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Flashcards in Multiple Choice Deck (906):
1

Which of the following denotes the correct usage of pins on the RJ-45 connectors at the opposite ends of an Ethernet cross-over cable?

A) 1 to 1

B) 1 to 2

C) 1 to 3

D) 6 to 1

E) 6 to 2

F) 6 to 3

C) 1 to 3

E) 6 to 2

2

Which of the following denotes the correct usage of pins on the RJ-45 connectors at the opposite ends of an Ethernet straight-through cable?

A) 1 to 1

B) 1 to 2

C) 1 to 3

D) 6 to 1

E) 6 to 2

F) 6 to 3

A) 1 to 1

3

Which of the following commands must be configured on a Cisco IOS switch interface to disable Ethernet auto-negotiation?

A) no auto-negotiate

B) no auto

C) Both speed and duplex

D) duplex

E) speed

C) Both speed and duplex

4

Consider an Ethernet cross-over cable between two 10/100 ports on Cisco switches. One switch has been configured for 100-Mbps full duplex. Which of the following is true about the other switch?

A) It will use a speed of 10 Mbps.

B) It will use a speed of 100 Mbps.

C) It will use a duplex setting of half duplex.

D) It will use a duplex setting of full duplex.

B) It will use a speed of 100 Mbps.

C) It will use a duplex setting of half duplex.

5

Consider an Ethernet cross-over cable between two 10/100/1000 ports on Cisco switches. One switch has been configured for half duplex, and the other for full duplex. The ports successfully negotiate a speed of 1 Gbps. Which of the following could occur as a result of the duplex mismatch?

A) No frames can be received by the half-duplex switch without it believing an FCS error has occurred.

B) CDP would detect the mismatch and change the full-duplex switch to half duplex.

C) CDP would detect the mismatch and issue a log message to that effect.

D) The half-duplex switch will erroneously believe collisions have occurred.

C) CDP would detect the mismatch and issue a log message to that effect.

D) The half-duplex switch will erroneously believe collisions have occurred.

6

Which of the following Ethernet header type fields is a 2-byte field?

A) DSAP

B) Type (in SNAP header)

C) Type (in Ethernet V2 header)

D) LLC Control

B) Type (in SNAP header)

C) Type (in Ethernet V2 header)

7

Which of the following standards defines a Fast Ethernet standard?

A) IEEE 802.1Q

B) IEEE 802.3U

C) IEEE 802.1X

D) IEEE 802.3Z

E) IEEE 802.3AB

F) IEEE 802.1AD

B) IEEE 802.3U

8

Suppose a brand-new Cisco IOS–based switch has just been taken out of the box and cabled to several devices. One of the devices sends a frame. For which of the following destinations would a switch flood the frames out all ports (except the port upon which the frame was received)?

A) Broadcasts

B) Unknown unicasts

C) Known unicasts

D) Multicasts

A) Broadcasts

B) Unknown unicasts

D) Multicasts

9

Which of the following configuration issues will keep a SPAN session from becoming active?

A) Misconfigured destination port

B) Destination port configured as a trunk

C) Destination port shutdown

D) Source port configured as a trunk

C) Destination port shutdown

10

Which of the following are rules for SPAN configuration?

A) SPAN source and destination ports must be configured for the same speed and duplex.

B) If the SPAN source port is configured for 100 Mbps, the destination port must be configured for 100 Mbps or more.

C) In a SPAN session, sources must consist of either physical interfaces or VLANs, but not a mix of these.

D) Remote SPAN VLANs must be in the range of VLAN 1–66.

E) Only three SPAN sessions may be configured on one switch.

C) In a SPAN session, sources must consist of either physical interfaces or VLANs, but not a mix of these.

11

Assume that VLAN 28 does not yet exist on Switch1. Which of the following commands, issued from any part of global configuration mode (reached with the configure terminal exec command) would cause the VLAN to be created?

A) vlan 28

B) vlan 28 name fred

C) switchport vlan 28

D) switchport access vlan 28

E) switchport access 28

A) vlan 28

12

Which of the following are the two primary motivations for using private VLANs?

A) Better LAN security

B) IP subnet conservation

C) Better consistency in VLAN configuration details

D) Reducing the impact of broadcasts on end-user devices

E) Reducing the unnecessary flow of frames to switches that do not have any ports in the VLAN to which the frame belongs

A) Better LAN security

B) IP subnet conservation

13

Which of the following VLANs can be pruned by VTP on an 802.1Q trunk?

A) 1–1023

B) 1–1001

C) 2–1001

D) 1–1005

E) 2–1005

C) 2–1001

14

An existing switched network has ten switches, with Switch1 and Switch2 being the only VTP servers in the network. The other switches are all VTP clients and have successfully learned about the VLANs from the VTP servers. The only configured VTP parameter on all switches is the VTP domain name (Larry). The VTP revision number is 201. What happens when a new, already-running VTP client switch, named Switch11, with domain name Larry and revision number 301, connects via a trunk to any of the other ten switches?

A) No VLAN information changes; Switch11 ignores the VTP updates sent from the two existing VTP servers until the revision number reaches 302.

B) The original ten switches replace their old VLAN configuration with the configuration in Switch11.

C) Switch11 replaces its own VLAN configuration with the configuration sent to it by one of the original VTP servers.

D) Switch11 merges its existing VLAN database with the database learned from the VTP servers, because Switch11 had a higher revision number.

B) The original ten switches replace their old VLAN configuration with the configuration in Switch11.

15

An existing switched network has ten switches, with Switch1 and Switch2 being the only VTP servers in the network. The other switches are all VTP clients, and have successfully learned about the VLANs from the VTP server. The only configured VTP parameter is the VTP domain name (Larry). The VTP revision number is 201. What happens when an already-running VTP server switch, named Switch11, with domain name Larry and revision number 301, connects via a trunk to any of the other ten switches?

A) No VLAN information changes; all VTP updates between the original VTP domain and the new switch are ignored.

B) The original ten switches replace their old VLAN configuration with the configuration in Switch11.

C) Switch11 replaces its old VLAN configuration with the configuration sent to it by one of the original VTP servers.

D) Switch11 merges its existing VLAN database with the database learned from the VTP servers, because Switch11 had a higher revision number.

E) None of the other answers is correct.

B) The original ten switches replace their old VLAN configuration with the configuration in Switch11.

16

Assume that two brand-new Cisco switches were removed from their cardboard boxes. PC1 was attached to one switch, PC2 was attached to the other, and the two switches were connected with a cross-over cable. The switch connection dynamically formed an 802.1Q trunk. When PC1 sends a frame to PC2, how many additional bytes of header are added to the frame before it passes over the trunk?

A) 0

B) 4

C) 8

D) 26

A) 0

17

Assume that two brand-new Cisco Catalyst 3550 switches were connected with a cross-over cable. Before attaching the cable, one switch interface was configured with the switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q, switchport mode trunk, and switchport nonegotiate subcommands. Which of the following must be configured on the other switch before trunking will work between the switches?

A) switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q

B) switchport mode trunk

C) switchport nonegotiate

D) No configuration is required.

A) switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q

B) switchport mode trunk

18

When configuring trunking on a Cisco router fa0/1 interface, under which configuration modes could the IP address associated with the native VLAN (VLAN 1 in this case) be configured?

A) Interface fa 0/1 configuration mode

B) Interface fa 0/1.1 configuration mode

C) Interface fa 0/1.2 configuration mode

D) None of the other answers is correct

A) Interface fa 0/1 configuration mode

B) Interface fa 0/1.1 configuration mode

C) Interface fa 0/1.2 configuration mode

19

Which of the following is false about 802.1Q?

A) Encapsulates the entire frame inside an 802.1Q header and trailer

B) Supports the use of a native VLAN

C) Allows VTP to operate only on extended-range VLANs

D) Is chosen over ISL by DTP

A) Encapsulates the entire frame inside an 802.1Q header and trailer

C) Allows VTP to operate only on extended-range VLANs

D) Is chosen over ISL by DTP

20

Which command enables PPPoE on the outside Ethernet interface on a Cisco router?

A) pppoe enable

B) pppoe-client enable

C) pppoe-client dialer-pool-number

D) pppoe-client dialer-number

A) pppoe enable

21

Assume that a nonroot 802.1d switch has ceased to receive Hello BPDUs. Which STP setting determines how long a nonroot switch waits before trying to choose a new Root Port?

A) Hello timer setting on the Root

B) Maxage timer setting on the Root

C) Forward Delay timer setting on the Root

D) Hello timer setting on the nonroot switch

E) Maxage timer setting on the nonroot switch

F) Forward Delay timer setting on the nonroot switch

B) Maxage timer setting on the Root

22

Assume that a nonroot 802.1d switch receives a Hello BPDU with the TCN flag set. Which STP setting determines how long the nonroot switch waits before timing out CAM entries?

A) Hello timer setting on the Root

B) Maxage timer setting on the Root

C) Forward Delay timer setting on the Root

D) Hello timer setting on the nonroot switch

E) Maxage timer setting on the nonroot switch

F) Forward Delay timer setting on the nonroot switch

C) Forward Delay timer setting on the Root

23

Assume that nonroot Switch1 (SW1) is blocking on a 802.1Q trunk connected to Switch2 (SW2). Both switches are in the same MST region. SW1 ceases to receive Hellos from SW2. What timers have an impact on how long Switch1 takes to both become the Designated Port on that link and reach forwarding state?

A) Hello timer setting on the Root

B) Maxage timer setting on the Root

C) Forward Delay timer on the Root

D) Hello timer setting on SW1

E) Maxage timer setting on SW1

F) Forward Delay timer on SW1

A) Hello timer setting on the Root

C) Forward Delay timer on the Root

24

Which of the following statements are true regarding support of multiple spanning trees over an 802.1Q trunk?

A)Only one common spanning tree can be supported.

B) Cisco PVST+ supports multiple spanning trees if the switches are Cisco switches.

C) 802.1Q supports multiple spanning trees when using IEEE 802.1s MST.

D) Two PVST+ domains can pass over a region of non-Cisco switches using 802.1Q trunks by encapsulating non-native VLAN Hellos inside the native VLAN Hellos.

B) Cisco PVST+ supports multiple spanning trees if the switches are Cisco switches.

C) 802.1Q supports multiple spanning trees when using IEEE 802.1s MST.

25

When a switch notices a failure, and the failure requires STP convergence, it notifies the Root by sending a TCN BPDU. Which of the following best describes why the notification is needed?

A) To speed STP convergence by having the Root converge quickly.

B) To allow the Root to keep accurate count of the number of topology changes.

C) To trigger the process that causes all switches to use a short timer to help flush the CAM.

D) There is no need for TCN today; it is a holdover from DEC’s STP specification.

C) To trigger the process that causes all switches to use a short timer to help flush the CAM.

26

Two switches have four parallel Ethernet segments, none of which forms into an EtherChannel. Assuming 802.1d is in use, what is the maximum number of the eight ports (four on each switch) that stabilize into a forwarding state?

A) 1

B) 3

C) 4

D) 5

E) 7

D) 5

27

Two switches have four Ethernet segments connecting them, with the intention of using an EtherChannel. Port fa 0/1 on one switch is connected to port fa0/1 on the other switch; port fa0/2 is connected to the other switch’s port fa0/2; and so on. An EtherChannel can still form using these four segments, even though some configuration settings do not match on the corresponding ports on each switch. Which settings do not have to match?

A) DTP negotiation settings (auto/desirable/on)

B) Allowed VLAN list

C) STP per-VLAN port cost on the ports on a single switch

D) If 802.1Q, native VLAN

A) DTP negotiation settings (auto/desirable/on)

28

IEEE 802.1w does not use the exact same port states as does 802.1d. Which of the following are valid 802.1w port states?

A) Blocking

B) Listening

C) Learning

D) Forwarding

E) Disabled

F) Discarding

C) Learning

D) Forwarding

F) Discarding

29

What STP tools or protocols supply a “Maxage optimization,” allowing a switch to bypass the wait for Maxage to expire when its Root Port stops receiving Hellos?

A) Loop Guard

B) UDLD

C) UplinkFast

D) BackboneFast

E) IEEE 802.1w

D) BackboneFast

E) IEEE 802.1w

30

A trunk between switches lost its physical transmit path in one direction only. Which of the following features protect against the STP problems caused by such an event?

A) Loop Guard

B) UDLD

C) UplinkFast

D) PortFast

B) UDLD

31

A computer’s NIC is hardcoded to 1000 Mbps and full-duplex, and it is connected to a switch whose FastEthernet interface is set to autonegotiate speed and duplex. What speed and duplex will the switch use?

A) 100 Mbps and full-duplex

B) 100 Mbps and half-duplex

C) 1000 Mbps and full-duplex

D) 1000 Mbps and half-duplex

E) The link will be inactive

B) 100 Mbps and half-duplex

32

In what subnet does address 192.168.23.197/27 reside?

A) 192.168.23.0

B) 192.168.23.128

C) 192.168.23.160

D) 192.168.23.192

E) 192.168.23.196

D) 192.168.23.192

33

Router1 has four LAN interfaces, with IP addresses 10.1.1.1/24, 10.1.2.1/24, 10.1.3.1/24, and 10.1.4.1/24. What is the smallest summary route that could be advertised out a WAN link connecting Router1 to the rest of the network, if subnets not listed here were allowed to be included in the summary?

A) 10.1.2.0/22

B) 10.1.0.0/22

C) 10.1.0.0/21

D) 10.1.0.0/16

C) 10.1.0.0/21

34

Router1 has four LAN interfaces, with IP addresses 10.22.14.1/23, 10.22.18.1/23, 10.22.12.1/23, and 10.22.16.1/23. Which one of the answers lists the smallest summary route(s) that could be advertised by Router1 without also including subnets not listed in this question?

A) 10.22.12.0/21

B) 10.22.8.0/21

C) 10.22.8.0/21 and 10.22.16.0/21

D) 10.22.12.0/22 and 10.22.16.0/22

D) 10.22.12.0/22 and 10.22.16.0/22

35

Which two of the following VLSM subnets, when taken as a pair, overlap?

A) 10.22.21.128/26

B) 10.22.22.128/26

C) 10.22.22.0/27

D) 10.22.20.0/23

E) 10.22.16.0/22

A) 10.22.21.128/26

D) 10.22.20.0/23

36

Which of the following protocols or tools includes a feature like route summarization, plus administrative rules for global address assignment, with a goal of reducing the size of Internet routing tables?

A) Classless interdomain routing

B)Route summarization

C) Supernetting

D) Private IP addressing

A) Classless interdomain routing

37

Which of the following terms refers to a NAT feature that allows for significantly fewer IP addresses in the enterprise network as compared with the required public registered IP addresses?

A) Static NAT

B) Dynamic NAT

C) Dynamic NAT with overloading

D) PAT

E) VAT

C) Dynamic NAT with overloading

D) PAT

38

Consider an enterprise network using private class A network 10.0.0.0, and using NAT to translate to IP addresses in registered class C network 205.1.1.0. Host 10.1.1.1 has an open www session to Internet web server 198.133.219.25. Which of the following terms refers to the destination address of a packet, sent by the web server back to the client, when the packet has not yet made it back to the enterprise’s NAT router?

A) Inside Local

B) Inside Global

C) Outside Local

D) Outside Global

B) Inside Global

39

Router1 has its fa0/0 interface, address 10.1.2.3/24, connected to an enterprise network. Router1’s S0/1 interface connects to an ISP, with the interface using a publicly-registered IP address of 171.1.1.1/30,. Which of the following commands could be part of a valid NAT overload configuration, with 171.1.1.1 used as the public IP address?

A) ip nat inside source list 1 int s0/1 overload

B) ip nat inside source list 1 pool fred overload

C) ip nat inside source list 1 171.1.1.1 overload

D) None of the answers is correct.

A) ip nat inside source list 1 int s0/1 overload

B) ip nat inside source list 1 pool fred overload

40

Two hosts, named PC1 and PC2, sit on subnet 172.16.1.0/24, along with router R1. A web server sits on subnet 172.16.2.0/24, which is connected to another interface of R1. At some point, both PC1 and PC2 send an ARP request before they successfully send packets to the web server. With PC1, R1 makes a normal ARP reply, but for PC2, R1 uses a proxy ARP reply. Which two of the following answers could be true given the stated behavior in this network?

A) PC2 set the proxy flag in the ARP request.

B) PC2 encapsulated the ARP request inside an IP packet.

C) PC2’s ARP broadcast implied that PC2 was looking for the web server’s MAC address.

D) PC2 has a subnet mask of 255.255.0.0.

E) R1’s proxy ARP reply contains the web server’s MAC address.

C) PC2’s ARP broadcast implied that PC2 was looking for the web server’s MAC address.

D) PC2 has a subnet mask of 255.255.0.0.

41

Host PC3 is using DHCP to discover its IP address. Only one router attaches to PC3’s subnet, using its fa0/0 interface, with an ip helper-address 10.5.5.5 command on that same interface. That same router interface has an ip address 10.4.5.6 255.255.252.0 command configured as well. Which of the following are true about PC3’s DHCP request?

A) The destination IP address of the DHCP request packet is set to 10.5.5.5 by the router.

B) The DHCP request packet’s source IP address is unchanged by the router.

C) The DHCP request is encapsulated inside a new IP packet, with source IP address 10.4.5.6 and destination 10.5.5.5.

D) The DHCP request’s source IP address is changed to 10.4.5.255.

E) The DHCP request’s source IP address is changed to 10.4.7.255.

A) The destination IP address of the DHCP request packet is set to 10.5.5.5 by the router.

E) The DHCP request’s source IP address is changed to 10.4.7.255.

42

Which of the following statements are true about BOOTP, but not true about RARP?

A) The client can be assigned a different IP address on different occasions, because the server can allocate a pool of IP addresses for allocation to a set of clients.

B) The server can be on a different subnet from the client.

C) The client’s MAC address must be configured on the server, with a one-to-one mapping to the IP address to be assigned to the client with that MAC address.

D) The client can discover its IP address, subnet mask, and default gateway IP address.

B) The server can be on a different subnet from the client.

D) The client can discover its IP address, subnet mask, and default gateway IP address.

43

R1 is HSRP active for virtual IP address 172.16.1.1, with HSRP priority set to 115. R1 is tracking three separate interfaces. An engineer configures the same HSRP group on R2, also connected to the same subnet, only using the standby 1 ip 172.16.1.1 command, and no other HSRP-related commands. Which of the following would cause R2 to take over as HSRP active?

A) R1 experiences failures on tracked interfaces, totaling 16 or more lost points.

B) R1 experiences failures on tracked interfaces, totaling 15 or more lost points.

C) R2 could configure a priority of 116 or greater.

D) R1’s fa0/0 interface fails.

E) R2 would take over immediately.

D) R1’s fa0/0 interface fails.

44

Which Cisco IOS feature does HSRP, GLBP, and VRRP use to determine when an interface fails for active switching purposes?

A) Each protocol has a built-in method of tracking interfaces.

B) When a physical interface goes down, the redundancy protocol uses this automatically as a basis for switching.

C) Each protocol uses its own hello mechanism for determining which interfaces are up or down.

D) The Cisco IOS object tracking feature.

D) The Cisco IOS object tracking feature.

45

Which is the correct term for using more than one HSRP group to provide load balancing for HSRP?

A) LBHSRP

B) LSHSRP

C) RHSRP

D) MHSRP

E) None of these. HSRP does not support load balancing.

D) MHSRP

46

Which of the following NTP modes in a Cisco router requires a predefinition of the IP address of an NTP server?

A) Server mode

B) Static client mode

C) Broadcast client mode

D) Symmetric active mode

B) Static client mode

D) Symmetric active mode

47

Which of the following are true about SNMP security?

A) SNMP Version 1 calls for the use of community strings that are passed as clear text.

B) SNMP Version 2c calls for the use of community strings that are passed as MD5 message digests generated with private keys.

C) SNMP Version 3 allows for authentication using MD5 message digests generated with private keys.

D) SNMP Version 3 authentication also requires concurrent use of encryption, typically done with DES.

A) SNMP Version 1 calls for the use of community strings that are passed as clear text.

C) SNMP Version 3 allows for authentication using MD5 message digests generated with private keys.

D) SNMP Version 3 authentication also requires concurrent use of encryption, typically done with DES.

48

Which of the following statements are true regarding features of SNMP based on the SNMP version?

A) SNMP Version 2 added the GetNext protocol message to SNMP.

B) SNMP Version 3 added the Inform protocol message to SNMP.

C) SNMP Version 2 added the Inform protocol message to SNMP.

D) SNMP Version 3 expanded the SNMP Response protocol message so that it must be used by managers in response to Traps sent by agents.

E) SNMP Version 3 enhanced SNMP Version 2 security features but not other features.

C) SNMP Version 2 added the Inform protocol message to SNMP.

49

WCCP uses what protocol and port for communication between content engines and WCCP routers?

A) UDP 2048

B) TCP 2048

C) UDP 4082

D) TCP 4082

A) UDP 2048

50

In a WCCP cluster, which content engine becomes the lead engine after the cluster stabilizes?

A) The content engine with the lowest IP address.

B) The content engine with the highest IP address.

C) There is no such thing as a lead content engine; the correct term is designated content engine.

D) All content engines have equal precedence for redundancy and the fastest possible load sharing.

A) The content engine with the lowest IP address.

51

Which configuration commands are required to enable SSH on a router?
A) hostname

B) ip domain-name

C) ip ssh

D) crypto key generate rsa

E) http secure-server

A) hostname

B) ip domain-name

C) ip ssh

D) crypto key generate rsa

52

Which protocol is the most secure choice, natively, for transferring files from a router?

A) SSH

B) HTTPS

C) FTP

D) TFTP

E) SCP

E) SCP

53

In RMON, which type of configured option includes rising and falling thresholds, either relative or absolute, and is monitored by another type of RMON option?

A) Event

B) Alert

C) Notification

D) Port

E) Probe

A) Event

54

Which Cisco IOS feature permits end-to-end network performance monitoring with configuration on devices at each end of the network?

A) Flexible NetFlow

B) IP SLA

C) EEM

D) RITE

B) IP SLA

55

What command is used to enable CEF globally for IP packets?

A) enable cef

B) ip enable cef

C) ip cef

D) cef enable

E) cef enable ip

F) cef ip

C) ip cef

56

Which of the follow triggers an update to a CEF FIB?

A) Receipt of a Frame Relay InARP message with previously unknown information

B) Receipt of a LAN ARP reply message with previously unknown information

C) Addition of a new route to the IP routing table by EIGRP

D) Addition of a new route to the IP routing table by adding an ip route command

E) The removal of a route from the IP routing table by EIGRP

C) Addition of a new route to the IP routing table by EIGRP

D) Addition of a new route to the IP routing table by adding an ip route command

E) The removal of a route from the IP routing table by EIGRP

57

Router1 has a Frame Relay access link attached to its s0/0 interface. Router1 has a PVC connecting it to Router3. What action triggers Router3 to send an InARP message over the PVC to Router1?

A) Receipt of a CDP multicast on the PVC connected to Router1

B) Receipt of an InARP request from Router1

C) Receipt of a packet that needs to be routed to Router1

D) Receipt of a Frame Relay message stating the PVC to Router1 is up

D) Receipt of a Frame Relay message stating the PVC to Router1 is up

58

Three routers are attached to the same Frame Relay network, have a full mesh of PVCs, and use IP addresses 10.1.1.1/24 (R1), 10.1.1.2/24 (R2), and 10.1.1.3 (R3). R1 has its IP address configured on its physical interface; R2 and R3 have their IP addresses configured on multipoint subinterfaces. Assuming all the Frame Relay PVCs are up and working, and the router interfaces have been administratively enabled, which of the following is true?

A) R1 can ping 10.1.1.2.

B) R2 cannot ping 10.1.1.3.

C) R3 can ping 10.1.1.2.

D) In this case, R1 must rely on mapping via InARP to be able to ping 10.1.1.3.

A) R1 can ping 10.1.1.2

C) R3 can ping 10.1.1.2.

D) In this case, R1 must rely on mapping via InARP to be able to ping 10.1.1.3.

59

Three routers are attached to the same Frame Relay network, with a partial mesh of PVCs: R1-R2 and R1-R3. The routers use IP addresses 10.1.1.1/24 (R1), 10.1.1.2/24 (R2), and 10.1.1.3/24 (R3). R1 has its IP address configured on its physical interface; R2 has its IP address configured on a multipoint subinterface; and R3 has its IP address configured on a point-to-point subinterface. Assuming all the Frame Relay PVCs are up and working, and the router interfaces have been administratively enabled, which of the following is true? Assume no frame-relay map commands have been configured.

A) R1 can ping 10.1.1.2.

B) R2 can ping 10.1.1.3.

C) R3 can ping 10.1.1.1.

D) R3’s ping 10.1.1.2 command results in R3 not sending the ICMP Echo packet.

E) R2’s ping 10.1.1.3 command results in R2 not sending the ICMP Echo packet.

A) R1 can ping 10.1.1.2.

C) R3 can ping 10.1.1.1.

E) R2’s ping 10.1.1.3 command results in R2 not sending the ICMP Echo packet.

60

Router1 has an OSPF-learned route to 10.1.1.0/24 as its only route to a subnet on class A network 10.0.0.0. It also has a default route. When Router1 receives a packet destined for 10.1.2.3, it discards the packet. Which of the following commands would make Router1 use the default route for those packets in the future?

A) ip classless subcommand of router ospf

B) no ip classful subcommand of router ospf

C) ip classless global command

D) no ip classless global command

E) no ip classful global command

C) ip classless global command

61

Which of the following commands is used on a Cisco IOS Layer 3 switch to use the interface as a routed interface instead of a switched interface?

A) ip routing global command

B) ip routing interface subcommand

C) ip address interface subcommand

D) switchport access layer-3 interface subcommand

E) no switchport interface subcommand

E) no switchport interface subcommand

62

On a Cisco 3550 switch with Enterprise Edition software, the first line of the output of a show interface vlan 55 command lists the state as “Vlan 55 is down, line protocol is down.” Which of the following might be causing that state to occur?

A) VLAN interface has not been no shut yet.

B) The ip routing global command is missing from the configuration.

C) On at least one interface in the VLAN, a cable that was previously plugged in has been unplugged.

D) VTP mode is set to transparent.

E) The VLAN has not yet been created on this switch.

E) The VLAN has not yet been created on this switch.

63

Imagine a route map used for policy routing, in which the route map has a set interface default serial0/0 command. Serial0/0 is a point-to-point link to another router. A packet arrives at this router, and the packet matches the policy routing route-map clause whose only set command is the one just mentioned. Which of the following general characterizations is true?

A) The packet will be routed out interface s0/0; if s0/0 is down, it will be routed using the default route from the routing table.

B) The packet will be routed using the default route in the routing table; if there is no default, the packet will be routed out s0/0.

C) The packet will be routed using the best match of the destination address with the routing table; if no match is made, the packet will be routed out s0/0.

D) The packet will be routed out interface s0/0; if s0/0 is down, the packet will be discarded.

C) The packet will be routed using the best match of the destination address with the routing table; if no match is made, the packet will be routed out s0/0.

64

Router1 has an fa0/0 interface and two point-to-point WAN links back to the core of the network (s0/0 and s0/1, respectively). Router1 accepts routing information only over s0/0, which Router1 uses as its primary link. When s0/0 fails, Router1 uses policy routing to forward the traffic out the relatively slower s0/1 link. Which of the following set commands in Router1’s policy routing route map could have been used to achieve this function?

A) set ip default next-hop

B) set ip next-hop

C) set ip default interface

D) set ip interface

A) set ip default next-hop

C) set ip default interface

65

Which of the following are conditions or attributes of PfR?

A) Requires CEF to be enabled

B) Doesn’t support MPLS circuits

C) Operates automatically in Cisco IOS 12.4(9)T and later, with no configuration

D) Supports passive and active monitoring

E) Uses IP SLA and NetFlow to gather performance information

A) Requires CEF to be enabled

B) Doesn’t support MPLS circuits

D) Supports passive and active monitoring

E) Uses IP SLA and NetFlow to gather performance information

66

Which of the following items are true of EIGRP?

A) Authentication can be done using MD5 or clear text.

B) Uses UDP port 88.

C) Sends full or partial updates as needed.

D) Multicasts updates to 224.0.0.10.

C) Sends full or partial updates as needed.

D) Multicasts updates to 224.0.0.10.

67

Four routers (R1, R2, R3, and R4) are attached to the same VLAN. R1 has been configured for an EIGRP Hello timer of 3. R2 has been configured with a metric weights 0 0 0 1 0 0 command. R3 has been configured with a hold time of 11 seconds. Their IP addresses are 10.1.1.1, 10.1.1.2, 10.1.1.3, and 10.1.1.4, with /24 prefixes, except R4, which has a /23 prefix configured. All other related parameters are set to their default. Select the routers that are able to collectively form neighbor relationships.

A) R1

B) R2

C) R3

D) R4

E) None of them can form a neighbor relationship.

A) R1

C) R3

D) R4

68

In the show ip eigrp neighbors output, what do the numbers in the column labeled “H” represent?

A) The current Hold Time countdown

B) The number of seconds before a Hello is expected

C) The order in which the neighbors came up

D) None of the other answers is correct

C) The order in which the neighbors came up

69

Which of the following is not true regarding the EIGRP Update message?

A) Updates require an acknowledgement with an Ack message.

B) Updates can be sent to multicast address 224.0.0.10.

C) Updates are sent as unicasts when they are retransmitted.

D) Updates always include all routes known by a router, with partial routing information distributed as part of the EIGRP Reply message.

D) Updates always include all routes known by a router, with partial routing information distributed as part of the EIGRP Reply message.

70

The output of a show ip eigrp topology command lists information about subnet 10.1.1.0/24, with two successors, and three routes listed on lines beginning with “via.” How many feasible successor routes exist for 10.1.1.0/24?

A) 0

B) 1

C) 2

D) 3

E) Cannot determine from the information given

B) 1

71

The following command output shows R11’s topology information for subnet 10.1.1.0/24. Then R11 and R12 (IP address 10.1.11.2) are connected to the same LAN segment. Then R11’s EIGRP Hold Time expires for neighbor R12. Which of the following is true about R11’s first reaction to the loss of its neighbor R12?
R11# show ip eigrp topology
! lines omitted for brevity
P 10.1.1.0/24, 1 successors, FD is 1456
via 10.1.11.2 (1456/1024), FastEthernet0/0
via 10.1.14.2 (1756/1424), Serial0/0.4

A) R11 sends Updates to all neighbors poisoning its route to 10.1.1.0/24.

B) R11 replaces the old route through 10.1.11.2 with the feasible successor route through 10.1.14.2.

C) R11 sends Query messages to all other neighbors to ensure that the alternate route through 10.1.14.2 is loop free, before using the route.

D) R11 first Queries only neighbors on interface fa0/0 for alternative routes before Querying the rest of its neighbors.

B) R11 replaces the old route through 10.1.11.2 with the feasible successor route through 10.1.14.2.

72

EIGRP router R11 has just changed its route to subnet 10.1.2.0/24 to the active state, and has sent a Query to five neighbors. Which of the following is true about the next step taken by R11?

A) R11 adds a new route to 10.1.2.0/24 to the routing table as soon as it receives an EIGRP Reply that describes a new route to 10.1.2.0/24.

B) R11 can add a new route to 10.1.2.0/24 after receiving Reply messages from all 5 neighbors.

C) R11 can add a new route for 10.1.2.0/24 to the routing table, even without five Reply messages, once the Hold timer expires.

D) R11 can add a new route for 10.1.2.0/24 to the routing table, even without five Reply messages, once the Dead timer expires.

B) R11 can add a new route to 10.1.2.0/24 after receiving Reply messages from all 5 neighbors.

73

EIGRP router R11 has five interfaces, with IP address 10.1.1.11/24 (interface fa0/0), 10.1.2.11/24, 10.1.3.11/24, 10.1.4.11/24, and 10.1.5.11/24. Its EIGRP configuration is shown below. Which of the following answers is true regarding this router?
router eigrp 1
network 10.1.0.0 0.0.3.255
passive-interface fa0/0

A) R11 will send EIGRP Updates out fa0/0, but not process received EIGRP Updates.

B) R11 will advertise connected subnets 10.1.3.0/24 and 10.1.4.0/24.

C) R11 will advertise subnets 10.1.1.0/24 and 10.1.2.0/24.

D) The network command does not match any interfaces, so EIGRP will essentially do nothing.


C) R11 will advertise subnets 10.1.1.0/24 and 10.1.2.0/24.

74

EIGRP router Br1 is a branch router with two Frame Relay subinterfaces (s0/0.1 and s0/0.2) connecting it to distribution routers. It also has one LAN interface, fa0/0. No other routers connect to the Br1 LAN. Which of the following scenarios prevent router Br1 from sending EIGRP Hellos out its fa0/0 interface?

A) The inclusion of the passive-interface fa0/0 command on Br1

B) The inclusion of the eigrp stub command on Br1

C) The inclusion of the eigrp stub receive-only command on Br1

D) The lack of a network command that matches the IP address of Br1’s fa0/0 interface

A) The inclusion of the passive-interface fa0/0 command on Br1

D) The lack of a network command that matches the IP address of Br1’s fa0/0 interface

75

R1 has received an OSPF LSU from R2. Which of the following methods may be used by R1 to acknowledge receipt of the LSU from R2?

