For CAS, if no abort code is briefed, the proper abort call is
ABORT, ABORT, ABORT
There are six elements in the call for fire: the observer identification, warning order, target location, ________, _________ and ___________.
target description, method of engagement and method of fire and control
The Night IR Brevity Term “STEADY” means:
Stop oscillation of IR pointer.
During a ________________ attack, the JTAC must visually acquire the attacking aircraft and the target for each attack.
Who is responsible for CAS employment?
All participants in CAS are responsible for the effective and safe planning and execution
Term used by a JTAC / FAC(A) during Type 1 and 2 control, granting weapons release clearance to an aircraft attacking a target(s).
The __________ is one of the most overlooked aspects of maneuver and fire support planning. It provides attendees the opportunity to visualize the battle, ensure total comprehension of the plan, promote responsiveness, and identify areas of confusion, friction or conflict that may have been overlooked.
An Immediate Air Support Request is:
A request that arises from situations that develop outside the planning stages of the joint air tasking cycle.
On Class B/C ranges who are authorized sources to ensure the target area is clear?
-FAC(A)/JTAC -Departing flight -Range personnel
Kill Box. A kill box is a three-dimensional area used to facilitate the integration of joint fires and airspace. The kill box is a _____ with an associated ____.
Synthetic Aperture Radar (SAR) is capable of detecting targets at a _____resolution at long range (80+ miles, depending on the sensor).
What capabilities does a FAC(A) provide the JTAC?
A. Terminal Attack Control (Type 1,2 and 3), Radio Relay and SEAD B. Reconnaissance, Indirect Fires Calls for Fire and target marking C. Asset coordination/deconfliction/integration and BDA
____________is an Army liaison provided by the Army component or force commander to the COMAFFOR for duties with the AOC or to the JFACC for duties in the JAOC based on the scenario.
The Battle Coordination Detachment (BCD)
The marking brevity term “NO JOY” means:
Aircrew does not have visual contact with TARGET/BANDIT.
CAS Mission Planning: Who studies the enemy, expects enemy COA, knows enemy surface to air threats and possible locations, weather and UAV information?
INTEL / S-2
What is the DANGER CLOSE distance (0.1 Pi) for a MK-82/BLU-111 Contact?
A(n) _____________ is a temporary corridor of defined dimensions recommended for use by fixed-wing aircraft that presents the minimum known hazards to low flying aircraft transiting the combat zone.
MRR (Minimum-Risk Route)
What is DANGER CLOSE (0.1% PI) for the AC-130 40mm?
Any headquarters can establish an informal ACA.
For ROTARY WING aircraft: High operating altitudes are:
Above 3,000 ft AGL
In addition to the AC-130 CFF, what are the mandatory brief items for the AC-130?
A. Detailed description of threats B. Markings of friendlies and Identifiable ground features C. Ground Commander’s willingness to accept “Danger Close”
If a Post Launch Abort (PLA) plan is developed who is the final approval authority?
____________ are measures employed to facilitate the efficient use of airspace to accomplish missions and simultaneously provide safeguards for friendly forces.
Airspace Coordinating Measures
Concerning an artillery call for fire, “At my command” is an example of _______________.
Method of fire and control
What is Restricted Operations Zone (ROZ)?
Airspace of defined dimensions created in response to specific operational situations or requirements within which the operation of one or more airspace user is restricted.
Video Downlink (VDL) Brevity Terms: SHADOW
Follow indicated target
A ____________ is a team provided by the JFSOCC that is attached to the JFACC to coordinate, deconflict, and integrate special operations air and surface operations with conventional air operations.
Special Operations Liaison Element (SOLE)
What Coordinated Attack type has acknowledged sectors?
LASER SAFETY: What is the OPTIMAL attack zone?
A 120 degree wedge whose apex is at the target and extends 60 degrees either side of the target-to-laser designator line
______ altitude bombing can be described as bombing with the height of release between 500 and 8,000 ft AGL.
Define a Time to Target (TTT)
Establishes a precise number of minutes and seconds that elapse between an established time hack and ordnance effect.
