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Flashcards in MQT MQF Deck (200):
1

For CAS, if no abort code is briefed, the proper abort call is

ABORT, ABORT, ABORT

2

There are six elements in the call for fire: the observer identification, warning order, target location, ________, _________ and ___________.

target description, method of engagement and method of fire and control

3

The Night IR Brevity Term “STEADY” means:

Stop oscillation of IR pointer.

4

During a ________________ attack, the JTAC must visually acquire the attacking aircraft and the target for each attack.

Type 1

5

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SA-12

6

Who is responsible for CAS employment?

All participants in CAS are responsible for the effective and safe planning and execution

7

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SA-15

8

Term used by a JTAC / FAC(A) during Type 1 and 2 control, granting weapons release clearance to an aircraft attacking a target(s).

Cleared Hot

9

The __________ is one of the most overlooked aspects of maneuver and fire support planning. It provides attendees the opportunity to visualize the battle, ensure total comprehension of the plan, promote responsiveness, and identify areas of confusion, friction or conflict that may have been overlooked.

Rehearsal

10

An Immediate Air Support Request is:

A request that arises from situations that develop outside the planning stages of the joint air tasking cycle.

11

On Class B/C ranges who are authorized sources to ensure the target area is clear?

-FAC(A)/JTAC -Departing flight -Range personnel

12

Kill Box. A kill box is a three-dimensional area used to facilitate the integration of joint fires and airspace. The kill box is a _____ with an associated ____.

FSCM/ACM

13

Synthetic Aperture Radar (SAR) is capable of detecting targets at a _____resolution at long range (80+ miles, depending on the sensor).

8.5 meters

14

What capabilities does a FAC(A) provide the JTAC?

A. Terminal Attack Control (Type 1,2 and 3), Radio Relay and SEAD B. Reconnaissance, Indirect Fires Calls for Fire and target marking C. Asset coordination/deconfliction/integration and BDA

15

____________is an Army liaison provided by the Army component or force commander to the COMAFFOR for duties with the AOC or to the JFACC for duties in the JAOC based on the scenario.

The Battle Coordination Detachment (BCD)

16

The marking brevity term “NO JOY” means:

Aircrew does not have visual contact with TARGET/BANDIT.

17

CAS Mission Planning: Who studies the enemy, expects enemy COA, knows enemy surface to air threats and possible locations, weather and UAV information?

INTEL / S-2

18

What is the DANGER CLOSE distance (0.1 Pi) for a MK-82/BLU-111 Contact?

305 m

19

A(n) _____________ is a temporary corridor of defined dimensions recommended for use by fixed-wing aircraft that presents the minimum known hazards to low flying aircraft transiting the combat zone.

MRR (Minimum-Risk Route)

20

What is DANGER CLOSE (0.1% PI) for the AC-130 40mm?

95 meters

21

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2S6

22

Any headquarters can establish an informal ACA.

True

23

For ROTARY WING aircraft: High operating altitudes are:

Above 3,000 ft AGL

24

In addition to the AC-130 CFF, what are the mandatory brief items for the AC-130?

A. Detailed description of threats B. Markings of friendlies and Identifiable ground features C. Ground Commander’s willingness to accept “Danger Close”

25

If a Post Launch Abort (PLA) plan is developed who is the final approval authority?

Supported Commander

26

____________ are measures employed to facilitate the efficient use of airspace to accomplish missions and simultaneously provide safeguards for friendly forces.

Airspace Coordinating Measures

27

Concerning an artillery call for fire, “At my command” is an example of _______________.

Method of fire and control

28

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SA-20

29

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SA-6

30

What is Restricted Operations Zone (ROZ)?

Airspace of defined dimensions created in response to specific operational situations or requirements within which the operation of one or more airspace user is restricted.

31

Video Downlink (VDL) Brevity Terms: SHADOW

Follow indicated target

32

A ____________ is a team provided by the JFSOCC that is attached to the JFACC to coordinate, deconflict, and integrate special operations air and surface operations with conventional air operations.

Special Operations Liaison Element (SOLE)

33

What Coordinated Attack type has acknowledged sectors?

Sectored

34

LASER SAFETY: What is the OPTIMAL attack zone?

A 120 degree wedge whose apex is at the target and extends 60 degrees either side of the target-to-laser designator line

35

______ altitude bombing can be described as bombing with the height of release between 500 and 8,000 ft AGL.

LOW

36

Define a Time to Target (TTT)

Establishes a precise number of minutes and seconds that elapse between an established time hack and ordnance effect.