A) TCP on R1 acknowledges using the TCP Acknowledgement field.

B) R1 sends back an identical copy of the LSU.

C) R1 sends back an LSAck to R2.

D) R1 sends back a DD packet with LSA headers whose sequence numbers match the sequence numbers in the LSU.

B) R1 sends back an identical copy of the LSU.

C) R1 sends back an LSAck to R2.

76

Fredsco has an enterprise network with one core Frame Relay connected router, with a hub-and-spoke network of PVCs connecting to ten remote offices. The network uses OSPF exclusively. The core router (R-core) has all ten PVCs defined under multipoint subinterface s0/0.1. Each remote router also uses a multipoint subinterface. Fred, the engineer, configures an ip ospf network non-broadcast command under the subinterface on R-core and on the subinterfaces of the ten remote routers. Fred also assigns an IP address to each router from subnet 10.3.4.0/24, with R-core using the .100 address, and the remote offices using .1 through .10. Assuming all other related options are using defaults, which of the following would be true about this network?

A) The OSPF hello interval would be 30 seconds.

B) The OSPF dead interval would be 40 seconds.

C) The remote routers could learn all routes to other remote routers’ subnets, but only if R-core became the designated router.

D) No designated router will be elected in subnet 10.3.4.0/24.

A) The OSPF hello interval would be 30 seconds.

C) The remote routers could learn all routes to other remote routers’ subnets, but only if R-core became the designated router.

77

Which of the following interface subcommands, used on a multipoint Frame Relay subinterface, creates a requirement for a DR to be elected for the attached subnet?

A) ip ospf network point-to-multipoint

B) ip ospf network point-to-multipoint non-broadcast

C) ip ospf network non-broadcast

D) None of these answers is correct.


C) ip ospf network non-broadcast

78

The following routers share the same LAN segment and have the stated OSPF settings: R1: RID 1.1.1.1, hello 10, priority 3; R2: RID 2.2.2.2, hello 9, priority 4; R3, RID 3.3.3.3, priority 3; and R4: RID 4.4.4.4, hello 10, priority 2. The LAN switch fails, recovers, and all routers attempt to elect an OSPF DR and form neighbor relationships at the same time. No other OSPF-related parameters were specifically set. Which of the following is true about negotiations and elections on this LAN?

A) R1, R3, and R4 will expect Hellos from R2 every 9 seconds.

B) R2 will become the DR but have no neighbors.

C) R3 will become the BDR.

D) R4’s dead interval will be 40 seconds.

E) All routers will use R2’s hello interval of 9 once R2 becomes the designated router.

B) R2 will become the DR but have no neighbors.

D) R4’s dead interval will be 40 seconds.

79

Which of the following must be true in order for two OSPF routers that share the same LAN data link to be able to become OSPF neighbors?

A) Must be in the same area

B) Must have the same LSRefresh setting

C) Must have differing OSPF priorities

D) Must have the same Hello timer, but can have different dead intervals

A) Must be in the same area

80

R1 is an OSPF ASBR that injects an E1 route for network 200.1.1.0/24 into the OSPF backbone area. R2 is an ABR connected to area 0 and to area 1. R2 also has an Ethernet interface in area 0, IP address 10.1.1.1/24, for which it is the designated router. R3 is a router internal to area 1. Enough links are up and working for the OSPF design to be working properly. Which of the following is true regarding this topology? (Assume no other routing protocols are running, and that area 1 is not a stub area.)

A) R1 creates a type 7 LSA and floods it throughout area 0.

B) R3 will not have a specific route to 200.1.1.0/24.

C) R2 forwards the LSA that R1 created for 200.1.1.0/24 into area 1.

D) R2 will create a type 2 LSA for subnet 10.1.1.0/24 and flood it throughout area 0.

C) R2 forwards the LSA that R1 created for 200.1.1.0/24 into area 1.

D) R2 will create a type 2 LSA for subnet 10.1.1.0/24 and flood it throughout area 0.

81

R1 is an OSPF ASBR that injects an E1 route for network 200.1.1.0/24 into the OSPF backbone area. R2 is an ABR connected to area 0 and to area 1. R2 also has an Ethernet interface in area 0, IP address 10.1.1.1/24, for which it is the designated router. R3 is a router internal to area 1. Enough links are up and working for the OSPF design to be working properly. Which of the following are true regarding this topology? (Assume no other routing protocols are running, and that area 1 is a totally NSSA area.)

A) R3 could inject external routes into the OSPF domain.

B) R3 will not have a specific route to 200.1.1.0/24.

C) R2 forwards the LSA that R1 created for 200.1.1.0/24 into area 1.

D) R2 will create a type 2 LSA for subnet 10.1.1.0/24 and flood it throughout area 0.

A) R3 could inject external routes into the OSPF domain.

B) R3 will not have a specific route to 200.1.1.0/24.

D) R2 will create a type 2 LSA for subnet 10.1.1.0/24 and flood it throughout area 0.

82

The routers in area 55 all have the area 55 stub no-summary command configured under the router ospf command. OSPF has converged, with all routers in area 55 holding an identical link-state database for area 55. All IP addresses inside the area come from the range 10.55.0.0/16; no other links outside area 55 use addresses in this range. R11 is the only ABR for the area. Which of the following is true about this design?

A) The area is a stubby area.

B) The area is a totally stubby area.

C) The area is an NSSA.

D) ABR R11 is not allowed to summarize the type 1 and 2 LSAs in area 55 into the 10.55.0.0/16 prefix due to the no-summary keyword.

E) Routers internal to area 55 can have routes to specific subnets inside area 0.

F) Routers internal to area 55 can have routes to E1, but not E2, OSPF routes.

B) The area is a totally stubby area.

83

R1 is an OSPF ASBR that injects an E1 route for network 200.1.1.0/24 into the OSPF backbone area. R2 is an ABR connected to area 0 and to area 1. R2 also has an Ethernet interface in area 0, IP address 10.1.1.1/24, for which it is the designated router. R3 is a router internal to area 1. Enough links are up and working for the OSPF design to be working properly. Which of the following are true regarding this topology? (Assume no other routing protocols are running, and that area 1 is not a stubby area.)

A) R3’s cost for the route to 200.1.1.0 will be the cost of the route as it was injected into the OSPF domain by R1, without considering any internal cost.

B) R3’s cost for the route to 200.1.1.0 will include the addition of R3’s cost to reach R1, plus the external cost listed in the LSA.

C) R3’s cost for the route to 10.1.1.0/24 will be the same as its cost to reach ABR R2.

D) R3’s cost for the route to 10.1.1.0/24 will be the sum of its cost to reach ABR R2 plus the cost listed in the type 3 LSA created for 10.1.1.0/24 by ABR R2.

E) It is impossible to characterize R3’s cost to 10.1.1.0/24 because R3 uses a summary type 3 LSA, which hides some of the costs.

B) R3’s cost for the route to 200.1.1.0 will include the addition of R3’s cost to reach R1, plus the external cost listed in the LSA.

D) R3’s cost for the route to 10.1.1.0/24 will be the sum of its cost to reach ABR R2 plus the cost listed in the type 3 LSA created for 10.1.1.0/24 by ABR R2.

84

R1 and R2 each connect via Fast Ethernet interfaces to the same LAN, which should be in area 0. R1’s IP address is 10.1.1.1/24, and R2’s is 10.1.1.2/24. The only OSPF-related configuration is as follows:
hostname R1
router ospf 1
network 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 area 0
auto-cost reference-bandwidth 1000
!
hostname R2
router ospf 2
network 10.0.0.0 0.0.0.255 area 0

Which of the following statements are true about the configuration?

A) The network command on R2 does not match IP address 10.1.1.2, so R2 will not attempt to send Hellos or discover neighbors on the LAN.

B) The different process IDs in the router ospf command prevent the two routers from becoming neighbors on the LAN.

C) R2 will become the DR as a result of having a cost of 1 associated with its Fast Ethernet interface.

D) R1 and R2 could never become neighbors due to the difference in cost values.

E) R1’s OSPF cost for its Fast Ethernet interface would be 10.

A) The network command on R2 does not match IP address 10.1.1.2, so R2 will not attempt to send Hellos or discover neighbors on the LAN.

E) R1’s OSPF cost for its Fast Ethernet interface would be 10.

85

Which of the following are true about setting timers with OSPF?

A) The ip ospf dead-interval minimal hello-multiplier 4 interface subcommand sets the hello interval to 4 ms.

B) The ip ospf dead-interval minimal hello-multiplier 4 interface subcommand sets the dead interval to 4 seconds.

C) The ip ospf dead-interval minimal hello-multiplier 4 interface subcommand sets the hello interval to 250 ms.

D) On all interfaces, the ip ospf hello-interval 30 interface subcommand changes the hello interval from 10 to 30.

E) The ip ospf hello-multiplier 5 interface subcommand sets the dead interval to five times the then-current hello interval.

F) Cisco IOS defaults the hello and dead intervals to 30/120 on interfaces using the OSPF nonbroadcast network type.s

C) The ip ospf dead-interval minimal hello-multiplier 4 interface subcommand sets the hello interval to 250 ms.

F) Cisco IOS defaults the hello and dead intervals to 30/120 on interfaces using the OSPF nonbroadcast network types

86

R1 has been configured for OSPF authentication on its fa0/0 interface as shown below. Which of the following is true about the configuration?
interface fa0/0
ip ospf authentication-key hannah
ip ospf authentication
ip ospf message-digest-key 2 md5 jessie
router ospf 2
area 0 authentication message-digest

A) R1 will attempt simple-text authentication on the LAN with key hannah.

B) R1 will attempt MD5 authentication on the LAN with key jessie.

C) R2 will attempt OSPF type 2 authentication on fa0/0.

D) R2 will attempt OSPF type 3 authentication on fa0/0.

A) R1 will attempt simple-text authentication on the LAN with key hannah.

87

A route map has several clauses. A route map’s first clause has a permit action configured. The match command for this clause refers to an ACL that matches route 10.1.1.0/24 with a permit action, and matches route 10.1.2.0/24 with a deny action. If this route map is used for route redistribution, which of the following are true?

A) The route map will attempt to redistribute 10.1.1.0/24.

B) The question does not supply enough information to determine if 10.1.1.0/24 is redistributed.

C) The route map will not attempt to redistribute 10.1.2.0/24.

D) The question does not supply enough information to determine if 10.1.2.0/24 is redistributed.

A) The route map will attempt to redistribute 10.1.1.0/24.

D) The question does not supply enough information to determine if 10.1.2.0/24 is redistributed.

88

Which of the following routes would be matched by this prefix list command: ip prefix-list fred permit 10.128.0.0/9 ge 20?

A) 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0

B) 10.127.1.0 255.255.255.0

C) 10.200.200.192 255.255.255.252

D) 10.128.0.0 255.255.240.0

E) None of these answers is correct.

C) 10.200.200.192 255.255.255.252

D) 10.128.0.0 255.255.240.0

89

A router is using the configuration shown below to redistribute routes. This router has several working interfaces with IP addresses in network 10.0.0.0, and has learned some network 10 routes with EIGRP and some with OSPF. Which of the following is true about the redistribution configuration?
router eigrp 1
network 10.0.0.0
redistribute ospf 2
!
router ospf 2
network 10.0.0.0 0.255.255.255 area 3
redistribute eigrp 1 subnets

R1# show ip route 15.0.0.0
Routing entry for 15.0.0.0/24, 5 known subnets
Attached (2 connections)
Redistributing via eigrp 1

O E1 10.6.11.0 [110/84] via 10.1.6.6, 00:21:52, Serial0/0/0.6
O E2 10.6.12.0 [110/20] via 10.1.6.6, 00:21:52, Serial0/0/0.6
C 10.1.6.0 is directly connected, Serial0/0/0.6
O IA 10.1.2.0 [110/65] via 10.1.1.5, 00:21:52, Serial0/0/0.5
C 10.1.1.0 is directly connected, Serial0/0/0.5

A) EIGRP will not advertise any additional routes due to redistribution.

B) OSPF will not advertise any additional routes due to redistribution.

C) Routes redistributed into OSPF will be advertised as E1 routes.

D) The redistribute ospf 2 command would be rejected due to missing parameters.

A) EIGRP will not advertise any additional routes due to redistribution.

90

Examine the following router configuration and excerpt from its IP routing table. Which routes could be redistributed into OSPF?
router eigrp 1
network 12.0.0.0
router ospf 2
redistribute eigrp 1 subnets
network 13.0.0.0 0.255.255.255 area 3
An excerpt from the routing table is shown next:
C 12.1.6.0 is directly connected, Serial0/0/0.6
D 12.0.0.0/8 [90/2172416] via 13.1.1.1, 00:01:30, Serial0/0/0.5
C 13.1.1.0 is directly connected, Serial0/0/0.5

A) 12.1.6.0

B) 12.0.0.0

C) 13.1.1.0

D) None of these answers is correct.

A) 12.1.6.0

B) 12.0.0.0

91

Two corporations merged. The network engineers decided to redistribute between one company’s EIGRP network and the other company’s OSPF network, using two mutually redistributing routers (R1 and R2) for redundancy. Assume that as many defaults as is possible are used for the redistribution configuration. Assume that one of the subnets in the OSPF domain is 10.1.1.0/24. Which of the following is true about a possible suboptimal route to 10.1.1.0/24 on R1—a route that sends packets through the EIGRP domain, and through R2 into the OSPF domain?

A) The suboptimal routes will occur unless the configuration filters routes at R1.

B) R1’s administrative distance must be manipulated, such that OSPF routes have an administrative distance less than EIGRP’s default of 90.

C) EIGRP prevents the suboptimal routes by default.

D) Using route tags is the only way to prevent the suboptimal routes.

C) EIGRP prevents the suboptimal routes by default.

92

Which of the following statements is true about the type of routes created when redistributing routes?

A) Routes redistributed into OSPF default to be external type 2.

B) Routes redistributed into EIGRP default to external, but can be set to internal with a route map.

C) Routes redistributed into RIP are external by default.

D) Routes redistributed into OSPF by a router in an NSSA area default to be external type 1.

A) Routes redistributed into OSPF default to be external type 2.

93

Which of the following is not true about route summarization?

A) The advertised summary is assigned the same metric as the lowest-metric component subnet.

B) The router does not advertise the summary when its routing table does not have any of the component subnets.

C) The router does not advertise the component subnets.

D) Summarization, when used with redistribution, prevents all cases of suboptimal routes.

D) Summarization, when used with redistribution, prevents all cases of suboptimal routes.

94

Which of the following is/are true regarding the default-information originate router subcommand?

A) It is not supported by EIGRP.

B) It causes OSPF to advertise a default route, but only if a static route to 0.0.0.0/0 is in that router’s routing table.

C) The always keyword on the default-information originate command, when used for OSPF, means OSPF will originate a default route even if no default route exists in its own IP routing table.

D) None of the other answers is correct.

A) It is not supported by EIGRP.

C) The always keyword on the default-information originate command, when used for OSPF, means OSPF will originate a default route even if no default route exists in its own IP routing table.

95

An EIGRP router is showing intermittent reachability to 172.30.8.32/27. Which command(s) reveals the source by which this prefix is being advertised to the local router?

A) show ip protocols

B) show ip route eigrp

C) show ip eigrp neighbor

D) show ip eigrp topology 172.30.8.32

E) show ip route 172.30.8.32

B) show ip route eigrp

D) show ip eigrp topology 172.30.8.32

E) show ip route 172.30.8.32

96

You suspect that a routing loop exists in your network because a subnet is intermittently reachable. What is the most specific way to determine that a routing loop is the cause?

A) ping

B) traceroute

C) debug ip packet detail

D) debug ip routing

E) show ip protocols

D) debug ip routing

97

Into which of the following neighbor states must a neighbor stabilize before BGP Update messages may be sent?

A) Active

B) Idle

C) Connected

D) Established

D) Established

98

BGP neighbors check several parameters before the neighbor relationship can be completed. Which of the following is not checked?

A) That the neighbor’s router ID is not duplicated with other routers

B) That the neighbor command on one router matches the update source IP address on the other router

C) If eBGP, that the neighbor command points to an IP address in a connected network

D) That a router’s neighbor remote-as command refers to the same autonomous system number (ASN) as in the other router’s router bgp command (assuming confederations are not used)

C) If eBGP, that the neighbor command points to an IP address in a connected network

99

A group of BGP routers, some with iBGP and some with eBGP connections, all use loopback IP addresses to refer to each other in their neighbor commands. Which of the following statements are false regarding the configuration of these peers?

A) IBGP peers require a neighbor ip-address ibgp-multihop command for the peer to become established.

B) eBGP peers require a neighbor ip-address ebgp-multihop command for the peer to become established.

C) eBGP and iBGP peers cannot be placed into the same peer group.

D) For eBGP peers, a router’s BGP router ID must be equal to the IP address listed in the eBGP neighbor’s neighbor command.

A) IBGP peers require a neighbor ip-address ibgp-multihop command for the peer to become established..

D) For eBGP peers, a router’s BGP router ID must be equal to the IP address listed in the eBGP neighbor’s neighbor command.

100

A router has routes in the IP routing table for 20.0.0.0/8, 20.1.0.0/16, and 20.1.2.0/24. BGP on this router is configured with the no auto-summary command. Which of the following is true when using the BGP network command to cause these routes to be injected into the BGP table?

A) The network 20.0.0.0 command would cause all three routes to be added to the BGP table.

B) The network 20.0.0.0 mask 255.0.0.0 command would cause all three routes to be added to the BGP table.

C) The network 20.1.0.0 mask 255.255.0.0 command would cause 20.1.0.0/16 and 20.1.2.0/24 to be added to the BGP table.

D) The network 20.0.0.0 command would cause only 20.0.0.0/8 to be added to the BGP table.

D) The network 20.0.0.0 command would cause only 20.0.0.0/8 to be added to the BGP table.

101

A router has configured redistribution of EIGRP routes into BGP using the command redistribute eigrp 1 route-map fred. This router’s BGP configuration includes the no auto-summary command. Which of the following are true?

A) route-map fred can consider for redistribution routes listed in the IP routing table as EIGRP-learned routes.

B) route-map fred can consider for redistribution routes in the IP routing table listed as connected routes, but only if those interfaces are matched by EIGRP 1’s network commands.

C) route-map fred can consider for redistribution routes that are listed in the EIGRP topology table as successor routes but that are not in the IP routing table because a lower administrative distance (AD) route from a competing routing protocol exists.

D) route-map fred can consider for redistribution routes listed in the IP routing table as EIGRP-learned routes, but only if those routes also have at least one feasible successor route.

A) route-map fred can consider for redistribution routes listed in the IP routing table as EIGRP-learned routes.

B) route-map fred can consider for redistribution routes in the IP routing table listed as connected routes, but only if those interfaces are matched by EIGRP 1’s network commands.

102

Using BGP, R1 has learned its best route to 9.1.0.0/16 from R3. R1 has a neighbor connection to R2, over a point-to-point serial link using subnet 8.1.1.4/30. R1 has auto-summary configured. Which of the following is true regarding what R1 advertises to R2?

A) R1 advertises only 9.0.0.0/8 to R2, and not 9.1.0.0/16.

B) If the aggregate-address 9.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 BGP subcommand is configured, R1 advertises only 9.0.0.0/8 to R2, and not 9.1.0.0/16.

C) If the network 9.0.0.0 mask 255.0.0.0 BGP subcommand is configured, R1 advertises only 9.0.0.0/8 to R2, and not 9.1.0.0/16.

D) None of the other answers is correct.

C) If the network 9.0.0.0 mask 255.0.0.0 BGP subcommand is configured, R1 advertises only 9.0.0.0/8 to R2, and not 9.1.0.0/16.

103

Which of the following statements are false regarding what routes a BGP router can advertise to a neighbor? (Assume no confederations or route reflectors are in use.)

A) To advertise a route to an eBGP peer, the route cannot have been learned from an iBGP peer.

B) To advertise a route to an iBGP peer, the route must have been learned from an eBGP peer.

C) The NEXT_HOP IP address must respond to a ping command.

D) Do not advertise routes if the neighboring router’s AS is in the AS_PATH.

E) The route must be listed as valid in the output of the show ip bgp command, but it does not have to be listed as best.

A) To advertise a route to an eBGP peer, the route cannot have been learned from an iBGP peer.

C) The NEXT_HOP IP address must respond to a ping command.

104

Several different routes were injected into BGP via various methods on R1. Those routes were then advertised via iBGP to R2. R2 summarized the routes using the aggregate-address summary-only command, and then advertised via eBGP to R3. Which of the following are true about the ORIGIN path attribute of these routes?

A) The routes injected using the network command on R1 have an ORIGIN value of IGP.

B) The routes injected using the redistribute ospf command on R1 have an ORIGIN value of IGP.

C) The routes injected using the redistribute command on R1 have an ORIGIN value of EGP.

D) The routes injected using the redistribute static command on R1 have an ORIGIN value of incomplete.

E) If the as-set option was not used, the summary route created on R2 has an ORIGIN code of IGP.

A) The routes injected using the network command on R1 have an ORIGIN value of IGP.

D) The routes injected using the redistribute static command on R1 have an ORIGIN value of incomplete.

E) If the as-set option was not used, the summary route created on R2 has an ORIGIN code of IGP.

105

Which of the following statements is true regarding the use of BGP synchronization?

A) With BGP synchronization enabled, a router can add an iBGP-learned route to its IP routing table only if that same prefix is also learned via eBGP.

B) With BGP synchronization enabled, a router cannot consider an iBGP-learned route as a “best” route to that prefix unless the NEXT_HOP IP address matches an IGP route in the IP routing table.

C) BGP synchronization can be safely disabled when the routers inside a single AS either create a full mesh of BGP peers or create a hub-and-spoke to the router that learns the prefix via eBGP.

D) None of the other answers is correct

D) None of the other answers is correct

106

Which of the following statements are true regarding the operation of BGP confederations?

A) Confederation eBGP connections act like normal (nonconfederation) eBGP connections with regard to the need for the neighbor ebgp-multihop command for nonadjacent neighbor IP addresses.

B) iBGP-learned routes are advertised over confederation eBGP connections.

C) A full mesh of iBGP peers inside a confederation sub-AS is not required.

D) None of the other answers is correct.

A) Confederation eBGP connections act like normal (nonconfederation) eBGP connections with regard to the need for the neighbor ebgp-multihop command for nonadjacent neighbor IP addresses.

B) iBGP-learned routes are advertised over confederation eBGP connections.

107

R1 is BGP peered to R2, R3, R4, and R5 inside ASN 1, with no other peer connections inside the AS. R1 is a route reflector, serving R2 and R3 only. Each router also has an eBGP connection, through which it learns the following routes: 1.0.0.0/8 by R1, 2.0.0.0/8 by R2, 3.0.0.0/8 by R3, 4.0.0.0/8 by R4, and 5.0.0.0/8 by R5. Which of the following are true regarding the propagation of these routes?

A) NLRI 1.0.0.0/8 is forwarded by R1 to each of the other routers.

B) NLRI 2.0.0.0/8 is sent by R2 to R1, with R1 forwarding only to R3.

C) NLRI 3.0.0.0/8 is sent by R3 to R1, with R1 forwarding to R2, R4, and R5.

D) NLRI 4.0.0.0/8 is sent by R4 to R1, but R1 does not forward the information to R2 or R3.

E) NLRI 5.0.0.0/8 is sent by R5 to R1; R1 reflects the route to R2 and R3, but not to R4.

A) NLRI 1.0.0.0/8 is forwarded by R1 to each of the other routers.

C) NLRI 3.0.0.0/8 is sent by R3 to R1, with R1 forwarding to R2, R4, and R5.

E) NLRI 5.0.0.0/8 is sent by R5 to R1; R1 reflects the route to R2 and R3, but not to R4.

108

R1 is in confederation ASN 65001; R2 and R3 are in confederation ASN 65023. R1 is peered to R2, and R2 is peered to R3. These three routers are perceived to be in AS 1 by eBGP peers. Which of the following is true regarding the configuration of these routers?

A) Each of the three routers has a router bgp 1 command.

B) Both R2 and R3 need a bgp confederation peers 65001 BGP subcommand.

C) R1 needs a bgp confederation identifier 1 BGP subcommand.

D) Both R2 and R3 need a bgp confederation identifier 65023 BGP subcommand.

C) R1 needs a bgp confederation identifier 1 BGP subcommand.

109

A BGP policy needs to be configured to filter all the /20 prefixes whose first two octets are 20.128. Which of the following answers would provide the correct matching logic for the filtering process, matching only the described subnets, and no others?

A) access-list 1 deny 20.128.0.0 0.0.255.255

B) access-list 101 deny ip 20.128.0.0 0.0.255.255 host 255.255.240.0

C) ip prefix-list 1 deny 20.128.0.0/16 eq 20

D) ip prefix-list 2 deny 20.128.0.0/16 ge 20 le 20

B) access-list 101 deny ip 20.128.0.0 0.0.255.255 host 255.255.240.0

D) ip prefix-list 2 deny 20.128.0.0/16 ge 20 le 20

110

Router R1 has a working BGP implementation, advertising subnets of 1.0.0.0/8 to neighbor 2.2.2.2 (R2). A route map named fred has been configured on R1 to filter all routes in network 1.0.0.0. R1 has just added the router bgp subcommand neighbor 2.2.2.2 route-map fred out. No other commands have been used afterward. Which of the following answers, taken as the next step, would allow proper verification of whether the filter indeed filtered the routes?

A) The show ip bgp neighbor 2.2.2.2 advertised-routes command on R1 will no longer list the filtered routes.

B) The show ip bgp neighbor 2.2.2.2 advertised-routes command on R1 will reflect the filtered routes by listing them with a code of r, meaning “RIB failure.”

C) The filtering will not occur, and cannot be verified, until R1 issues a clear ip bgp 2.2.2.2 command.

D) None of the show ip bgp command options on R1 will confirm whether the filtering has occurred.

C) The filtering will not occur, and cannot be verified, until R1 issues a clear ip bgp 2.2.2.2 command.

111

A router needs to match routes with AS_PATHs that include 333, as long as it is not the first ASN in the AS_PATH, while not matching AS_PATHs that include 33333. Which of the following syntactically correct commands could be a part of the complete configuration to match the correct AS_PATHs?

A) ip filter-list 1 permit ^.*_333_

B) ip filter-list 2 permit .*333_

C) ip filter-list 3 permit .*_333.*$

D) ip filter-list 4 permit _333_$

E) ip filter-list 5 permit ^.*_333_.*$

A) ip filter-list 1 permit ^.*_333_

112

R1 and R2 are working BGP peers. The following output of the show ip bgp command shows the entries learned by R1 from R2. It also shows some configuration that was added later on R1. After the appropriate clear command is used to make the new configuration take effect, which of the following entries should R1 have in its BGP table?
Code View: Scroll / Show All
Network Next Hop Metric LocPrf Weight Path
*>i11.10.0.0/16 2.2.2.2 4294967294 100 0 4 1 33333 10 200 44 i
*>i11.11.0.0/16 2.2.2.2 4294967294 100 0 4 1 33333 10 200 44 i
*>i11.12.0.0/16 2.2.2.2 4294967294 100 0 4 1 404 303 202 i
! New config shown next
router bgp 1
neighbor 2.2.2.2 distribute-list 1 in
access-list 1 permit 11.8.0.0 0.3.255.255

A) 11.10.0.0/16

B) 11.11.0.0/16

C) 11.12.0.0/16

D) 11.8.0.0/14

E) None of the listed prefixes

A) 11.10.0.0/16

B) 11.11.0.0/16

113

Which of the following is true regarding BGP path attribute types?

A) The BGP features using well-known attributes must be included in every BGP Update.

B) Optional attributes do not have to be implemented by the programmers that are creating a particular BGP implementation.

C) Nontransitive attributes cannot be advertised into another AS.

D) Discretionary attributes contain sensitive information; Updates should be encoded with MD5 for privacy.

B) Optional attributes do not have to be implemented by the programmers that are creating a particular BGP implementation.

114

Which of the following items in the BGP decision tree occur after the check of the AS_PATH length?

A) Best ORIGIN code

B) LOCAL_PREF

C) MED

D) Whether the next hop is reachable

A) Best ORIGIN code

C) MED

115

Which of the following steps in the BGP decision process consider a larger value to be the better value?

A) ORIGIN

B) LOCAL_PREF

C) WEIGHT

D) MED

E) IGP metric to reach the next hop

B) LOCAL_PREF

C) WEIGHT

116

Which of the following is not advertised to BGP neighbors at all?

A) WEIGHT

B) MED

C) LOCAL_PREF

D) ORIGIN

A) WEIGHT

117

The following shows the output of the show ip bgp command on R1. Which BGP decision tree step determined which route was best? (Assume that the next hop IP address is reachable.)
Network Next Hop Metric LocPrf Weight Path
*> 11.10.0.0/16 10.1.2.3 4294967294 100 0 4 1 33333 10 200 44 i
* i 2.2.2.2 4294967294 100 0 4 1 33333 10 200 44 i
* i 2.2.2.2 4294967294 100 0 4 1 404 505 303 202 i

A) Largest Weight

B) Best ORIGIN code

C) Lowest MED

D) Largest LOCAL_PREF

E) Better neighbor type

F) None of the answers is correct.

E) Better neighbor type

118

The following shows the output of the show ip bgp command on R1. Which BGP decision tree step determined which route was best? (Assume that the NEXT_HOP IP address is reachable.)
Network Next Hop Metric LocPrf Weight Path
* 11.10.0.0/16 10.1.2.3 3 120 10 4 1 33333 10 200 44 ?
*>i 2.2.2.2 1 130 30 4 33333 10 200 44 i
* i 2.2.2.2 2 110 20 4 1 404 505 303 202 ?

A) Largest Weight.

B) Best ORIGIN code.

C) Lowest MED.

D) Largest LOCAL_PREF.

E) Better Neighbor Type.

F) None of the answers is correct.

A) Largest Weight.

119

The following exhibit lists commands that were typed using a text editor and later pasted into config mode on router R1. At the time, R1 had a working eBGP connection to several peers, including 3.3.3.3. R1 had learned of several subnets of networks 11.0.0.0/8 and 12.0.0.0/8 via neighbors besides 3.3.3.3. Once pasted, a clear command was issued to pick up the changes. Which of the following statements is true regarding the AS_PATH of the routes advertised by R1 to 3.3.3.3?
router bgp 1
neighbor 3.3.3.3 route-map zzz out
ip prefix-list match11 seq 5 permit 11.0.0.0/8 le 32
route-map zzz permit 10
match ip address prefix-list match11
set as-path prepend 1 1 1

A) No changes would occur, because the configuration would be rejected due to syntax errors.

B) Routes to subnets inside network 11.0.0.0/8 would contain three consecutive 1s, but no more, in the AS_PATH.

C) Routes to subnets inside 11.0.0.0/8 would contain at least four consecutive 1s in the AS_PATH.

D) Routes to subnets inside 12.0.0.0/8 would have no 1s in the AS_PATH.

E) Routes to subnets inside 12.0.0.0/8 would have one additional 1 in the AS_PATH.

C) Routes to subnets inside 11.0.0.0/8 would contain at least four consecutive 1s in the AS_PATH.

120

Which of the following must occur or be configured in order for BGP to mark multiple iBGP routes in the BGP table—entries for the exact same destination prefix/length—as the best routes?

A) Inclusion of the maximum-paths number command under router BGP, with a setting larger than 1.

B) Inclusion of the maximum-paths ibgp number command under router BGP, with a setting larger than 1.

C) Multiple routes that tie for all BGP decision process comparisons up through checking a route’s ORIGIN code.

D) BGP cannot consider multiple routes in the BGP table for the exact same prefix as best routes.

D) BGP cannot consider multiple routes in the BGP table for the exact same prefix as best routes.

121

Which of the following special BGP COMMUNITY values, when set, imply that a route should not be forwarded outside a confederation AS?

A) LOCAL_AS

B) NO_ADVERT

C) NO_EXPORT

D) NO_EXPORT_SUBCONFED

A) LOCAL_AS

D) NO_EXPORT_SUBCONFED

122

When BGP peers have set and sent COMMUNITY values in BGP Updates, which of the following is true?

A) The BGP decision process adds a check for the COMMUNITY just before the check for the shortest AS_PATH length.

B) The lowest COMMUNITY value is considered best by the BGP decision process, unless the COMMUNITY is set to one of the special reserved values.

C) The COMMUNITY does not impact the BGP decision process directly.

D) None of the other answers is correct.

C) The COMMUNITY does not impact the BGP decision process directly.

123

According to the DiffServ RFCs, which PHB defines a set of three DSCPs in each service class, with different drop characteristics for each of the three DSCP values?
A) Expedited Forwarding

B) Class Selector

C) Assured Forwarding

D) Multi-class-multi-drop

C) Assured Forwarding

124

Which of the following are true about the location of DSCP in the IP header?

A) High-order 6 bits of ToS byte/DS field

B) Low-order 6 bits of ToS byte

C) Middle 6 bits of ToS byte

D) Its first 3 bits overlap with IP Precedence

E) Its last 3 bits overlap with IP Precedence

A) High-order 6 bits of ToS byte/DS field

D) Its first 3 bits overlap with IP Precedence

125

Imagine that a packet is marked with DSCP CS3. Later, a QoS tool classifies the packet. Which of the following classification criteria would match the packet, assuming the marking had not been changed from the original CS3 marking?