What is the size of the safety zone for laser operations?
30 degree cone
Concerning sensor tasking the term “OFFENSIVE” means, __________
lead and wingman A/C concentrate on the objective
The laser brevity terminology “TEN SECONDS” means:
Standby for LASER ON call in approximately 10 seconds.
Preplanned Joint Tactical Air Strike Requests are:
those CAS requirements foreseen early enough to be included in the first ATO distribution are submitted as preplanned Air Support Requests for CAS.
Video Downlink (VDL) Brevity Terms: CHECK FOCUS
Sensor image appears to be out of focus.
The Night IR Brevity Term “ROPE” means:
Circling an IR pointer around an aircraft to help the aircraft identify the friendly ground position.
Risk Estimate Distances (RED)
Allows the GFC to estimate the potential danger to friendly troops from the CAS attack.
The Game Plan, at a minimum, will contain what pieces of information?
Type of Control, Method of Attack
The LUU-2 is a parachute flare with a _________ minute burn time.
What is the DANGER CLOSE distance (0.1 PI) for a GBU-38v4?
The laser brevity term “CEASE LASER” means:
The marking brevity term “BLIND” means:
No visual contact with FRIENDLY aircraft/ground position.
IP’s normally should be at least _____ nautical miles from their target?
What is DANGER CLOSE (0.1% PI) for the AGM-114R?
The longer the distance the larger the (Laser Target Designator) Laser beam will be. What is this?
Define a Time on Target (TOT)
is a time at which the aircraft bombs are to impact the target and around which supporting surface fires can be coordinated.
True or False: Litening II and Sniper pod are both LST and LTD capable.
Video Downlink (VDL) Brevity Terms: ZOOM (IN/OUT)
Increase/decrease the sensor’s focal length.
What is DANGER CLOSE (0.1% Pi) for the AC-130 25mm?
CAS aircraft are not required to achieve tally/capture the target when conducting _____ attacks.
Bomb on Coordinate
Who establishes Informal ACAs?
Informal ACAs can be established using separation plans and may be established by any GFC.
Free-Fire Area (FFA). An FFA is a specific designated area into which ___________ may fire ___________ with the establishing HQ. It is used to expedite joint fires and to facilitate emergency jettison of aircraft munitions.
. any weapon system / without additional coordination
What are the TWO types of CAS requests?
Immediate / Pre-planned
What is the DANGER CLOSE distance (0.1 PI) for a MK-84/BLU-117 Airburst?
During KEYHOLE CAS techniques where are the letters placed in reference to the target?
A = North / B = East / C = South / D = West / E = Target
_________________provides C2 of unit forces and ensures sorties are generated to accomplish CAS missions as directed by the ATO.
The Wing’s Operations Center (WOC)
When using IR pointers or lasers to mark, include “IR POINTER” or “LASER” in the marks portion of the CAS briefing. JTACs should provide the Pointer-Target-Line or Laser-Target-Line also known as the designator-Target-Line in degrees magnetic from the operator to the target.
If non-LEP equipped personnel are in the area to be designated and you are unable to ensure the absence of personnel using image-magnifying devices (binoculars, telescopes, etc.) in the area to be designated, LITENING ATP IR pointer employment is restricted to what altitude?
This net provides an emergency distress net for aircraft. It further serves as a means for air control agencies to advise aircraft of emergency conditions or serious hazards to flight safety.
Concerning artillery/mortar/Naval gunfire, “Splash” means the rounds will impact in ______ seconds. It will be announced by the fire direction center (FDC).
Video Downlink (VDL) Brevity Terms: SLEW
. Move sensor in direction indicated (usually accompanied with a unit of measure).
LASER SAFETY: What is the safety zone?
A 20-degree wedge whose apex is at the target and extends 10 degrees either side of the target-todesignator line.
What is Coordinating Altitude?
An airspace coordinating measure that uses altitude to separate users and as the transition between different airspace coordinating entities..
What Coordinated Attack type will be separated by time or visual cues?