37

What is the size of the safety zone for laser operations?

30 degree cone

38

Concerning sensor tasking the term “OFFENSIVE” means, __________

lead and wingman A/C concentrate on the objective

39

The laser brevity terminology “TEN SECONDS” means:

Standby for LASER ON call in approximately 10 seconds.

40

Preplanned Joint Tactical Air Strike Requests are:

those CAS requirements foreseen early enough to be included in the first ATO distribution are submitted as preplanned Air Support Requests for CAS.

41

Video Downlink (VDL) Brevity Terms: CHECK FOCUS

Sensor image appears to be out of focus.

42

The Night IR Brevity Term “ROPE” means:

Circling an IR pointer around an aircraft to help the aircraft identify the friendly ground position.

43

Risk Estimate Distances (RED)

Allows the GFC to estimate the potential danger to friendly troops from the CAS attack.

44

The Game Plan, at a minimum, will contain what pieces of information?

Type of Control, Method of Attack

45

The LUU-2 is a parachute flare with a _________ minute burn time.

4

46

What is the DANGER CLOSE distance (0.1 PI) for a GBU-38v4?

175 m

47

The laser brevity term “CEASE LASER” means:

Discontinue lasing

48

The marking brevity term “BLIND” means:

No visual contact with FRIENDLY aircraft/ground position.

49

IP’s normally should be at least _____ nautical miles from their target?

5-15

50

What is DANGER CLOSE (0.1% PI) for the AGM-114R?

130 meters

51

The longer the distance the larger the (Laser Target Designator) Laser beam will be. What is this?

Beam divergence

52

Define a Time on Target (TOT)

is a time at which the aircraft bombs are to impact the target and around which supporting surface fires can be coordinated.

53

True or False: Litening II and Sniper pod are both LST and LTD capable.

True

54

Video Downlink (VDL) Brevity Terms: ZOOM (IN/OUT)

Increase/decrease the sensor’s focal length.

55

What is DANGER CLOSE (0.1% Pi) for the AC-130 25mm?

95 meters

56

CAS aircraft are not required to achieve tally/capture the target when conducting _____ attacks.

Bomb on Coordinate

57

Who establishes Informal ACAs?

Informal ACAs can be established using separation plans and may be established by any GFC.

58

Free-Fire Area (FFA). An FFA is a specific designated area into which ___________ may fire ___________ with the establishing HQ. It is used to expedite joint fires and to facilitate emergency jettison of aircraft munitions.

. any weapon system / without additional coordination

59

What are the TWO types of CAS requests?

Immediate / Pre-planned

60

What is the DANGER CLOSE distance (0.1 PI) for a MK-84/BLU-117 Airburst?

440 m

61

During KEYHOLE CAS techniques where are the letters placed in reference to the target?

A = North / B = East / C = South / D = West / E = Target

62

_________________provides C2 of unit forces and ensures sorties are generated to accomplish CAS missions as directed by the ATO.

The Wing’s Operations Center (WOC)

63

When using IR pointers or lasers to mark, include “IR POINTER” or “LASER” in the marks portion of the CAS briefing. JTACs should provide the Pointer-Target-Line or Laser-Target-Line also known as the designator-Target-Line in degrees magnetic from the operator to the target.

TRUE

64

If non-LEP equipped personnel are in the area to be designated and you are unable to ensure the absence of personnel using image-magnifying devices (binoculars, telescopes, etc.) in the area to be designated, LITENING ATP IR pointer employment is restricted to what altitude?

10,000 AGL

65

This net provides an emergency distress net for aircraft. It further serves as a means for air control agencies to advise aircraft of emergency conditions or serious hazards to flight safety.

Guard Net

66

Concerning artillery/mortar/Naval gunfire, “Splash” means the rounds will impact in ______ seconds. It will be announced by the fire direction center (FDC).

5

67

Video Downlink (VDL) Brevity Terms: SLEW

. Move sensor in direction indicated (usually accompanied with a unit of measure).

68

LASER SAFETY: What is the safety zone?

A 20-degree wedge whose apex is at the target and extends 10 degrees either side of the target-todesignator line.

69

What is Coordinating Altitude?

An airspace coordinating measure that uses altitude to separate users and as the transition between different airspace coordinating entities..