A) Match on DSCP CS3

B) Match on precedence 3

C) Match on DSCP AF32

D) Match on DSCP AF31

E) Match on DSCP decimal 24

A) Match on DSCP CS3

B) Match on precedence 3

E) Match on DSCP decimal 24

126

Imagine that a packet is marked with AF31. Later, a QoS tool classifies the packet. Which of the following classification criteria would match the packet, assuming the marking had not been changed from the original AF31 marking?

A) Match on DSCP CS3

B) Match on precedence 3

C) Match on DSCP 24

D) Match on DSCP 26

E) Match on DSCP 28

B) Match on precedence 3

D) Match on DSCP 26

127

Examine the following output from a router that shows a user adding configuration to a router. Which of the following statements is true about the configuration?
Router(config)# class-map fred
Router(config-cmap)# match dscp EF
Router(config-cmap)# match access-group 101

A) Packets that match both DSCP EF and ACL 101 will match the class.

B) Packets that match either DSCP EF or ACL 101 will match the class.

C) Packets that match ACL 101 will match the class, because the second match command replaces the first.

D) Packets will only match DSCP EF because the first match exits the class map.

A) Packets that match both DSCP EF and ACL 101 will match the class.

128

Router R1 is configured with the following three class maps. Which class map(s) would match an incoming frame whose CoS field is set to 3, IP Precedence is set to 2, and DSCP is set to AF21?
class-map match-all c1
match cos 3 4
class-map match-any c2
match cos 2 3
match cos 1
class-map match-all c3
match cos 3 4
match cos 2

A) c1

B) c2

C) c3

D) All of these answers are correct.

A) c1

B) c2

129

Examine the following example of commands typed in configuration mode to create a class map. Assuming that the class fred command was used inside a policy map, and the policy map was enabled on an interface, which of the following would be true with regard to packets classified by the class map?
Router(config)# class-map fred
Router(config-cmap)# match ip dscp ef
Router(config-cmap)# match ip dscp af31

A) Match packets with both DSCP EF and AF31

B) Match packets with either DSCP EF or AF31

C) Match all packets that are neither EF or AF31

D) Match no packets

E) Match packets with precedence values of 3 and 5

D) Match no packets

130

The service-policy output fred command is found in router R1’s configuration under Frame Relay subinterface s0/0.1. Which of the following could be true about this CB Marking policy map?

A) The policy map can classify packets using class maps that match based on the DE bit.

B) The policy map can refer to class maps that match based on DSCP.

C) The policy map can set CoS.

D) The policy map can set CLP.

E) The policy map can set DE.

B) The policy map can refer to class maps that match based on DSCP.

E) The policy map can set DE.

131

Which of the following is true regarding the listed configuration steps?
Router(config)# class-map barney
Router(config-cmap)# match protocol http url "this-here.jpg"
Router(config-cmap)# policy-map fred
Router(config-pmap)# class barney
Router(config-pmap-c)# set dscp af21
Router(config-pmap-c)# interface fa0/0
Router(config-if)# service-policy output fred

A) If not already configured, the ip cef global command is required.

B) The configuration does not use NBAR because the match nbar command was not used.

C) The service-policy command would be rejected because match protocol is not allowed as an output function.

D) None of these answers are correct.

A) If not already configured, the ip cef global command is required.

132

In which mode can the qos pre-classify command be issued on a router?

A) In crypto map configuration mode

B) In GRE tunnel configuration mode

C) In point-to-point subinterface configuration mode

D) Only in physical interface configuration mode

E) In class map configuration mode

F) In global configuration mode

A) In crypto map configuration mode

B) In GRE tunnel configuration mode

133

Which of the following statements about Cisco AutoQoS are true?

A) It can be used only on switches, not routers.

B) It makes QoS configuration quicker, easier, and cheaper.

C) AutoQoS can be used to configure quality of service for voice, video, and other types of data.

D) AutoQoS commands are applied at the interface.

E) AutoQoS must be disabled before its settings can be modified.

B) It makes QoS configuration quicker, easier, and cheaper.

C) AutoQoS can be used to configure quality of service for voice, video, and other types of data.

D) AutoQoS commands are applied at the interface.

134

What is the main benefit of the hardware queue on a Cisco router interface?

A) Prioritizes latency-sensitive packets so that they are always scheduled next

B) Reserves a minimum amount of bandwidth for particular classes of traffic

C) Provides a queue in which to hold a packet so that, as soon as the interface is available to send another packet, the packet can be sent without requiring an interrupt to the router CPU

D) Allows configuration of a percentage of the remaining link bandwidth, after allocating bandwidth to the LLQ and the class-default queue

C) Provides a queue in which to hold a packet so that, as soon as the interface is available to send another packet, the packet can be sent without requiring an interrupt to the router CPU

135

Examine the following configuration snippet. If a new class, called class3, is added to the policy map, which of the following commands could be used to reserve 25 kbps of bandwidth for the class?
policy-map fred
class class1
priority 20
class class2
bandwidth 30
!
interface serial 0/0
bandwidth 100
service-policy output fred

A) priority 25

B) bandwidth 25

C) bandwidth percent 25

D) bandwidth remaining-percent 25

A) priority 25

B) bandwidth 25

136

Examine the following configuration snippet. How much bandwidth does Cisco IOS assign to class2?
policy-map fred
class class1
priority percent 20
class class2
bandwidth remaining percent 20
interface serial 0/0
bandwidth 100
service-policy output fred

A) 10 kbps

B) 11 kbps

C) 20 kbps

D) 21 kbps

E) Not enough information to tell

B) 11 kbps

137

Which of the following impacts the percentage of packet discards when using WRED, when the current average queue depth is between the minimum and maximum thresholds?

A) The bandwidth command setting on the interface

B) The mark probability denominator (MPD)

C) The exponential weighting constant

D) The congestive discard threshold

B) The mark probability denominator (MPD)

138

Which of the following commands, under an interface like s0/0, would enable WRED and tell it to use IP Precedence (IPP) when choosing its default traffic profiles?

A) random-detect

B) random-detect precedence-based

C) random-detect dscp-based

D) random-detect precedence 1 20 30 40

A) random-detect

B) random-detect precedence-based

139

On a Catalyst 3560 switch, interface fa0/1 has been configured for SRR scheduling, and fa0/2 has been configured for SRR scheduling with a priority queue. Which of the following is true regarding interface fa0/2?

A) It must be configured with the priority-queue out command.

B) The last parameter (w4) of the srr-queue bandwidth share w1 w2 w3 w4 command must be 0.

C) Only CoS 5 frames can be placed into queue 1, the expedite queue.

D) Only DSCP EF frames can be placed into queue 1, the expedite queue.

A) It must be configured with the priority-queue out command.

140

In modified deficit round-robin, what is the function of QV?

A) Sets the ratio of bandwidth to be sent from each queue on each pass through the queues

B) Sets the absolute bandwidth for each queue on each pass through the queues

C) Sets the number of bytes removed from each queue on each pass through the queues

D) Identifies the MDRR priority queue

C) Sets the number of bytes removed from each queue on each pass through the queues

141

The Cisco 3560 switch uses SRR and WTD for its queuing and congestion management methods. How many ingress queues and egress queues can be configured on each port of a 3560 switch, and how many priority queues are configurable on ingress and egress?

A) One ingress queue, four egress queues; one priority queue on each side

B) One ingress queue, four egress queues; one priority queue on the egress side

C) Two ingress queues, four egress queues; one priority queue on the egress side

D) Two ingress queues, four egress queues; one priority queue on each side

D) Two ingress queues, four egress queues; one priority queue on each side

142

What interface command would configure RSVP to reserve up to one-quarter of a 100 Mbps link, but only allow each individual flow to use 1 Mbps?

A) ip rsvp bandwidth 25000 1000

B) ip rsvp-bandwidth 25 1

C) rsvp bandwidth 100 2500

D) ip rsvp bandwidth 25 1

A) ip rsvp bandwidth 25000 1000

143

When does Class-Based Shaping add tokens to its token bucket, and how many tokens does it add when Bc and Be are both set to something larger than 0?

A) Upon the arrival of each packet, a pro-rated portion of Bc is added to the token bucket.

B) Upon the arrival of each packet, a pro-rated portion of Bc + Be is added to the token bucket.

C) At the beginning of each time interval, Bc worth of tokens are added to the token bucket.

D) At the beginning of each time interval, Bc + Be worth of tokens are added to the token bucket.

E) None of the answers is correct.

C) At the beginning of each time interval, Bc worth of tokens are added to the token bucket.

144

If shaping was configured with a rate of 128 kbps and a Bc of 3200 bits, what value would be calculated for Tc?

A) 125 ms

B) 125 sec

C) 25 ms

D) 25 sec

E) Shaping doesn’t use a Tc.

F) Not enough information is provided to tell.

C) 25 ms

145

Which of the following statements about Generic Traffic Shaping are true?

A) The configuration can be created once and then used for multiple interfaces.

B) It is not supported on Frame Relay interfaces.

C) It must be configured under each individual interface or subinterface where shaping is required.

D) You can specify which traffic will be shaped and which will not.

E) It supports adaptive Frame Relay traffic shaping.

B) It is not supported on Frame Relay interfaces.

C) It must be configured under each individual interface or subinterface where shaping is required.

D) You can specify which traffic will be shaped and which will not.

146

Which of the following commands, when typed in the correct configuration mode, enables CB Shaping at 128 kbps, with no excess burst?

A) shape average 128000 8000 0

B) shape average 128 8000 0

C) shape average 128000

D) shape peak 128000 8000 0

E) shape peak 128 8000 0

F) shape peak 128000

A) shape average 128000 8000 0

147

Examine the following configuration, noting the locations of the comment lines labeled point 1, point 2, and so on. Assume that a correctly configured policy map that implements CBWFQ, called queue-it, is also configured but not shown. To enable CBWFQ for the packets queued by CB Shaping, what command is required, and at what point in the configuration is the command required?
policy-map shape-question
! point 1
class class-default
! point 2
shape average 256000 5120
! point 3
interface serial 0/0
! point 4
service-policy output shape-question
! point 5
interface s0/0.1 point-to-point
! point 6
ip address 1.1.1.1
! point 7
frame-relay interface-dlci 101
! point 8

A) service-policy queue-it, at point 1

B) service-policy queue-it, at point 3

C) service-policy queue-it, at point 5

D) shape queue service-policy queue-it, at point 1

E) shape queue service-policy queue-it, at point 3

F) shape queue service-policy queue-it, at point 6

A) service-policy queue-it, at point 1

148

Using the same configuration snippet as in the previous question, what command would list the calculated Tc value, and what would that value be?

A) show policy-map, Tc = 125 ms

B) show policy-map, Tc = 20 ms

C) show policy-map, Tc = 10 ms

D) show policy-map interface s0/0, Tc = 125 ms

E) show policy-map interface s0/0, Tc = 20 ms

F) show policy-map interface s0/0, Tc = 10 ms

E) show policy-map interface s0/0, Tc = 20 ms

149

Assume that several map-class frame-relay commands exist in addition to the following configuration. The map classes are named C1, C2, and C3. Which VC use the settings in map class C2?
interface s0/0
encapsulation frame-relay
frame-relay traffic-shaping
frame-relay class C2
!
interface s0/0.1 point-to-point
frame-relay class C1
frame-relay interface-dlci 101
interface s0/0.3 multipoint
frame-relay interface-dlci 103
frame-relay interface-dlci 203
class C3

A) The VC with DLCI 101.

B) The VC with DLCI 103.

C) The VC with DLCI 203.

D) None of the answers is correct.

B) The VC with DLCI 103.

150

Which of the following FRTS commands, in the same FRTS map class, sets the shaping rate to 128 kbps, with a shaping time interval of 62.5 ms?

A) frame-relay traffic-rate 128

B) frame-relay traffic-rate 128000

C) frame-relay cir 128, frame-relay Bc 8000

D) frame-relay cir 128000, frame-relay Bc 8000

D) frame-relay cir 128000, frame-relay Bc 8000

151

Which of the following are true about policers in general, but not true about shapers?

A) Monitor traffic rates using the concept of a token bucket

B) Can discard traffic that exceeds a defined traffic rate

C) Can delay packets by queuing to avoid exceeding a traffic rate

D) Can re-mark a packet

B) Can discard traffic that exceeds a defined traffic rate

D) Can re-mark a packet

152

Which of the following commands, when typed in the correct configuration mode, enables CB Policing at 128 kbps, with no excess burst?

A) police 128000 conform-action transmit exceed-action transmit violate-action drop

B) police 128 conform-action transmit exceed-action transmit violate-action drop

C) police 128000 conform-action transmit exceed-action drop

D) police 128 conform-action transmit exceed-action drop

E) police 128k conform-action transmit exceed-action drop

C) police 128000 conform-action transmit exceed-action drop

153

Which of the following features of CB Policing are not supported by CAR?

A) The capability to categorize packets as conforming, exceeding, and violating a traffic contract

B) The capability to police all traffic at one rate, and subsets of that same traffic at other rates

C) The capability to configure policing using MQC commands

D) The capability to police input or output packets on an interface

A) The capability to categorize packets as conforming, exceeding, and violating a traffic contract

C) The capability to configure policing using MQC commands

154

To troubleshoot a suspected QoS issue, you need to see the QoS policy configured on an interface along with which queues are filling up and dropping packets. Which of the following commands will display that information?

A) show policy-map interface interface

B) show queue interface

C) show queue-list interface interface

D) show ip policy interface interface

A) show policy-map interface interface

155

Imagine that a PPP link failed and has just recovered. Which of the following features is negotiated last?

A) CHAP authentication

B) RTP header compression

C) Looped link detection

D) Link Quality Monitoring

B) RTP header compression

156

Interfaces s0/0, s0/1, and s1/0 are up and working as part of a multilink PPP bundle that connects to another router. The multilink interface has a bandwidth setting of 1536. When a 1500-byte packet is routed out the multilink interface, which of the following determines out which link the packet will flow?

A) The current CEF FIB and CEF load-balancing method.

B) The current fast-switching cache.

C) The packet is sent out one interface based on round-robin scheduling.

D) One fragment is sent over each of the three links.

D) One fragment is sent over each of the three links.

157

R1 and R2 connect over a leased line, with each interface using its s0/1 interface. When configuring CHAP to use a locally defined name and password, which of the following statements is false about the commands and configuration mode in which they are configured?

A) The encapsulation ppp interface subcommand

B) The ppp authentication chap interface subcommand

C) The username R1 password samepassword global command on R1

D) The username R2 password samepassword interface subcommand on R2

C) The username R1 password samepassword global command on R1

D) The username R2 password samepassword interface subcommand on R2

158

Which of the following is true about both the ANSI and ITU options for Frame Relay LMI settings in a Cisco router, but not for the LMI option called cisco?

A) They use DLCI 1023 for LMI functions.

B) They use DLCI 0 for LMI functions.

C) They include support for a maximum of 1022 DLCIs on a single access link.

D) They include support for a maximum of 992 DLCIs on a single access link.

E) They can be autosensed by a Cisco router.

B) They use DLCI 0 for LMI functions.

159

R1 sends a Frame Relay frame over a PVC to R2. When R2 receives the frame, the frame has the DE and FECN bits set, but not the BECN bit. Which of the following statements accurately describes how R2 could have reacted to this frame, or how R1 might have impacted the contents of the frame?

A) R2 would lower its shaping rate on the PVC assuming R2 has configured adaptive shaping.

B) R2 could discard the received frame because of the DE setting.

C) R2 could set BECN in the next frame it sends to R1, assuming FECN reflection is configured.

D) R1 could have set the FECN bit before sending the frame if R1 had configured outbound policing with the policer marking FECN for out-of-contract frames.

C) R2 could set BECN in the next frame it sends to R1, assuming FECN reflection is configured.

160

Which of the following commands disables Frame Relay LMI?

A) The no frame-relay lmi command under the physical interface.

B) The no keepalive command under the physical interface.

C) The frame-relay lmi-interval 0 command under the physical interface.

D) The keepalive 0 command under the physical interface.

E) It cannot be disabled, as it is required for a working Frame Relay access link.

B) The no keepalive command under the physical interface.

161

R1 has a Frame Relay access link on s0/0. The attached Frame Relay switch has ten PVCs configured on the link, with DLCIs 80–89. Which of the following is true regarding definition of DLCIs and encapsulation on the link?

A) The frame-relay interface-dlci command associates a DLCI with the subinterface under which it is configured.

B) The LMI Status message from the switch can be used by the router to associate the DLCIs with the correct subinterface.

C) PVCs using IETF encapsulation require a frame-relay map command on the related subinterface.

D) The LMI Status message from the switch tells the router which encapsulation to use for each PVC.

E) Different encapsulation types can be mixed over this same access link.

A) The frame-relay interface-dlci command associates a DLCI with the subinterface under which it is configured.

E) Different encapsulation types can be mixed over this same access link.

162

R1 has a Frame Relay access link on s0/0. The attached Frame Relay switch has ten PVCs configured on the link, with DLCIs 80–89. R1’s configuration includes ten point-to-point subinterfaces, also numbered 80 through 89, but only four of those subinterfaces list a DLCI using the frame-relay interface-dlci command. All ten subinterfaces have IP addresses configured, but no other frame-relay commands are configured on the subinterfaces. Which of the following could be true regarding R1’s use of Frame Relay?

A) Six subinterfaces will not be able to send traffic.

B) Six subinterfaces will learn their associated DLCIs as a result of received Inverse ARP messages.

C) Six subinterfaces will learn their associated DLCIs as a result of sent Inverse ARP messages.

D) Four subinterfaces need a frame-relay map command before they can successfully pass traffic.

E) LMI will learn the missing DLCIs and assign them to the subinterface bearing the same value as the DLCI.

A) Six subinterfaces will not be able to send traffic.

163

Which of the following reasons for using IP multicasting are valid for one-to-many applications?

A) Multicast applications use connection-oriented service.

B) Multicast uses less bandwidth than unicast.

C) A multicast packet can be sent from one source to many destinations.

D) Multicast eliminates traffic redundancy.

B) Multicast uses less bandwidth than unicast.

C) A multicast packet can be sent from one source to many destinations.

D) Multicast eliminates traffic redundancy.

164

Which of the following statements is true of a multicast address?

A) Uses a Class D address that can range from 223.0.0.0 to 239.255.255.255

B) Uses a subnet mask ranging from 8 bits to 24 bits

C) Can be permanent or transient

D) Can be entered as an IP address on an interface of a router only if the router is configured for multicasting

C) Can be permanent or transient

165

Which of the following multicast addresses are reserved and not forwarded by multicast routers?

A) 224.0.0.1 and 224.0.0.13

B) 224.0.0.9 and 224.0.1.39

C) 224.0.0.10 and 224.0.1.40

D) 224.0.0.5 and 224.0.0.6

A) 224.0.0.1 and 224.0.0.13

D) 224.0.0.5 and 224.0.0.6

166

From the following pairs of Layer 3 multicast addresses, select a pair that will use the same Ethernet multicast MAC address of 0x0100.5e4d.2643.

A) 224.67.26.43 and 234.67.26.43

B) 225.77.67.38 and 235.77.67.38

C) 229.87.26.43 and 239.87.26.43

D) 227.77.38.67 and 238.205.38.67

D) 227.77.38.67 and 238.205.38.67

167

From the following statements, select the true statement(s) regarding IGMP Query messages and IGMP Report messages.

A) Hosts, switches, and routers originate IGMP Membership Report messages.

B) Hosts, switches, and routers originate IGMP Query messages.

C) Hosts originate IGMP Query messages and routers originate IGMP Membership messages.

D) Hosts originate IGMP Membership messages and routers originate IGMP Query messages.

E) Hosts and switches originate IGMP Membership messages and routers originate IGMP Query messages.

D) Hosts originate IGMP Membership messages and routers originate IGMP Query messages.

168

Seven hosts and a router on a multicast LAN network are using IGMPv2. Hosts 5, 6, and 7 are members of group 226.5.6.7, and the other four hosts are not. Which of the following answers is/are true about how the router will respond when Host 7 sends an IGMPv2 Leave message for the group 226.5.6.7?

A) Sends an IGMPv2 General Query to multicast destination address 224.0.0.1

B) Sends an IGMPv2 Group-Specific Query to multicast destination address 224.0.0.1

C) Sends an IGMPv2 General Query to multicast destination address 226.5.6.7

D) Sends an IGMPv2 Group-Specific Query to multicast destination address 226.5.6.7

E) First sends an IGMPv2 Group-Specific Query to multicast destination address 226.5.6.7, and then sends an IGMPv2 General Query to multicast destination address 224.0.0.1

D) Sends an IGMPv2 Group-Specific Query to multicast destination address 226.5.6.7

169

Which of the following statements is/are true regarding CGMP and IGMP snooping?

A) CGMP and IGMP snooping are used to constrain the flooding of multicast traffic in LAN switches.

B) CGMP is a Cisco-proprietary protocol and uses the well-known Layer 2 multicast MAC address 0x0100.0cdd.dddd.

C) IGMP snooping is preferable in a mixed-vendor environment; however, if implemented using Layer 2–only LAN switches, it can cause a dramatic reduction in switch performance.

D) CGMP is simple to implement, and in CGMP only routers send CGMP messages, while switches only listen for CGMP messages.

E) All of these answers are correct.

E) All of these answers are correct.

170

When a multicast router receives a multicast packet, which one of the following tasks will it perform first?

A) Examine the IP multicast destination address on the packet, consult the multicast routing table to determine the next-hop address, and forward the packet through appropriate interface(s).

B) Depending on the multicast routing protocol configured, either forward the packet on all the interfaces or forward the packet on selected interfaces except the one on which the packet was received.

C) Determine the interface this router would use to send packets to the source of the packet, and decide whether the packet arrived in that interface or not.

D) Send a Prune message to its upstream neighbor if it does not have any directly connected group members or active downstream routers.

C) Determine the interface this router would use to send packets to the source of the packet, and decide whether the packet arrived in that interface or not.

171

A PIM router receives a PIM Assert message on a LAN interface. Which of the following statements is (are) true about the response of the router?

A) The router does not have to take any action.

B) If the router is configured with the PIM-DM routing protocol, it will process the Assert message; otherwise, it will ignore it.

C) If the router is configured with the PIM-SM routing protocol, it will process the Assert message; otherwise, it will ignore it.

D) The router will send a PIM Assert message.

D) The router will send a PIM Assert message.

172

When a PIM-DM router receives a Graft message from a downstream router after it has sent a Prune message to its upstream router for the same group, which of the following statements is (are) true about its response?

A) It will send a Graft message to the downstream router and a Prune message to the upstream router.

B) It will send a Prune message to the downstream router and a Graft message to the upstream router.

C) It will re-establish adjacency with the upstream router.

D) It will send a Graft message to the upstream router.

D) It will send a Graft message to the upstream router.

173

On router R1, the show ip mroute 239.5.130.24 command displays Serial2, Prune/Dense, 00:01:34/00:01:26 for the (S, G) entry under the outgoing interface list. Which of the following statements provide correct interpretation of this information?

A) Router R1 has sent a Prune message on its Serial2 interface to its upstream router 1 minute and 34 seconds ago.

B) Router R1 will send a Graft message on its Serial2 interface to its upstream router after 1 minute and 26 seconds.

C) Router R1 received a Prune message on its Serial2 interface from its downstream router 1 minute and 34 seconds ago.

D) Router R1 will send a Prune message on its Serial2 interface to its upstream router after 1 minute and 26 seconds.

E) Router R1 will forward the traffic for the group on its Serial2 interface after 1 minute and 26 seconds.

C) Router R1 received a Prune message on its Serial2 interface from its downstream router 1 minute and 34 seconds ago.

E) Router R1 will forward the traffic for the group on its Serial2 interface after 1 minute and 26 seconds.

174

From the following statements, select the true statement(s) regarding when a PIM-SM RP router will send the unicast PIM Register-Stop messages to the first-hop DR.

A) If the RP has no need for the traffic

B) If the RP is already receiving traffic on the shared tree

C) When the RP begins receiving multicast traffic via SPT from the source

D) When the RP sends multicast traffic via SPT to the downstream router

A) If the RP has no need for the traffic

C) When the RP begins receiving multicast traffic via SPT from the source

175

R1, a PIM-SM router, sends an (S,G) RP-bit Prune to its upstream neighbor. Assume that all the PIM-SM routers in the network are using the Cisco default spt-threshold value. Which of the following statements is (are) true about the status of different routers in the PIM-SM network at this time?

A) At R1, the root-path tree and shortest-path tree diverge.

B) R1 is switching over from shortest-path tree to root-path tree.

C) R1 is switching over from root-path tree to shortest-path tree.

D) At R1, the RPF neighbor for the (S,G) entry is different from the RPF neighbor of the (*, G) entry.

C) R1 is switching over from root-path tree to shortest-path tree.

D) At R1, the RPF neighbor for the (S,G) entry is different from the RPF neighbor of the (*, G) entry.

176

In a PIM-SM LAN network using Auto-RP, one of the routers is configured to send Cisco-RP-Announce and Cisco-RP-Discovery messages. All the routers show all the interfaces with correct PIM neighbors in sparse mode. However, the network administrator is puzzled by inconsistent RP mapping information shown on many routers. Some routers show correct RP mappings, but many leaf routers do not show any RP mappings. Which of the following statements represent(s) the most likely cause(s) for the above problem?

A) The links between the leaf routers and the mapping agent are congested.

B) All the interfaces of all the routers are configured with the command ip pim sparse-mode.

C) The leaf routers are configured with a static RP address using an override option.

D) The RPF check on the leaf routers is failing.

B) All the interfaces of all the routers are configured with the command ip pim sparse-mode.

177

PIM-SM router R1 has two interfaces listed, s0/0 and fa0/0, in its (*,G) entry for group 227.7.7.7 in its multicast routing table. Assuming nothing changes in that (*,G) entry in the next 10 minutes, which of the following could be true?

A) R1 is sending PIM Join messages toward the RP.

B) R1 does not need to send Join messages toward the RP as long as the RP is continuing to forward multicasts for group 227.7.7.7 to R1.

C) R1 is receiving PIM Join messages periodically on one or both of interfaces s0/0 and fa0/0.

D) R1 is receiving IGMP Report messages periodically on interface fa0/0.

E) The RP has been sending PIM Prune messages to R1 periodically, but R1 has been replying with PIM Reject messages because it still needs to receive the packets.

C) R1 is receiving PIM Join messages periodically on one or both of interfaces s0/0 and fa0/0.

D) R1 is receiving IGMP Report messages periodically on interface fa0/0.

178

Consider the following configuration commands, which will be pasted into a router’s configuration. Assuming no other AAA configuration or other security-related configuration exists before pasting in this configuration, which of the following is true regarding the process and sequences for authentication of a user attempting to enter privileged mode?
enable secret fred
enable authentication wilma
username barney password betty
aaa new-model
aaa authentication enable default group radius enable
aaa authentication enable wilma group fred local
aaa authentication login default group radius local
aaa authentication login fred line group radius none
radius-server host 10.1.1.1 auth-port 1812 acct-port 1646
radius-server host 10.1.1.2 auth-port 1645 acct-port 1646
radius-server key cisco
aaa group server radius fred
server 10.1.1.3 auth-port 1645 acct-port 1646
server 10.1.1.4 auth-port 1645 acct-port 1646
line con 0
password cisco
login authentication fred
line vty 0 4
password cisco

A) The user will only need to supply a password of fred without a username.

B) The RADIUS server at either 10.1.1.1 or 10.1.1.2 must approve the username/password supplied by the user.

C) The RADIUS server at 10.1.1.3 is checked first; if no response, then the server at 10.1.1.4 is checked.

D) None of these answers is correct.

D) None of these answers is correct.

179

Using the same exhibit and conditions as question 1, which of the following is true regarding the process and sequences for authentication of a user attempting to log in through the console?

A) A simple password of cisco will be required.

B) The user will supply a username/password, which will be authenticated if either server 10.1.1.1 or 10.1.1.2 returns a RADIUS message approving the user.

C) The username/password is presented to the RADIUS server at 10.1.1.3 first; if no response, then the server at 10.1.1.4 is checked next.

D) None of these answers is correct.

A) A simple password of cisco will be required.

180

Using the same exhibit and conditions as question 1, which of the following is true regarding the process and sequences for authentication of a user attempting to log in via Telnet?

A) A simple password of cisco will be required.

B) The router will attempt authentication with RADIUS server 10.1.1.1 first; if no response, then 10.1.1.2; if no response, then it will require password cisco.

C) The router will attempt authentication with RADIUS server 10.1.1.1 first; if no response, then 10.1.1.2; if no response, then it will require a username/password of barney/betty.

D) The username/password is presented to the RADIUS server at 10.1.1.3 first; if no response, then the server at 10.1.1.4 is checked next.

E) If neither 10.1.1.1 nor 10.1.1.2 respond, the user cannot be authenticated and is rejected.

F) None of the other answers is correct.

C) The router will attempt authentication with RADIUS server 10.1.1.1 first; if no response, then 10.1.1.2; if no response, then it will require a username/password of barney/betty.

181

Which of the following are considered best practices for Layer 2 security?

A) Inspect ARP messages to prevent hackers from causing hosts to create incorrect ARP table entries.

B) Enable port security.

C) Put all management traffic in VLAN 1, but no user traffic.

D) Configure DTP to use the auto setting.

E) Shut down unused ports.

A) Inspect ARP messages to prevent hackers from causing hosts to create incorrect ARP table entries.

B) Enable port security.

E) Shut down unused ports.

182

Assuming a Cisco 3560 switch, which of the following is true regarding the port security feature?

A) The default maximum number of MACs allowed to be reached on an interface is three.

B) Sticky-learned MAC addresses are automatically added to the startup configuration once they are learned the first time.

C) Dynamic (non-sticky) learned MAC addresses are added to the running configuration, but they can be saved using the copy run start command.

D) A port must be set to be a static access or trunking port for port security to be allowed on the interface.

E) None of the other answers is correct.

D) A port must be set to be a static access or trunking port for port security to be allowed on the interface.

183

Which of the following is true regarding the use of IEEE 802.1X for LAN user authentication?

A) The EAPoL protocol is used between the authenticator and authentication server.

B) The supplicant is client software on the user’s device.

C) A switch acts in the role of 802.1X authentication server.

D) The only traffic allowed to exit a currently unauthenticated 802.1X port are 802.1X-related messages.

B) The supplicant is client software on the user’s device.

184

The following ACE is typed into configuration mode on a router: access-list 1 permit 10.44.38.0 0.0.3.255. If this statement had instead used a different mask, with nothing else changed, which of the following choices for mask would result in a match for source IP address 10.44.40.18?

A) 0.0.1.255

B) 0.0.5.255

C) 0.0.7.255

D) 0.0.15.255

D) 0.0.15.255

185

An enterprise uses a registered class A network. A smurf attack occurs from the Internet, with the enterprise receiving lots of ICMP Echoes, destined to subnet broadcast address 9.1.1.255, which is the broadcast address of an actual deployed subnet (9.1.1.0/24) in the enterprise. The packets all have a source address of 9.1.1.1. Which of the following tools might help mitigate the effects of the attack?

A) Ensure that the no ip directed-broadcast command is configured on the router interfaces connected to the 9.1.1.0/24 subnet.

B) Configure an RPF check so that the packets would be rejected based on the invalid source IP address.

C) Routers will not forward packets to subnet broadcast addresses, so there is no need for concern in this case.

D) Filter all packets sent to addresses in subnet 9.1.1.0/24.

A) Ensure that the no ip directed-broadcast command is configured on the router interfaces connected to the 9.1.1.0/24 subnet.

B) Configure an RPF check so that the packets would be rejected based on the invalid source IP address.

186

Which of the following statements is true regarding the router Cisco IOS Software TCP intercept feature?

A) Always acts as a proxy for incoming TCP connections, completing the client-side connection, and only then creating a server-side TCP connection.

B) Can monitor TCP connections for volume and for incomplete connections, as well as serve as a TCP proxy.

C) If enabled, must operate on all TCP connection requests entering a particular interface.

D) None of the other answers is correct.

B) Can monitor TCP connections for volume and for incomplete connections, as well as serve as a TCP proxy.

187

Imagine a frame-based MPLS network configured for simple unicast IP forwarding, with four routers, R1, R2, R3, and R4. The routers connect in a mesh of links so that they are all directly connected to the other routers. R1 uses LDP to advertise prefix 1.1.1.0/24, label 30, to the other three routers. What must be true in order for R2 to advertise a label for 1.1.1.0/24 to R1 using LDP?

A) R2 must learn an IGP route to 1.1.1.0/24.

B) R2 will not advertise a label to R1 due to split horizon rules.

C) R2 can advertise a label back to R1 before learning an IGP route to 1.1.1.0/24.

D) R2 must learn a route to 1.1.1.0/24 using MP-BGP before advertising a label.

A) R2 must learn an IGP route to 1.1.1.0/24.

188

In a frame-based MPLS network configured for unicast IP forwarding, LSR R1 receives a labeled packet, with a label value of 55. Which of the following could be true?

A) R1 makes its forwarding decision by comparing the packet to the IPv4 prefixes found in the FIB.

B) R1 makes its forwarding decision by comparing the packet to the IPv4 prefixes found in the LFIB.

C) R1 makes its forwarding decision by comparing the packet to the MPLS labels found in the FIB.

D) R1 makes its forwarding decision by comparing the packet to the MPLS labels found in the LFIB.

