly return the aircraft to level flight.

A. MAX
B. 70% torque
C. 60% torque
D. 45% torque

C. 60% torque

Reference: AETCMAN 11-248

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25. A course reversal (procedure turn or holding in lieu of procedure turn) is not permitted in the following situations: A. ATC gives you clearance for a "straight-in" approach B. ATC provides radar vectors to the final approach fix C. ATC clears you for a timed approach from a holding fix D. You are flying the approach via "No PT routing" E. All of the above

E. All of the above Reference: AFMAN 11-202v3

26. The glide slope is normally usable to the distance of ____. A. 5 B. 7 C. 10 D. 18 E. none of the above

C. 10 Reference: AIM

27. Below ____, preheating of the engine is recommended prior to engine start: A. 0 deg C B. -10 deg C C. -19 deg C D. -29 deg C

D. -29 deg C Reference: T.O. 1T-6A-1

28. The manual override (MOR) handle on the ejection seat is provided to initiate seat/pilot separation if the automatic system fails or if seat/pilot separation is desired above: A. 15,000 AGL B. 14,000 MSL C. 14,000 AGL D. 20,000 MSL

B. 14,000 MSL Reference: T.O. 1T-6A-1

29. For a formation abandon approach follow the re-entry ground track depicted in the IFG. Lead will place the wingman on the outside of the re-entry turn and normally clear the wingman off after crossing the re-entry bins, make a re-entry call, climb to 2,000’ MSL and proceed to the bins. Wingman will delay 5 seconds, make the re-entry call, climb to 2,000’ MSL and proceed to the reentry bins. True False

True Reference: AFMAN 11-2T-6v3 80 OG Sup

30. The maximum number of aircraft allowed in Hackers’s Pattern is ___ . A. 6 B. 8 C. 10 D. 13

B. 8 Reference: AFMAN 11-2T-6v3 80 OG Sup

31. An aircraft is considered to be established on-course during RNAV and RNP operations any time it is within: A. 3 NM B. 1 times the required accuracy for the segment being flown C. The accuracy requested by ATC D. The accuracy required by the given airspace category

B. 1 times the required accuracy for the segment being flown Reference: AIM

32. The KLN 900 GPS will indicate when a ____ will produce a tangent intercept with the next course leg of the flightplan. The waypoint identifier will begin flashing 20 seconds prior to turn anticipation. A. standard rate turn B. standard rate turn up to 25 deg bank C. standard rate turn up to 30 deg bank D. 30 deg bank turn

B. standard rate turn up to 25 deg bank Reference: T.O. 1T-6A-1

33. If the CDI is deflected exactly 2 dots in the GPS EN ROUTE mode how many degrees (NM?) are you off course? A. 0.3 NM B. 1 NM C. 5 NM D. 10 NM

C. 5 NM Reference: T.O. 1T-6A-1

34. Low Close-in Obstacles are obstacles that require a climb gradient greater than 200 feet per nautical mile for a very short distance, only until the aircraft is ____ feet above the DER A. 200 B. 400 C. 500 D. 1000

A. 200 Reference: AFMAN 11-202v3

35. Approximately ____ feet of altitude will be lost during an airstart attempt performed at the best glide speed of 125 KIAS. Approximately ____ seconds will be required to complete the starting sequence. A. 1350, 30 B. 1200, 60 C. 1200, 40 D. 1000, 40

C. 1200, 40 Reference: T.O. 1T-6A-1

36. Planned formation low approaches will go around ____ . A. at or above 300 feet AGL B. At 100 ft AGL at any time C. no lower than 300 ft AGL D. are not allowed

A. at or above 300 feet AG Reference: AFMAN 11-2T-6v3

37. Pre-solo student pilots, solo students, and pre-initial qualification (IQ) check PIT trainees will carry T.O. 1T-6A-1CL-1 during the exterior inspection. True False

True Reference: AFMAN 11-2T-6v3 80 OG Sup

38. Formation wing take-offs are prohibited when the weather is less than ____ foot ceiling and ____ miles visibility or circling minimums, whichever is higher. A. 500 // 1 ½ B. 500 // 1 C. 200 // ½ D. 1500 // 3