70

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SA-9

71

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SA-11

72

What Coordinated Attack type will be separated by time or visual cues?

Sequential

73

Video Downlink (VDL) Brevity Terms: SWITCH (CAMERA/POLARITY)

Switch the setting on the referenced item.

74

A Navy and Marine Corps section consists of how many aircraft?

2

75

Video Downlink (VDL) Brevity Terms: STAKE

A full motion video system mark has been set and is used as a frame of reference

76

The _______________ is a single mode JDAM LCDB with a BLU-129 bomb body.

GBU-38v5

77

This model of AGM-114 Hellfire is a multirole, programmable fuze, integrated blast fragmentation warhead with an internal tungsten sleeve; designed for structures, vehicles, and personnel.

R9E

78

In case of an aircraft crash during Class B and C range operations, ________will start the emergency actions?

-JTAC -FAC(A) -Flight lead

79

_________is the process of building and maintaining an overall picture of the operational environment that is accurate, timely, and relevant.

Battle Tracking

80

During laser operations, __________ or __________ should not be used as the sole source of target mark/verification.

LTM/IR pointers / laser sources

81

A _______ is a team provided by the JFSOCC that is attached to the JFACC to coordinate, deconflict, and integrate special operations air and surface operations with conventional air operations. The ________ is the focal point in the JAOC for all air support requests for SOF, to include CAS.

SOLE

82

What is the DANGER CLOSE distance for Naval Gunfire?

750 meters

83

Attacking aircraft must provide the JTAC with a “system readback” on all Bomb-on-Coordinate CAS employments, regardless of the ordnance being employed.

True

84

__________ separation requires the most detailed coordination and may be required when altitude restrictions from indirect fire trajectories adversely impact aircraft ordnance delivery (e.g., mortar trajectory).

Time

85

Video Downlink (VDL) Brevity Terms: HOLLOW

Lost full motion video signal and/or data

86

For ROTARY WING aircraft: LOW operating altitudes are:

Below 500 ft AGL

87

The laser brevity term “SPOT” means:

Acquisition of laser designation.

88

What is an Air Tasking Order (ATO)?

The ATO contains the JFACC’s plan for providing the air support required in the OPLAN/OPORD.

89

Other Brevity Terms: CAPTURED

Specified surface target/object has been acquired and is being tracked with an onboard sensor.

90

A No-Fire Area (NFA), is a land area designated by the appropriate commander into which fires or their effects are prohibited. Name one of two exceptions where it IS authorized.

When an enemy force within the NFA engages a friendly force and the engaged commander determines there is a requirement for immediate protection and responds with the minimal force needed to defend the force.

91

Target Location Error (TLE) Category 1 is:

0-20 feet / 0-6 meters

92

CAS is air action by fixed-wing (FW) and rotary-wing (RW) aircraft against hostile targets that are_____________, and requires _______________ of each air mission with the fire and movement of those forces.

in close proximity to friendly forces / detailed integration

93

CAS aircraft are NOT required to be tally/capture the target when conducting _____ attacks.

Bomb on Coordinates (BOC)

94

The laser brevity term “NEGATIVE LASER” means:

Laser energy has not been acquired.

95

____________ is the result of motion of the laser designator around the intended aimpoint

Spot jitter

96

In reference to RW CAS,____________________ may produce the most accurate results when employing unguided ordnance.

diving fire

97

This control is used when the JTAC requires the ability to provide clearance for multiple attacks within a single engagement subject to specific attack restrictions.

Type 3

98

The Target Location Error (TLE) for a PLRF-15C/DARG while wearing combat equipment for a target at 500m is?

6m

99

The marking brevity term “CONTACT” means:

Acknowledges the sighting of a specified reference point (either visual or via sensor).

100

The JTAC selects an IP based on what?

Friendly location, Aircraft capabilities, Enemy capabilities, weather, Target orientation, and FSCMs requirements.

101

What is DANGER CLOSE (0.1% PI) for the AC-130 105mm?

190 meters

102

What is the DANGER CLOSE distance (0.1 PI) for GAU-12, 25mm gun?

95 m

103

A _______ performs C2 or liaison functions according to mission requirements and is directed by the JFSOCC. Its level of authority and responsibility may vary widely. It is the C2 focal point for CAS requests for SOF units in support of a conventional joint or Service force.