D) R1 makes its forwarding decision by comparing the packet to the MPLS labels found in the LFIB.

189

R1, R2, and R3 are all MPLS LSRs that use LDP and connect to the same LAN. None of the three LSRs advertise a transport IP address. Which of the following could be true regarding LDP operation?

A) The LSRs discover the other two routers using LDP Hellos sent to IP address 224.0.0.20.

B) Each pair of LSRs forms a TCP connection before advertising MPLS labels.

C) The three LSRs must use their LAN interface IP addresses for any LDP TCP connections.

D) The LDP Hellos use port 646, with the TCP connections using port 711.

B) Each pair of LSRs forms a TCP connection before advertising MPLS labels.

190

In a frame-based MPLS network configured for simple unicast IP forwarding, MPLS TTL propagation has been enabled for all traffic. Which of the following could be true?

A) A traceroute command issued from outside the MPLS network will list IP addresses of the LSRs inside the MPLS network.

B) A traceroute command issued from outside the MPLS network will not list IP addresses of the LSRs inside the MPLS network.

C) Any IP packet with a TCP header, entering the MPLS network from outside the MPLS network, would not have its IP TTL field copied into the MPLS TTL field.

D) An ICMP echo sent into the MPLS network from outside the MPLS network would have its IP TTL field copied into the MPLS TTL field.

A) A traceroute command issued from outside the MPLS network will list IP addresses of the LSRs inside the MPLS network.

D) An ICMP echo sent into the MPLS network from outside the MPLS network would have its IP TTL field copied into the MPLS TTL field.

191

Which of the following is an extension to the BGP NLRI field?

A) VRF

B) Route Distinguisher

C) Route Target

D) BGP Extended Community

B) Route Distinguisher

192

Which of the following controls into which VRFs a PE adds routes when receiving an IBGP update from another PE?

A) Route Distinguisher

B) Route Target

C) IGP metric

D) AS Path length

B) Route Target

193

An ingress PE router in an internetwork configured for MPLS VPN receives an unlabeled packet. Which of the following is true?

A) It injects a single MPLS header.

B) It injects at least two MPLS headers.

C) It injects (at least) a VPN label, which is used by any intermediate P routers.

D) It uses both the FIB and LFIB to find all the required labels to inject before the IP header.

B) It injects at least two MPLS headers.

194

An internetwork configured to support MPLS VPNs uses PHP. An ingress PE receives an unlabeled packet and then injects the appropriate label(s) to the packet before sending the packet into the MPLS network. Which of the following is/are true about this packet?

A) The number of MPLS labels in the packet will only change when the packet reaches the egress PE router, which extracts the entire MPLS header.

B) The number of MPLS labels in the packet will change before the packet reaches the egress PE.

C) The PHP feature will cause the egress PE to act differently than it would without PHP enabled.

D) None of the other answers is correct.

B) The number of MPLS labels in the packet will change before the packet reaches the egress PE.

C) The PHP feature will cause the egress PE to act differently than it would without PHP enabled.

195

Which of the following is true regarding a typical MPLS VPN PE BGP configuration, assuming the PE-CE routing protocol is not BGP?

A) It includes an address-family vpnv4 command for each VRF.

B) It includes an address-family ipv4 command for each VRF.

C) At least one BGP subcommand must list the value of the exported Route Target (RT) of each VRF.

D) Peer connections to other PEs must be enabled with the neighbor activate command under the VPNV4 address family.

B) It includes an address-family ipv4 command for each VRF.

D) Peer connections to other PEs must be enabled with the neighbor activate command under the VPNV4 address family.

196

Which of the following answers help define which packets are in the same MPLS FEC when using MPLS VPNs?

A) IPv4 prefix

B) ToS byte

C) The MPLS VRF

D) The TE tunnel

A) IPv4 prefix

C) The MPLS VRF

197

Which of the following is true about the VRF Lite (Multi-VRF CE) feature?

A) It provides logical separation at Layer 3.

B) It requires the use of LDP or TDP.

C) It uses VRFs, but requires static routing.

D) It can be used on CE routers only when those routers have a link to a PE in MPLS VPN.

E) It creates separate routing table instances on a router by creating multiple VRFs.

A) It provides logical separation at Layer 3.

E) It creates separate routing table instances on a router by creating multiple VRFs.

198

Aggregatable global IPv6 addresses begin with what bit pattern in the first 16-bit group?

A) 000/3

B) 001/3

C) 010/2

D) 011/2

E) None of these answers is correct.

B) 001/3

199

Anycast addresses come from which address pool?

A) Unicast

B) Broadcast

C) Multicast

D) None of these answers are correct. Link-local and anycast addresses are drawn from reserved segments of the IPv6 address space.

A) Unicast

200

How is the interface ID determined in modified EUI-64 addressing?

A) From the MAC address of an Ethernet interface with zeros for padding

B) From the MAC address of an Ethernet interface with hex FFFE inserted in the center

C) By flipping the U/L bit in the Interface ID

D) From a MAC address pool on a router that has no Ethernet interfaces

B) From the MAC address of an Ethernet interface with hex FFFE inserted in the center

C) By flipping the U/L bit in the Interface ID

D) From a MAC address pool on a router that has no Ethernet interfaces

201

Neighbor discovery relies on which IPv6 protocol?

A) ARPv6

B) IGMPv4

C) IPv6 multicast

D) ICMPv6

D) ICMPv6

202

Which protocol provides the same functions in IPv6 as IGMP does in IPv4 networks?

A) ICMPv6

B) ND

C) MLD

D) TLA

E) No equivalent exists.

C) MLD

203

OSPFv3 provides which of the following authentication mechanisms?

A) Null

B) Simple password

C) MD5

D) None of these answers is correct.

D) None of these answers is correct.

204

OSPFv3 uses LSAs to advertise prefixes, as does OSPFv2. Which of these LSA types are exclusive to OSPFv3?

A) Link LSA

B) Intra-Area Prefix LSA

C) Inter-Area Prefix LSA

D) External LSA

E) None of these answers is correct.

A) Link LSA

B) Intra-Area Prefix LSA

205

OSPFv3 requires only interface mode configuration to start on an IPv6-only router.

A) True

B) False

B) False

206

In EIGRP for IPv4, the default metric is based on k values for bandwidth and delay. Which of the following k values does IPv6 EIGRP use for its default metric calculation?

A) Bandwidth

B) Delay

C) Reliability

D) Load

E) MTU

F) All of these answers are correct.

A) Bandwidth

B) Delay

207

IPv6 EIGRP shares a great deal in common with EIGRP for IPv4. Which of the following best characterizes IPv6 EIGRP behavior with respect to classful and classless networks?

A) IPv6 EIGRP is classful by default, but can be configured for classless operation using the no auto-summary command under the routing process.

B) IPv6 EIGRP is always classful.

C) IPv6 EIGRP is always classless.

D) IPv6 EIGRP defaults to classful operation but can be configured for classless operation on a per-interface basis.

C) IPv6 EIGRP is always classless.

208

Which of the following IPv6 tunnel types support only point-to-point communication?

A) Manually configured

B) Automatic 6to4

C) ISATAP

D) GRE

A) Manually configured

D) GRE

209

Which of the following IPv6 tunnel modes does Cisco recommend using instead of automatically configured IPv4-compatible tunnels?

A) ISATAP

B) 6to4

C) GRE

D) Manually configured

E) None of these answers is correct.

A) ISATAP

210

Which of the following statements is true of IPv6 route redistribution?

A) Route filtering can be performed through IPv6 prefix lists applied as an argument of the redistribute command.

B) Default metrics or specific metrics per redistribution command must be assigned for redistribution into all IPv6 routing protocols.

C) OSPFv3 metric types are assigned differently compared to OSPF IPv4 route redistribution.

D) Route tags use 32-bit values in IPv6 compared to the 16-bit tags used in IPv4.

A) Route filtering can be performed through IPv6 prefix lists applied as an argument of the redistribute command.

211

Source-specific multicast is a variation on which PIM mode?

A) PIM sparse mode

B) PIM dense mode

C) PIM sparse-dense mode

D) Bidirectional PIM

E) Anycast RP

F) None of these answers is correct.

A) PIM sparse mode

212

Which of the following are valid representations of the IPv6 address 2035:0001:2BC5:0000:0000:087C:0000:000A?

A) 2035:0001:2BC5::087C::000A

B) 2035:1:2BC5::87C:0:A

C) 2035:0001:2BC5::087C:0000:000A

D) 2035:1:2BC5:0:0:87C::A

E) 2035:1:2BC5::087C:A

B) 2035:1:2BC5::87C:0:A

C) 2035:0001:2BC5::087C:0000:000A

D) 2035:1:2BC5:0:0:87C::A

213

Which of the following are the true statements?

A) A packet that is sent to an IPv6 anycast address goes to the closest interface identified by that address.

B) A packet that is sent to an IPv6 anycast address goes to all interfaces identified by that address.

C) A packet that is sent to an IPv6 multicast address goes to the closest interface identified by that address.

D) A packet that is sent to an IPv6 multicast address goes to all interfaces identified by that address.

A) A packet that is sent to an IPv6 anycast address goes to the closest interface identified by that address.

D) A packet that is sent to an IPv6 multicast address goes to all interfaces identified by that address.

214

Which of the following routing protocols support IPv6?

A) RIPv2

B) OSPFv6

C) RIPng

D) EIGRP for IPv6

E) OSPFv2

F) MBGP

C) RIPng

D) EIGRP for IPv6

F) MBGP

215

Which of the following statements are true?

A) A deny statement in a NAT ACL blocks the traffic.

B) A permit statement in a crypto ACL encrypts the data.

C) A GRE tunnel destination must be a physical interface on the peer router.

D) RRI is a good substitute to redistribute static routes for remote users.

E) When VPN tunnels are used, the branch office LAN should be configured with the same subnet number as the one used on the headquarters LAN.

B) A permit statement in a crypto ACL encrypts the data.

D) RRI is a good substitute to redistribute static routes for remote users.

216

Select the ports and protocols that should be allowed on the inbound ACL applied to the Internet-facing interface if you want to terminate IPsec VPN tunnels?

A) Port UDP 51

B) Protocol 51

C) Protocol 4500

D) Port UDP 500

E) Port UDP 4500

F) Port TCP 50

G) Port TCP 500

H) Protocol 50

I ) Port TCP 4500

B) Protocol 51

D) Port UDP 500

E) Port UDP 4500

H) Protocol 50

217

Which of the following are alternatives to GRE for IPsec tunnels?

A) IPS

B) GET VPN

C) HSRP

D) DMVPN

E) Zone-base firewalling

B) GET VPN

D) DMVPN

218

Select the true statements.

A) In a Layer 2 MPLS VPN, all the customer edge routers are on the same IP subnet.

B) In a Layer 3 MPLS VPN, all the customer edge routers are on the same IP subnet.

C) In a Layer 2 MPLS VPN, each customer edge router is on a different IP subnet.

D) In a Layer 3 MPLS VPN, each customer edge router is on a different IP subnet.

A) In a Layer 2 MPLS VPN, all the customer edge routers are on the same IP subnet.

D) In a Layer 3 MPLS VPN, each customer edge router is on a different IP subnet.

219

Select the true statements.

A) An empty prefix list denies all prefixes.

B) Offset lists increase the incoming metric of routes.

C) A distribute list allows an access list to be applied to routing updates.

D) If a prefix is permitted, the route is used. If a prefix is denied, the route is not used.

E) Offset lists decrease the incoming metric of routes.

B) Offset lists increase the incoming metric of routes.

C) A distribute list allows an access list to be applied to routing updates.

D) If a prefix is permitted, the route is used. If a prefix is denied, the route is not used.

220

Select the true statements about IP SLAs.

A) Operations are configured on the IP SLAs source.

B) Operations are configured on the IP SLAs responder.

C) A Cisco IOS device can be an IP SLAs responder.

D) A Cisco IOS device can be an IP SLAs source.

E) A web server can be an IP SLAs source.

A) Operations are configured on the IP SLAs source.

C) A Cisco IOS device can be an IP SLAs responder.

D) A Cisco IOS device can be an IP SLAs source.

221

When a route map is used for PBR, which of the following are true statements?

A) If the statement is marked as deny, a packet meeting the match criteria is sent through the normal forwarding channels.

B) If the statement is marked as deny, a packet meeting the match criteria is dropped.

C) If the statement is marked as permit and the packet meets all the match criteria, the set commands are applied.

D) If the statement is marked as permit and the packet meets all the match criteria, the packet is sent through the normal forwarding channels.

E) If no match is found in the route map, the packet is not dropped.

F) If no match is found in the route map, the packet is dropped.

A) If the statement is marked as deny, a packet meeting the match criteria is sent through the normal forwarding channels.

C) If the statement is marked as permit and the packet meets all the match criteria, the set commands are applied.

E) If no match is found in the route map, the packet is not dropped.

222

Which of the following is not a characteristic of link-state routing protocols?

A) They respond quickly to network changes.

B) They broadcast every 30 minutes.

C) They send triggered updates when a network change occurs.

D) They may send periodic updates, known as link-state refresh, at long time intervals, such as every 30 minutes.

B) They broadcast every 30 minutes.

223

For all the routers in the network to make consistent routing decisions, each link-state router must keep a record of all the following items except which one?

A) Its immediate neighbor routers

B) All the other routers in the network, or in its area of the network, and their attached networks

C) The best paths to each destination

D) The version of the routing protocol used

D) The version of the routing protocol used

224

Link-state routing protocols use a two-layer area hierarchy composed of which two areas?

A) Backbone area

B) Transmit area

C) Regular area

D) Linking area

A) Backbone area

C) Regular area

225

Which of the following is not a characteristic of an OSPF area?
A) It may minimize routing table entries.

B) It requires a flat network design.

C) It may localize the impact of a topology change within an area.

D) It may stop detailed LSA flooding at the area boundary.

B) It requires a flat network design.

226

When a router receives an LSA (within an LSU), it does not do which of the following?

A) If the LSA entry does not already exist, the router adds the entry to its LSDB, sends back an LSAck, floods the information to other routers, runs SPF, and updates its routing table.

B) If the entry already exists and the received LSA has the same sequence number, the router overwrites the information in the LSDB with the new LSA entry.

C) If the entry already exists but the LSA includes newer information (it has a higher sequence number), the router adds the entry to its LSDB, sends back an LSAck, floods the information to other routers, runs SPF, and updates its routing table.

D) If the entry already exists but the LSA includes older information, it sends an LSU to the sender with its newer information.

B) If the entry already exists and the received LSA has the same sequence number, the router overwrites the information in the LSDB with the new LSA entry.

227

What is an OSPF type 2 packet?

A) Database description (DBD), which checks for database synchronization between routers

B) Link-state request (LSR), which requests specific link-state records from router to router

C) Link-state update (LSU), which sends specifically requested link-state records

D) Link-state acknowledgment (LSAck), which acknowledges the other packet types

A) Database description (DBD), which checks for database synchronization between routers

228

Which of the following is true of hellos and dead intervals?

A) They do not need to be the same on neighboring routers, because the lowest common denominator is adopted.

B) They do not need to be the same on neighboring routers, because the highest common denominator is adopted.

C) They do not need to be the same on neighboring routers, because it is a negotiated interval between neighboring routers.

D) They need to be the same on neighboring routers.

D) They need to be the same on neighboring routers

229

Which IP address is used to send an updated LSA entry to OSPF DRs and BDRs?

A) Unicast 224.0.0.5

B) Unicast 224.0.0.6

C) Multicast 224.0.0.5

D) Multicast 224.0.0.6

D) Multicast 224.0.0.6

230

To ensure an accurate database, how often does OSPF flood (refresh) each LSA record?

A) Every 60 minutes.

B) Every 30 minutes.

C) Every 60 seconds.

D) Every 30 seconds.

E) Flooding each LSA record would defeat the purpose of a link-state routing protocol, which strives to reduce the amount of routing traffic it generates.

B) Every 30 minutes.

231

Which of the following is not information necessary to implement OSPF routing?

A) The IP addresses to be configured on router interfaces

B) The process number to be used for OSPF.

C) The area in which the router is to be configured

C) The area in which the router is to be configured

232

What command is used to display the router ID, timers, and statistics?

A)show ip ospf

B) show ip ospf neighbors

C) show ip ospf stats

D) show ip ospf neighborship

A)show ip ospf

233

Which of the following is not a way in which the OSPF router ID (a unique IP address) can be assigned?

A) The highest IP address of any physical interface

B) The lowest IP address of any physical interface

C) The IP address of a loopback interface

D) The router-id command

B) The lowest IP address of any physical interface

234

Which of the following best describes where an adjacency relationship exists?

A) Between routers located on the same physical network

B) Between routers in different OSPF areas

C) Between a router and its DR and BDR on different networks

D) Between a backbone DR and a transit BDR

A) Between routers located on the same physical network

235

Which of the following is not true regarding the OSPF DR/BDR election?

A) The router with the highest priority value is the DR.

B) The router with the second-highest priority value is the BDR.

C) If all routers have the default priority, the router with the lowest router ID becomes the DR.

D) The router with a priority set to 0 cannot become the DR or BDR.

C) If all routers have the default priority, the router with the lowest router ID becomes the DR.

236

Which of the following is not true of OSPF point-to-multipoint mode?

A) It does not require a full-mesh network.

B) It does not require a static neighbor configuration.

C) It uses multiple IP subnets.

D) It duplicates LSA packets.

C) It uses multiple IP subnets.

237

What is the default OSPF mode on a point-to-point Frame Relay subinterface?

A) Point-to-point mode

B) Multipoint mode

C) Nonbroadcast mode

D) Broadcast mode

A) Point-to-point mode

238

What is the default OSPF mode on a Frame Relay multipoint subinterface?

A) Point-to-point mode

B) Multipoint mode

C) Nonbroadcast mode

D) Broadcast mode

C) Nonbroadcast mode

239

What is the default OSPF mode on a main Frame Relay interface?

A) Point-to-point mode

B) Multipoint mode

C) Nonbroadcast mode

D) Broadcast mode

C) Nonbroadcast mode

240

How many different types of LSAs are there?

A) 5

B) 9

C) 10

D) 11

C) 10

241

What kind of router generates LSA type 5 in a standard area?

A) DR

B) ABR

C) ASBR

D) ADR

C) ASBR

242

Where does a type 1 LSA flood to?

A) To immediate peers

B) To all other routers in the area where it originated

C) To routers located in other areas

D) To all areas

B) To all other routers in the area where it originated

243

How does a routing table reflect the link-state information of an intra-area route?

A) The route is marked with O.

B) The route is marked with I.

C) The route is marked with IO.

D) The route is marked with EA.

E) The route is marked with O IA.

A) The route is marked with O.

244

Which type of external route is the default?

A) E1.

B) E2.

C) E5.

D) There is no default external route. OSPF adapts and chooses the most accurate one.

B) E2.

245

How is the cost of an E1 external route calculated?

A) The sum of the internal cost of each link the packet crosses

B) The sum of the external cost and the internal cost of each link the packet crosses

C) The external cost only

D) The sum of all area costs, even those that are not used

B) The sum of the external cost and the internal cost of each link the packet crosses

246

What does the OSPF max-lsa command do?

A) Defines the maximum number of LSAs that the router can generate

B) Protects the router from an excessive number of received (non-self-generated) LSAs in its LSDB

C) Defines the maximum size of the LSAs that the router generates

D) Protects the router from excessively large received (non-self-generated) LSAs in its LSDB

B) Protects the router from an excessive number of received (non-self-generated) LSAs in its LSDB

247

Select the true statements about different area types.

A) Routers in a standard area can have O IA routes (other than the default route) in their routing table.

B) Routers in a stub area can have O IA routes (other than the default route) in their routing table.

C) Routers in a totally stubby area can have O IA routes (other than the default route) in their routing table.

D) Routers in an NSSA area can have O IA routes (other than the default route) in their routing table.

E) Routers in a totally stubby NSSA area can have O IA routes (other than the default route) in their routing table.

A) Routers in a standard area can have O IA routes (other than the default route) in their routing table.

B) Routers in a stub area can have O IA routes (other than the default route) in their routing table.

D) Routers in an NSSA area can have O IA routes (other than the default route) in their routing table.

248

What command makes an OSPF router generate a default route?

A) ospf default-initiate

B) default-information originate

C) default information-initiate

D) ospf information-originate

B) default-information originate

249

If your router has an interface faster than 100 Mbps that is used with OSPF, consider using the ____________ command under the ____________ process.

A) auto-cost reference-bandwidth, OSPF

B) auto-cost reference-bandwidth, interface

C) autocost reference-speed, OSPF

D) autocost reference-speed, interface

A) auto-cost reference-bandwidth, OSPF

250

How is the OSPF metric calculated on a Cisco router, by default?

A) OSPF calculates the OSPF metric for the router according to the bandwidth of all its interfaces.

B) OSPF calculates the OSPF metric by referencing the DR.

C) OSPF calculates the OSPF metric for an interface according to the inverse of the interface’s bandwidth.

D) OSPF calculates the OSPF metric by using the lowest bandwidth value among all of its interfaces.

C) OSPF calculates the OSPF metric for an interface according to the inverse of the interface’s bandwidth.

251

Why is configuring a stub area advantageous?

A) It reduces the size of the LSDB inside an area.

B) It increases the memory requirements for routers in that area.

C) It further segments the hierarchy.

D) It starts to behave like a distance vector routing protocol, thus speeding up convergence.

A) It reduces the size of the LSDB inside an area.

252

A stub area is typically created using what kind of topology?

A) Point to point

B) Broadcast

C) Hub and spoke

D) Full mesh

C) Hub and spoke

253

Which of the following would result in the smallest routing tables on OSPF internal routers?

A) Stub area

B) Totally stubby area

C) Standard area

D) Backbone area

B) Totally stubby area

254

What is the default OSPF authentication?

A) Simple password

B) MD5

C) Null

D) IPsec

C) Null

255

What command is used to troubleshoot OSPF authentication?

A) debug ip ospf adj

B) debug ip ospf auth

C) debug ip ospf md5

D) debug ip ospf packet

A) debug ip ospf adj

256

Which of the following best describes the EIGRP topology table?

A) It is populated as a result of receiving hello packets.

B) It contains all learned routes to a destination.

C) It contains only the best routes to a destination.

B) It contains all learned routes to a destination.

257

Which of the following statements are true? (Choose three.)

A) A route is considered passive when the router is not performing recomputation on that route.

B) A route is passive when it is undergoing recomputation.

C) A route is active when it is undergoing recomputation.

D) A route is considered active when the router is not performing recomputation on that route.

E) Passive is the operational state for a route.

F) Active is the operational state for a route.

A) A route is considered passive when the router is not performing recomputation on that route.

C) A route is active when it is undergoing recomputation.

E) Passive is the operational state for a route.

258

Which command is used to see the RTO and hold time?

A) show ip eigrp traffic

B) show ip eigrp timers

C) show ip eigrp route

D) show ip eigrp neighbors

D) show ip eigrp neighbors

259

Which of the following statements are true about advertised distance (AD) and feasible distance (FD)? (Choose two.)

A) The AD is the EIGRP metric for a neighbor router to reach a particular network.

B) The AD is the EIGRP metric for this router to reach a particular network.

C) The FD is the EIGRP metric for this router to reach a particular network.

D) The FD is the EIGRP metric for the neighbor router to reach a particular network.

A) The AD is the EIGRP metric for a neighbor router to reach a particular network.

C) The FD is the EIGRP metric for this router to reach a particular network.

260

Routers A and B are connected and are running EIGRP on all their interfaces. Router A has four interfaces, with IP addresses 172.16.1.1/24, 172.16.2.3/24, 172.16.5.1/24, and 10.1.1.1/24. Router B has two interfaces, with IP addresses 172.16.1.2/24 and 192.168.1.1/24. There are other routers in the network that are connected on each of the interfaces of these two routers that are also running EIGRP. Which summary routes does Router A generate automatically (assuming autosummarization is enabled)? (Choose two.)

A) 172.16.0.0/16

B) 192.168.1.0/24

C) 10.0.0.0/8

D) 172.16.1.0/22

E) 10.1.1.0/24

A) 172.16.0.0/16

C) 10.0.0.0/8

261

Which of the following are true?

A) For Frame Relay point-to-point interfaces, set the bandwidth to the CIR.

B) For Frame Relay point-to-point interfaces set the bandwidth to the sum of all CIRs.

C) For Frame Relay multipoint connections, set the bandwidth to the sum of all CIRs.

D) For generic serial interfaces such as PPP and HDLC, set the bandwidth to match the line speed.

E) For Frame Relay multipoint connections, set the bandwidth to the CIR.

A) For Frame Relay point-to-point interfaces, set the bandwidth to the CIR.

C) For Frame Relay multipoint connections, set the bandwidth to the sum of all CIRs.

D) For generic serial interfaces such as PPP and HDLC, set the bandwidth to match the line speed.

262

Router A has four EIGRP paths to a destination with the following EIGRP metrics. Assuming no potential routing loops exist and the command variance 3 is configured on Router A, which paths are included for load balancing?

A) Path 1: 1100

B) Path 2: 1200

C) Path 3: 2000

D) Path 4: 4000

A) Path 1: 1100

B) Path 2: 1200

C) Path 3: 2000

263

Router A has the following configuration:
interface s0
ip bandwidth-percent eigrp 100 40
bandwidth 256
router eigrp 100
network 10.0.0.0

What is the maximum bandwidth (in kbps) that EIGRP uses on the S0 interface?

A) 100

B) 40

C) 256

D) 102

E) 10

F) 47

D) 102

264

What is the default EIGRP authentication?

A) Simple password

B) MD5

C) None

D) IPsec

C) None

265

What command is used to troubleshoot EIGRP authentication?

A) debug eigrp authentication

B) debug ip eigrp packets

C) debug eigrp packets

D) debug ip eigrp authentication

C) debug eigrp packets

266

A router has been configured with the commands router eigrp 9 and network 172.16.1.0 0.0.0.255. No other EIGRP-related commands have been configured. The answers list the IP addresses that could be assigned to this router’s Fa0/0 interface. Which answers list an IP address/prefix length that would cause the router to enable EIGRP on Fa0/0? (Choose two answers.)

A) 172.16.0.1/23

B) 172.16.1.1/26

C) 172.16.1.1/24

D) 172.16.0.255/23

E) None of the other answers is correct.

B) 172.16.1.1/26

C) 172.16.1.1/24

267

Router R1 has working interfaces S0/0, S0/1, and S0/2, with IP address/prefix combinations of 10.10.10.1/24, 10.10.11.2/24, and 10.10.12.3/22. R1’s configuration includes the commands router eigrp 9 and network 10.0.0.0. The show ip eigrp interfaces command lists S0/0 and S0/1 in the command output, but not S0/2. Which answer gives a possible reason for the omission?

A) R1 has EIGRP neighbors reachable via S0/0 and S0/1, but not via S0/2, so it is not included.

B) S0/2 may currently be in a state other than up/up.

C) The network 10.0.0.0 command requires the use of mask 255.0.0.0 due to EIGRP being classful by default.

D) S0/2 may be configured as a passive interface.

D) S0/2 may be configured as a passive interface.

268

Routers R1 and R2 are EIGRP neighbors using their Fa0/0 interfaces, respectively. An engineer adds the ip hello-interval eigrp 9 6 command to R1’s Fa0/0 configuration. Which of the following is true regarding the results from this change?

A) The show ip eigrp neighbors command on R1 lists the revised Hello timer.

B) The show ip eigrp interfaces command on R1 lists the revised Hello timer.

C) The R1-R2 neighborship fails due to Hello timer mismatch.

D) The show ip eigrp interfaces detail command on R1 lists the revised Hello timer.

D) The show ip eigrp interfaces detail command on R1 lists the revised Hello timer.

269

Routers R1 and R2, currently EIGRP neighbors over their Fa0/0 interfaces (respectively), both use EIGRP authentication. Tuesday at 8 p.m. the neighborship fails. Which of the following would not be useful when investigating whether authentication had anything to do with the failure?

A) debug eigrp packet

B) show key chain

C) show ip eigrp neighbor failure

D) show clock

C) show ip eigrp neighbor failure

270

Router R1 has been configured with the commands router eigrp 9 and network 172.16.2.0 0.0.0.255, with no other current EIGRP configuration. R1’s (working) Fa0/0 interface has been configured with IP address 172.16.2.2/26. R1 has found three EIGRP neighbors reachable via interface Fa0/0, including the router with IP address 172.16.2.20. When the engineer attempts to add the neighbor 172.16.2.20 fa0/0 command in EIGRP configuration mode, which of the following occurs?

A) Fa0/0 fails.

B) The command is rejected.

C) The existing three neighbors fail.

D) The neighborship with 172.16.2.20 fails and then reestablishes.

E) None of the other answers is correct.

C) The existing three neighbors fail.

271

Which of the following settings could prevent two potential EIGRP neighbors from becoming neighbors? (Choose two answers.)

A) The interface used by one router to connect to the other router is passive in the EIGRP process.

B) Duplicate EIGRP router IDs.

C) Mismatched Hold Timers.

D) IP addresses of 10.1.1.1/24 and 10.2.2.2/24, respectively.

A) The interface used by one router to connect to the other router is passive in the EIGRP process.

D) IP addresses of 10.1.1.1/24 and 10.2.2.2/24, respectively.

272

An engineer has added the following configuration snippet to an implementation planning document. The configuration will be added to Router R1, whose Fa0/0 interface connects to a LAN to which Routers R2 and R3 also connect. R2 and R3 are already EIGRP neighbors with each other. Assuming the snippet shows all commands on R1 related to EIGRP authentication, which answer lists an appropriate comment to be made during the implementation plan peer review?
key chain fred
key 3
key-string whehew
interface fa0/0
ip authentication key-chain eigrp 9 fred

A) The configuration is missing one authentication-related configuration command.

B) The configuration is missing two authentication-related configuration commands.

C) Authentication type 9 is not supported; type 5 should be used instead.

D) The key numbers must begin with key 1, so change the key 3 command to key 1.

A) The configuration is missing one authentication-related configuration command.

273

A company has a Frame Relay WAN with one central-site router and 100 branch office routers. A partial mesh of PVCs exists: one PVC between the central site and each of the 100 branch routers. Which of the following could be true about the number of EIGRP neighborships?

A) A partial mesh totaling 100: one between the central-site router and each of the 100 branches.

B) A full mesh – (101 * 100) / 2 = 5050–One neighborship between each pair of routers.

C) 101–One between each router (including the central site) and its nearby PE router.

D) None of the answers is correct.

A) A partial mesh totaling 100: one between the central-site router and each of the 100 branches.

274

Which of the following are methods EIGRP uses to initially populate (seed) its EIGRP topology table, before learning topology data from neighbors? (Choose two.)

A) By adding all subnets listed by the show ip route connected command

B) By adding the subnets of working interfaces over which static neighbors have been defined

C) By adding subnets redistributed on the local router from another routing source

D) By adding all subnets listed by the show ip route static command

B) By adding the subnets of working interfaces over which static neighbors have been defined

C) By adding subnets redistributed on the local router from another routing source

275

Which of the following are both advertised by EIGRP in the Update message and included in the formula for calculating the integer EIGRP metric? (Choose two.)

A) Jitter

B) Delay

C) MTU

D) Reliability

B) Delay

D) Reliability

276

Router R1 uses S0/0 to connect via a T/1 to the Frame Relay service. Five PVCs terminate on the serial link. Three PVCs (101, 102, and 103) are configured on subinterface S0/0.1, and one each (104 and 105) are on S0/0.2 and S0/0.3. The configuration shows no configuration related to EIGRP WAN bandwidth control, and the bandwidth command is not configured at all. Which of the following is true about how IOS tries to limit EIGRP’s use of bandwidth on S0/0?

A) R1 limits EIGRP to around 250Kbps on DLCI 102.

B) R1 limits EIGRP to around 250Kbps on DLCI 104.

C) R1 limits EIGRP to around 150Kbps on every DLCI.

D) R1 does not limit EIGRP because no WAN bandwidth control has been configured.

A) R1 limits EIGRP to around 250Kbps on DLCI 102.

277

The output of show ip eigrp topology on Router R1 shows the following output, which is all the output related to subnet 10.11.1.0/24. How many feasible successor routes does R1 have for 10.11.1.0/24?
P 10.11.1.0/24, 2 successors, FD is 2172419
via 10.1.1.2 (2172423/28167), Serial0/0/0.1
via 10.1.1.6 (2172423/28167), Serial0/0/0.2

A) 0

B) 1

C) 2

D) 3

A) 0

278

A network design shows that R1 has four different possible paths from itself to the Data Center subnets. Which of the following can influence which of those routes become feasible successor routes, assuming that you follow the Cisco recommended practice of not changing metric weights? (Choose two.)

A) The configuration of EIGRP offset lists

B) Current link loads

C) Changing interface delay settings

D) Configuration of variance

A) The configuration of EIGRP offset lists

C) Changing interface delay settings

279

Router R1 is three router hops away from subnet 10.1.1.0/24. According to various show interfaces commands, all three links between R1 and 10.1.1.0/24 use the following settings: bandwidth: 1000, 500, 100000 and delay: 12000, 8000, 100. Which of the following answers correctly identifies a value that feeds into the EIGRP metric calculation? (Choose two correct answers.)