A. 500 // 1 ½ Reference: AFI 11-2T-6v3

39. What is the operating limit for torque on the ground with NP stabilized and the PCL at IDLE? A. 0-2% B. 1-10% C. 4-6% D. 3-8%

B. 1-10% Reference: T.O. 1T-6A-1

40. When testing the cockpit lamps using the lamp test switch, the landing gear control handle and gear lights are illuminated only in the cockpit that activates the lamp test switch. True False

True Reference: T.O. 1T-6A-1

41. What is the correct phraseology when initiating an OPS check? A. Ops check, 1, 800 pounds, 4.5 Gs B. Viking, ops check, 1, 800, 4.5 Gs C. Viking, ops check, 1, 800 pounds, 4.5Gs D. Viking, ops check, 1, 800, 4.5

B. Viking, ops check, 1, 800, 4.5 Gs Reference: 80 OG T-6 Flying Standards

42. What does the term “Sweep ATIS” mean? A. All flight members will listen to one cycle of ATIS on Prime unless briefed/directed otherwise B. All flight members will listen to one cycle of ATIS on Aux unless briefed/directed otherwise C. All flight members will listen to one cycle of ATIS, either Prime or Aux D. Wingman only will listen to ATIS and report back up on Aux with the information

A. All flight members will listen to one cycle of ATIS on Prime unless briefed/directed otherwise Reference: 80 OG T-6 Flying Standards

43. If you are on the return leg of an out & back, you can use the AETC waiver 2015-5 to lower your weather requiring an alternate to 1,500 ft and 3 sm visibility since you will be landing at home station. True False

False Reference: AFMAN 11-202v3

44. If an IMC route abort takes place during low-level and the wingman is not rejoined prior to entering the weather, the wingman will climb to ____ feet above Emergency Route Abort Altitude (ERAA) and lead will climb to ERAA. A. 500 B. 1,000 C. 1,500 D. 2,000

B. 1,000 Reference: 80 OG T-6 Flying Standards

45. The standard recovery for a simple NORDO recovery in formation during VMC is: A. the overhead pattern B. a straight-in C. an ILS approach D. none of the above

A. the overhead pattern Reference: 80 OG T-6 Flying Standards

46. Students/trainees will verbalize fuel state in relation to Joker/Bingo during ops checks to their IPs inter-cockpit True False

True Reference: 80 OG T-6 Flying Standards

47. As AOA approaches stall angle (approximately ____ units on the gage), the AOA computer activates the ____, (15-16 units) providing stall warning. A. 10, spoilers B. 18, speed brake C. 10, pitch limiter D. 18, stick shaker

D. 18, stick shaker Reference: T.O. 1T-6A-1

48. Power for the engine/systems display (ENG SYS DIS) is provided through the bus. A. battery B. generator C. aux battery D. AC

B. generator Reference: T.O. 1T-6A-1

49. If power to the flap control circuit is lost (e.g. loss of power to the battery bus, or the FLAP CONT circuit breaker has opened): A. The flaps will retract to the UP position B. Flap indication will be unreliable C. The flaps will remain in the last selected position D. Both A & B E. Both B & C

D. Both A & B Reference: T.O. 1T-6A-1

50. If the auto fuel balance system shuts off without reducing the fuel imbalance to ____ pounds or less, the auto balance system may be reset to provide an additional ____ minutes to balance the fuel load. A. 50, 3 B. 30, 3 C. 30, 2 D. 20, 3

C. 30, 2 Reference: T.O. 1T-6A-1

51. The potential for lightning strikes increases near the ____. A. ground B. mountains C. troposhpere D. freezing level

D. freezing level Reference: T.O. 1T-6A-1

52. Once takeoff trim is set, the TAD will make no further trim inputs until: A. the pilot moves the rudder out of trim B. the aircraft accelerates to at least 80 KIAS C. there is no weight on the wheels D. b and c above E. all of the above

D. b and c above Reference: T.O. 1T-6A-1

53. The potential for an icing encounter exists anytime the aircraft is operated in visible moisture at outside air temperatures of ___ and below. A. 0 °C B. 5 °C C. 7 °C D. 32 °C