Video Downlink (VDL) Brevity Terms: SWITCH (CAMERA/POLARITY)
Switch the setting on the referenced item.
A Navy and Marine Corps section consists of how many aircraft?
Video Downlink (VDL) Brevity Terms: STAKE
A full motion video system mark has been set and is used as a frame of reference
The _______________ is a single mode JDAM LCDB with a BLU-129 bomb body.
This model of AGM-114 Hellfire is a multirole, programmable fuze, integrated blast fragmentation warhead with an internal tungsten sleeve; designed for structures, vehicles, and personnel.
In case of an aircraft crash during Class B and C range operations, ________will start the emergency actions?
-JTAC -FAC(A) -Flight lead
_________is the process of building and maintaining an overall picture of the operational environment that is accurate, timely, and relevant.
During laser operations, __________ or __________ should not be used as the sole source of target mark/verification.
LTM/IR pointers / laser sources
A _______ is a team provided by the JFSOCC that is attached to the JFACC to coordinate, deconflict, and integrate special operations air and surface operations with conventional air operations. The ________ is the focal point in the JAOC for all air support requests for SOF, to include CAS.
What is the DANGER CLOSE distance for Naval Gunfire?
Attacking aircraft must provide the JTAC with a “system readback” on all Bomb-on-Coordinate CAS employments, regardless of the ordnance being employed.
__________ separation requires the most detailed coordination and may be required when altitude restrictions from indirect fire trajectories adversely impact aircraft ordnance delivery (e.g., mortar trajectory).
Video Downlink (VDL) Brevity Terms: HOLLOW
Lost full motion video signal and/or data
For ROTARY WING aircraft: LOW operating altitudes are:
Below 500 ft AGL
The laser brevity term “SPOT” means:
Acquisition of laser designation.
What is an Air Tasking Order (ATO)?
The ATO contains the JFACC’s plan for providing the air support required in the OPLAN/OPORD.
Other Brevity Terms: CAPTURED
Specified surface target/object has been acquired and is being tracked with an onboard sensor.
A No-Fire Area (NFA), is a land area designated by the appropriate commander into which fires or their effects are prohibited. Name one of two exceptions where it IS authorized.
When an enemy force within the NFA engages a friendly force and the engaged commander determines there is a requirement for immediate protection and responds with the minimal force needed to defend the force.
Target Location Error (TLE) Category 1 is:
0-20 feet / 0-6 meters
CAS is air action by fixed-wing (FW) and rotary-wing (RW) aircraft against hostile targets that are_____________, and requires _______________ of each air mission with the fire and movement of those forces.
in close proximity to friendly forces / detailed integration
CAS aircraft are NOT required to be tally/capture the target when conducting _____ attacks.
Bomb on Coordinates (BOC)
The laser brevity term “NEGATIVE LASER” means:
Laser energy has not been acquired.
____________ is the result of motion of the laser designator around the intended aimpoint
In reference to RW CAS,____________________ may produce the most accurate results when employing unguided ordnance.
This control is used when the JTAC requires the ability to provide clearance for multiple attacks within a single engagement subject to specific attack restrictions.
The Target Location Error (TLE) for a PLRF-15C/DARG while wearing combat equipment for a target at 500m is?
The marking brevity term “CONTACT” means:
Acknowledges the sighting of a specified reference point (either visual or via sensor).
The JTAC selects an IP based on what?
Friendly location, Aircraft capabilities, Enemy capabilities, weather, Target orientation, and FSCMs requirements.
What is DANGER CLOSE (0.1% PI) for the AC-130 105mm?
What is the DANGER CLOSE distance (0.1 PI) for GAU-12, 25mm gun?
A _______ performs C2 or liaison functions according to mission requirements and is directed by the JFSOCC. Its level of authority and responsibility may vary widely. It is the C2 focal point for CAS requests for SOF units in support of a conventional joint or Service force.
___________ is used when the JTAC/FAC(A) determines that he can create the desired effects against that target with CAS aircraft and ordnance employing on a specified set of coordinates. The JTAC/FAC(A) does not need to delay the CAS attack in order to build CAS aircraft visual awareness to achieve tally/capture the target.