A) Bandwidth of 101,500

B) Bandwidth of about 34,000

C) Bandwidth of 500

D) Delay of 1200

E) Delay of 2010

F) Delay of 20100

C) Bandwidth of 500

E) Delay of 2010

280

Routers R1 and R2 are EIGRP neighbors. R1 has been configured with the eigrp stub connected command. Which of the following is true as a result? (Choose two correct answers.)

A) R1 can learn EIGRP routes from R2, but R2 cannot learn EIGRP routes from R1.

B) R1 can send IP packets to R2, but R2 cannot send IP packets to R1.

C) R2 no longer learns EIGRP routes from R1 for routes not connected to R1.

D) R1 no longer replies to R2’s Query messages.

E) R2 no longer sends to R1 Query messages.

C) R2 no longer learns EIGRP routes from R1 for routes not connected to R1.

E) R2 no longer sends to R1 Query messages.

281

A network design shows that R1 has four different possible paths from itself to the Data Center subnets. Which one of the following commands is most likely to show you all the possible next-hop IP addresses for these four possible routes?

A) show ip eigrp topology

B) show ip eigrp topology all-links

C) show ip route eigrp

D) show ip route eigrp all-links

E) show ip eigrp topology all-learned

B) show ip eigrp topology all-links

282

Router R1 lists 4 routes for subnet 10.1.1.0/24 in the output of the show ip eigrp topology all-links command. The variance 100 command is configured, but no other related commands are configured. Which of the following rules are true regarding R1’s decision of what routes to add to the IP routing table? Note that RD refers to reported distance and FD to feasible distance.

A) Adds all routes for which the metric is

D) Adds all successor and feasible successor routes for which the metric is

283

Router R1 has been configured for EIGRP. The configuration also includes an ACL with one line–access-list 1 permit 10.10.32.0 0.0.15.255–and the EIGRP configuration includes the distribute-list 1 in command. Which of the following routes could not be displayed in the output of the show ip eigrp topology command as a result? (Choose two answers.)

A) 10.10.32.0/19

B) 10.10.44.0/22

C) 10.10.40.96/27

D) 10.10.48.0/23

E) 10.10.60.0/30

D) 10.10.48.0/23

E) 10.10.60.0/30

284

The command output that follows was gathered from router R1. If correctly referenced by an EIGRP distribution list that filters outbound Updates, which of the following statements is true about the filtering of various prefixes by this Prefix list? (Choose three answers.)
R1#sh ip prefix-list
ip prefix-list question: 3 entries
seq 5 deny 10.1.2.0/24 ge 25 le 27
seq 15 deny 10.2.0.0/16 ge 30 le 30
seq 20 permit 0.0.0.0/0

A) Prefix 10.1.2.0/24 will be filtered due to clause 5.

B) Prefix 10.1.2.224/26 will be filtered due to clause 5.

C) Prefix 10.2.2.4/30 will be filtered due to clause 15.

D) Prefix 10.0.0.0/8 will be permitted.

E) Prefix 0.0.0.0/0 will be permitted.

B) Prefix 10.1.2.224/26 will be filtered due to clause 5.

C) Prefix 10.2.2.4/30 will be filtered due to clause 15.

E) Prefix 0.0.0.0/0 will be permitted.

285

R1 has correctly configured EIGRP to filter routes using a route map named question. The configuration that follows shows the entire route map and related configuration. Which of the following is true regarding the filtering action on prefix 10.10.10.0/24 in this case?
route-map question deny 10
match ip address 1
route-map question permit 20
match ip address prefix-list fred
!
access-list 1 deny 10.10.10.0 0.0.0.255
ip prefix-list fred permit 10.10.10.0/23 le 25

A) It will be filtered due to the deny action in route map clause 10.

B) It will be allowed because of the double negative (two deny references) in clause 10.

C) It will be permitted due to matching clause 20’s reference to prefix-list fred.

D) It will be filtered due to matching the implied deny all route map clause at the end of the route map.

C) It will be permitted due to matching clause 20’s reference to prefix-list fred.

286

An engineer has typed four different single-line prefix lists in a word processor. The four answers show the four different single-line prefix lists. The engineer then does a copy/paste of the configuration into a router. Which of the lists could match a subnet whose prefix length is 27? (Choose two answers.)

A) ip prefix-list fred permit 10.0.0.0/24 ge 16 le 28

B) ip prefix-list barney permit 10.0.0.0/24 le 28

C) ip prefix-list wilma permit 10.0.0.0/24 ge 25

D) ip prefix-list betty permit 10.0.0.0/24 ge 28

B) ip prefix-list barney permit 10.0.0.0/24 le 28

C) ip prefix-list wilma permit 10.0.0.0/24 ge 25

287

An engineer plans to configure summary routes with the ip summary-address eigrp asn prefix mask command. Which of the following, when added to such a command, would create a summary that includes all four of the following subnets: 10.1.100.0/25, 10.1.101.96/27, 10.1.101.224/28, and 10.1.100.128/25?

A) 10.1.0.0 255.255.192.0

B) 10.1.64.0 255.255.192.0

C) 10.1.100.0 255.255.255.0

D) 10.1.98.0 255.255.252.0

B) 10.1.64.0 255.255.192.0

288

R1 has 5 working interfaces, with EIGRP neighbors existing off each interface. R1 has routes for subnets 10.1.1.0/24, 10.1.2.0/24, and 10.1.3.0/24, with EIGRP integer metrics of roughly 1 million, 2 million, and 3 million, respectively. An engineer then adds the ip summary-address eigrp 1 10.1.0.0 255.255.0.0 command to interface Fa0/0. Which of the following is true?

A) R1 loses and then reestablishes neighborships with all neighbors.

B) R1 no longer advertises 10.1.1.0/24 to neighbors connected to Fa0/0.

C) R1 advertises a 10.1.0.0/16 route out Fa0/0, with metric of around 3 million (largest metric of component subnets).

D) R1 advertises a 10.1.0.0/16 route out Fa0/0, with metric of around 2 million (median metric of component subnets).

B) R1 no longer advertises 10.1.1.0/24 to neighbors connected to Fa0/0.

289

In a lab, R1 connects to R2, which connects to R3. R1 and R2 each have several working interfaces, all assigned addresses in class A network 10.0.0.0. Router R3 has some working interfaces in class A network 10.0.0.0, and others in class B network 172.16.0.0. The engineer experiments with the auto-summary command on R2 and R3, enabling and disabling the command in various combinations. Which of the following combinations will result in R1 seeing a route for 172.16.0.0/16, instead of the individual subnets of class B network 172.16.0.0? (Choose two answers.)

A) auto-summary on R2 and no auto-summary on R3

B) auto-summary on R2 and auto-summary on R3

C) no auto-summary on R2 and no auto-summary on R3

D) no auto-summary on R2 and auto-summary on R3

B) auto-summary on R2 and auto-summary on R3

D) no auto-summary on R2 and auto-summary on R3

290

Router R1 exists in an Enterprise that uses EIGRP as its routing protocol. The show ip route command output on router R1 lists the following phrase: “Gateway of last resort is 1.1.1.1 to network 2.0.0.0”. Which of the following is most likely to have caused this output to occur on R1?

A) R1 has been configured with an ip default-network 2.0.0.0 command.

B) R1 has been configured with an ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 1.1.1.1 command.

C) R1 has been configured with an ip route 2.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 1.1.1.1 command.

D) Another router has been configured with an ip default-network 2.0.0.0 command.

E) Another router has been configured with an ip route 2.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 1.1.1.1 command.

D) Another router has been configured with an ip default-network 2.0.0.0 command.

291

Enterprise Router R1 connects an Enterprise to the Internet. R1 needs to create and advertise a default route into the Enterprise using EIGRP. The engineer creating the implementation plan has chosen to base this default route on the ip route command, rather than using ip default-network. Which of the following is not a useful step with this style of default route configuration? (Choose two answers.)

A) Create the default route on R1 using the ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 outgoing-interface command.

B) Redistribute the statically configured default route.

C) Disable auto-summary.

D) Configure the network 0.0.0.0 command.

E) Ensure R1 has no manually configured summary routes using the ip summary-address eigrp command.

C) Disable auto-summary.

E) Ensure R1 has no manually configured summary routes using the ip summary-address eigrp command.

292

A router has been configured with the commands router ospf 9, network 172.16.1.0 0.0.0.255 area 8, and network 172.16.0.0 0.0.255.255 area 9, in that order. No other OSPF-related commands have been configured. The answers list the IP addresses that could be assigned to this router’s Fa0/0 interface. Which answers list an IP address/prefix length that would cause the router to put Fa0/0 into area 9? (Choose two.)

A) 172.16.0.1/23

B) 172.16.1.1/26

C) 172.16.1.1/24

D) 172.16.0.255/23

E) None of the other answers is correct.

A) 172.16.0.1/23

D) 172.16.0.255/23

293

Which of the following is true about an OSPF area border router (ABR)?

A) The ABR must have multiple interfaces connected to the backbone area.

B) An ABR is a router with two interfaces, each connected to a different nonbackbone area.

C) The only requirement to be considered an ABR is at least one interface connected to the backbone area.

D) An ABR must have at least one interface in the backbone area plus at least one other interface in a nonbackbone area.

D) An ABR must have at least one interface in the backbone area plus at least one other interface in a nonbackbone area.

294

Which of the following can either directly or indirectly identify all the interfaces for which both 1) OSPF has been enabled and 2) OSPF is not passive? (Choose two.)

A) show ip ospf database

B) show ip ospf interface brief

C) show ip protocols

D) show ip route ospf

E) show ip ospf neighbors

B) show ip ospf interface brief

C) show ip protocols

295

Router R1 directly connects to subnet 10.1.1.0/24 with its Fa0/0 interface. R1 can ping four other working OSPF routers in that subnet. R1 is neither the designated router (DR) nor backup DR (BDR). OSPF is working correctly on all five routers. Which of the following is true on R1? (Choose two.)

A) The show ip ospf neighbors command lists two neighbors off Fa0/0.

B) The show ip ospf neighbors command lists four neighbors off Fa0/0.

C) The show ip ospf neighbors command lists two neighbors off Fa0/0 in the FULL state.

D) The show ip ospf neighbors command lists two neighbors off Fa0/0 in the DISCO state.

B) The show ip ospf neighbors command lists four neighbors off Fa0/0.

C) The show ip ospf neighbors command lists two neighbors off Fa0/0 in the FULL state.

296

Routers R1 and R2 are OSPF neighbors using their Fa0/0 interfaces, respectively, using default settings for all timers. An engineer adds the ip ospf hello-interval 6 command to R1’s Fa0/0 configuration. Which of the following is true regarding the results from this change? (Choose 2)

A) The show ip ospf neighbor command on R1 lists the revised Hello timer.

B) The show ip ospf interface brief command on R1 lists the revised Hello timer.

C) The R1-R2 neighborship fails due to Hello timer mismatch.

D) The show ip ospf interface command on R1 lists the revised Hello timer.

C) The R1-R2 neighborship fails due to Hello timer mismatch.

D) The show ip ospf interface command on R1 lists the revised Hello timer.

297

Routers R1 and R2, OSPF neighbors in area 0 over their Fa0/0 interfaces (respectively), currently both successfully use OSPF MD5 authentication. The OSPF configuration includes the area 0 authentication command under the router ospf 1 command. Which of the following commands must have been configured on R1’s Fa0/0 interface? (Choose two.)

A) ip ospf authentication null

B) ip ospf authentication message-digest

C) ip ospf md5 whatever-it-is

D) ip ospf message-digest-key 1 md5 whatever-it-is

E) ip ospf md5 1 key whatever-it-is

B) ip ospf authentication message-digest

D) ip ospf message-digest-key 1 md5 whatever-it-is

298

Which of the following settings do not prevent two potential OSPF neighbors from becoming neighbors?

A) The interface used to connect to that neighbor being passive in the OSPF process

B) Duplicate OSPF router IDs

C) Mismatched dead timers

D) IP addresses of 10.1.1.1/24 and 10.2.2.2/24

E) Mismatched OSPF process IDs

E) Mismatched OSPF process IDs

299

A company has a Frame Relay WAN with one central-site router and 100 branch office routers. A partial mesh of PVCs exists: one PVC between the central site and each of the 100 branch routers. All routers use point-to-point subinterfaces and one subnet per PVC. Which of the following is true about OSPF in this design?

A) The central site router has 100 fully adjacent neighborships with the 100 branches.

B) The central site router has neighborships with all branch routers, but fully adjacent neighbors with only two branches.

C) The central site router has a neighborship with the Frame Relay switch.

D) None of the other answers is correct.

A) The central site router has 100 fully adjacent neighborships with the 100 branches.

300

A network design shows area 1 with three internal routers, area 0 with four internal routers, and area 2 with five internal routers. Additionally, one ABR (ABR1) connects areas 0 and 1, plus a different ABR (ABR2) connects areas 0 and 2. How many Type 1 LSAs would be listed in ABR2’s LSDB?

A) 6

B) 7

C) 15

D) 12

E) None of the other answers is correct.

D) 12

301

A network planning diagram shows a large internetwork with many routers. The configurations show that OSPF has been enabled on all interfaces, IP addresses correctly configured, and OSPF working. For which of the following cases would you expect a router to create and flood a Type 2 LSA?

A) When OSPF is enabled on a LAN interface, and the router is the only router connected to the subnet.

B) When OSPF is enabled on a point-to-point serial link, and that router has both the higher router ID and higher interface IP address on the link.

C) When OSPF is enabled on a Frame Relay point-to-point subinterface, has the lower RID and lower subinterface IP address, and otherwise uses default OSPF configuration on the interface.

D) When OSPF is enabled on a working LAN interface on a router, and the router has been elected BDR.

E) None of the other answers is correct.

E) None of the other answers is correct.

302

A verification plan shows a network diagram with branch office Routers B1 through B100, plus two ABRs, ABR1, and ABR2, all in area 100. The branches connect to the ABRs using Frame Relay point-to-point subinterfaces. The verification plan lists the output of the show ip ospf database summary 10.100.0.0 command on a router B1, one of the branches. Which of the following is true regarding the output that could be listed for this command?

A) The output lists nothing unless 10.100.0.0 has been configured as a summary route using the area range command.

B) If 10.100.0.0 is a subnet in area 0, the output lists one Type 3 LSA, specifically the LSA with the lower metric when comparing ABR1’s and ABR2’s LSA for 10.100.0.0.

C) If 10.100.0.0 is a subnet in area 0, the output lists two Type 3 LSAs, one each created by ABR1 and ABR2.

D) None, because the Type 3 LSAs would exist only in the ABR’s LSDBs.

C) If 10.100.0.0 is a subnet in area 0, the output lists two Type 3 LSAs, one each created by ABR1 and ABR2.

303

Which of the following OSPF messages contains entire complete LSAs used during the database exchange process?

A) LSR

B) LSAck

C) LSU

D) DD

E) Hello

C) LSU

304

Routers R1, R2, R3, and R4 connect to the same 10.10.10.0/24 LAN-based subnet. OSPF is fully working in the subnet. Later, R5, whose OSPF priority is higher than the other four routers, joins the subnet. Which of the following are true about the OSPF database exchange process over this subnet at this point? (Choose two.)

A) R5 will send its DD, LSR, and LSU packets to the 224.0.0.5 all-DR-routers multicast address.

B) R5 will send its DD, LSR, and LSU packets to the 224.0.0.6 all-DR-routers multicast address.

C) The DR will inform R5 about LSAs by sending its DD, LSR, and LSU packets to the 224.0.0.6 all-SPF-routers multicast address.

D) The DR will inform R5 about LSAs by sending its DD, LSR, and LSU packets to the 224.0.0.5 all-SPF-routers multicast address.

B) R5 will send its DD, LSR, and LSU packets to the 224.0.0.6 all-DR-routers multicast address.

D) The DR will inform R5 about LSAs by sending its DD, LSR, and LSU packets to the 224.0.0.5 all-SPF-routers multicast address.

305

R1 is internal to area 1, and R2 is internal to area 2. Subnet 10.1.1.0/24 exists in area 2 as a connected subnet off R2. ABR ABR1 connects area 1 to backbone area 0, and ABR2 connects area 0 to area 2. Which of the following LSAs must R1 use when calculating R1’s best route for 10.1.1.0/24?

A) R2’s Type 1 LSA

B) Subnet 10.1.1.0/24’s Type 2 LSA

C) ABR1’s Type 1 LSA in area 0

D) Subnet 10.1.1.0/24’s Type 3 LSA in Area 0

E) Subnet 10.1.1.0/24’s Type 3 LSA in Area 1

E) Subnet 10.1.1.0/24’s Type 3 LSA in Area 1

306

Which of the following LSA types describes topology information that, when changed, requires a router in the same area to perform an SPF calculation? (Choose two.)

A) 1

B) 2

C) 3

D) 4

E) 5

F) 7

A) 1

B) 2

307

The following output was taken from Router R3. A scan of R3’s configuration shows that no bandwidth commands have been configured in this router. Which of the following answers lists configuration settings could be a part of a configuration that results in the following output? (Choose two.) Only two of the three interface’s costs have been set directly.
R3#show ip ospf interface brief
Interface PID Area IP Address/Mask Cost State Nbrs F/C
Se0/0/0.2 3 34 10.10.23.3/29 647 P2P 1/1
Se0/0/0.1 3 34 10.10.13.3/29 1000 P2P 1/1
Fa0/0 3 34 10.10.34.3/24 20 BDR 1/1

A) An auto-cost reference-bandwidth 1000 command in router ospf mode

B) An auto-cost reference-bandwidth 2000 command in router ospf mode

C) An ip ospf cost 1000 interface S0/0/0.1 command in router ospf mode

D) An auto-cost reference-bandwidth 64700 command in router ospf mode

A) An auto-cost reference-bandwidth 1000 command in router ospf mode

B) An auto-cost reference-bandwidth 2000 command in router ospf mode

308

Which of the following LSA types describe information related to topology or subnets useful for calculating routes for subnets inside the OSPF domain? (Choose three.)

A) 1

B) 2

C) 3

D) 4

E) 5

F) 7

A) 1

B) 2

C) 3

309

Router B1, an internal router in area 1, displays the following output. The only two ABRs connected to area 1 are performing Type 3 LSA filtering. Which of the following answers is true based on the information in the output from B1?
B1# show ip route 10.1.0.0 255.255.0.0 longer-prefixes
! Legend lines omitted for brevity

10.0.0.0/8 is variably subnetted, 17 subnets, 3 masks
O 10.1.2.0/24 [110/658] via 10.10.13.1, 00:00:32, Serial0/0/0.1
O IA 10.1.1.0/24 [110/658] via 10.10.23.2, 00:41:39, Serial0/0/0.2
O IA 10.1.3.0/24 [110/658] via 10.10.23.2, 00:41:39, Serial0/0/0.2

A) A Type 3 LSA for 10.2.2.0/24 was filtered by both ABRs.

B) A Type 3 LSA for 10.1.2.0/24 was not filtered by both ABRs.

C) A Type 3 LSA for 10.1.3.0/24 was not filtered by at least one ABR.

D) A Type 3 LSA for 10.1.1.0/24 was filtered by both ABRs.

C) A Type 3 LSA for 10.1.3.0/24 was not filtered by at least one ABR.

310

The following command output was gathered from Router R1, an ABR between areas 0 (backbone) and area 1. In this internetwork, area 0 contains all the subnets of class A network 10.0.0.0. R1’s OSPF process has a distribute-list prefix question in command configured. Assuming the subnets listed in the answers actually exist in area 0, which of the following occurs on router R1?
R1#sh ip prefix-list
ip prefix-list question: 3 entries
seq 5 deny 10.1.2.0/24 ge 25 le 27
seq 15 deny 10.2.0.0/16 ge 30 le 30
seq 20 permit 0.0.0.0/0 le 32

A) R1 will not create/flood a type 3 LSA for subnet 10.1.2.0/26 into area 1.

B) R1 will not create/flood a Type 3 LSA for subnet 10.1.2.0/24 into area 1.

C) R1 will not have an OSPF route for subnet 10.1.2.0/26 in its IP routing table.

D) R1 will not have an OSPF route for subnet 10.1.2.0/24 in its IP routing table.

C) R1 will not have an OSPF route for subnet 10.1.2.0/26 in its IP routing table

311

Use the same scenario as the previous question, with one change. Instead of the distribute-list prefix question in command configured on R1, R1’s OSPF process has an area 1 filter-list prefix question in command configured. Again assuming that the subnets listed in the answers actually exist in area 0, which of the following occurs on router R1?
R1#sh ip prefix-list
ip prefix-list question: 3 entries
seq 5 deny 10.1.2.0/24 ge 25 le 27
seq 15 deny 10.2.0.0/16 ge 30 le 30
seq 20 permit 0.0.0.0/0 le 32

A) R1 will not create/flood a type 3 LSA for subnet 10.1.2.0/26 into area 1.

B) R1 will not create/flood a Type 3 LSA for subnet 10.1.2.0/24 into area 1.

C) R1 will not have an OSPF route for subnet 10.1.2.0/26 in its IP routing table.

D) R1 will not have an OSPF route for subnet 10.1.2.0/24 in its IP routing table.

A) R1 will not create/flood a type 3 LSA for subnet 10.1.2.0/26 into area 1.

312

R1, an ABR between backbone area 0 and area 1, has intra-area routes in area 0 for 10.1.1.0/24, 10.1.2.0/24, and 10.1.3.0/24. These routes have metrics of 21, 22, and 23, respectively. An engineer then adds the area 0 range 10.1.0.0 255.255.0.0 command under the OSPF process of R1. Which of the following is true? (Choose two.)

A) R1 loses and then re-establishes neighborships with all neighbors.

B) R1 no longer advertises 10.1.1.0/24 to neighbors into area 1.

C) R1 advertises a 10.1.0.0/16 route into area 1 with a metric of 23 (largest metric).

D) R1 advertises a 10.1.0.0/16 route into area 1 with metric of 21 (lowest metric).

B) R1 no longer advertises 10.1.1.0/24 to neighbors into area 1.

D) R1 advertises a 10.1.0.0/16 route into area 1 with metric of 21 (lowest metric).

313

The following output exists on Router R1, a router internal to area 1. What can you determine as true from the output of the show ip ospf database summary command?
Routing Bit Set on this LSA
LS age: 124
Options: (No TOS-capability, DC, Upward)
LS Type: Summary Links (Network)
Link State ID: 10.1.0.0 (summary Network Number)
Advertising Router: 1.1.1.1
LS Seq Number: 80000001
Checksum: 0x878F
Length: 28
Network Mask: /22
TOS: 0 Metric: 11

A) The LSA was created by an ABR due to an area range command.

B) The LSA was created by an ASBR due to a summary-address command.

C) If created by an area range command, the best metric for a subordinate subnet on that ABR must have been 11.

D) None of the other answers is correct.

D) None of the other answers is correct.

314

Router R1, an ASBR connected to the Internet and to backbone area 0, has been configured with a default-information originate command. Which of the following is true about the effects of this configuration command?

A) R1 will always create and flood a default route into the OSPF domain.

B) R1 will create and flood an LSA for prefix/length 0.0.0.0/0 into the OSPF domain if R1’s IP routing table has a route to 0.0.0.0/0.

C) R1 will set a flag on the LSA for the subnet between itself and one of the ISPs, noting this subnet as a default network, regardless of whether R1 has a default route.

D) R1 will set a flag on the LSA for the subnet between itself and one of the ISPs, noting this subnet as a default network, but only if R1 has a route to 0.0.0.0/0.

B) R1 will create and flood an LSA for prefix/length 0.0.0.0/0 into the OSPF domain if R1’s IP routing table has a route to 0.0.0.0/0.

315

Which of the following is true about routers internal to a totally NSSA area? (Choose two.)

A) Routers cannot redistribute external routes into the area.

B) Routers should have zero Type 3 LSAs in their LSDBs.

C) Routers should have zero Type 5 LSAs in their LSDBs.

D) Routers should learn default routes from the ABRs attached to the area.

C) Routers should have zero Type 5 LSAs in their LSDBs.

D) Routers should learn default routes from the ABRs attached to the area.

316

ABR R1 has been configured with an area 1 stub no-summary command. Which stubby area type is area 1?

A) Stub

B) Totally stubby

C) NSSA

D) Totally NSSA

B) Totally stubby

317

Which of the following answers can be verified as true based on the following command output from Router R1?
R1#show ip ospf virtual-links
Virtual Link OSPF_VL0 to router 4.4.4.4 is up
Run as demand circuit
DoNotAge LSA allowed.
Transit area 1, via interface FastEthernet0/1, Cost of using 3

A) R1 is configured with an area 0 virtual-link 4.4.4.4 cost 3 command.

B) The ping 4.4.4.4 command on R1 must currently be successful.

C) R1’s Fa0/1 OSPF cost is 3.

D) 4.4.4.4 is known to R1 based on a Type 1 LSA in area 1.

D) 4.4.4.4 is known to R1 based on a Type 1 LSA in area 1.

318

Several links have been broken so that for the next day or two, what was formerly a contiguous area 0 has been broken into two parts. However, both parts of area 0 have working links into area 1 using routers with RID 1.1.1.1 and 2.2.2.2. Which answers list the command on the router with RID 1.1.1.1 to create a virtual link to help solve this temporary problem?

A) area 0 virtual-link 2.2.2.2

B) area 1 virtual-link 2.2.2.2

C) area 0 source-rid 1.1.1.1 dest-rid 2.2.2.2

D) virtual-link transit-area 1 RID 2.2.2.2

B) area 1 virtual-link 2.2.2.2

319

Router R1 connects to a Frame Relay cloud using a multipoint subinterface, with ten PVCs associated with the subinterface. What command would make this router not use a DR and require static OSPF neighbor definition?

A) ip ospf network broadcast

B) ip ospf network non-broadcast

C) ip ospf network point-to-multipoint

D) ip ospf network point-to-multipoint non-broadcast

D) ip ospf network point-to-multipoint non-broadcast

320

Router R1 connects to a Frame Relay cloud using a multipoint subinterface, with ten PVCs associated with the subinterface. What command would make this router not use a DR, and dynamically discover OSPF neighbors?
A) ip ospf network broadcast

B) ip ospf network non-broadcast

C) ip ospf network point-to-multipoint

D) ip ospf network point-to-multipoint non-broadcast

C) ip ospf network point-to-multipoint

321

Ten routers, R1 through R10, connect in a partial mesh over Frame Relay. For the mesh, R1 and R2 have PVCs connected to all other routers, but Routers R3 through R10 act as branch routers, with only two PVCs–one to R1 and one to R2. The routers use IP subnet 10.1.1.0/24, with addresses 10.1.1.1, 10.1.1.2, and so on, through 10.1.1.10, respectively. The routers all use Inverse ARP to learn Frame Relay mapping information. All routers use a multipoint subinterface with network type point-to-multipoint nonbroadcast. A co-worker’s implementation plan lists lots of configuration commands related to this design. The design states that all hosts should be able to ping all other hosts. Which commands are required for proper functioning of OSPF in this case? (Choose two.)

A) frame-relay map commands on R3–R10 referencing the other routers in this group.

B) Nine OSPF neighbor commands on each router.

C) Nine OSPF neighbor commands on R1 and R2, with only two such commands on R3–R10.

D) R1 and R2 with ip ospf priority 1 commands to ensure they become DR and BDR.

E) R3–R10 with ip ospf priority 0 commands to ensure they do not become DR or BDR.

A) frame-relay map commands on R3–R10 referencing the other routers in this group.

C) Nine OSPF neighbor commands on R1 and R2, with only two such commands on R3–R10.

322

Which of the following answers is the least likely reason for an engineer to choose to use route redistribution?

A) To exchange routes between merged companies

B) To give separate control over routing to different parts of one company

C) To support multiple router vendors

D) To knit together an OSPF area if the area becomes discontiguous

D) To knit together an OSPF area if the area becomes discontiguous

323

For a router to successfully redistribute routes between OSPF and EIGRP, which of the following are true? (Choose two.)

A) The router must have one routing protocol configured, but configuration for both routing protocols is not necessary.

B) The router must have at least one working link connected to each routing domain.

C) The redistribute command must be configured under EIGRP to send the routes to OSPF.

D) The redistribute command should be configured under OSPF to take routes from EIGRP into OSPF.

B) The router must have at least one working link connected to each routing domain.

D) The redistribute command should be configured under OSPF to take routes from EIGRP into OSPF.

324

Process EIGRP 1 is redistributing routes from process OSPF 2. Which two of the following methods may be used to set the metrics of the redistributed routes? (Choose 2)

A) Let the metrics default.

B) Set the metric components using the redistribute command’s metric keyword.

C) Set the metric components using the default-metric router subcommand.

D) Set the integer (composite) metric using the redistribute command’s metric keyword.

B) Set the metric components using the redistribute command’s metric keyword.

C) Set the metric components using the default-metric router subcommand.

325

Examine the following excerpt from the show ip eigrp topology 10.2.2.0/24 command on router R1. Which answer can be verified as definitely true based on this output?
External data:
Originating router is 10.1.1.1
AS number of route is 1
External protocol is OSPF, external metric is 64
Administrator tag is 0 (0x00000000)

A) R1 is the router that redistributed the route.

B) R1’s metric to reach subnet 10.2.2.0/24 is 64.

C) The route was redistributed on a router that has a router ospf 1 command configured.

D) R1 is redistributing a route to prefix 10.2.2.0/24 into OSPF.

C) The route was redistributed on a router that has a router ospf 1 command configured.

326

Router R1 has a connected route for 10.1.1.0/24 off interface Fa0/0. Interface Fa0/0 has been enabled for OSPF due to a router ospf 1 and network 10.0.0.0 0.0.0.255 area 0 command. R1 also has EIGRP configured, with the redistribute ospf 1 metric 1000 100 10 1 1500 command configured under EIGRP. Which one of the following is true?

A) R1 will not redistribute 10.1.1.0/24 into EIGRP, because R1 knows it as a connected route and not as an OSPF route.

B) For any OSPF routes redistributed into EIGRP, the metric components include a value equivalent to 1 Mbps of bandwidth.

C) For any OSPF routes redistributed into EIGRP, the metric components include a value equivalent to 100 microseconds of delay.

D) No subnets of network 10.0.0.0 will be redistributed due to the omission of the subnets parameter.

B) For any OSPF routes redistributed into EIGRP, the metric components include a value equivalent to 1 Mbps of bandwidth.

327

Process OSPF 1 is redistributing routes from process OSPF 2. Which of the following methods may be used to set the metrics of the redistributed routes? (Choose two.)

A) Let the metrics default.

B) Use each redistributed route’s OSPF metric using the redistribute command’s metric transparent keywords.

C) Set the metric using the default-metric router subcommand.

D) Redistribution is not allowed between two OSPF processes.

A) Let the metrics default.

C) Set the metric using the default-metric router subcommand.

328

Examine the following excerpt from the show ip ospf database asbr-summary command on router R1 (RID 1.1.1.1). Which answer can be verified as definitely true based on this output?
LS Type: Summary Links (AS Boundary Router)
Link State ID: 9.9.9.9 (AS Boundary Router address)
Advertising Router: 3.3.3.3
LS Seq Number: 8000000D
Checksum: 0xE43A
Length: 28
Network Mask: /0
TOS: 0 Metric: 100

A) The output describes the contents of a Type 5 LSA.

B) 3.3.3.3 identifies a router as being the router performing redistribution.

C) R1’s metric for its best route to reach the router with RID 9.9.9.9 is 100.

D) The router with RID 3.3.3.3’s metric for its best route to reach the router with RID 9.9.9.9 is 100.

D) The router with RID 3.3.3.3’s metric for its best route to reach the router with RID 9.9.9.9 is 100.

329

Router R1 sits inside OSPF area 1. Router R2 redistributes an E1 route into OSPF for prefix 2.2.2.0/24, with external metric 20. Router R22 redistributes an E2 route for the same prefix/length, external metric 10. Under what conditions will R1 choose as its best route the route through R22?

A) R1 will always choose the route through R22.

B) As long as R1’s best internal OSPF cost to reach R22 is less than 10.

C) As long as R1’s best internal OSPF cost to reach R22 is less than 20.

D) R1 will never choose the route through R22 if the E1 route through R2 is available.

D) R1 will never choose the route through R22 if the E1 route through R2 is available.

330

Router R1 has been configured with the redistribute ospf 1 route-map fred command under router eigrp 1. The route map named fred needs to be configured to match routes to determine which routes are redistributed into EIGRP. Which of the following answers lists an item that cannot be matched by route map fred?

A) Subnet number

B) Next-hop router IP address of the route

C) Whether the route is an E1 or E2 route

D) The route’s tag

E) The number of router hops between the router and the subnet

E) The number of router hops between the router and the subnet

331

Router R1 refers to route-map fred when redistributing from EIGRP into OSPF. The entire route-map is listed next. Which of the following answers must be true based on the configuration as shown?
route-map fred deny 10
match ip address one
route-map fred deny 20
match ip address two
route-map fred permit 100

A) The third route map clause will allow any routes not already filtered by the first two clauses.

B) Routes permitted by ACL “two” will be redistributed.

C) Routes denied by ACL “one” will be redistributed.

D) All routes will be filtered.

A) The third route map clause will allow any routes not already filtered by the first two clauses.