B. 5 °C Reference: T.O. 1T-6A-1

54. When the engine has been exposed to cold temperatures on the ground, the OIL PX warning annunciator may illuminate after initially extinguishing during the start sequence. The oil pressure should be in an acceptable range within____. A. 2 minutes B. 10 minutes C. 30 seconds D. 5 minutes

A. 2 minutes Reference: T.O. 1T-6A-1

55. When operating in low temperature conditions, the OBOGS system may yield indications it is inoperative. Allowing the aircraft time to warm up following engine start may resolve the malfunction and the OBOGS may resume normal operation. Aircrews must make sure ____ of continued OBOGS use without an OBOGS failure prior to takeoff to ensure BIT check is completed. A. 1 minute B. 2 minute C. 3 minute D. 4 minute

D. 4 minute Reference: T.O. 1T-6A-1

56. Maneuvers with ice accumulation are restricted to 45 degrees of bank and 0-2G’s normal acceleration, up to stall warning system activation. True False

False Reference: T.O. 1T-6A-1

57. Pilots flying pressurized aircraft operations will maintain a cabin altitude below ____ feet. A. 18,000 B. 25,000 C. 41,000 D. 10,000

D. 10,000 Reference: AFMAN 11-202v3

58. Do not depart IFR unless the weather conditions at the destination, from 1 hour before to 1 hour after the estimated time of arrival (ETA), is forecast to be: A. 500ft and 1sm above the lowest compatible published approach minimums to include TEMP conditions B. At or above the lowest compatible published approach minimums to exclude TEMPO conditions C. 1000ft and 1sm above the lowest compatible published approach minimums to include TEMPO conditions D. 100ft and 1sm above the lowest compatible published approach minimums to exclude TEMPO condition

B. At or above the lowest compatible published approach minimums to exclude TEMPO conditions Reference: AFMAN 11-202v3

59. When selecting an alternate, do not include TEMPO conditions caused by all of the following except: A. Thunderstorms B. Rain Showers C. Fog D. Snow Showers

C. Fog Reference: AFMAN 11-202v3

60. You can fly day VMC local without Trim aid device (TAD) provided the aircrew is: A. Dual B. Solo C. Rated Pilot Solo D. All of the above E. None of the above

E. None of the above Reference: AFMAN 11-2T-6 Vol

61. Night Non-precision Approaches. At airfields other than home station, aircrews require glidepath (visual or instrument) guidance to descent below minimum descent altitude on a non- precision approach. Performing practice approaches at facilities without glidepath guidance is authorized, however, aircrews will not descend below minimum descent altitude. True False

True Reference: AFI 11-2T-6v3

62. Maintain a taxi interval of ____ feet when staggered and ____ feet when in trail. A. 60,150 B. 150,300 C. 100,200 D. 75,150

D. 75,150 Reference: AFI 11-2T-6v3

63. For towers on or near the low level route, aircrews will plan to fly a minimum of 500 feet above the highest obstacle within 2 nm of the aircraft until acquired visually. Once the obstacle is acquired visually and positively identified, aircrew will maintain 2,000- foot lateral clearance. True False

True Reference: AFMAN 11-2T-6 Vol 3

64. While being radar vectored for an approach, ATC clears you for the approach, but you are below a published altitude restriction. You must: A. Climb to comply with the published altitude restriction. B. Maintain the last assigned altitude until established on a segment of the published instrument procedure. C. Terminate the current approach and request new vectors. D. None of the above

B. Maintain the last assigned altitude until established on a segment of the published instrument procedure. Reference: AFMAN 11-202v3

65. The manual override (MOR) handle on the ejection seat is provided to initiate seat/pilot separation if the automatic system fails or if seat/pilot separation is desired above: A. 15,000 AGL B. 14,000 MSL C. 14,000 AGL D. 20,000 MSL

B. 14,000 MSL Reference: T.O. 1T-6A-1

66. Aircraft departing under RSU control must maintain VFR until RAPCON assumes responsibility for traffic separation by issuing an IFR clearance to “Climb and maintain (altitude)” or a clearance for a stereo/area.The phrase “radar contact” alone does not constitute an IFR clearance. True False