Bomb on Coordinates (BOC)
TROOPS IN CONTACT is:
A. When friendly ground forces receive effective fire – no matter the distance B. An advisory call to increase awareness and to highlight the urgency of the ground situation. C. Requires the supported ground commander to determine priority of CAS with respect to other mission impacts.
What is the DANGER CLOSE distance (0.1 PI) for a GBU-31 Contact?
Which mode of the AGM-65 is laser guided?
The laser brevity term “SHIFT (Direction)” means:
Shift laser/IR/radar/device energy/aimpoint.
Cloud cover and precipitation as well as battlefield conditions (smoke, dust, haze, and other obscurants) can seriously degrade laser effectiveness.
What document lists the minimum safe distances for ground parties in relation to the target/impact area during live fire training?
Following mandatory readback by the CAS asset, the JTAC/FAC(A) then grants a weapons release clearance (“CLEARED TO ENGAGE”).
When requesting Electronic Attack (EA), you must submit a JTAR/ASR(DD Form 1972) and what additional document that outlines specific effects requested?
EARF - Electronic Attack Request Form
Releasing above ________ft AGL, the FW aircraft on a level delivery may release ordnance as far away as ______ NM from the target.
The laser brevity term “LASING” means:
The speaker is firing the laser
Video Downlink (VDL) Brevity Terms: CHECK CAPTURE
Target appears to be no longer tracked by sensor.
Other Brevity Terms: CHATTERMARK
Begin using briefed radio procedures to counter communications jamming.
A flight by one aircraft is known as a __________.
Self-derived targeting requires that the aircrew is tally/contact/captured the JTAC/FAC(A)’s intended target or aim point. Coordinate accuracy and precision (to include TLE) are not as important as the JTAC’s/FAC(A)’s ability to aid CAS aircraft in gaining tally/capture.
Bomb on Target (BOT)
True or False: In the AC-130 CFF, the transmission of the fire mission is clearance for the aircraft to fire, unless DANGER CLOSE.
During laser operations, the best acquisition area is from _____ to _____ degrees on either side of the laser-to-target (LTL) line
During a __________________ attack, the JTAC requires control of individual attacks but is unable to visually acquire the attacking aircraft at weapons release and/or is unable to visually acquire the target.
Target Location Error (TLE) Category 2 is:
21-50 feet / 7-15 meters
The laser brevity terminology “DEADEYE” means:
Laser designator system is inoperative
______ flight is as close to the earth’s surface as vegetation and obstacles permit while following the earth’s contours. Terrain and vegetation provide cover and concealment from enemy observation and detection.
Nap of Earth (NOE)
For ROTARY WING aircraft: MEDIUM operating altitudes are:
500 TO 3,000 ft AGL
Term used by a JTAC / FAC(A) during Type 3 control, granting weapons release clearance to an aircraft or flight attacking a target or targets.
Cleared to Engage
Other Brevity Terms: WINCHESTER
No ordnance remaining
The Night IR Brevity Term “CEASE SPARKLE” means:
Discontinue IR pointer activity.
A ___________________ is a qualified and certified Service member who can request, adjust, and control surface-to-surface fires, provide targeting information in support of Type 2 and 3 CAS, and perform TGO in conjunction with a JTAC/FAC(A).
Joint Forward Observer (JFO)
(T/F) During a Type 1 control the Attacking A/C MUST be tally the intended target or contact the mark?
The night IR brevity term “PULSE” means:
Illuminate/illuminating a position with flashing IR energy.
During a 5-Line RW CAS brief, transmission of the brief is NOT clearance to fire
Conditions for effective close air support include:
All of the above
When adjusting fire during an AC-130 control, adjust from ______________.
Impact by cardinal direction (North, South, East, West) and range (meters) from impact to target
Coordinated Fire Line (CFL).
A line beyond which conventional, indirect, surface fire support means may create effects at any time within the boundaries of the establishing HQ without additional coordination.
While controlling fighter aircraft, transmit “KNOCK-IT-OFF” when safety of flight is a factor.