332

On Router R1, process EIGRP 1 is redistributing routes from process OSPF 2, calling route-map fred with the redistribute ospf 2 route-map fred command. R1 has learned intra-area routes for 10.1.1.0/24 and 10.1.2.0/24 in part due to the Type 2 LSAs known for each subnet. The route map filters route 10.1.1.0/24 and allows 10.1.2.0/24 through. Which of the following commands on router R1 list subnet 10.1.1.0/24? (Choose two.)

A) show ip route

B) show ip eigrp topology

C) show ip ospf database

D) show ip eigrp topology 10.1.1.0/24

A) show ip route

C) show ip ospf database

333

Router R1 is redistributing between two OSPF processes. Given the configuration shown, which includes all commands in the route map named fred, which of the following answers is true regarding the redistribution into OSPF process 1?
router ospf 1
redistribute ospf 2 external 2 route-map fred
!
route-map fred permit 10
match ip address 1
set metric-type type-1

A) No routes are redistributed because a route cannot be both E1 and E2.

B) Only OSPF E2 routes in the OSPF 2 domain will be considered for redistribution.

C) Inside the OSPF 2 domain, any formerly E2 routes will become E1 routes.

D) Routes permitted by ACL 1 will be redistributed, regardless of whether the routes are E1 or E2 routes.

B) Only OSPF E2 routes in the OSPF 2 domain will be considered for redistribution.

334

Which of the following is not true regarding IOS default settings for administrative distance?
A) EIGRP internal: 90

B) OSPF external: 110

C) EIGRP external: 90

D) RIP: 120

E) OSPF internal: 110

C) EIGRP external: 90

335

A network includes a RIPv2 domain, an EIGRP domain, and an OSPF domain. Each pair of routing domains has multiple routers redistributing routes between the pair of domains. The design requires that the redistribution configuration avoid matching based on prefix/length because of the trouble in maintaining such configurations. Which one of the following tools can be used in all three routing domains to attempt to prevent domain loops? (This book uses the term domain loop to refer to the long routes that might be chosen for routes when redistribution exists–for example, a route may forward packets from the EIGRP domain, to the OSPF domain, back to EIGRP, and then to subnet X in the RIP domain.)

A) Setting route tags

B) Setting the default administrative distance differently for internal and external routes

C) Setting administrative distance differently per route

D) Setting metrics much higher for all external routes than for all internal routes

A) Setting route tags

336

A co-worker is developing an implementation plan for a design that uses OSPF 2 and RIPv2 routing domains, with two routers redistributing between the two domains. The co-worker asks your help in choosing how to prevent domain loops by setting administrative distance. (This chapter uses the term domain loop to refer to the long routes that might be chosen for routes when redistribution exists–for example, a route may forward packets from the EIGRP 1 domain, to OSPF2, back to EIGRP 1, and then to subnet X in the RIP domain.) Assuming all other related settings use defaults, which of the following would solve the domain loop problem?

A) The distance ospf intra-area 80 inter-area 80 OSPF subcommand

B) The distance ospf external 80 OSPF subcommand

C) The distance ospf intra-area 180 inter-area 180 OSPF subcommand

D) The distance ospf external 180 OSPF subcommand

D) The distance ospf external 180 OSPF subcommand

337

Router R1 sets a route tag for subnet 10.1.1.0/24 when redistributing from OSPF into EIGRP. Which of the following unit is assigned to the route tag?

A) Kilobits/second.

B) Tens of microseconds.

C) Cost.

D) Hop count.

E) No unit is assigned.

E) No unit is assigned.

338

Policy-Based Routing (PBR) has been enabled on Router R1’s interface F0/0. Which of the following is true regarding how PBR works? (Choose two.)

A) Packets entering F0/0 will be compared based on the PBR route map.

B) Packets exiting F0/0 will be compared based on the PBR route map.

C) IOS ignores the PBR forwarding directions when the packet matches a route map deny clause.

D) IOS ignores the PBR forwarding directions when the packet matches a route map permit clause.

A) Packets entering F0/0 will be compared based on the PBR route map.

C) IOS ignores the PBR forwarding directions when the packet matches a route map deny clause.

339

Examine the following configuration on Router R1. R1’s show ip route 172.16.4.1 command lists a route with outgoing interface S0/1/1. Host 172.16.3.3 uses telnet to connect to host 172.16.4.1. What will Router R1 do with the packets generated by host 172.16.3.3 because of the telnet, assuming the packets enter R1’s F0/0 interface? (Choose two.)
interface Fastethernet 0/0
ip address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.0
ip policy route-map Q2
!
route-map Q2 permit
match ip address 101
set interface s0/0/1
!
access-list 101 permit tcp host 172.16.3.3 172.16.4.0 0.0.0.255

A) The packet will be forwarded out S0/0/1, or not at all.

B) The packet will be forwarded out S0/0/1 if it is up.

C) The packet will be forwarded out S0/1/1 if it is up.

D) The packet will be forwarded out S0/1/1 if it is up, or if it is not up, out s0/0/1.

E) The packet will be forwarded out S0/0/1 if it is up, or if it is not up, out s0/1/1.

B) The packet will be forwarded out S0/0/1 if it is up.

E) The packet will be forwarded out S0/0/1 if it is up, or if it is not up, out s0/1/1.

340

The following output occurs on Router R2. Which of the following statements can be confirmed as true based on the output from R2?
R2# show ip policy
Interface Route map
Fa0/0 RM1
Fa0/1 RM2
S0/0/0 RM3

A) R2 will forward all packets that enter Fa0/0 per the PBR configuration.

B) R2 will use route map RM2 when determining how to forward packets that exit interface Fa0/1.

C) R2 will consider using PBR for all packets exiting S0/0/0 per route map RM3.

D) R2 will consider using PBR for all packets entering S0/0/0 per route map RM3.

D) R2 will consider using PBR for all packets entering S0/0/0 per route map RM3.

341

Which of the following are examples of traffic that can be created as part of an IP Service-Level Agreement operation? (Choose two.)

A) ICMP Echo

B) VoIP (RTP)

C) IPX

D) SNMP

A) ICMP Echo

B) VoIP (RTP)

342

The following configuration commands exist only in an implementation plan document. An engineer does a copy/paste of these commands into configuration mode on Router R1. Which of the following answers is most accurate regarding the results?
ip sla 1
icmp-echo 1.1.1.1 source-ip 2.2.2.2
ip sla schedule 1 start-time now life forever

A) The SLA operation will be configured but will not start until additional commands are used.

B) The SLA operation is not completely configured so it will not collect any data.

C) The SLA operation is complete and working, collecting data into the RTTMON MIB.

D) The SLA operation is complete and working but will not store the data in the RTTMON MIB without more configuration.

C) The SLA operation is complete and working, collecting data into the RTTMON MIB.

343

The following output occurs on Router R1. IP SLA operation 1 uses an ICMP echo operation type, with default frequency of 60 seconds. The operation pings from address 1.1.1.1 to address 2.2.2.2. Which of the following answers is true regarding IP SLA and object tracking on R1?
R1# show track
Track 2
IP SLA 1 state
State is Up
3 changes, last change 00:00:03
Delay up 45 secs, down 55 secs
Latest operation return code: OK
Latest RTT (millisecs) 6
Tracked by:
STATIC-IP-ROUTING 0

A) The tracking return code fails immediately after the SLA operation results in an ICMP echo failure three times.

B) The tracking return code fails immediately after the SLA operation results in an ICMP echo failure one time.

C) After the tracking object fails, the tracking object moves back to an up state 45 seconds later in all cases.

D) After moving to a down state, the tracking object moves back to an OK state 45 seconds after the SLA operation moves to an OK state.

D) After moving to a down state, the tracking object moves back to an OK state 45 seconds after the SLA operation moves to an OK state.

344

Which of the following are considered private IPv4 addresses? (Choose two.)

A) 192.16.1.1

B) 172.30.1.1

C) 225.0.0.1

D) 127.0.0.1

E) 10.1.1.1

B) 172.30.1.1

E) 10.1.1.1

345

Class C network 200.1.1.0/24 was allocated to an ISP that operated primarily in Asia. That ISP then assigned this entire Class C network to one of its Asian customers. Network 200.1.2.0/24 has yet to be assigned to any ISP. Which of the following is most likely to be true?

A) 200.1.2.0/24 could be assigned to any registrar or ISP in the world.

B) 200.1.2.0/24 will be assigned in the same geography (Asia) as 200.1.1.0/24.

C) 200.1.2.0/24 cannot be assigned as public address space.

D) Routers inside North American ISPs increase their routing table size by 1 as a result of the customer with 200.1.1.0/24 connecting to the Internet.

B) 200.1.2.0/24 will be assigned in the same geography (Asia) as 200.1.1.0/24.

346

Router R1, in ASN 11, learns a BGP route from BGP peer R22 in ASN 22. R1 and then uses BGP to advertise the route to R2, also in ASN 11. What ASNs would you see in the BGP table on R2 for this route?

A) 22

B) 11

C) 1

D) None

A) 22

347

Which of the following are most likely to be used as an ASN by a company that has a registered public 16-bit ASN? (Choose two.)

A) 1

B) 65,000

C) 64,000

D) 64,550

A) 1

C) 64,000

348

Which of the following statements is true about a router’s eBGP peers that is not also true about that same router’s iBGP peers?

A) The eBGP peer neighborship uses TCP.

B) The eBGP peer uses port 180 (default).

C) The eBGP peer uses the same ASN as the local router.

D) The eBGP peer updates its AS_Path PA before sending updates to this router.

D) The eBGP peer updates its AS_Path PA before sending updates to this router.

349

Which of the following is the primary motivation for using BGP between an Enterprise and its ISPs?

A) To influence the choice of best path (best route) for at least some routes

B) To avoid having to configure static routes

C) To allow redistribution of BGP routes into the IGP routing protocol

D) To monitor the size of the Internet BGP table

A) To influence the choice of best path (best route) for at least some routes

350

The following terms describe various design options for Enterprise connectivity to the Internet. Which of the following imply that the Enterprise connects to two or more ISPs? (Choose two.)

A) Single Homed

B) Dual Homed

C) Single Multihomed

D) Dual Multihomed

C) Single Multihomed

D) Dual Multihomed

351

Enterprise Router R1, in ASN 1, connects to ISP Router I1, ASN 2, using eBGP. The single serial link between the two routers uses IP addresses 10.1.1.1 and 10.1.1.2, respectively. Both routers use their S0/0 interfaces for this link. Which of the following commands would be needed on R1 to configure eBGP? (Choose two.)

A) router bgp 2

B) router bgp 1

C) neighbor 10.1.1.2 remote-as 2

D) neighbor 10.1.1.2 update-source 10.1.1.1

E) neighbor 10.1.1.2 update-source S0/0

B) router bgp 1

C) neighbor 10.1.1.2 remote-as 2

352

Enterprise Router R1, in ASN 1, connects to ISP Router I1, ASN 2, using eBGP. There are two parallel serial links between the two routers. The implementation plan calls for each router to base their BGP TCP connection on their respective loopback1 interfaces, with IP addresses 1.1.1.1 and 2.2.2.2, respectively. Which of the following commands would not be part of a working eBGP configuration on Router R1?

A) router bgp 1

B) neighbor 2.2.2.2 remote-as 2

C) neighbor 2.2.2.2 update-source loopback1

D) neighbor 2.2.2.2 multihop 2

D) neighbor 2.2.2.2 multihop 2

353

The following output, taken from a show ip bgp command on Router R1, lists two neighbors. In what BGP neighbor state is neighbor 1.1.1.1?
Code View: Scroll / Show All
Neighbor V AS MsgRcvd MsgSent TblVer InQ OutQ Up/Down State/PfxRcd
1.1.1.1 4 1 60 61 26 0 0 00:45:01 0
2.2.2.2 4 3 153 159 26 0 0 00:38:13 1

A) Idle

B) Opensent

C) Active

D) Established

D) Established

354

The following output was taken from the show ip bgp command on Router R2. In this case, which of the following commands are most likely to already be configured on R2? (Choose two.)
Code View: Scroll / Show All
BGP router identifier 11.11.11.11, local AS number 11
...
Neighbor V AS MsgRcvd MsgSent TblVer InQ OutQ Up/Down State/PfxRcd
1.1.1.1 4 1 87 87 0 0 0 00:00:06 Idle (Admin)
2.2.2.2 4 3 173 183 41 0 0 00:58:47 2

A) router bgp 11

B) neighbor 1.1.1.1 remote-as 11

C) neighbor 2.2.2.2 prefix-limit 1

D) neighbor 1.1.1.1 shutdown

A) router bgp 11

D) neighbor 1.1.1.1 shutdown

355

Which of the following answers is most true about the BGP Update message?

A) It lists a set of path attributes, along with a list of prefixes that use those PAs.

B) It lists a prefix/length, plus the PA settings for that prefix.

C) It lists withdrawn routes, but never in the same Update message as newly advertised routes.

D) A single Update message lists at most a single prefix/length.

A) It lists a set of path attributes, along with a list of prefixes that use those PAs.

356

The following output occurs on Router R1. Which of the following cannot be determined from this output?
R1# show ip route 180.1.1.0 255.255.255.240
Routing entry for 180.1.1.0/28
Known via "bgp 2", distance 20, metric 0
Tag 3, type external
Last update from 192.168.1.2 00:10:27 ago
Routing Descriptor Blocks:
* 192.168.1.2, from 192.168.1.2, 00:10:27 ago
Route metric is 0, traffic share count is 1
AS Hops 2
Route tag 3

A) The type of BGP peer (iBGP or eBGP) that advertised this route to R1

B) R1’s ASN

C) The next-hop router’s ASN

D) The AS_Path length

C) The next-hop router’s ASN

357

The following line of output was extracted from the output of the show ip bgp command on Router R1. Which of the following can be determined from this output?
Network Next Hop Metric LocPrf Weight Path
* 130.1.1.0/28 1.1.1.1 0 1 2 3 4 i

A) The route is learned from an eBGP peer.

B) The route has no more than three ASNs in the AS_Path.

C) The route is the best route for this prefix.

D) None of these facts can be positively determined by this output.

A) The route is learned from an eBGP peer.

358

Router R1 has eBGP connections to I1 and I2, routers at the same ISP. The company that owns R1 can use public address range 130.1.16.0/20. The following output lists all the IP routes in R1’s routing table within this range. Which of the following answers would cause R1 to advertise the 130.1.16.0/20 prefix to its eBGP peers? (You should assume default settings for any parameters not mentioned in this question.)
R1# show ip route 130.1.16.0 255.255.240.0 longer-prefixes
! lines omitted...
O 130.1.16.0/24 [110/3] via 10.5.1.1, 00:14:36, FastEthernet0/1
O 130.1.17.0/24 [110/3] via 10.5.1.1, 00:14:36, FastEthernet0/1
O 130.1.18.0/24 [110/3] via 10.5.1.1, 00:14:36, FastEthernet0/1

A) Configure R1 with the network 130.1.16.0 mask 255.255.240.0 command.

B) Configure R1 with the network 130.1.16.0 mask 255.255.240.0 summary-only command.

C) Redistribute from OSPF into BGP, filtering so that only routes in the 130.1.16.0/20 range are redistributed.

D) Redistribute from OSPF into BGP, filtering so that only routes in the 130.1.16.0/20 range are redistributed, and create a BGP summary for 130.1.16.0/20.

D) Redistribute from OSPF into BGP, filtering so that only routes in the 130.1.16.0/20 range are redistributed, and create a BGP summary for 130.1.16.0/20.

359

R1 in ASN 1 with loopback1 address 1.1.1.1 needs to be configured with an iBGP connection to R2 with loopback2 IP address 2.2.2.2. The connection should use the loopbacks. Which of the following commands is required on R1?

A) neighbor 1.1.1.1 remote-as 1

B) neighbor 2.2.2.2 remote-as 2

C) neighbor 2.2.2.2 update-source loopback1

D) neighbor 2.2.2.2 ibgp-multihop 2

E) neighbor 2.2.2.2 ibgp-mode

C) neighbor 2.2.2.2 update-source loopback1

360

The following output occurred as a result of the show ip bgp command on Router R1. The output shows all BGP table entries on R1. How many iBGP-learned routes exist on this router?
*>i181.0.0.0/8 10.100.1.1 0 100 0 1 2 111 112 i
*>i182.0.0.0/8 10.100.1.1 0 100 0 1 2 222 i
*>i183.0.0.0/8 10.100.1.1 0 100 0 1 2 i
*>i184.0.0.0/8 10.100.1.1 0 100 0 1 2 i
*> 192.135.250.0/28 192.168.1.6 0 3 4 i

A) 1

B) 2

C) 3

D) 4

E) 5

D) 4

361

The following output on Router R1 lists details of a BGP route for 190.1.0.0/16. Which of the following is true based on this output? (Choose 2)
R1# show ip bgp 190.1.0.0/16
BGP routing table entry for 190.1.0.0/16, version 121
Paths: (1 available, best #1, table Default-IP-Routing-Table)
Advertised to update-groups:
1
1 2 3 4
1.1.1.1 from 2.2.2.2 (3.3.3.3)
Origin IGP, metric 0, localpref 100, valid, internal, best

A) R1 has a neighbor 1.1.1.1 command configured.

B) R1 has a neighbor 2.2.2.2 command configured.

C) The show ip bgp command lists a line for 190.1.0.0/16 with both an > and an i on the left.

D) R1 is in ASN 1.

B) R1 has a neighbor 2.2.2.2 command configured.

C) The show ip bgp command lists a line for 190.1.0.0/16 with both an > and an i on the left.

362

A company uses Routers R1 and R2 to connect to ISP1 and ISP2, respectively, with Routers I1 and I2 used at the ISPs. R1 peers with I1 and R2; R2 peers with I2 and R1. Assuming as many default settings as possible are used on all four routers, which of the following is true about the next-hop IP address for routes R1 learns over its iBGP connection to R2?

A) The next hop is I2’s BGP RID.

B) The next hop is I2’s IP address used on the R2-I2 neighbor relationship.

C) The next hop is R2’s BGP RID.

D) The next hop is R2’s IP address used on the R1–R2 neighbor relationship.

B) The next hop is I2’s IP address used on the R2-I2 neighbor relationship.

363

A company uses Routers R1 and R2 to connect to ISP1 and ISP2, respectively, with Routers I1 and I2 used at the ISPs. R1 peers with I1 and R2; R2 peers with I2 and R1. R1 and R2 do not share a common subnet, relying on other routers internal to the Enterprise for IP connectivity between the two routers. Which of the following could be used to prevent potential routing loops in this design? (Choose 2)

A) Using an iBGP mesh inside the Enterprise core

B) Configuring default routes in the Enterprise pointing to both R1 and R2

C) Redistributing BGP routes into the Enterprise IGP

D) Tunneling the packets for the iBGP connection between R1 and R2

A) Using an iBGP mesh inside the Enterprise core

C) Redistributing BGP routes into the Enterprise IGP

364

R1 is currently advertising prefixes 1.0.0.0/8, 2.0.0.0/8, and 3.0.0.0/8 over its eBGP connection to neighbor 2.2.2.2 (R2). An engineer configures a prefix list (fred) on R1 that permits only 2.0.0.0/8 and then enables the filter with the neighbor R2 prefix-list fred out command. Upon exiting configuration mode, the engineer uses some show commands on R1, but no other commands. Which of the following is true in this case?

A) The show ip bgp neighbor 2.2.2.2 received-routes command lists the three original prefixes.

B) The show ip bgp neighbor 2.2.2.2 advertised-routes command lists the three original prefixes.

C) The show ip bgp neighbor 2.2.2.2 routes command lists the three original prefixes.

D) The show ip bgp neighbor 2.2.2.2 routes command lists only 2.0.0.0/8.

E) The show ip bgp neighbor 2.2.2.2 advertised-routes command lists only 2.0.0.0/8.

B) The show ip bgp neighbor 2.2.2.2 advertised-routes command lists the three original prefixes.

365

Which of the following three BGP filtering methods enabled with the neighbor command will filter BGP prefixes based on the prefix and prefix length? (Choose 3)

A) A neighbor distribute-list out command, referencing a standard ACL

B) A neighbor prefix-list out command

C) A neighbor filter-list out command

D) A neighbor distribute-list out command, referencing an extended ACL

E) A neighbor route-map out command

B) A neighbor prefix-list out command

D) A neighbor distribute-list out command, referencing an extended ACL

E) A neighbor route-map out command

366

Which of the following commands causes a router to bring down BGP neighbor relationships? (Choose 2)

A) clear ip bgp *

B) clear ip bgp 1.1.1.1

C) clear ip bgp * soft

D) clear ip bgp 1.1.1.1 out

A) clear ip bgp *

B) clear ip bgp 1.1.1.1

367

An engineer is preparing an implementation plan in which the configuration needs to influence BGP’s choice of best path. Which of the following is least likely to be used by the configuration in this implementation plan?

A) Weight

B) Origin code

C) AS_Path

D) Local_Pref

B) Origin code

368

Router R1 learns two routes with BGP for prefix 200.1.0.0/16. Comparing the two routes, route 1 has a longer AS_Path Length, bigger MED, bigger Weight, and smaller Local Preference. Which of the following is true about Router R1’s choice of best path for this prefix?

A) Route 1 is the best route.

B) Route 2 is the best route.

C) The routes tie as best, but one will be picked to be placed in the routing table based on tiebreakers.

D) Neither route is considered best.

A) Route 1 is the best route.

369

Router R1 learns two routes with BGP for prefix 200.1.0.0/16. Comparing the two routes, route 1 has a shorter AS_Path Length, smaller MED, the same Weight, and smaller Local Preference. Which of the following is true about Router R1’s choice of best path for this prefix?

A) Route 1 is the best route.

B) Route 2 is the best route.

C) The routes tie as best, but one will be picked to be placed in the routing table based on tiebreakers.

D) Neither route is considered best.

B) Route 2 is the best route.

370

An engineer has been told to create an implementation plan to influence the choice of best BGP route on a single router using the Weight feature. The sole Enterprise Internet-connected router, Ent1, has neighbor relationships with Routers ISP1 and ISP2, which reside inside two different ISPs. The goal is to prefer all routes learned from ISP1 over ISP2 using Weight. Which of the following answers lists a configuration step that would not be useful for achieving these goals? (Choose two.)

A) Configuring the neighbor weight command on Ent1.

B) Having the ISPs configure the neighbor route-map out command on ISP1 and ISP2, with the route map setting weight.

C) Configuring the set weight command inside a route map on Router Ent1.

D) Configuring a prefix list to match all class C networks.

B) Having the ISPs configure the neighbor route-map out command on ISP1 and ISP2, with the route map setting weight.

D) Configuring a prefix list to match all class C networks.

371

An Enterprise router, Ent1, displays the following excerpt from the show ip bgp command. ENT1 has an eBGP connection to an ISP router with address 3.3.3.3 and an iBGP connection to a router with address 4.4.4.4. Which of the following is most likely to be true?
Network Next Hop Metric LocPrf Weight Path
*> 3.3.3.3 0 0 1 1 1 1 2 18 i

A) The Enterprise likely uses ASN 1.

B) The neighboring ISP likely uses ASN 1.

C) The route has been advertised through ASN 1 multiple times.

D) Router Ent1 will add another ASN to the AS_Path before advertising this route to its iBGP peer (4.4.4.4).

B) The neighboring ISP likely uses ASN 1.

372

The following line of output was gathered on Enterprise Router Ent1 using the command show ip route. Which of the following answers is most likely to be true, based on this output?
B 128.107.0.0 [20/10] via 11.11.11.11, 00:02:18

A) This router has set the Weight of this route to 10.

B) This router’s BGP table lists this route as an iBGP route.

C) This router’s MED has been set to 10.

D) This router’s BGP table lists an AS_Path length of 10 for this route.

C) This router’s MED has been set to 10.

373

Which of the following is the shortest valid abbreviation for FE80:0000:0000:0000:0010:0000:0000:0123?

A) FE80::10::123

B) FE8::1::123

C) FE80:0:0:0:10::123

D) FE80::10:0:0:123

D) FE80::10:0:0:123

374

An ISP has assigned prefix 3000:1234:5678::/48 to Company1. Which of the following terms would typically be used to describe this type of public IPv6 prefix?

A) Subnet prefix

B) ISP prefix

C) Global routing prefix

D) Registry prefix

C) Global routing prefix

375

Which of the following answers lists either a protocol or function that can be used by a host to dynamically learn its own IPv6 address? (Choose two.)

A) Stateful DHCP

B) Stateless DHCP

C) Stateless autoconfiguration

D) Neighbor Discovery Protocol

A) Stateful DHCP

C) Stateless autoconfiguration

376

Which of the following is helpful to allow an IPv6 host to learn the IP address of a default gateway on its subnet?

A) Stateful DHCP

B) Stateless RS

C) Stateless autoconfiguration

D) Neighbor Discovery Protocol

D) Neighbor Discovery Protocol

377

Which of the following answers lists a multicast IPv6 address?

A) 2000::1:1234:5678:9ABC

B) FD80::1:1234:5678:9ABC

C) FE80::1:1234:5678:9ABC

D) FF80::1:1234:5678:9ABC

D) FF80::1:1234:5678:9ABC

378

Router R1 has two LAN interfaces and three serial interfaces enabled for IPv6. All the interfaces use link local addresses automatically generated by the router. Which of the following could be the link local address of R1’s interface S0/0?

A) FEA0::200:FF:FE11:0

B) FE80::200:FF:FE11:1111

C) FE80::0213:19FF:FE7B:0:1

D) FEB0::211:11FF:FE11:1111

B) FE80::200:FF:FE11:1111

379

Router R1 has the following configuration. Assuming R1’s F0/0 interface has a MAC address of 0200.0011.1111, what IPv6 addresses will R1 list for interface F0/0 in the output of the show ipv6 interface brief command?
interface f0/0
ipv6 address 2345:0:0:8::1/64

A) 2345:0:0:8::1

B) 2345:0:0:8:0:FF:FE11:1111

C) FE80::FF:FE11:1111

D) FE80:0:0:8::1

A) 2345:0:0:8::1

C) FE80::FF:FE11:1111

380

Router R1 lists the following output from a show command. Which of the following is true about R1?
R1# show ipv6 interface f0/0
FastEthernet0/0 is up, line protocol is up
IPv6 is enabled, link-local address is FE80::213:19FF:FE12:3456
No Virtual link-local address(es):
Global unicast address(es):
2000::4:213:19FF:FE12:3456, subnet is 2000:0:0:4::/64 [EUI]
Joined group address(es):
FF02::1
FF02::2
FF02::1:FF12:3456

A) R1’s solicited node multicast address is FF02::1:FF12:3456.

B) R1’s 2000::4:213:19FF:FE12:3456 address is a global unicast with all 128 bits statically configured.

C) Address FF02::2 is R1’s solicited node multicast.

D) R1’s solicited node multicast, not listed in this output, would be FF02::213:19FF:FE12:3456.

A) R1’s solicited node multicast address is FF02::1:FF12:3456.

381

Which of the following features work the same in both RIP-2 and RIPng? (Choose three.)

A) Distance Vector Logic

B) Uses UDP

C) Uses RIP-specific authentication

D) Maximum useful metric of 15

E) Automatic route summarization

A) Distance Vector Logic

B) Uses UDP

D) Maximum useful metric of 15

382

Router R1 currently has no configuration related to IPv6 or IPv4. The following configuration exists in a planning document, intended to be used to copy/paste into Router R1 to enable RIPng and IPv6 on interfaces F0/0 and S0/0/0. No other related configuration exists. Which of the following is true about RIPng on R1 after this configuration has been pasted into R1?
ipv6 unicast-routing
interface f0/0
ipv6 rip one enable
ipv6 address 2000::1/64
interface s0/0/0
ipv6 address 2001::/64 eui-64
ipv6 rip one enable

A) RIPng will be enabled on no interfaces.

B) RIPng will be enabled on one interface.

C) RIPng will be enabled on two interfaces.

D) RIPng will advertise about prefixes connected to S0/0/0 and F0/0, but only send Updates on one interface.

B) RIPng will be enabled on one interface.

383

Router R1 currently has no configuration related to IPv6 or IPv4. The following configuration exists in a planning document intended to be used to copy/paste into Router R1 to enable EIGRP for IPv6 on interfaces F0/0 and S0/0/0. No other related configuration exists. Assuming F0/0 and S0/0/0 reach an up/up state, which of the following is true about EIGRP for IPv6 on R1 after this configuration has been pasted into R1?
ipv6 router eigrp 1
ipv6 unicast-routing
interface f0/0
ipv6 address 2000::1/64
ipv6 eigrp 1
interface s0/0/0
ipv6 address 2001::/64 eui-64
ipv6 eigrp 1

A) EIGRP works on F0/0 and S0/0/0 without further configuration.

B) EIGRP works with the addition of one command: a no shutdown command in EIGRP router configuration mode.

C) EIGRP works with the addition of one command: an eigrp router-id command in EIGRP router configuration mode.

D) EIGRP for IPv6 needs at least two more configuration commands before it works on R1.

D) EIGRP for IPv6 needs at least two more configuration commands before it works on R1.

384

Router R1 connects to Router R2 over an Ethernet LAN with both routers using their F0/0 interfaces. R1 learns a route from R2 using EIGRP for IPv6. That route lists F0/0 as the outgoing interface with R2 as the next hop. The configuration excerpt shows all relevant configuration on R2’s F0/0 interface. Which of the following is true about R1’s route?
interface f0/0
mac-address 1111.1111.1111
ipv6 address 2000::/64 eui-64
ipv6 address 2001::1/64

A) The next hop is 2000::1311:11FF:FE11:1111

B) The next hop is FE80::1311:11FF:FE11:1111

C) The next hop is FE80::5111:11FF:FE11:1111

D) The next hop is 2001::1

B) The next hop is FE80::1311:11FF:FE11:1111

385

Which of the following are true of both OSPFv2 and OSPFv3? (Choose two.)

A) The method of choosing an OSPF router ID

B) Verification checks that must be validated before two routers can become OSPF neighbors

C) Support for route tags

D) Support for multiple instances per interface

A) The method of choosing an OSPF router ID

C) Support for route tags

386

Router R1 currently has no configuration related to IPv6 or IPv4. The following configuration exists in a planning document, intended to be used to copy/paste into Router R1 to enable OSPFv3 on interfaces F0/0 and S0/0/0. No other related configuration exists. Assuming F0/0 and S0/0/0 reach an up/up state, which of the following is true about OSPFv3 on R1 after this configuration has been pasted into R1?
ipv6 router ospf 1
ipv6 unicast-routing
interface f0/0
ipv6 address 2000::1/64
ipv6 ospf 1 area 1
interface s0/0/0
ipv6 address 2001::/64 eui-64
ipv6 ospf 1 area 0

A) OSPF works on F0/0 and S0/0/0 without further configuration.

B) OSPF works with the addition of one command: a no shutdown command in OSPF router configuration mode.

C) OSPF works with the addition of one command: an router-id command in OSPF router configuration mode.

D) OSPFv3 needs at least two more configuration commands before it works on R1.

C) OSPF works with the addition of one command: an router-id command in OSPF router configuration mode.

387

The following output occurs on Router R1, which runs both EIGRP for IPv6 and OSPFv3, with redistribution from EIGRP into OSPF configured with the redistribute eigrp 1 metric 25 command. Interface S0/0/1 has been enabled for EIGRP ASN 1. Which of the following should be true of redistribution in this case?
D 2000::/64 [90/1422516]
via FE80::213:19FF:FE7B:5026, Serial0/0/1
C 2000:0:0:1::/64 [0/0]
via Serial0/0/1, directly connected
L 2000::1:213:19FF:FE7B:5004/128 [0/0]
via Serial0/0/1, receive

A) Route 2000::/64 will be redistributed.

B) Route 2000:0:0:1::/64 will be redistributed.

C) Route 2000:1:213:19FF:FE7B:5004/128 will be redistributed.

D) No routes will be redistributed because of the omission of the subnets parameter of the redistribute command.

A) Route 2000::/64 will be redistributed.

388

Router R1 has been configured with an ipv6 route 2000::/64 S0/0/0 64 command. Which of the following does the 64 at the end of the command represent?

A) Metric

B) Administrative distance

C) Timeout (seconds)

D) Prefix length

E) Interface ID

B) Administrative distance

389

An enterprise has plans to start adding IPv6 support. For the first year, the IPv6 will be in small pockets spread around the existing large IPv4 network, with occasional IPv6 traffic while applications teams test IPv6-enabled servers and applications. Which of the following tools would be most appropriate?

A) Native IPv6

B) Point-to-point tunnels

C) Multipoint tunnels

D) NAT-PT

C) Multipoint tunnels

390

An enterprise has plans to start adding IPv6 support. The initial deployment requires support from some IPv6-only devices that need to access servers that support only IPv4. Which of the following tools would be most appropriate?

A) Native IPv6

B) Point-to-point tunnels

C) Multipoint tunnels

D) NAT-PT

D) NAT-PT

391

A client host uses IPv4 to communicate with one server and IPv6 to communicate with another. Which of the following IPv6 coexistence features is likely at work on the host?

A) Native IPv6

B) Point-to-point tunnels

C) Multipoint tunnels

D) NAT-PT

E) Dual stacks

E) Dual stacks

392

The following configuration exists on a router on one end of an IPv6 tunnel. Which type of tunnel is created by this configuration?
interface loopback 1
ip address 1.1.1.1 255.255.255.255
interface tunnel 2
ipv6 address 2000::1/64
tunnel source loopback 1
tunnel destination 2.2.2.2
tunnel mode ipv6ip
ipv6 eigrp 1

A) Automatic 6to4

B) Manually configured tunnel

C) ISATAP

D) GRE

B) Manually configured tunnel

393

An engineer is reviewing another engineer’s sample configuration for a GRE tunnel used to pass IPv6 traffic. The tunnel has not yet been configured on the router. Which of the following commands is not required for the configuration to pass IPv6 traffic?