True Reference: AFI 11-2T-6v3

67. For a Weather Recall recover at ____ KIAS to the nearest radar drop-off/VFR entry point or ____ KIAS to RWY 18/36 or an instrument approach. A. 200,200 B. 200,250 C. 250,200 D. 250,250

C. 250,200 Reference: AFMAN 11-2T-6v3 80 OG Sup

68. Set ____ on the GPS for it to provide usable information during a Total AHRS failure. A. TK UP B. N UP C. DTK UP D. HDG UP

A. TK UP Reference: IFG

69. Which of the following types of airspace do you need an ATC clearance to enter? A. Class A B. Class B C. Class C D. All of the above E. Only A and B

E. Only A and B Reference: AFMAN 11-202v3

70. The EADI is on the ____ Bus. The EHSI is on the ____ Bus. A. Right Console Battery//Left Console Generator B. Right Console Generator//Left Console Battery C. Left Console Battery//Right Console Generator D. Left Console Generator//Right Console Battery

C. Left Console Battery//Right Console Generator D. Reference: T.O. 1T-6A-1

71. Alternate means of navigation refers to using a suitable RNAV system in lieu of operational conventional NAVAIDS without monitoring those NAVAIDs. True False

True Reference: AFMAN 11-202v3

72. The minimum turn altitude after an IFR takeoff is 400 feet above the departure end of the runway elevation unless: A. Required by a published procedure B. VMC C. Required by ATC D. A or C E. All of the above

D. A or C Reference: AFMAN 11-202v3

73. Torque at ____ is a materials limit above which damage to the engine may occur. A. 102% B. 106% C. 110% D. 132%

D. 132% Reference: T.O. 1T-6A-1

74. The airstart envelope is 125 - ____ up to 15,000’ MSL or 135 - ____ above 15,000’ MSL. A. 185 KIAS//200 KIAS B. 200 KIAS//200 KIAS C. 250 KIAS//250 KIAS D. 316 KIAS//316 KIAS

B. 200 KIAS//200 KIAS Reference: T.O. 1T-6A-1

75. Generator inflight limits are: A. 0 to +50 amps B. -50 to +50 amps C. +5 to +20 amps D. -2 to +50 amps

D. -2 to +50 amps Reference: T.O. 1T-6A-1

76. After the RMU powers up and displays the main operating page, allow approximately ____ seconds before setting the RMU to ensure the RMU in the other cockpit has completed the BIT. Failure to do so will result in active frequencies (or codes) being displayed as dashes (----). A. 5 B. 10 C. 20 D. 30

B. 10 Reference: T.O. 1T-6A-1

77. When correcting back to the arc, displace the bearing pointer ____ degrees from the reference point for each 1/2 mile deviation to the inside of the arc and ____ degrees for each 1/2 mile outside the arc. A. 10, 5 B. 10, 15 C. 10, 20 D. 5, 15

C. 10, 20 Reference: FAA-H-8083-15B, Instrument Flying Handbook, chapter 9

78. If the temperature in the OBOGS ducting exceeds ____, the amber OBOGS TEMP annunciator will illuminate? A. 200 deg F B. 250 deg F C. 300 deg F D. 350 deg F

A. 200 deg F Reference: T.O. 1T-6A-1

79. Accomplish a G-awareness exercise on sorties that include maneuvers that require or may result in 3 or more G’s. True False

True Reference: AETCMAN 11-248

80. If the AUX BAT light does not illuminate during the ground test, the auxiliary battery is at less than capacity. A. 100% B. 75% C. 50% D. 25%

C. 50% Reference: T.O. 1T-6A-1

81. If you are experiencing rudder binding/jamming you should first run the CONTROLLABILITY CHECK (STRUCTURAL DAMAGE/FLIGHT CONTROL MALFUNCTION) checklist on EG-21. True False

False Reference: T.O. 1T-6A-1

82. When moving the PCL forward past IDLE following an engine start, verify travel past IDLE by hearing two audible clicks as the PCL is moved forward. Improper position of the PCL short of the two audible clicks could result in inadvertent engine shutdown. True False