Video Downlink (VDL) Brevity Terms: HANDSHAKE
Full motion video signal and data operative.
During a ______________ attack, the JTAC must acquire the target visually or utilize targeting data from a scout, COLT, FIST, JFO, UAS, SOF, CAS aircrew, or other asset with accurate real-time targeting information.
Type 2 and Type 3
Joint Terminal Attack Controllers should select separation techniques that
-require the least coordination -do not adversely affect the ability to safely complete the mission
The JTAC/FAC(A) will confirm the laser code prior to CAS execution. The LTL should be passed during the ________________.
These are Surface to Air MANPAD missile threats?
SA-7, SA-14, SA-16, SA-18
What Coordinated Attack type will have simultaneous time on target/time to target?
CAS Mission Planning: Who provides intent, guidance on effects, where on the battlefield he wants those effects, triggers, guidelines on using CAS, approves TSTs, authorize ordnance, target priorities, and restrictions?
GFC / Team Leader
Target Marking. Providing _____________ target marks. Target marking builds ___________________, identifies specific targets in an array, reduces the possibility of _______________________, and facilitates terminal attack control.
timely and accurate / situational awareness / fratricide and collateral damage
What is the greatest inherent limitation for single mode GPS/INS weapons?
____________________ are those actions that provide electronic, mechanical, voice, or visual communications that provide approaching aircraft and/or weapons additional information regarding a specific target location.
Terminal Guidance Operations (TGO)
The laser brevity term “LASER ON” means:
Start/acknowledge laser designation
The Night IR Brevity Term “SNAKE” means:
Oscillate an IR pointer in a figure eight about a target.
The marking brevity term “TALLY” means:
Sighting of target, non-friendly aircraft, or enemy position.
What is the DANGER CLOSE distance for 105mm and 155mm (cannon) artillery?
The ________________ is an overt, aircraft delivered, parachute flare with an approximate burn time of 4 minutes. The ______________ is the near infrared model and has an approximate burn time of 7 minutes.
LUU-2 / LUU-19
The night IR brevity term “SPARKLE” means:
Mark/marking target with an infrared (IR) pointer. Can be initiated by JTAC or aircrew. Proper aircrew response is “CONTACT SPARKLE” or “NO JOY”.
Is the least desirable method of enabling a tally on the target.
CAS can support what kind of operations?
A. Shaping B. Close C. Joint Security Area
What is the DANGER CLOSE distance (0.1 PI) for AGM-176 II Contact?
______________separation is effective for coordinating fires against targets that are adequately separated from flight routes to ensure aircraft protection from the effects of friendly fires.
The primary objective of _____ is to allow friendly aircraft to operate in airspace defended by an enemy air defense system, including the target area and ingress/egress routes. _____ missions do not guarantee aircraft immunity from enemy air defenses.
Suppression of Enemy Air Defense (SEAD)
What are the two types of ACAs?
Formal and Informal
The laser brevity term “STARE” means:
Cue the laser spot search/tracker function on the specified laser code in relation to the specified reference point. Reference point may include the following: steerpoint, GEOREF, bearing and range or datalink point.
CAS Mission Planning: Who is responsible for artillery/mortars, knows overall concept of fires and how it will be utilized, knows the priority of fires, conducts SEAD, knows FSCMs or ACAs and initiates CAS requests?
JTAC / FSO
The marking brevity term “VISUAL” means:
Sighting of friendly aircraft or ground position
How many elements does the Artillery/Mortar call for fire have and in how many transmissions is it delivered.
6 / 3
_______ altitude tactics are flown above approximately 8,000 ft above ground level (AGL).
MEDIUM / HIGH
The JTAC MUST approve re-attacks after coordination with the ground force commander.
The Night IR Brevity Term “MATCH SPARKLE” means:
Overlay requested target designator type. Directive term for a second party to overlay an IR mark on an existing mark.
Typical IAM launch acceptability region, i.e., release points, can extend ______ nautical miles from the target.