SOCCE

104

___________ is used when the JTAC/FAC(A) determines that he can create the desired effects against that target with CAS aircraft and ordnance employing on a specified set of coordinates. The JTAC/FAC(A) does not need to delay the CAS attack in order to build CAS aircraft visual awareness to achieve tally/capture the target.

Bomb on Coordinates (BOC)

105

TROOPS IN CONTACT is:

A. When friendly ground forces receive effective fire – no matter the distance B. An advisory call to increase awareness and to highlight the urgency of the ground situation. C. Requires the supported ground commander to determine priority of CAS with respect to other mission impacts.

106

What is the DANGER CLOSE distance (0.1 PI) for a GBU-31 Contact?

335 m

107

Which mode of the AGM-65 is laser guided?

E/L

108

The laser brevity term “SHIFT (Direction)” means:

Shift laser/IR/radar/device energy/aimpoint.

109

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ZSU 23-4

110

Cloud cover and precipitation as well as battlefield conditions (smoke, dust, haze, and other obscurants) can seriously degrade laser effectiveness.

True

111

What document lists the minimum safe distances for ground parties in relation to the target/impact area during live fire training?

AFI 13-212

112

Following mandatory readback by the CAS asset, the JTAC/FAC(A) then grants a weapons release clearance (“CLEARED TO ENGAGE”).

Type 3

113

When requesting Electronic Attack (EA), you must submit a JTAR/ASR(DD Form 1972) and what additional document that outlines specific effects requested?

EARF - Electronic Attack Request Form

114

Releasing above ________ft AGL, the FW aircraft on a level delivery may release ordnance as far away as ______ NM from the target.

30,000; 10

115

The laser brevity term “LASING” means:

The speaker is firing the laser

116

Video Downlink (VDL) Brevity Terms: CHECK CAPTURE

Target appears to be no longer tracked by sensor.

117

Other Brevity Terms: CHATTERMARK

Begin using briefed radio procedures to counter communications jamming.

118

A flight by one aircraft is known as a __________.

Sortie

119

Self-derived targeting requires that the aircrew is tally/contact/captured the JTAC/FAC(A)’s intended target or aim point. Coordinate accuracy and precision (to include TLE) are not as important as the JTAC’s/FAC(A)’s ability to aid CAS aircraft in gaining tally/capture.

Bomb on Target (BOT)

120

True or False: In the AC-130 CFF, the transmission of the fire mission is clearance for the aircraft to fire, unless DANGER CLOSE.

TRUE

121

During laser operations, the best acquisition area is from _____ to _____ degrees on either side of the laser-to-target (LTL) line

10, 45

122

During a __________________ attack, the JTAC requires control of individual attacks but is unable to visually acquire the attacking aircraft at weapons release and/or is unable to visually acquire the target.

Type 2

123

Target Location Error (TLE) Category 2 is:

21-50 feet / 7-15 meters

124

The laser brevity terminology “DEADEYE” means:

Laser designator system is inoperative

125

______ flight is as close to the earth’s surface as vegetation and obstacles permit while following the earth’s contours. Terrain and vegetation provide cover and concealment from enemy observation and detection.

Nap of Earth (NOE)

126

For ROTARY WING aircraft: MEDIUM operating altitudes are:

500 TO 3,000 ft AGL

127

Term used by a JTAC / FAC(A) during Type 3 control, granting weapons release clearance to an aircraft or flight attacking a target or targets.

Cleared to Engage

128

Other Brevity Terms: WINCHESTER

No ordnance remaining

129

The Night IR Brevity Term “CEASE SPARKLE” means:

Discontinue IR pointer activity.

130

A ___________________ is a qualified and certified Service member who can request, adjust, and control surface-to-surface fires, provide targeting information in support of Type 2 and 3 CAS, and perform TGO in conjunction with a JTAC/FAC(A).

Joint Forward Observer (JFO)

131

(T/F) During a Type 1 control the Attacking A/C MUST be tally the intended target or contact the mark?

FALSE

132

The night IR brevity term “PULSE” means:

Illuminate/illuminating a position with flashing IR energy.

133

During a 5-Line RW CAS brief, transmission of the brief is NOT clearance to fire

True

134

Conditions for effective close air support include:

All of the above

135

When adjusting fire during an AC-130 control, adjust from ______________.

Impact by cardinal direction (North, South, East, West) and range (meters) from impact to target

136

Coordinated Fire Line (CFL).

A line beyond which conventional, indirect, surface fire support means may create effects at any time within the boundaries of the establishing HQ without additional coordination.