A) tunnel source

B) tunnel destination

C) tunnel mode

D) All these commands are required.

C) tunnel mode

394

Which of the following IPv6 tunneling mechanisms support IPv6 IGP routing protocols? (Choose two.)

A) Automatic 6to4

B) Manually configured tunnel

C) ISATAP

D) GRE

B) Manually configured tunnel

D) GRE

395

The following configuration exists on a router on one end of an IPv6 tunnel. Although the configuration added so far is correct, the configuration is incomplete. Which type of tunnel is most likely to be intended by the network engineer?
interface loopback 1
ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.255
interface tunnel 2
ipv6 address 2002:C0A8:101::1/64
tunnel source loopback 1

A) Automatic 6to4

B) Manually configured tunnel

C) ISATAP

D) GRE

A) Automatic 6to4

396

he answers each list a tunnel method and two consecutive IPv6 address quartets. Which answers identify a tunneling method that relies on an IPv4 address to be embedded into an IPv6 address, within the correct quartets listed? (Choose two.)

A) Automatic 6to4, quartets 2 and 3

B) Automatic 6to4, quartets 7 and 8

C) ISATAP, quartets 2 and 3

D) ISATAP, quartets 7 and 8

A) Automatic 6to4, quartets 2 and 3

D) ISATAP, quartets 7 and 8

397

Router R1 uses MAC address 1111.1111.1111 for its Fa0/0 interface. An engineer sees the following configuration in the output of a show running-config command. Then, the engineer issues a show ipv6 interface brief command. What global unicast IPv6 address does this command display for interface tunnel 1?
interface loopback 1
ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.255
interface tunnel 1
tunnel source loopback 1
tunnel destination 192.168.1.2
tunnel mode ipv6ip isatap
ipv6 address 2000::/64 eui-64

A) 2000::1311:11FF:FE11:1111

B) 2000::C0A5:101

C) 2000:C0A5:101::

D) 2000::5EFE:C0A8:101

D) 2000::5EFE:C0A8:101

398

Router R1 sits at an Enterprise branch office, using the Internet for its only connectivity back to the rest of the Enterprise. Which of the following is not a benefit of using an IPsec tunnel for packets sent through the Internet, between R1 and the rest of the Enterprise?

A) Privacy

B) Authentication

C) Allows using an IGP between R1 and the Enterprise

D) Secure communications

C) Allows using an IGP between R1 and the Enterprise

399

Router R1 sits at an Enterprise branch office, using both the Internet and a leased line to another Enterprise router for its two connectivity options back into the rest of the Enterprise network. The engineer planning for this branch decided to use the leased line for all Enterprise traffic, unless it fails, in which case the Internet connection should be used to pass traffic to the Enterprise. Which of the following is most likely to be useful on the branch router? (Choose two.)

A) IPsec tunnel

B) GRE tunnel

C) Floating static route

D) An IGP

A) IPsec tunnel

C) Floating static route

400

Router R1, a branch router, connects to the Internet using DSL. The engineer plans to use a configuration with a dialer interface. The answers list a feature and interface on which the feature could be configured. Which combinations accurately describe the interface under which a feature will be configured?

A) PPP on the ATM interface

B) VPI/VCI on the dialer interface

C) IP address on the ATM interface

D) CHAP on the dialer interface

D) CHAP on the dialer interface

401

Router R1, a branch router, connects to the Internet using DSL. Some traffic flows through a GRE and IPsec tunnel, over the DSL connection, and into the core of an Enterprise network. The branch also allows local hosts to communicate directly with public sites in the Internet over this same DSL connection. Which of the following answers defines how the branch NAT config avoids performing NAT for the Enterprise-directed traffic but does perform NAT for the Internet-directed traffic?

A) By not enabling NAT on the IPsec tunnel interface

B) By not enabling NAT on the GRE tunnel interface

C) By configuring the NAT-referenced ACL to not permit the Enterprise traffic

D) By asking the ISP to perform NAT in the cloud

C) By configuring the NAT-referenced ACL to not permit the Enterprise traffic

402

Router R1, a branch router, connects to the Internet using DSL. Some traffic flows through a GRE and IPsec tunnel, over the DSL connection, destined for an Enterprise network. Which of the following answers best describes the router’s logic that tells the router, for a given packet, to apply GRE encapsulation to the packet?

A) When the packet received on the LAN interface is permitted by the ACL listed on the tunnel gre acl command under the incoming interface

B) When routing the packet, matching a route whose outgoing interface is the GRE tunnel interface

C) When routing the packet, matching a route whose outgoing interface is the IPsec tunnel interface

D) When permitted by an ACL that was referenced in the associated crypto map

B) When routing the packet, matching a route whose outgoing interface is the GRE tunnel interface

403

True or False: It is important to have the same native VLAN on both switch link partners for ISL trunking.

False

404

True or False: The Cisco Catalyst 6500 supports up to 1024 VLANs in the most recent software releases.

False

405

True or False: When removing the native VLAN from a trunk port, CDP, Port Aggregation Protocol (PAgP), and DTP then use the lowest-numbered VLAN to send traffic.

False

406

True or False: Hosts that are members of different community VLANs can communicate to each other but not to members of isolated VLANs.

False

407

True or False: In VTP client mode, switches can add and delete VLANs.

False

408

True or False: Token Ring support is available in VTP version 1.

False

409

Catalyst6500-IOS# show run interface gigabitEthernet 3/9
Building configuration...

Current configuration : 137 bytes
!
interface GigabitEthernet3/9
mtu 9216
no ip address
switchport
switchport access vlan 5
switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q
end

If the interface negotiates trunking, what would be the Native VLAN?

A) VLAN 1.

B) VLAN 5.

C) VLAN 9216.

D) There would be no Native VLAN if the port negotiated trunking.

A) VLAN 1.

410

Catalyst6500-IOS# show run interface gigabitEthernet 3/9
Building configuration...

Current configuration : 137 bytes
!
interface GigabitEthernet3/9
mtu 9216
no ip address
switchport
switchport access vlan 5
switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q
end

Under what condition can the interface negotiate ISL trunking?

A) If the port is a member of an EtherChannel.

B) If the link partner defaults to ISL trunking for negotiated ports.

C) If the link partner is configured for trunking in the On mode.

D) The interface cannot negotiate trunking because it is configured statically for 802.1Q trunking.

D) The interface cannot negotiate trunking because it is configured statically for 802.1Q trunking.

411

Catalyst6500-IOS# show run interface gigabitEthernet 3/9
Building configuration...

Current configuration : 137 bytes
!
interface GigabitEthernet3/9
mtu 9216
no ip address
switchport
switchport access vlan 5
switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q
end.

Which statement is true for the configuration of the interface?

A) The interface is a member of VLAN 5 and may negotiate to a trunk port.

B) The interface may negotiate to an ISL trunk with a Native VLAN of 5.

C) The interface may negotiate to an 802.1Q trunk and operate with a Native VLAN of 1.

D) The interface will not negotiate to a trunk port because it is configured in access VLAN 5.

E) If a host workstation is connected to the interface, it must be configured for trunking.

A) The interface is a member of VLAN 5 and may negotiate to a trunk port.

412

svs-san-6509-2# show interfaces gigabitEthernet 3/9 switchport
Name: Gi3/9
Switchport: Enabled
Administrative Mode: dynamic auto
Operational Mode: down
Administrative Trunking Encapsulation: dot1q
Negotiation of Trunking: On
Access Mode VLAN: 1 (default)
Trunking Native Mode VLAN: 2 (VLAN0002)
Voice VLAN: none
Administrative private-vlan host-association: none
Administrative private-vlan mapping: none
Operational private-vlan: none
Trunking VLANs Enabled: ALL
Pruning VLANs Enabled: 2-1001
Capture Mode Disabled
Capture VLANs Allowed: ALL

What is the trunk Native VLAN based on?

A) VLAN 1.

B) VLAN 2.

C) VLAN 5.

D) There would be no Native VLAN if the port negotiated trunking.

B) VLAN 2.

413

svs-san-6509-2# show interfaces gigabitEthernet 3/9 switchport
Name: Gi3/9
Switchport: Enabled
Administrative Mode: dynamic auto
Operational Mode: down
Administrative Trunking Encapsulation: dot1q
Negotiation of Trunking: On
Access Mode VLAN: 1 (default)
Trunking Native Mode VLAN: 2 (VLAN0002)
Voice VLAN: none
Administrative private-vlan host-association: none
Administrative private-vlan mapping: none
Operational private-vlan: none
Trunking VLANs Enabled: ALL
Pruning VLANs Enabled: 2-1001
Capture Mode Disabled
Capture VLANs Allowed: ALL

what statement is true if the link partner (peer switch) is configured for the dynamic trunking mode?

A) The interface cannot negotiate to a trunk port because it is configured for dot1q encapsulation.

B) The interface cannot negotiate to a trunk port because the Native VLAN and access VLANs are mismatched.

C) The interface can negotiate to a trunk port if the peer is configured for the dynamic desirable trunking mode.

D) The interface can negotiate to a trunk port if access VLAN is the same on both sides.

C) The interface can negotiate to a trunk port if the peer is configured for the dynamic desirable trunking mode.

414

svs-san-6509-2# show interfaces gigabitEthernet 3/9 switchport
Name: Gi3/9
Switchport: Enabled
Administrative Mode: dynamic auto
Operational Mode: down
Administrative Trunking Encapsulation: dot1q
Negotiation of Trunking: On
Access Mode VLAN: 1 (default)
Trunking Native Mode VLAN: 2 (VLAN0002)
Voice VLAN: none
Administrative private-vlan host-association: none
Administrative private-vlan mapping: none
Operational private-vlan: none
Trunking VLANs Enabled: ALL
Pruning VLANs Enabled: 2-1001
Capture Mode Disabled
Capture VLANs Allowed: ALL

What is the interface’s access mode VLAN?

A) VLAN 1

B) VLAN 2

C) VLAN 5

D) VLAN 1001

A) VLAN 1

415

How does implementing VLANs help improve the overall performance of the network?

A) By isolating problem employees

B) By constraining broadcast traffic

C) By grouping switch ports into logical communities

D) By forcing the Layer 3 routing process to occur between VLANs

B) By constraining broadcast traffic

416

What are the advantages of using local VLANs over end-to-end VLANs? (Choose two.)

A) Eases management

B) Eliminates the need for Layer 3 devices

C) Allows for a more deterministic network

D) Groups users by logical commonality

E) Keeps users and resources on the same VLAN

A) Eases management

C) Allows for a more deterministic network

417

Which prompt indicates that you are in VLAN configuration mode of Cisco IOS?

A) Switch#

B) Switch(vlan)#

C) Switch(config)#

D) Switch(config-vlan)#

D) Switch(config-vlan)#

418

Which switch port mode unconditionally sets the switch port to access mode regardless of any other DTP configurations?

A) Access

B) Nonegotiate

C) Dynamic auto

D) Dynamic desirable

A) Access

419

What information is contained in the FCS of an ISL-encapsulated frame?

A) CRC calculation

B) Header encapsulation

C) ASIC implementation

D) Protocol-independence

A) CRC calculation

420

802.1Q uses an internal tagging mechanism, where a tag is inserted after the _____ field.

A) Type

B) SA

C) Data

D) CRC

B) SA

421

Which command correctly configures a port with ISL encapsulation in Cisco IOS?

A) Switch(config-if)# switchport mode trunk isl

B) Switch(config-if)# switchport mode encapsulation isl

C) Switch(config-if)# switchport trunk encapsulation isl

D) Switch(config-if)# switchport mode trunk encapsulation isl

C) Switch(config-if)# switchport trunk encapsulation isl

422

Which command correctly sets the native VLAN to VLAN 5?

A) switchport native vlan 5

B) switchport trunk native 5

C) switchport native trunk vlan 5

D) switchport trunk native vlan 5

D) switchport trunk native vlan 5

423

If the Layer 2 interface mode on one link partner is set to dynamic auto, a trunk will be established if the link partner is configured for which types of interface modes in Cisco IOS? (Choose two.)

A) Trunk

B) Access

C) Nonegotiate

D) Dynamic auto

E) Dynamic desirable

A) Trunk

E) Dynamic desirable

424

What is the default VTP mode for a Catalyst switch?

A) Client

B) Access

C) Server

D) Transparent

C) Server

425

When is a consistency check performed with VTP version 2?

A) When information is read from NVRAM

B) When the digest on a received VTP message is correct

C) When new information is obtained from a VTP message

D) When you enter new information through the CLI or SNMP

D) When you enter new information through the CLI or SNMP

426

Which command correctly sets the VTP version to version 1 in Cisco IOS global configuration mode?

A) vtp v1-mode

B) vtp v2-mode

C) no vtp version

D) no vtp version 2

D) no vtp version 2

427

Which of the following are valid VTP version 1 and 2 modes? (Check all that apply.)

A) Primary server mode

B) Server mode

C) Client mode

D) Transparent mode

B) Server mode

C) Client mode

D) Transparent mode

428

After you complete the VTP configuration, which command should you use to verify your configuration?

A) show vtp status

B) show vtp counters

C) show vtp statistics

D) show vtp status counters

A) show vtp status

429

What command might correct a problem with incorrect VTP passwords?

A) password vtp 0

B) clear vtp password

C) clear password vtp

D) vtp password password_string

D) vtp password password_string

430

True or False: The EtherChannel would come up if one side of the EtherChannel mode is set to Auto and other On.

False

431

Which of the following solutions are provided by EtherChannel? (Choose two.)

A) Provide redundancy

B) Help to overcome bandwidth limitation

C) Because of EtherChannel, can transmit more than one VLAN over the links between switches

D) Can limit the broadcast to the local switches

A) Provide redundancy

B) Help to overcome bandwidth limitation

432

True or False: MST is always preferred if you have more than a single VLAN.

False

433

True or False: Secondary root bridges have a lower bridge priority than primary root bridges.

False

434

Which one of the following is the best bridge priority configuration for a spanning-tree root switch?

A) 0

B) 1

C) 4096

D) 8192

E) 65536

A) 0

435

What command is used to configure a distribution switch as the primary root of a spanning tree?

A) spanning-tree vlan vlan-id primary

B) spanning-tree vlan vlan-id root primary

C) spanning-tree root primary

D) spanning-tree bridge root

E) None of the above

B) spanning-tree vlan vlan-id root primary

436

How many operational states does RSTP have?

A) 1

B) 2

C) 3

D) 4

E) None of the above

C) 3

437

What is a typical convergence time in network topology of just two directly connected RSTP-enabled switches?

A) 15 seconds

B) 50 seconds

C) 20 seconds

D) 2 seconds

E) <1 second

E) <1 second

438

What is the default message interval for BPDUs in RSTP mode?

A) 1 second

B) 15 seconds

C) 20 seconds

D) 2 seconds

E) <1 second

D) 2 seconds

439

True or False: Enabling PortFast is recommended on all ports to improve STP convergence.

False

440

Upon which one of the following features does the BPDU Guard depend?
A) PortFast

B) BPDU filtering

C) UplinkFast

D) Root Guard

A) PortFast

441

How does the Root Guard feature recover from the root-inconsistent state?

A) Automatically when the port stops receiving superior BPDUs

B) Automatically when the port stops receiving inferior BPDUs

C) Using an err-disable timeout mechanism

D) Manual shutdown/no shutdown of the port

E) Reload of the switch

A) Automatically when the port stops receiving superior BPDUs

442

BPDU filtering should be enabled only on ports connected to which of the following devices?

A) Hosts

B) Routers

C) Switches

D) Hubs

A) Hosts

443

Select an activity that is not a recommended step in troubleshooting STP issues and Layer 2 loops.

A) Identifying the loop

B) Restoring connectivity

C) Rebooting the root switch or secondary root switch

D) Checking for bad hardware

E) Checking for port errors

C) Rebooting the root switch or secondary root switch

444

hich command is used to collect debugging data regarding STP events on Catalyst switches?

A) logging spanning-tree events

B) logging events spanning-tree

C) debug stp events

D) debug spanning-tree events

E) None of the above

D) debug spanning-tree events

445

True or False: An SVI is a physical Layer 3 interface, whereas a routed port is a virtual Layer 3 interface.

False

446

True or False: Multilayer switches generally outperform routers of multiple Ethernet interfaces.

True

447

True or False: A router can forward DHCP requests across VLAN or IP subnet boundaries by using the DHCP relay agent feature.

True

448

switch# show run interface vlan 10
Building configuration...


Current configuration : 60 bytes
!
interface Vlan10
ip address 10.1.1.1 255.255.255.0
no ip proxy-arp
end
switch# show run int vlan 20
Building configuration...


Current configuration : 60 bytes
!
interface Vlan20
ip address 10.2.1.1 255.255.255.0
no ip proxy-arp
end

can the hosts that reside in VLAN 20 communicate with hosts on VLAN 10 if their default gateway is set to 10.2.1.1?

A) Yes, if the hosts on VLAN 10 have their default gateway set to 10.1.1.1.

B) No, the default gateway of the hosts that reside in VLAN 20 should be set to 10.1.1.1.

C) Yes, but there is no need to define default gateways.

D) No, because the routing protocol or static routes are not defined.

A) Yes, if the hosts on VLAN 10 have their default gateway set to 10.1.1.1.

449

switch# show run interface vlan 10
Building configuration...


Current configuration : 60 bytes
!
interface Vlan10
ip address 10.1.1.1 255.255.255.0
no ip proxy-arp
end
switch# show run int vlan 20
Building configuration...


Current configuration : 60 bytes
!
interface Vlan20
ip address 10.2.1.1 255.255.255.0
no ip proxy-arp
end

if the hosts that reside on VLAN 10 have their default gateway defined as 10.1.1.1 and ICMP can ping 10.2.1.1 but not a host that resides in VLAN 20, what could be a possible reason?

A) Hosts on VLAN 10 are not configured with the correct default gateway.

B) Hosts on VLAN 20 are not configured with the correct default gateway.

C) The routing protocol or static routes are not defined on the Layer 3 switch.

D) VLAN 20 is not defined in the switch database.

B) Hosts on VLAN 20 are not configured with the correct default gateway

450

When performing router-on-a-stick inter-VLAN routing, a router interface is subdivided into what?

A) VLAN subinterfaces

B) 802.1q subinterfaces

C) Layer 3 subinterfaces

D) EtherChannel subinterfaces

C) Layer 3 subinterfaces

451

Which two commands should be used to configure a router and switch to identify VLAN 10 as the native VLAN on an 802.1Q trunk link? (Choose two.)

A) encapsulation dot1q vlan 10 native

B) encapsulation dot1q 10 native

C) encapsulation dot1q native vlan 10

D) switchport trunk dot1q native vlan 10

E) switchport mode trunk dot1q vlan 10 native

F) switchport trunk native vlan 10

B) encapsulation dot1q 10 native

F) switchport trunk native vlan 10

452

Place the following five items in the proper order of processing (Note: Not all steps are included.)

A) If necessary, an input router ACL check is performed.

B) The Layer 2 and Layer 3 header are rewritten.

C) The Layer 2 forwarding engine forwards the frame.

D) The Layer 2 engine performs the input VLAN ACL lookup.

E) The destination IP address is compared against the Layer 3 forwarding table for the longest match.

D) The Layer 2 engine performs the input VLAN ACL lookup.

A) If necessary, an input router ACL check is performed.

E) The destination IP address is compared against the Layer 3 forwarding table for the longest match.

B) The Layer 2 and Layer 3 header are rewritten.

C) The Layer 2 forwarding engine forwards the frame.

453

Which of the following are NOT reasons for configuring an SVI? (Choose two.)

A) To provide fallback bridging if it is required for nonroutable protocols

B) To provide Layer 3 IP connectivity to the switch

C) To provide failover if the primary SVI for a VLAN fails

D) To provide a gateway for a VLAN so that traffic can be routed into or out of that VLAN

E) To provide connectivity to an external router for inter-VLAN routing

C) To provide failover if the primary SVI for a VLAN fails

E) To provide connectivity to an external router for inter-VLAN routing

454

On which of the following ports would a network engineer be most likely to use the autostate exclude command?

A) An 802.1Q trunk port connected to an external router

B) A monitoring port connected to an intrusion prevention sensor

C) The secondary SVI for a VLAN

D) A routed interface on a multilayer switch

E) All of the above

B) A monitoring port connected to an intrusion prevention sensor

455

When must the command ip routing be used when configuring SVIs on a multilayer switch?

A) When an SVI is being used to provide IP connectivity to the switch itself for a given VLAN.

B) When the SVI is being configured as part of a Layer 2 EtherChannel bundle.

C) When EIGRP is not being used as a routing protocol.

D) When an SVI is being used to provide Layer 3 IP forwarding services to its assigned VLAN.

E) Never; IP routing is enabled by default on a multilayer switch.

D) When an SVI is being used to provide Layer 3 IP forwarding services to its assigned VLAN.

456

How is a port on a multilayer switch configured as a routed port?

A) By configuring an IP address and subnet mask on the port

B) By using the command switchport mode routed

C) By removing the Layer 2 switching capability of the switch port

D) By using the command no switchport mode

C) By removing the Layer 2 switching capability of the switch port

457

Which two of the following are Layer 3 switching modes on a Cisco Catalyst multilayer switch? (Choose two.)
A) Fast switching

B) Topology-based switching

C) CEF switching

D) Rapid switching

E) Route caching

F) Distributed fast switching

B) Topology-based switching

E) Route caching

458

What are the names of the two hardware tables created by CEF? (Choose two.)

A) Cisco Express Forwarding Table

B) Forwarding Information Table

C) Adjacency Table

D) Forwarding Information Base

E) Link-State Table

C) Adjacency Table

D) Forwarding Information Base

459

When a multilayer switch connects directly to several hosts, the FIB table on the switch maintains a prefix for the subnet rather than for the individual host prefixes. This adjacency is known as which of the following?

A) Punt adjacency

B) Subnet adjacency

C) Connected adjacency

D) Glean adjacency

E) Host-route adjacency

D) Glean adjacency

460

Which of the following is the solution if part of an adjacency is an “incomplete” or a “drop” adjacency?

A) Troubleshoot routing protocols to ensure that the routing table is properly populated.

B) Verify that the IP host exists on a media that is accessible to the host that is trying to ARP resolve.

C) Debug CEF to observe all messages for CEF operations.

D) Disable and then reenable CEF on the multilayer switch.

E) Check that unsupported software features have not been enabled.

E) Check that unsupported software features have not been enabled.

461

What command is used on Cisco IOS switches to change the interface from a Layer 3 interface to a Layer 2 interface?

A) switchport mode access

B) ip routing

C) switchport

D) switchport mode trunk

C) switchport

462

Which Cisco IOS command enables IP routing on a Catalyst switch?

A) ip routing

B) interface vlan-id

C) ip address n.n.n.n mask

D) router ip_routing_protocol

A) ip routing

463

Which of the following UDP protocols are forwarded in addition to DHCP when a Layer 3 interface is configured with the ip helper-address command? (Select all that apply.)

A) Mobile IP

B) DNS

C) Time

D) FTP

B) DNS

C) Time

464

True or False: Redundancy within network devices is enough to guarantee no single point of failure.

False

465

True or False: VRRP enables the use of multiple master routers for a VRRP group.

False

466

How long does a standby router take to detect the loss of the active router in HSRP with default timer values?

A) 15 seconds

B) 3 seconds

C) 10 seconds

D) 9 seconds

E)

D) 9 seconds

467

What is the default advertisement of the VRRP master router?

A) 3 seconds

B) 1 second

C) 10 seconds

D) 2 seconds

E) None of the above

A) 3 seconds

468

Which of the following is one of the SLB redirection modes?

A) Hybrid mode

B) Native mode

C) Indirect mode

D) Directed mode

D) Directed mode

469

What is the default GLBP load-balancing method?

A) Round-robin

B) Weighted

C) Host-dependent

D) Dispatched

E) Directed

A) Round-robin

470

How many member routers can be forwarding in a GLBP group?

A) 4

B) 1

C) 2

D) 3

E) No limit

E) No limit

471

Which of the following routing protocols is not supported as part of NSF?

A) BGP

B) OSPF

C) IS-IS

D) EIGRP

E) RIP

E) RIP

472

What is the expected failover time for SSO mode for Layer 2 switching on the Catalyst 4500 family of switches?

A) 2 to 4 minutes

B) 30 to 60 seconds

C) Less than 3 seconds

D) Subsecond

E) None of the above

D) Subsecond

473

True or False: When configuring SNMP on Cisco routers and switches, use SNMPv2c because SNMP version 2c supports the use of encrypted passwords for authentication rather than the use of simple text or unencrypted passwords, as in version 1.

True

474

True or False: Using the 802.1X access control feature is preferable to using port security because the 802.1X protocol is a standards-based feature that supports centralized management.

True

475

True or False: The DHCP snooping trust interface is enabled only on ports with DHCP clients.

False

476

Which of the following is not a recommended management security configuration on Catalyst switches?

A) Using SSH and disabling Telnet service

B) Disabling unnecessary or unused services, such as MOP or Proxy-ARP

C) Configuring ACLs to restrict specific users to manage the network devices

D) Policing to limit specific types of traffic to specific bandwidth parameters

E) Disabling remote access to switches

F) Physically preventing access to console ports

F) Physically preventing access to console ports

477

Which command correctly enables Catalyst switches to enact AAA security configurations?

A) ppp authentication chap

B) aaa new-model

C) aaa authentication login default group RADIUS

D) username name password password

B) aaa new-model

478

Which of the following is not a supported 802.1X port authorization state?

A) Force-authorized

B) Force-unauthorized

C) Auto

D) Desirable

D) Desirable

479

Which of the following features is a requirement for configuring DAI?

A) IPSG

B) DHCP snooping

C) IGMP snooping

D) Proxy ARP

B) DHCP snooping

480

Which of the following methods can prevent a single 802.1Q tag VLAN hopping attack?

A) Turn off auto-negotiation of speed/duplex.

B) Turn off trunk negotiation.

C) Turn off PAgP.

D) Turn on PAgP.

B) Turn off trunk negotiation.

481

Which of the following prevents MAC address spoofing?

A) Port security

B) DHCP snooping

C) IGMP snooping

D) MAC notification

B) DHCP snooping

482

Which of the following types of ACLs can be applied to a Layer 2 port? (Choose all that apply.)

A) Router ACL

B) QACL

C) PACL

D) VACL

E) All of the above

B) QACL

C) PACL

D) VACL

483

True or False: Sticky port security allows for easier configuration of MAC addresses that need to be secured.

True

484

When planning for access point deployments in a wireless LAN of a campus network, what are the two Cisco best-practice solutions?

A) Standalone WLAN solutions (autonomous solutions)

B) Network-based WLAN solutions

C) Controller-based WLAN solutions

D) Internet router-based WLAN solutions

A) Standalone WLAN solutions (autonomous solutions)

C) Controller-based WLAN solutions

485

What video applications are driving video deployments in the campus network?

A) TelePresence

B) Remote training and learning

C) Virtual classrooms

D) Video-on-demand

A) TelePresence

486

In a controller-based WLAN solution, which device does all the traffic flow through when communicating between wireless nodes?

A) WLSE

B) RADIUS server

C) WLC

D) WCS

C) WLC

487

Which devices can support power through 802.3af?

A) Access points

B) WLCs

C) IP surveillance cameras

D) Cisco IP Phones

A) Access points

C) IP surveillance cameras

D) Cisco IP Phones

488

When planning for a wireless LAN deployment in a campus network, which factor generally determines whether to deploy a standalone solution or a controller-based solution?

A) Variety of different wireless clients models in use, such as Dell, HP, Intel, and so on

B) Number of access switches in the campus

C) Scale and size of the Wireless LAN and then number of access points required

D) Encryption requirements

C) Scale and size of the Wireless LAN and then number of access points required

489

When a Cisco switch is configured for a Voice VLANs, connected Cisco IP Phones learn of the Voice VLAN ID (VVID) through which mechanism?

A) DHCP.

B) ARP.

C) CDP.

D) DNS.

E) None of the above. Cisco IP Phones must be statically configured for Voice VLANs.

C) CDP.

490

When deploying voice (IP telephony) and video in the campus network, as a best practice where in the campus network should voice traffic be classified for QoS?

A) Distribution layer

B) Core layer

C) Access layer

C) Access layer

491

QoS has no affect on the behavior of traffic flows in the campus network unless one of the following conditions holds true?

A) There is congestion in the network.

B) There is excess available bandwidth in the network.

C) The network uses port-channels.

D) The network uses 802.1q trunks to interconnect switches.

A) There is congestion in the network.

492

When a Cisco switch assigns a CoS value to an incoming frame, what component of QoS does the procedure map to?

A) Classification and marking

B) Shaping and policing

C) Congestion management

D) Congestion avoidance

A) Classification and marking

493

Which command overrides CoS values on ingress frames to 1?

A) mls qos dscp 1

B) mls qos trust cos

C) mls cos 1

D) mls qos cos 1

D) mls qos cos 1

494

What is the purpose of trust boundaries?

A) To determine the classification of a packet at a specific location in the network.

B) To determine where in the network packets are dropped.

C) To determine where in the network to reclassify packets.

D) It is an administrative configuration in which Layer 2 or Layer 3 priority designations of frames or packets are either accepted or not.

A) To determine the classification of a packet at a specific location in the network.

495

Consider a network design in which a video server needs a higher class of service for video data compared to other regular data traffic. The server does not support 802.1q tagging or setting bits in the IP field for priority. Furthermore, the server transmits other management traffic besides the video. Which of the following QoS components and methods would correctly prioritize traffic from the video server?

A) Port-based classification in which the configuration would set all ingress frames from the server to a DSCP value of 36

B) Port-based classification using a policy map that uses a class map with an ACL that distinctively marks frames for video traffic with a DSCP value of 36

C) Using a policer to mark all frames from the server above a certain rate with a DSCP value of 36

D) Using an input ACL to classify all frames from the server with a DSCP value of 36

B) Port-based classification using a policy map that uses a class map with an ACL that distinctively marks frames for video traffic with a DSCP value of 36

496

Which QoS model requires end-to-end configuration?

A) LFI

B) IntServ

C) DiffServ

D) Traffic conditioning

B) IntServ

497

What are two benefits of the voice (auxiliary) VLAN feature of Catalyst switches? (Choose two.)

A) Reduced bandwidth utilization

B) Easier troubleshooting

C) Data and voice segmentation

D) Redundancy

B) Easier troubleshooting

C) Data and voice segmentation

498

Which of the following features is used to distinguish voice VLAN traffic from access (data) traffic in a packet? (Choose two.)

A) ISL encapsulation

B) DHCP

C) HSRP

D) 802.1Q tagging

E) marking

D) 802.1Q tagging

E) marking

499

By default, Cisco IP Phones mark traffic at the IP layer and at Layer 2. Which of the following fields is marked in the IP header by Cisco IP Phones to indicate priority at Layer 3?

A) CoS

B) TTL

C) DSCP

D) Checksum

E) Identifier

C) DSCP

500

What differentiates IP multicast from other transmission modes?

A) IP multicast sends packets to a single host.

B) IP multicast sends packets to groups of hosts where specific hosts process the packet.

C) IP multicast sends packets to all hosts sequentially.

D) IP multicast sends packets to all hosts simultaneously.

B) IP multicast sends packets to groups of hosts where specific hosts process the packet.

501

What is one potential drawback to source distribution trees compared to shared distribution trees?

A) Increased latency

B) Increased memory overhead

C) Suboptimal path calculations

D) Increased bandwidth utilization

D) Increased bandwidth utilization

502

Under which condition should you choose PIM sparse mode as opposed to PIM dense mode?

A) Bandwidth is plentiful.

B) The multicast group has many members.

C) The hosts in the multicast group are widely dispersed.

D) Almost all hosts on the network belong to the multicast group.

C) The hosts in the multicast group are widely dispersed.

503

Which version of IGMP adds support for source filtering?

A) IGMPv1

B) IGMPv2

C) IGMPv3

D) IGMPv3 lite

C) IGMPv3

504

Which command correctly displays the contents of the IP multicast routing table?

A) show ip mfib

B) show ip mroute

C) show mroute table

D) show ip pim interface

B) show ip mroute

505

When preparing for a TelePresence deployment in the campus network, what is the max latency that traffic flow, one-way, should experience?

A) 1 sec

B) 150 msec

C) 10 msec

D) 1 msec

B) 150 msec

506

Which of the following devices performs transparent bridging?

A) Ethernet hub

B) Layer 2 switch

C) Layer 3 switch

D) Router

B) Layer 2 switch

507

When a PC is connected to a Layer 2 switch port, how far does the collision domain spread?

A) No collision domain exists.

B) One switch port.

C) One VLAN.

D) All ports on the switch.

B) One switch port.

508

What information is used to forward frames in a Layer 2 switch?

A) Source MAC address

B) Destination MAC address

C) Source switch port

D) IP addresses

B) Destination MAC address

509

What does a switch do if a MAC address cannot be found in the CAM table?

A) The frame is forwarded to the default port.

