MSCAA questions revision Flashcards

1
Q

Acute Pancreatitis vs Acute Cholecystitis

A

Both have raised amylase levels.

ALP will be raised

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2
Q

Management of acute duration low back pain in fit person

A

Continue usual activity

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3
Q

What is the management of a PE in hospitals (major)

A

IV heparin not a DOAC

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4
Q

What is the CHADS2Vasc score

A

CHF - 1
H - Hypertension
A - Age (either 65+ is 1 or 75+ is 2)
D - Diabetes
S - Stroke (2)
Vasc - Vascular disease history

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5
Q

How do we calculate the lifetime risk of having a stroke from chadsvasc

A

score of risk x years from life expectancy (83)

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6
Q

Initial invetsigation of renal stones

A

Non enhanced CTKUB

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7
Q

When should drugs be stopped in suspected CKD

A

Only if there is >30% increase in serum creatinine

If not, repeat 2-4 weeks later

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8
Q

First line managemnet of hypoglycaemia

A

75ml of 20% glucose (IV)

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9
Q

What diabetic drug is approved for use in CKD (the only one)

A

Sitagliptin (DPP4 inhibtor)

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10
Q

In what condition is Pioglitazone contra-indicated for use

A

HF and bladder cancer

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11
Q

WHat is the diagnostic investigation for sensineural hearing loss

A

MRI imaging

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12
Q

What invetsigation must be done before suspectiing IBD

A

STool Cultures

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13
Q

Management of osteoarthritis on the pain ladder

A

First: Paracetamol/ibuprofen gel

Second Line: EITHER Co-Codamol or an NSAID (depending on contraidnications)

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14
Q

First line managemen of poisoning - is it gastric lavage or actiavted charcoal first

A

Activated charcoal

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15
Q

What condition gives way to adhesive capsulitis

A

Diabetes

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16
Q

What is an iatrogenic secondary pneumothorax cause

A

Chest drains themselves

Central lines

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17
Q

Management of hypertension

A

<55:

ACEi/ARB

ACEI/ARB + CCB or thiazide like diuretic

> 55:
CCB

CCB + ACEi/ARB or thiazide

Both:

Triple therapy of the three

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18
Q

What defines rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis

A

A drop in over 50% eGFR over 3 months

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19
Q

What are the indications for an ascites tap

A

To determine what’s causing ascites if unkown

To check for suspected sponatenous bacterial peritonitis

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20
Q

What diagnoses Spontaneous bacterial peritonitis

A

Neutrophil count >250 cells

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21
Q

What does an ascitic tap show for potential malignancy

A

RBC <1,000 cells/mm^3

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22
Q

What Serum albumin- Ascitic Albumin concentration indicates liekly cirrhosis and cardiac failure cause of ascites

A

> 11g/L

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23
Q

Management of a red eye

A

ALWAYS refer to Opthalmologist (could be corneal abrasions, endopthlamitis, acute glaucoma