True Reference: T.O. 1T-6A-1

83. Natural stall warning, in the form of light aerodynamic buffet, occurs approximately ____ knots before the stall during unaccelerated, power-off stalls in all configurations. A. 2 B. 3 C. 5 D. 10

B. 3 Reference: T.O. 1T-6A-1

84. Aircrew will ensure required inspections are current. The T-6A Preflight Inspection (PR) is valid for ____ hours. A. 48 B. 72 C. 24 D. 12

B. 72 Reference: AFI 11-2T-6v3

85. When a conflict develops between an aircraft in the final turn and straight-in traffic, the final turn aircraft should immediately go around and offset. The straight-in should only maneuver to preserve safety of flight. True False

True Reference: AFMAN 11-2T-6v3 80 OG Sup

86. Target touchdown speed for a flaps UP landing is ____ KIAS. A. 80 B. 85 C. 90 D. 95

C. 90 Reference: AETCMAN 11-248

87. The airspeed range for landing with flaps set to TO is ____ KIAS. A. 75 to 90 B. 80 to 95 C. 85 to 100 D. 75 to 100

B. 80 to 95 Reference: AETCMAN 11-248

88. For a formation abandon approach follow the re-entry ground track depicted in the IFG. Lead will place the wingman on the outside of the re-entry turn and normally clear the wingman off after crossing the re-entry bins, make a re-entry call, climb to 2,000’ MSL and proceed to the bins. Wingman will delay 5 seconds, make the re-entry call, climb to 2,000’ MSL and proceed to the reentry bins. True False

True Reference: AFI 11-2T-6v3 80 OG SUP

89. Best glide speed with the landing gear down and flaps and speed brake retracted i ____ kts. Expect a sink rate of appx ____ fpm. A. 120 // 1500 B. 105 // 1500 C. 125 // 1850 D. 120 // 1850

B. 105 // 1500 Reference: T.O. 1T-6A-1

90. When utilizing the ORM 3-2-1 methodology, the point to be gear down is ____ AGL. A. 2,000 B. 300 C. 200 D. 100

C. 200 Reference: AETCMAN 11-248

91. With the prop feathered or set with 4-6% torque, ten knots of extra airspeed can be traded for approximately____ feet of increased altitude. A. 50 B. 100 C. 200 D. 400

B. 100 Reference: AETCMAN 11-248

92. When performing contact recoveries, the ENJJPT syllabus specifies a minimum pitch attitude of ____ degrees for a nose-high, and an attitude of at least ____ degrees nose low for nose-low recoveries. A. 30//30 B. 45//45 C. 60//45 D. 45//30

D. 45//30 Reference: AETC/ENJJPT Syllabus

93. How will landing gear, flaps and speed brake affect stall characteristics? Extending the landing gear will have ____ effect, extending the flaps will have ____ effect and extending the speed brake will have ____ effect. A. little//little//major B. little//major//major C. major//little//little D. little//major//little

D. little//major//little Reference: T.O. 1T-6A-1

94. According the split-s procedure, what speed should you be at in straight-and-level flight prior to initiating the maneuver. A. 160-180 KIAS B. 120-140 KIAS C. 130-150 KIAS D. Not specified

A. 160-180 KIAS Reference: AETCMAN 11-248

95. When issued a restricted low approach by Tower on Runway 15/33C, aircrew will not descend below the altitude issued by the Tower controller. If the altitude is not specified, do not descend below ____ A. 1,500’ MSL B. 1,600’ MSL C. 1,400’ MSL D. 1,800’ MSL

B. 1,600’ MSL Reference: AFI 11-2T-6v3 80 OG Sup

96. The objective of an Aileron Roll is: A. A 360-degree roll B. A 360-degree roll with a constant roll rate C. A 360-degree roll starting and finishing with the same altitude and airspeed D. A 360-degree roll adjusting the roll rate as required to pass the horizon inverted

B. A 360-degree roll with a constant roll rate D. Reference: AETCMAN 11-248

97. When Tower is controlling the pattern, Reduced Same Runway Separation may be applied to similar type aircraft operations. Required spacing when doing a Day Full Stop Landing/Touch & Go is 3,000’ behind another T-6 doing Full Stop, Low Approach or Touch & Go True False