6 – 12
CAS Mission Planning: A document that consists of four sections that derives from ATO. It gives your radio frequencies, code words and rules of engagements, airspace info, routing, coordination instructions, SCLs, authentication methods and RAMROD.
Special Instructions (SPINS)
What is the DANGER CLOSE distance (0.1 PI) for AGM-65 Maverick (All)?
Concerning DACAS brevity terms, what is a “HOOK”?
a data-link directive call to cue sensor to a described point.
Who establishes Formal ACAs?
The airspace control authority establishes formal ACAs at the request of the appropriate ground commander.
The purpose of the _____is to prevent fratricide and duplication of engagements by converging friendly forces.
Restrictive Fire Line (RFL)
Changes to TYPE OF CONTROL must be made prior to the “IN” call for Type 1 and 2 attacks and the commencing call for Type 3. If a Type change is required after these calls, then the JTAC should abort the attack and brief the aircraft.
This control requires control of individual attacks. While not required, if the tactical situation allows, the JTAC/FAC(A) should make every effort to visually acquire the aircraft and assess attack geometry under this control in order to provide an additional measure of safety, enhance SA, and be able to abort the attack if necessary.
The two basic types of Hellfire launch modes are lock on before launch (LOBL) and lock on after launch (LOAL).
The_________________Laser JDAM (LJDAM) is a multi-mode 500 lb bomb that includes guidance via GPS with coordinate refinement through laser updates.
What is the difference between Army Attack Aviation Procedures and a RW CAS 5-Line Brief?
Type of Control, MOA, Ordnance Requested
__________________ separation is effective for coordinating fires when aircraft remain above or below indirect fire trajectories and their effects.
All targeting data must be coordinated through the appropriate supported unit’s battle staff for approval. The JTAC/FAC(A) will monitor radio transmissions and other available digital information to maintain control of the engagement.
The Night IR Brevity Term “CONTACT SPARKLE” means:
Acknowledges sighting of sparkle.
_________ fixed wing attacks are flown above approximately 8,000 ft AGL.
Airspace Coordination Area (ACA) is a three-dimensional block of airspace in a target area, established by the appropriate ground commander, in which friendly aircraft are reasonably safe from friendly surface fires.
To get the AC-130 to fire closer than DANGER CLOSE distances, the ground commander must accept responsibility. __________ (with commander’s initials) must be stated on line five of the AC-130 Call for Fire.
Cleared Danger Close
For air-to-surface training, do not conduct simulated attacks against off-range or manned targets with internally/externally loaded live ordnance or externally loaded heavyweight inert ordnance.
Ordnance delivery inside the 0.1 percent Pi distance will be considered:
______ altitude bombing can be described as “bombing with the height of release over 15,000 ft AGL.”
A NATO FAC that is only NATO Combat Ready Day High and Night High qualified must be under the direct supervision of a US JTAC instructor to control air strikes in US CAS training.
What Coordinated Attack type has the same avenue of attack?
The most important ADVANTAGE of night and adverse weather CAS is ________________.
the limitation it imposes on enemy optically-directed AAA and optical/IR guided SAMs
The authority and responsibility for the expenditure of any ordnance on the battlefield rests with the
When creating Super Macro CAS products, the date of imagery (DOI) should be included
Video Downlink (VDL) Brevity Terms: SET
Overwatch aircraft is in position.
What is the DANGER CLOSE distance for 60mm, 81mm and 120mm mortars?
Target Location Error (TLE) Category 3 is:
51-100 feet / 16-30 meters
Danger close distances for friendly troops when firing artillery, mortars and/or naval surface fire can be found in what document?
AFTTP(I) 3-2.6, JFIRE
CAS Mission Planning: Who knows the plan/mission, friendly COA, locations of friendly positions and provides No Target Hit List?
Team Leader/Sgt / S-3
Battle Damage Assessment should include:
Size and Activity Location and Time Remarks
If conditions preclude briefing BDA, at a minimum pass “SUCCESSFUL,” “UNSUCCESSFUL,” or “UNKNOWN” assessment to the aircraft and controlling agency.