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24
Q

What is the initial management of suspected bowel obstruction

A

NG tube striaght away for decompression

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25
What type of fluid is 1.8% Sodium CHolride also known as
HYPERtonic saline
26
What are the role of goblet cells
Secrete mucin (provides a mucosal layer to the stomach)
27
In what condition is urseodeoxycholic acid a mainstay treatment for
Primary Biliary Cirrhosis
28
Where are adenocarcinomas of the lungs typically located
Peripherally
29
Where are squamous cell carcinomas typically located
Centrally
30
What do squamous cell carcinomas typically secrete
PTHrP
31
What do small cell carcinomas typically secrete
Cushing's (ACTH) ADH
32
Until blood gas can be measures, what oxygen therapy should be initially started
24 or 28%
33
What is the main indication for low concentration oxygen therapy
Hypercapnia
34
When should Oxygen therapy be considered in patients with COPD
PaO2 < 7.3 kPA when stable and do not smoke
35
What is a contraindictaion to using IV Adenosine for supreventiruclar tachycardia
Asthma- use verapamil
36
Signs of supraventricular tacchycardia in an ECG
Absent p waves and sinus tacchycardia
37
Management of a suspected tension pneumothorax
NO chest x ray needed 14G cannula needle decompression
38
First line management of a primary pneumothorax with rim of air <2cm
Dishcarge + X-Ray
39
Management of a primary pneumothorax with >2cm air rim
Aspiration
40
If aspiration fials, what is second line treatment of a primary pneumothorax
Chest Drain
41
First line management of a secondary pneumothorax if >50 and rim of air >2cm
Chest drain
42
Management of a secondary pneumothorax if rim of air 1-2cm
Aspiration
43
On an X-ray reading, what differentiates between a penumothorax and tension pneumothorax
Trachea not deviated vs devaited trachea
44
What medication improves motor symptoms in Parkinson'
Levodopa
45
What type of nutrition is given to patients with motor neurone disease
Percutaneous gastrostomy tube
46
First line management of asystole
Chest compression and ventilation
47
Once chest compressions and ventilation are started, what should be done in asystole
IV Adrenaline/epinerphine
48
Investigations of an unprovoked DVT
CT of the abdomen and pelvis
49
Log term anticoagulation for people with mechanical valves
Aspirin + Warfarin
50
What anaesthetic airway device protects the lungs from stomach contents
Tracheal tube
51
What is the first investigation for someone with a suspected PE
First do a chest X-Ray to rule out other things, then do the well's score
52
INvestigation of choice for a thyroid neck swelling
USS of the neck
53
What are the maintenance fluid requirmenets for someone with underlying cardiac disease
20-25ml/kg not 25-30
54
What needs to be monitored in someone with MG exacerbation
FVC
55
Most common cause of cellulitis
Strep pyogenes
56
Drainage of the ovary
Para-aortic nodes
57
How to calculate GCS
Eye: None Opens to pain Open to commands or speech Open spontaneously Motor: No motor response Extensors response Abnormal flexion Withdraws from pain Moves purposefully to painful stimulus Obeys commands
58
WHat is diagnostic for nephrotic syndrome
Renal biopsy
59
What is the initial screening tool for Syphillis
EIA
60
What is used to monitor syphillis
RPR (decreasing means succerssful treatment)
61
Management of asymptomatic aortic stenosis
If LV function is impaired (less than 55%) - they need to be referred for aortic valve replacement Signs of Heart Failure with AS
62
At what mean gradient across the aortic valve, should someone be referred for aortic valve replacement
>40 mmHg
63
Complication of aortic stenosis
Herat Failure
64
What is the most likely outcome of HZV opthalmicus
Usually complete resolution with no sequelae
65
What is the normal urine output
800 to 2,000 mls a day
66
PTH levels in primary hyperparathyroidism
NORMAL
67
Species that causes Infective endocarditis in IVDU users
Staph aureus Strep viridian's - dental care
68
What fibre deficiencies can cause colon cancer
Fibre Folate Calcium
69
What chronic condition can cause colic cancer
UC and Crohn's DM
70
Clinical features of right colon cancers
Weight loss Anaemia Masses
71
Clinical features of left colon cancers
Increased frequency of stools (change in bowel habits) Bowel obstruction Rectal bleeding
72
First line investigation for colon cancers
Proctoscopy with or without sigmoidoscopy
73
Sounds heart in a ventricular septal rupture
Sudden harsh pan systolic murmur at the apex
74
Clinical features of a ventricular septal rupture
Sudden angina/hypotension and pulmonary oedema
75
Clinical features of a free wall rupture (MI)
Cardiac tamponade
76
How do we diagnose a pseudo aneurysm
ECHO
77
Management of a papillary muscle rupture
Mitral valve replacement - cause mitral regurgitation (pan systolic murmur)
78
Most common type of arrhythmia seen post MI
Ventricular fibrillation
79
Management of obesity (25-29.9)
General advice on lifestyle;e
80
management of obese people with 27 BMI + Diabetes, HTN or dysplipidaemia
Consider Orlostat (definitive management at 30+)
81
Management of Obesity in T2DM with BMI 30-35+
Refer to bariatric surgery
82
Management of BMI >40 with no other health issues
Consider bariatric surgery Definitive first line if BMI is over 50
83
Management of asymptomatic AF
As long as rate is controlled - no further treatment is needed
84
Management of cord compression in palliative care
Radiotherapy and then bisphosphonates
85
What lobe of the brain does Alzheimer's effect
Temporal lobe
86
Management of pain postoperatively in people with respiratory distress risk
Epidural anaesthesia