True Reference: SAFBI 13-204

98. On initial takeoff or touch-and-go, with Tower controlling, when remaining in the pattern. What should you do if there is a conflict preventing you from requesting closed? A. “Call Sign, request initial” – if crosswind, outside downwind and initial is desired. B. “Call Sign, request straight-in” – if crosswind, outside downwind and straight-in is desired. C. Turn crosswind and continue to outside downwind and initial as with RSU. No clearance is required. If straight-in is desired, request this normally on outside downwind. D. Either A or B

D. Either A or B Reference: SAFBI 13-204

99. Touch-and-go landings are authorized during uncontrolled airfield operations at Frederick and Lawton. If touch-and-go landings are desired at these locations, aircrew will confirm with the Ops Sup that fire/crash recovery operations are available. The first aircraft at the uncontrolled/nontowered (NTA) airfield will fly a low approach to ensure the runway is clear. True False

True Reference: AFMAN 11-2T-6v3 80 OG Sup

100. If Tower denies the request (closed/straight-in/high key/low key), then aircraft will follow the normal pattern ground track and report initial unless directed otherwise by the Tower. True False

True Reference: SAFBI 13-204

101. If a start using external power is either aborted by the PMU, or manually aborted for a hot, hung, or no start, do not attempt subsequent starts. Motoring Run Procedure will still be performed. True False

True Reference: T.O. 1T-6A-1

102. What is the expected result of placing the audio control switch from NORM to ALTN? A. Intercom will not be heard B. Provides raw audio for UHF communications C. Provides raw audio for VHF communications D. A and B E. A and C

D. A and B Reference: T.O. 1T-6A-1

103. To provide positive cockpit air ventilation and improved air quality the RAM AIR FLOW switch should be placed in the . A. OFF B. NORM C. HI D. B or C

D. B or C Reference: T.O. 1T-6A-1

104. The horizon line may be moved off screen in the case of excessive pitch attitude. However, the pitch marks will continue to provide accurate pitch information. If the pitch angle exceeds ____ or ____, or if the roll angle exceeds ____, only the attitude presentation remains on the EADI, and all other information is decluttered. A. -30 deg // +20 deg // 50 deg B. -20 deg // +20 deg // 75 deg C. -20 deg // +30 deg // 65 deg D. -30 deg // +30 deg // 90 deg

C. -20 deg // +30 deg // 65 deg Reference: T.O. 1T-6A-1

105. When departing VFR from an airport within Class B airspace ____. A. no prior coordination is required with ATC B. obtain a VFR clearance from clearance delivery or ATC C. squawk 1200 and clear vigilantly until leaving the Class B airspace D. AETC aircraft are not allowed to depart VFR from Class B airspace

B. obtain a VFR clearance from clearance delivery or ATC Reference: AIM

106. Prior to entering an active MOA, pilots must contact the controlling agency. True False

False Reference: AIM

107. Pilots must be in two way radio communication with ATC to enter Class C airspace, however a clearance is not required. True False

True Reference: AFMAN 11-202v3

108. Although the configuration of each Class C airspace area is individually tailored, the airspace usually consists of a ____ NM radius core surface area that extends from the surface up to ____ feet above the airport elevation, and a ____ NM radius shelf area that extends no lower than ____feet up to ____ feet above the airport elevation. A. 10 // 4,000 // 15 // 1,000 // 4,000 B. 5 // 4,000 // 10 // 1,200 // 4,000 C. 5 // 5,000 // 10 // 1,000 // 5,000 D. 10 // 7,500 // 15 // 800 // 7,500

B. 5 // 4,000 // 10 // 1,200 // 4,000 Reference: AIM

109. Aircrew will not fly if any alcohol was consumed within ____ hours prior to ____ or if impaired by alcohol or any other intoxicating substance, to include the effects or after-effects. A. 12; preflight ground duties B. 8; takeoff C. 12; takeoff D. 8; preflight ground duties

C. 12; takeoff Reference: AFMAN 11-202v3

110. When flying an ILS, if the aircraft is more than half-scale below or full scale above glideslope: A. Do not descend below localizer minimums B. You must discontinue the approach C. Descent may be continued to the DA if the glideslope is recaptured to within half-scale below or less than full scale above glideslope D. A or C E. None of the above