137

While controlling fighter aircraft, transmit “KNOCK-IT-OFF” when safety of flight is a factor.

TRUE

138

Video Downlink (VDL) Brevity Terms: HANDSHAKE

Full motion video signal and data operative.

139

During a ______________ attack, the JTAC must acquire the target visually or utilize targeting data from a scout, COLT, FIST, JFO, UAS, SOF, CAS aircrew, or other asset with accurate real-time targeting information.

Type 2 and Type 3

140

Joint Terminal Attack Controllers should select separation techniques that

-require the least coordination -do not adversely affect the ability to safely complete the mission

141

The JTAC/FAC(A) will confirm the laser code prior to CAS execution. The LTL should be passed during the ________________.

Remarks

142

These are Surface to Air MANPAD missile threats?

SA-7, SA-14, SA-16, SA-18

143

What Coordinated Attack type will have simultaneous time on target/time to target?

Simultaneous

144

CAS Mission Planning: Who provides intent, guidance on effects, where on the battlefield he wants those effects, triggers, guidelines on using CAS, approves TSTs, authorize ordnance, target priorities, and restrictions?

GFC / Team Leader

145

Target Marking. Providing _____________ target marks. Target marking builds ___________________, identifies specific targets in an array, reduces the possibility of _______________________, and facilitates terminal attack control.

timely and accurate / situational awareness / fratricide and collateral damage

146

What is the greatest inherent limitation for single mode GPS/INS weapons?

Moving targets

147

____________________ are those actions that provide electronic, mechanical, voice, or visual communications that provide approaching aircraft and/or weapons additional information regarding a specific target location.

Terminal Guidance Operations (TGO)

148

The laser brevity term “LASER ON” means:

Start/acknowledge laser designation

149

The Night IR Brevity Term “SNAKE” means:

Oscillate an IR pointer in a figure eight about a target.

150

The marking brevity term “TALLY” means:

Sighting of target, non-friendly aircraft, or enemy position.

151

What is the DANGER CLOSE distance for 105mm and 155mm (cannon) artillery?

600 meters

152

The ________________ is an overt, aircraft delivered, parachute flare with an approximate burn time of 4 minutes. The ______________ is the near infrared model and has an approximate burn time of 7 minutes.

LUU-2 / LUU-19

153

The night IR brevity term “SPARKLE” means:

Mark/marking target with an infrared (IR) pointer. Can be initiated by JTAC or aircrew. Proper aircrew response is “CONTACT SPARKLE” or “NO JOY”.

154

Marking friendlies:

Is the least desirable method of enabling a tally on the target.

155

CAS can support what kind of operations?

A. Shaping B. Close C. Joint Security Area

156

What is the DANGER CLOSE distance (0.1 PI) for AGM-176 II Contact?

120m

157

______________separation is effective for coordinating fires against targets that are adequately separated from flight routes to ensure aircraft protection from the effects of friendly fires.

Lateral

158

The primary objective of _____ is to allow friendly aircraft to operate in airspace defended by an enemy air defense system, including the target area and ingress/egress routes. _____ missions do not guarantee aircraft immunity from enemy air defenses.

Suppression of Enemy Air Defense (SEAD)

159

What are the two types of ACAs?

Formal and Informal

160

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SA-13

161

The laser brevity term “STARE” means:

Cue the laser spot search/tracker function on the specified laser code in relation to the specified reference point. Reference point may include the following: steerpoint, GEOREF, bearing and range or datalink point.

162

CAS Mission Planning: Who is responsible for artillery/mortars, knows overall concept of fires and how it will be utilized, knows the priority of fires, conducts SEAD, knows FSCMs or ACAs and initiates CAS requests?

JTAC / FSO

163

The marking brevity term “VISUAL” means:

Sighting of friendly aircraft or ground position

164

How many elements does the Artillery/Mortar call for fire have and in how many transmissions is it delivered.

6 / 3

165

_______ altitude tactics are flown above approximately 8,000 ft above ground level (AGL).

MEDIUM / HIGH

166

The JTAC MUST approve re-attacks after coordination with the ground force commander.

True

167

The Night IR Brevity Term “MATCH SPARKLE” means:

Overlay requested target designator type. Directive term for a second party to overlay an IR mark on an existing mark.

168

Typical IAM launch acceptability region, i.e., release points, can extend ______ nautical miles from the target.