D. A or C E. Reference: AFMAN 11-202v3

111. If the standby attitude gyro off flag appears after the battery bus has failed, the indicator will continue to operate for at least ____ minutes. A. 5 B. 9 C. 15 D. 3

B. 9 Reference: T.O. 1T-6A-1

112. Applying ORM 3-2-1 guidance in a forced landing (FL) engine-out situation, pilots will not descend below the minimum controlled ejection altitude of 2,000’ AGL unless the aircraft is: A. On profile for the field of intended landing, with the runway in sight, and in a position to safely maneuver to land B. On profile, gear confirmed down, on centerline C. Descent checklist completed, on profile for intended landing field, runway in sight D. On profile for field of intended landing, runway OBS course set in GPS, and in a position to safely maneuver to land

A. On profile for the field of intended landing, with the runway in sight, and in a position to safely maneuver to land Reference: AETCMAN 11-248

113. In flight reporting. Aircrew will immediately reprot the following to the appropriate controlling agency: A. Hazardous weather conditions or wake turbulence B. volcanic activity C. Large concentrations of birds or wildlife on or near the airfield to the appropriate controlling agency D. Any other significant flight condition that may affect aviation safety E. All of the above

E. All of the above Reference: AFMAN 11-202v3

114. IFR Turns after Takeoff. The minimum turn altitude after takeoff is ____ feet above the DER elevation, unless required by a published procedure or ATC. A. 35 B. 200 C. 400 D. 1000 E. None of these

C. 400 Reference: AFMAN 11-202v3

115. The altimeter should indicate the surveyed elevation of the airport. If the indication is off by more than feet, the altimeter should be referred to maintenance for repair or recalibration. A. 50 B. 75 C. 100 D. 150

B. 75 Reference: FAA-H-8083-15B Instrument Flying Handbook, chapter 5

116. (NAS only) ATC is required to give aircraft at least ____ or the appropriate radar separation when taking off behind a HEAVY aircraft to mitigate wake turbulence. A. 30 seconds B. 1 minute C. 1 minute 30 seconds D. 2 minutes

D. 2 minutes Reference: AFMAN 11-202v3

117. When do you start your timing during a 45/180 Procedure Turn and for how long? A. Rolling out after the 45-degree turn and for 1 min 15 sec for CAT A & B B. Upon initiating the 45-degree turn and for 1 min 15 sec for CAT A & B C. Rolling out after the 45-degree turn and for 1 min for CAT A & B D. Upon initiating the 45-degree turn and for 1 min for CAT A & B

D. Upon initiating the 45-degree turn and for 1 min for CAT A & B Reference: AFMAN 11-202v3

118. Continuous Descent Final Approach (CDFA) is the preferred method that allows for flying the final approach segment of a non-precision approach as a continuous descent. This method harmonizes USAF flight operations with FAA, European Aviation Safety Agency and ICAO standards. True False

True Reference: AFMAN 11-202v3

119. (NAS only) When you are cleared for a contact approach, you are still operating under IFR. Do not cancel your IFR clearance when cleared for a contact approach. True False

True Reference: AFMAN 11-202v3

120. I can transition through clouds to go to the areas if moderate ice is forecasted in the FAMEF between 080/120 and the ceiling is OVC 090/100? True False

False Reference: T.O. 1T-6A-1

All flight crew members will be in place ___ minutes prior to brief time, and ready to brief on time. A. 5 B. 10 C. 15 D. 20

A. 5 minutes

The standard GPS setup post-flight is: A. Setup page 3, Surface "Hard" and minimum rwy length "4.000 feet" B. Setup page 3, Surface "Hard" and minimum rwy length "3.000 feet" C. Setup page 3, Surface "Hard" and minimum rwy length "3.500 feet" D. none of the above

A. Setup page 3, Surface "Hard" and minimum rwy length "4.000 feet"

Lead aircraft will squack for the formation throughout the entire sortie. Wingmen will set transponder to STBY. TRUE FALSE

TRUE

A G-suit will be worn on every sortie. TRUE FALSE

TRUE

MQF-APR22 Flashcards

(124 cards)