6 – 12

169

CAS Mission Planning: A document that consists of four sections that derives from ATO. It gives your radio frequencies, code words and rules of engagements, airspace info, routing, coordination instructions, SCLs, authentication methods and RAMROD.

Special Instructions (SPINS)

170

What is the DANGER CLOSE distance (0.1 PI) for AGM-65 Maverick (All)?

175 m

171

Concerning DACAS brevity terms, what is a “HOOK”?

a data-link directive call to cue sensor to a described point.

172

Who establishes Formal ACAs?

The airspace control authority establishes formal ACAs at the request of the appropriate ground commander.

173

The purpose of the _____is to prevent fratricide and duplication of engagements by converging friendly forces.

Restrictive Fire Line (RFL)

174

Changes to TYPE OF CONTROL must be made prior to the “IN” call for Type 1 and 2 attacks and the commencing call for Type 3. If a Type change is required after these calls, then the JTAC should abort the attack and brief the aircraft.

True

175

This control requires control of individual attacks. While not required, if the tactical situation allows, the JTAC/FAC(A) should make every effort to visually acquire the aircraft and assess attack geometry under this control in order to provide an additional measure of safety, enhance SA, and be able to abort the attack if necessary.

Type 2

176

The two basic types of Hellfire launch modes are lock on before launch (LOBL) and lock on after launch (LOAL).

True

177

The_________________Laser JDAM (LJDAM) is a multi-mode 500 lb bomb that includes guidance via GPS with coordinate refinement through laser updates.

GBU-54

178

What is the difference between Army Attack Aviation Procedures and a RW CAS 5-Line Brief?

Type of Control, MOA, Ordnance Requested

179

__________________ separation is effective for coordinating fires when aircraft remain above or below indirect fire trajectories and their effects.

Altitude

180

All targeting data must be coordinated through the appropriate supported unit’s battle staff for approval. The JTAC/FAC(A) will monitor radio transmissions and other available digital information to maintain control of the engagement.

Type 3

181

The Night IR Brevity Term “CONTACT SPARKLE” means:

Acknowledges sighting of sparkle.

182

_________ fixed wing attacks are flown above approximately 8,000 ft AGL.

Medium/High

183

Airspace Coordination Area (ACA) is a three-dimensional block of airspace in a target area, established by the appropriate ground commander, in which friendly aircraft are reasonably safe from friendly surface fires.

TRUE

184

To get the AC-130 to fire closer than DANGER CLOSE distances, the ground commander must accept responsibility. __________ (with commander’s initials) must be stated on line five of the AC-130 Call for Fire.

Cleared Danger Close

185

For air-to-surface training, do not conduct simulated attacks against off-range or manned targets with internally/externally loaded live ordnance or externally loaded heavyweight inert ordnance.

True

186

Ordnance delivery inside the 0.1 percent Pi distance will be considered:

DANGER CLOSE

187

______ altitude bombing can be described as “bombing with the height of release over 15,000 ft AGL.”

HIGH

188

A NATO FAC that is only NATO Combat Ready Day High and Night High qualified must be under the direct supervision of a US JTAC instructor to control air strikes in US CAS training.

TRUE

189

What Coordinated Attack type has the same avenue of attack?

Combined

190

The most important ADVANTAGE of night and adverse weather CAS is ________________.

the limitation it imposes on enemy optically-directed AAA and optical/IR guided SAMs

191

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SA-8

192

The authority and responsibility for the expenditure of any ordnance on the battlefield rests with the

Supported Commander.

193

When creating Super Macro CAS products, the date of imagery (DOI) should be included

True

194

Video Downlink (VDL) Brevity Terms: SET

Overwatch aircraft is in position.

195

What is the DANGER CLOSE distance for 60mm, 81mm and 120mm mortars?

600 meters

196

Target Location Error (TLE) Category 3 is:

51-100 feet / 16-30 meters

197

Danger close distances for friendly troops when firing artillery, mortars and/or naval surface fire can be found in what document?

AFTTP(I) 3-2.6, JFIRE

198

CAS Mission Planning: Who knows the plan/mission, friendly COA, locations of friendly positions and provides No Target Hit List?

Team Leader/Sgt / S-3

199

Battle Damage Assessment should include:

Size and Activity Location and Time Remarks

200

If conditions preclude briefing BDA, at a minimum pass “SUCCESSFUL,” “UNSUCCESSFUL,” or “UNKNOWN” assessment to the aircraft and controlling agency.

True