B) The switch generates an ARP request for the address.

C) The switch floods the frame out all ports (except the receiving port).

D) The switch drops the frame.

C) The switch floods the frame out all ports (except the receiving port).

510

In the Catalyst 6500, frames can be filtered with access lists for security and QoS purposes. This filtering occurs according to which of the following?

A) Before a CAM table lookup

B) After a CAM table lookup

C) Simultaneously with a CAM table lookup

D) According to how the access lists are configured

C) Simultaneously with a CAM table lookup

511

Access list contents can be merged into which of the following?

A) CAM table

B) TCAM table

C) FIB table

D) ARP table

B) TCAM table

512

Multilayer switches using CEF are based on which of these techniques?

A) Route caching

B) Netflow switching

C) Topology-based switching

D) Demand-based switching

C) Topology-based switching

513

Which answer describes multilayer switching with CEF?

A) The first packet is routed and then the flow is cached.

B) The switch supervisor CPU forwards each packet.

C) The switching hardware learns station addresses and builds a routing database.

D) A single database of routing information is built for the switching hardware.

D) A single database of routing information is built for the switching hardware.

514

In a switch, frames are placed in which buffer after forwarding decisions are made?

A) Ingress queues

B) Egress queues

C) CAM table

D) TCAM

B) Egress queues

515

What size are the mask and pattern fields in a TCAM entry?

A) 64 bits

B) 128 bits

C) 134 bits

D) 168 bits

C) 134 bits

516

Access list rules are compiled as TCAM entries. When a packet is matched against an access list, in what order are the TCAM entries evaluated?

A) Sequentially in the order of the original access list.

B) Numerically by the access list number.

C) Alphabetically by the access list name.

D) All entries are evaluated in parallel.

D) All entries are evaluated in parallel.

517

Which Catalyst IOS command can you use to display the addresses in the CAM table?

A) show cam

B) show mac address-table

C) show mac

D) show cam address-table

B) show mac address-table

518

What does the IEEE 802.3 standard define?

A) Spanning Tree Protocol

B) Token Ring

C) Ethernet

D) Switched Ethernet

C) Ethernet

519

At what layer are traditional 10-Mbps Ethernet, Fast Ethernet, and Gigabit Ethernet the same?

A) Layer 1

B) Layer 2

C) Layer 3

D) Layer 4

B) Layer 2

520

At what layer are traditional 10-Mbps Ethernet, Fast Ethernet, and Gigabit Ethernet different?

A) Layer 1

B) Layer 2

C) Layer 3

D) Layer 4

A) Layer 1

521

What is the maximum cable distance for a Category 5 100BASE-TX connection?

A) 100 feet

B) 100 m

C) 328 m

D) 500 m

B) 100 m

522

Ethernet autonegotiation determines which of the following?

A) Spanning-tree mode

B) Duplex mode

C) Quality of service mode

D) Error threshold

B) Duplex mode

523

Which of the following cannot be automatically determined and set if the far end of a connection doesn’t support autonegotiation?

A) Link speed

B) Link duplex mode

C) Link media type

D) MAC address

B) Link duplex mode

524

Which of these is not a standard type of gigabit interface converter (GBIC) or small form factor pluggable (SFP) module?

A) 1000BASE-LX/LH

B) 1000BASE-T

C) 1000BASE-FX

D) 1000BASE-ZX

C) 1000BASE-FX

525

What type of cable should you use to connect two switches back to back using their Fast Ethernet 10/100 ports?

A) Rollover cable

B) Transfer cable

C) Crossover cable

D) Straight-through cable

C) Crossover cable

526

Assume that you have just entered the configure terminal command. To configure the speed of the first Fast Ethernet interface on Cisco Catalyst switch module number one to 100 Mbps, which one of these commands should you enter first?

A) speed 100 mbps

B) speed 100

C) interface fastethernet 1/0/1

D) interface fast ethernet 1/0/1

C) interface fastethernet 1/0/1

527

If a switch port is in the errdisable state, what is the first thing you should do?

A) Reload the switch.

B) Use the clear errdisable port command.

C) Use the shut and no shut interface-configuration commands.

D) Determine the cause of the problem.

D) Determine the cause of the problem.

528

Which of the following show interface output information can you use to diagnose a switch port problem?

A) Port state.

B) Port speed.

C) Input errors.

D) Collisions.

E) All these answers are correct.

E) All these answers are correct.

529

A VLAN is which of the following?

A) Collision domain

B) Spanning-tree domain

C) Broadcast domain

D) VTP domain

C) Broadcast domain

530

Switches provide VLAN connectivity at which layer of the OSI model?

A) Layer 1

B) Layer 2

C) Layer 3

D) Layer 4

B) Layer 2

531

Which one of the following is needed to pass data between two PCs, each connected to a different VLAN?

A) Layer 2 switch

B) Layer 3 switch

C) Trunk

D) Tunnel

B) Layer 3 switch

532

Which Catalyst IOS switch command is used to assign a port to a VLAN?

A) access vlan vlan-id

B) switchport access vlan vlan-id

C) vlan vlan-id

D) set port vlan vlan-id

B) switchport access vlan vlan-id

533

Which of the following is a standardized method of trunk encapsulation?

A) 802.1d

B) 802.1Q

C) 802.3z

D) 802.1a

B) 802.1Q

534

What is the Cisco proprietary method for trunk encapsulation?

A) CDP

B) EIGRP

C) ISL

D) DSL

C) ISL

535

Which of these protocols dynamically negotiates trunking parameters?

A) PAgP

B) STP

C) CDP

D) DTP

D) DTP

536

How many different VLANs can an 802.1Q trunk support?

A) 256

B) 1024

C) 4096

D) 32,768

E) 65,536

C) 4096

537

Which of the following incorrectly describes a native VLAN?

A) Frames are untagged on an 802.1Q trunk.

B) Frames are untagged on an ISL trunk.

C) Frames can be interpreted by a nontrunking host.

D) The native VLAN can be configured for each trunking port.

B) Frames are untagged on an ISL trunk.

538

If two switches each support all types of trunk encapsulation on a link between them, which one will be negotiated?

A) ISL

B) 802.1Q

C) DTP

D) VTP

A) ISL

539

Which VLANs are allowed on a trunk link by default?

A) None

B) Only the native VLAN

C) All active VLANs

D) Only negotiated VLANs

C) All active VLANs

540

Which command configures a switch port to form a trunk without using negotiation?

A) switchport mode trunk

B) switchport mode trunk nonegotiate

C) switchport mode dynamic auto

D) switchport mode dynamic desirable

A) switchport mode trunk

541

Two hosts are connected to switch interfaces Fast Ethernet 0/1 and 0/33, but they cannot communicate with each other. Their IP addresses are in the 192.168.10.0/24 subnet, which is carried over VLAN 10. The show vlan id 10 command generates the following output:
Code View: Scroll / Show All
Switch# show vlan id 10
VLAN Name Status Ports

— — — — — — — — — — — — — — — — — — — — — — - — — — — — — — — — — — — — — —
-
Users active Fa0/1, Fa0/2, Fa0/3, Fa0/4,
Fa0/5, Fa0/6, Fa0/7, Fa0/8,
Fa0/9, Fa0/10, Fa0/11, Fa0/12,
Fa0/13, Fa0/14, Fa0/15, Fa0/16,
Fa0/17, Fa0/18, Fa0/19, Fa0/20,
Fa0/21, Fa0/22, Fa0/23, Fa0/25,
Fa0/26, Fa0/27, Fa0/28, Fa0/31,
Fa0/32, Fa0/34, Fa0/35, Fa0/36,
Fa0/37, Fa0/39, Fa0/40, Fa0/41,
Fa0/42, Fa0/43, Fa0/46



The hosts are known to be up and connected. Which of the following reasons might be causing the problem?

A) The two hosts are assigned to VLAN 1.

B) The two hosts are assigned to different VLANs.

C) Interface FastEthernet0/33 is a VLAN trunk.

D) The two hosts are using unregistered MAC addresses.

B) The two hosts are assigned to different VLANs.

C) Interface FastEthernet0/33 is a VLAN trunk.

542

A trunk link between two switches did not come up as expected. The configuration on Switch A is as follows:
Switch A# show running-config interface gigabitethernet0/1
interface GigabitEthernet0/1
switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q
switchport trunk allowed vlan 1-10
switchport mode dynamic auto
no shutdown

The interface configuration on Switch B is as follows:

Switch B# show running-config interface gigabitethernet0/1
interface GigabitEthernet0/1
switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q
switchport mode dynamic auto
switchport access vlan 5
no shutdown

Which one of the following reasons is probably causing the problem?

A) The two switches don’t have matching switchport trunk allowed vlan commands.

B) Neither switch has a native VLAN configured.

C) Both switches are configured in the dynamic auto mode.

D) Switch B is configured to use access VLAN 5.

B) Neither switch has a native VLAN configured.

C) Both switches are configured in the dynamic auto mode.

543

Which of the following is not a Catalyst switch VTP mode?

A) Server

B) Client

C) Designated

D) Transparent

C) Designated

544

A switch in VTP transparent mode can do which one of the following?

A) Create a new VLAN

B) Only listen to VTP advertisements

C) Send its own VTP advertisements

D) Cannot make VLAN configuration changes

A) Create a new VLAN

545

Which one of the following is a valid VTP advertisement?

A) Triggered update

B) VLAN database

C) Subset

D) Domain

C) Subset

546

Which one of the following is needed for VTP communication?

A) A Management VLAN

B) A Trunk link

C) An Access VLAN

D) An IP address

B) A Trunk link

547

Which one of the following VTP modes does not allow any manual VLAN configuration changes?

A) Server

B) Client

C) Designated

D) Transparent

B) Client

548

Select all the parameters that decide whether to accept new VTP information:

A) VTP priority

B) VTP domain name

C) Configuration revision number

D) VTP server name

B) VTP domain name

C) Configuration revision number

549

How many VTP management domains can a Catalyst switch participate in?

A) 1

B) 2

C) Unlimited

D) 4096

A) 1

550

Which IOS command configures a Catalyst switch for VTP client mode?

A) set vtp mode client

B) vtp client

C) vtp mode client

D) vtp client mode

C) vtp mode client

551

What is the purpose of VTP pruning?

A) Limit the number of VLANs in a domain

B) Stop unnecessary VTP advertisements

C) Limit the extent of broadcast traffic

D) Limit the size of the virtual tree

C) Limit the extent of broadcast traffic

552

Which VLAN number is never eligible for VTP pruning?

A) 0

B) 1

C) 1000

D) 1001

B) 1

553

Which of the following might present a VTP problem?

A) Two or more VTP servers in a domain

B) Two servers with the same configuration revision number

C) A server in two domains

D) A new server with a higher configuration revision number

D) A new server with a higher configuration revision number

554

If a VTP server is configured for VTP version 2, what else must happen for successful VTP communication in a domain?

A) A VTP version 2 password must be set.

B) All other switches in the domain must be version 2 capable.

C) All other switches must be configured for VTP version 2.

D) The VTP configuration revision number must be reset.

B) All other switches in the domain must be version 2 capable.

555

If Fast Ethernet ports are bundled into an EtherChannel, what is the maximum throughput supported on a Catalyst switch?

A) 100 Mbps

B) 200 Mbps

C) 400 Mbps

D) 800 Mbps

E) 1600 Mbps

E) 1600 Mbps

556

Which of these methods distributes traffic over an EtherChannel?

A) Round robin

B) Least-used link

C) A function of address

D) A function of packet size

C) A function of address

557

What type of interface represents an EtherChannel as a whole?

A) Channel

B) Port

C) Port channel

D) Channel port

C) Port channel

558

Which of the following is not a valid method for EtherChannel load balancing?

A) Source MAC address

B) Source and destination MAC addresses

C) Source IP address

D) IP precedence

E) UDP/TCP port

D) IP precedence

559

How can the EtherChannel load-balancing method be set?

A) Per switch port

B) Per EtherChannel

C) Globally per switch

D) Can’t be configured

C) Globally per switch

560

What logical operation is performed to calculate EtherChannel load balancing as a function of two addresses?

A) OR

B) AND

C) XOR

D) NOR

C) XOR

561

Which one of the following is a valid combination of ports for an EtherChannel?

A) Two access links (one VLAN 5, one VLAN 5)

B) Two access links (one VLAN 1, one VLAN 10)

C) Two trunk links (one VLANs 1 to 10, one VLANs 1, 11 to 20)

D) Two Fast Ethernet links (both full duplex, one 10 Mbps)

A) Two access links (one VLAN 5, one VLAN 5)

562

Which of these is a method for negotiating an EtherChannel?

A) PAP

B) CHAP

C) LAPD

D) LACP

D) LACP

563

Which of the following is a valid EtherChannel negotiation mode combination between two switches?

A) PAgP auto, PAgP auto

B) PAgP auto, PAgP desirable

C) on, PAgP auto

D) LACP passive, LACP passive

B) PAgP auto, PAgP desirable

564

When is PAgP’s “desirable silent” mode useful?

A) When the switch should not send PAgP frames

B) When the switch should not form an EtherChannel

C) When the switch should not expect to receive PAgP frames

D) When the switch is using LACP mode

C) When the switch should not expect to receive PAgP frames

565

Which of the following EtherChannel modes does not send or receive any negotiation frames?

A) channel-group 1 mode passive

B) channel-group 1 mode active

C) channel-group 1 mode on

D) channel-group 1 mode desirable

E) channel-group 1 mode auto

C) channel-group 1 mode on

566

Two computers are the only hosts sending IP data across an EtherChannel between two switches. Several different applications are being used between them. Which of these load-balancing methods would be more likely to use the most links in the EtherChannel?

A) Source and destination MAC addresses.

B) Source and destination IP addresses.

C) Source and destination TCP/UDP ports.

D) None of the other answers is correct.

C) Source and destination TCP/UDP ports.

567

Which command can be used to see the status of an EtherChannel’s links?

A) show channel link

B) show etherchannel status

C) show etherchannel summary

D) show ether channel status

C) show etherchannel summary

568

How is a bridging loop best described?

A) A loop formed between switches for redundancy

B) A loop formed by the Spanning Tree Protocol

C) A loop formed between switches where frames circulate endlessly

D) The round-trip path a frame takes from source to destination

C) A loop formed between switches where frames circulate endlessly

569

Which of these is one of the parameters used to elect a root bridge?

A) Root path cost

B) Path cost

C) Bridge priority

D) BPDU revision number

C) Bridge priority

570

If all switches in a network are left at their default STP values, which one of the following is not true?

A) The root bridge will be the switch with the lowest MAC address.

B) The root bridge will be the switch with the highest MAC address.

C) One or more switches will have a bridge priority of 32,768.

D) A secondary root bridge will be present on the network.

B) The root bridge will be the switch with the highest MAC address.

571

Configuration BPDUs are originated by which of the following?

A) All switches in the STP domain

B) Only the root bridge switch

C) Only the switch that detects a topology change

D) Only the secondary root bridge when it takes over

B) Only the root bridge switch

572

Which of these is the single most important design decision to be made in a network running STP?

A) Removing any redundant links

B) Making sure all switches run the same version of IEEE 802.1D

C) Root bridge placement

D) Making sure all switches have redundant links

C) Root bridge placement

573

What happens to a port that is neither a root port nor a designated port?

A) It is available for normal use.

B) It can be used for load balancing.

C) It is put into the Blocking state.

D) It is disabled.

C) It is put into the Blocking state.

574

What is the maximum number of root ports that a Catalyst switch can have?

A) 1

B) 2

C) Unlimited

D) None

A) 1

575

What mechanism is used to set STP timer values for all switches in a network?

A) Configuring the timers on every switch in the network.

B) Configuring the timers on the root bridge switch.

C) Configuring the timers on both primary and secondary root bridge switches.

D) The timers can’t be adjusted.

B) Configuring the timers on the root bridge switch.

576

MAC addresses can be placed into the CAM table, but no data can be sent or received if a switch port is in which of the following STP states?

A) Blocking

B) Forwarding

C) Listening

D) Learning

D) Learning

577

What is the default “hello” time for IEEE 802.1D?

A) 1 second

B) 2 seconds

C) 30 seconds

D) 60 seconds

B) 2 seconds

578

Which of the following is the Spanning Tree Protocol defined in the IEEE 802.1Q standard?

A) PVST

B) CST

C) EST

D) MST

B) CST

579

If a switch has 10 VLANs defined and active, how many instances of STP will run using PVST+ versus CST?

A) 1 for PVST+, 1 for CST

B) 1 for PVST+, 10 for CST

C) 10 for PVST+, 1 for CST

D) 10 for PVST+, 10 for CST

C) 10 for PVST+, 1 for CST

580

Where should the root bridge be placed on a network?

A) On the fastest switch

B) Closest to the most users

C) Closest to the center of the network

D) On the least-used switch

C) Closest to the center of the network

581

Which of the following is a result of a poorly placed root bridge in a network?

A) Bridging loops form.

B) STP topology can’t be resolved.

C) STP topology can take unexpected paths.

D) Root bridge election flapping occurs.

C) STP topology can take unexpected paths.

582

Which of these parameters should you change to make a switch become a root bridge?

A) Switch MAC address

B) Path cost

C) Port priority

D) Bridge priority

D) Bridge priority

583

What is the default 802.1D STP bridge priority on a Catalyst switch?

A) 0

B) 1

C) 32,768

D) 65,535

C) 32,768

584

Which of the following commands is most likely to make a switch become the root bridge for VLAN 5, assuming that all switches have the default STP parameters?

A) spanning-tree root

B) spanning-tree root vlan 5

C) spanning-tree vlan 5 priority 100

D) spanning-tree vlan 5 root

C) spanning-tree vlan 5 priority 100

585

What is the default path cost of a Gigabit Ethernet switch port?

A) 1

B) 2

C) 4

D) 19

E) 1000

C) 4

586

What command can change the path cost of interface Gigabit Ethernet 3/1 to a value of 8?

A) spanning-tree path-cost 8

B) spanning-tree cost 8

C) spanning-tree port-cost 8

D) spanning-tree gig 3/1 cost 8

B) spanning-tree cost 8

587

What happens if the root bridge switch and another switch are configured with different STP Hello timer values?

A) Nothing—each sends hellos at different times.

B) A bridging loop could form because the two switches are out of sync.

C) The switch with the lower Hello timer becomes the root bridge.

D) The other switch changes its Hello timer to match the root bridge

D) The other switch changes its Hello timer to match the root bridge

588

What network diameter value is the basis for the default STP timer calculations?

A) 1

B) 3

C) 7

D) 9

E) 15

C) 7

589

Where should the STP PortFast feature be used?

A) An access-layer switch port connected to a PC

B) An access-layer switch port connected to a hub

C) A distribution-layer switch port connected to an access layer switch

D) A core-layer switch port

A) An access-layer switch port connected to a PC

590

Where should the STP UplinkFast feature be enabled?

A) An access-layer switch.

B) A distribution-layer switch.

C) A core-layer switch.

D) All these answers are correct.

A) An access-layer switch.

591

If used, the STP BackboneFast feature should be enabled on which of these?

A) All backbone- or core-layer switches

B) All backbone- and distribution-layer switches

C) All access-layer switches

D) All switches in the network

D) All switches in the network

592

Which one of the following commands can be used to verify the current root bridge in VLAN 10?

A) show root vlan 10

B) show root-bridge vlan 10

C) show spanning-tree vlan 10 root

D) show running-config

C) show spanning-tree vlan 10 root

593

Why is it important to protect the placement of the root bridge?

A) To keep two root bridges from becoming active

B) To keep the STP topology stable

C) So all hosts have the correct gateway

D) So the root bridge can have complete knowledge of the STP topology

B) To keep the STP topology stable

594

Which of the following features protects a switch port from accepting superior BPDUs?

A) STP Loop Guard

B) STP BPDU Guard

C) STP Root Guard

D) UDLD

C) STP Root Guard

595

Which of the following commands can you use to enable STP Root Guard on a switch port?

A) spanning-tree root guard

B) spanning-tree root-guard

C) spanning-tree guard root

D) spanning-tree rootguard enable

C) spanning-tree guard root

596

Where should the STP Root Guard feature be enabled on a switch?

A) All ports

B) Only ports where the root bridge should never appear

C) Only ports where the root bridge should be located

D) Only ports with PortFast enabled

B) Only ports where the root bridge should never appear

597

Which of the following features protects a switch port from accepting BPDUs when PortFast is enabled?

A) STP Loop Guard

B) STP BPDU Guard

C) STP Root Guard

D) UDLD

B) STP BPDU Guard

598

To maintain a loop-free STP topology, which one of the following should a switch uplink be protected against?

A) A sudden loss of BPDUs

B) Too many BPDUs

C) The wrong version of BPDUs

D) BPDUs relayed from the root bridge

A) A sudden loss of BPDUs

599

Which of the following commands can enable STP Loop Guard on a switch port?

A) spanning-tree loop guard

B) spanning-tree guard loop

C) spanning-tree loop-guard

D) spanning-tree loopguard enable

B) spanning-tree guard loop

600

STP Loop Guard detects which of the following conditions?

A) The sudden appearance of superior BPDUs

B) The sudden lack of BPDUs

C) The appearance of duplicate BPDUs

D) The appearance of two root bridges

B) The sudden lack of BPDUs

601

Which of the following features can actively test for the loss of the receive side of a link between switches?

A) POST

B) BPDU

C) UDLD

D) STP

C) UDLD

602

UDLD must detect a unidirectional link before which of the following?

A) The Max Age timer expires.

B) STP moves the link to the Blocking state.

C) STP moves the link to the Forwarding state.

D) STP moves the link to the Listening state.

C) STP moves the link to the Forwarding state.

603

What must a switch do when it receives a UDLD message on a link?

A) Relay the message on to other switches

B) Send a UDLD acknowledgment

C) Echo the message back across the link

D) Drop the message

C) Echo the message back across the link

604

Which of the following features effectively disables spanning-tree operation on a switch port?

A) STP PortFast

B) STP BPDU filtering

C) STP BPDU Guard

D) STP Root Guard

B) STP BPDU filtering

605

To reset switch ports that have been put into the errdisable mode by UDLD, which one of the following commands should be used?

A) clear errdisable udld

B) udld reset

C) no udld

D) show udld errdisable

B) udld reset

606

Which one of the following commands enables the use of RSTP?

A) spanning-tree mode rapid-pvst

B) no spanning-tree mode pvst

C) spanning-tree rstp

D) spanning-tree mode rstp

E) None. RSTP is enabled by default.

A) spanning-tree mode rapid-pvst

607

On which standard is RSTP based?

A) 802.1Q

B) 802.1D

C) 802.1w

D) 802.1s

C) 802.1w

608

Which of the following is not a port state in RSTP?

A) Listening

B) Learning

C) Discarding

D) Forwarding

A) Listening

609

When a switch running RSTP receives an 802.1D BPDU, what happens?

A) The BPDU is discarded or dropped.

B) An ICMP message is returned.

C) The switch begins to use 802.1D rules on that port.

D) The switch disables RSTP.

C) The switch begins to use 802.1D rules on that port.

610

When does an RSTP switch consider a neighbor to be down?

A) After three BPDUs are missed

B) After six BPDUs are missed

C) After the Max Age timer expires

D) After the Forward timer expires

A) After three BPDUs are missed

611

Which process is used during RSTP convergence?

A) BPDU propagation

B) Synchronization

C) Forward timer expiration

D) BPDU

B) Synchronization

612

What causes RSTP to view a port as a point-to-point port?

A) Port speed

B) Port media

C) Port duplex

D) Port priority

C) Port duplex

613

Which of the following events triggers a topology change with RSTP on a nonedge port?

A) A port comes up or goes down.

B) A port comes up.

C) A port goes down.

D) A port moves to the Forwarding state.

D) A port moves to the Forwarding state.

614

Which of the following is not a characteristic of MST?

A) A reduced number of STP instances

B) Fast STP convergence

C) Eliminated need for CST

D) Interoperability with PVST+

C) Eliminated need for CST

615

Which of the following standards defines the MST protocol?

A) 802.1Q

B) 802.1D

C) 802.1w

D) 802.1s

D) 802.1s

616

How many instances of STP are supported in the Cisco implementation of MST?

A) 1

B) 16

C) 256

D) 4096

B) 16

617

What switch command can be used to change from PVST+ to MST?

A) spanning-tree mst enable

B) no spanning-tree pvst+

C) spanning-tree mode mst

D) spanning-tree mst

C) spanning-tree mode mst

618

Which of the following arrangements can be considered interVLAN routing?
A) One switch, two VLANs, one connection to a router.

B) One switch, two VLANs, two connections to a router.

C) Two switches, two VLANs, two connections to a router.

D) All of these answers are correct.

D) All of these answers are correct.

619

How many interfaces are needed in a “router on a stick” implementation for interVLAN routing among four VLANs?

A) 1

B) 2

C) 4

D) Cannot be determined

A) 1

620

Which of the following commands configures a switch port for Layer 2 operation?
A) switchport

B) no switchport

C) ip address 192.168.199.1 255.255.255.0

D) no ip address

A) switchport

621

Which of the following commands configures a switch port for Layer 3 operation?

A) switchport

B) no switchport

C) ip address 192.168.199.1 255.255.255.0

D) no ip address

B) no switchport

622

Which one of the following interfaces is an SVI?

A) interface fastethernet 0/1

B) interface gigabit 0/1

C) interface vlan 1

D) interface svi 1

C) interface vlan 1

623

What information must be learned before CEF can forward packets?

A) The source and destination of the first packet in a traffic flow

B) The MAC addresses of both the source and destination

C) The contents of the routing table

D) The outbound port of the first packet in a flow

C) The contents of the routing table

624

Which of the following best defines an adjacency?

A) Two switches connected by a common link.

B) Two contiguous routes in the FIB.

C) Two multilayer switches connected by a common link.

D) The MAC address of a host is known.

C) Two multilayer switches connected by a common link.

625

Assume that CEF is active on a switch. What happens to a packet that arrives needing fragmentation?

A) The packet is switched by CEF and kept intact.

B) The packet is fragmented by CEF.

C) The packet is dropped.

D) The packet is sent to the Layer 3 engine.

D) The packet is sent to the Layer 3 engine.

626

Suppose that a host sends a packet to a destination IP address and that the CEF-based switch does not yet have a valid MAC address for the destination. How is the ARP entry (MAC address) of the next-hop destination in the FIB obtained?

A) The sending host must send an ARP request for it.

B) The Layer 3 forwarding engine (CEF hardware) must send an ARP request for it.

C) CEF must wait until the Layer 3 engine sends an ARP request for it.

D) All packets to the destination are dropped.

C) CEF must wait until the Layer 3 engine sends an ARP request for it.

627

During a packet rewrite, what happens to the source MAC address?

A) There is no change.

B) It is changed to the destination MAC address.

C) It is changed to the MAC address of the outbound Layer 3 switch interface.

D) It is changed to the MAC address of the next-hop destination.

C) It is changed to the MAC address of the outbound Layer 3 switch interface.

628

What command can you use to view the CEF FIB table contents?

A) show fib

B) show ip cef fib

C) show ip cef

D) show fib-table

C) show ip cef

629

Which one of the following answers represents configuration commands needed to implement a DHCP relay function?
A) interface vlan 5
ip address 10.1.1.1 255.255.255.0
ip helper-address 10.1.1.10

B) interface vlan 5
ip address 10.1.1.1 255.255.255.0
ip dhcp-relay

C) ip dhcp pool staff
network 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0
default-router 10.1.1.1
exit

D) hostname Switch
ip helper-address 10.1.1.10

A) interface vlan 5
ip address 10.1.1.1 255.255.255.0
ip helper-address 10.1.1.10

630

Where does a collision domain exist in a switched network?

A) On a single switch port

B) Across all switch ports

C) On a single VLAN

D) Across all VLANs

A) On a single switch port

631

Where does a broadcast domain exist in a switched network?

A) On a single switch port

B) Across all switch ports

C) On a single VLAN

D) Across all VLANs

C) On a single VLAN

632

What is a VLAN primarily used for?

A) To segment a collision domain

B) To segment a broadcast domain

C) To segment an autonomous system

D) To segment a spanning-tree domain

B) To segment a broadcast domain

633

How many layers are recommended in the hierarchical campus network design model?

A) 1

B) 2

C) 3

D )4

E) 7

C) 3

634

What is the purpose of breaking a campus network into a hierarchical design?

A) To facilitate documentation

B) To follow political or organizational policies

C) To make the network predictable and scalable

D) To make the network more redundant and secure

C) To make the network predictable and scalable

635

End-user PCs should be connected into which of the following hierarchical layers?

A) Distribution layer

B) Common layer

C) Access layer

D) Core layer

C) Access layer

636

In which OSI layer should devices in the distribution layer typically operate?

A) Layer 1

B) Layer 2

C) Layer 3

D) Layer 4

C) Layer 3

637

A hierarchical network’s distribution layer aggregates which of the following?

A) Core switches

B) Broadcast domains

C) Routing updates

D) Access-layer switches

D) Access-layer switches

638

In the core layer of a hierarchical network, which of the following are aggregated?

A) Routing tables

B) Packet filters

C) Distribution switches

D) Access-layer switches

C) Distribution switches

639

In a properly designed hierarchical network, a broadcast from one PC is confined to what?

A) One access-layer switch port

B) One access-layer switch

C) One switch block

D) The entire campus network

C) One switch block

640

Which one or more of the following are the components of a typical switch block?

A) Access-layer switches

B) Distribution-layer switches

C) Core-layer switches

D) E-commerce servers

E) Service provider switches

A) Access-layer switches

B) Distribution-layer switches

641

What are two types of core, or backbone, designs?

A) Collapsed core

B) Loop-free core

C) Dual core

D) Layered core

A) Collapsed core

C) Dual core

642

What is the maximum number of access-layer switches that can connect into a single distribution-layer switch?

A) 1

B) 2

C) Limited only by the number of ports on the access-layer switch

D) Limited only by the number of ports on the distribution-layer switch

E) Unlimited

D) Limited only by the number of ports on the distribution-layer switch

643

A switch block should be sized according to which two of the following parameters?

A) The number of access-layer users

B) A maximum of 250 access-layer users

C) A study of the traffic patterns and flows

D) The amount of rack space available

E) The number of servers accessed by users

A) The number of access-layer users

C) A study of the traffic patterns and flows

644

What evidence can be seen when a switch block is too large? (Choose all that apply.)

A) IP address space is exhausted.

B) You run out of access-layer switch ports.

C) Broadcast traffic becomes excessive.

D) Traffic is throttled at the distribution-layer switches.

E) Network congestion occurs.

C) Broadcast traffic becomes excessive.

D) Traffic is throttled at the distribution-layer switches.

E) Network congestion occurs.

645

How many distribution switches should be built into each switch block?

A) 1

B) 2

C) 4

D) 8

B) 2

646

What are the most important aspects to consider when designing the core layer in a large network? (Choose all that apply.)

A) Low cost

B) Switches that can efficiently forward traffic, even when every uplink is at 100 percent capacity

C) High port density of high-speed ports

D) A low number of Layer 3 routing peers

B) Switches that can efficiently forward traffic, even when every uplink is at 100 percent capacity

C) High port density of high-speed ports

647

Which one of the following do multilayer switches share when running HSRP?

A) Routing tables

B) ARP cache

C) CAM table

D) IP address

D) IP address

648

What HSRP group uses the MAC address 0000.0c07.ac11?

A) Group 0

B) Group 7

C) Group 11

D) Group 17

D) Group 17

649

Two routers are configured for an HSRP group. One router uses the default HSRP priority. What priority should be assigned to the other router to make it more likely to be the active router?

A) 1

B) 100

C) 200

D) 500

C) 200

650

How many routers are in the Standby state in an HSRP group?

A) 0

B) 1

C) 2

D) All but the active router

B) 1

651

A multilayer switch is configured as follows:
interface fastethernet 1/1
no switchport
ip address 192.168.199.3 255.255.255.0
standby 1 ip 192.168.199.2

Which IP address should a client PC use as its default gateway?

A) 192.168.199.1

B) 192.168.199.2

C) 192.168.199.3

D) Any of these

B) 192.168.199.2

652

Which one of the following is based on an IETF RFC standard?

A) HSRP

B) VRRP

C) GLBP

D) STP

B) VRRP

653

What VRRP group uses the virtual MAC address 0000.5e00.01ff?

A) Group 0

B) Group 1

C) Group 255

D) Group 94

C) Group 255

654

Which one of the following protocols is the best choice for load balancing redundant gateways?

A) HSRP

B) VRRP

C) GLBP

D) GVRP

C) GLBP

655

Which one of the following GLBP functions answers ARP requests?

A) AVF

B) VARP

C) AVG

D) MVR

C) AVG

656

By default, which of the following virtual MAC addresses will be sent to the next client that looks for the GLBP virtual gateway?

A) The GLBP interface’s MAC address

B) The next virtual MAC address in the sequence

C) The virtual MAC address of the least-used router

D) 0000.0c07.ac00

B) The next virtual MAC address in the sequence

657

Which one of these features is used to reduce the amount of time needed to rebuild the routing information after a supervisor module failure?

A) NFS

B) NSF

C) RPR+

D) SSO

B) NSF

658

Which one of the following features provides the fastest failover for supervisor or route processor redundancy?

A) SSL

B) SSO

C) RPR+

D) RPR

B) SSO

659

For a Catalyst switch to offer Power over Ethernet to a device, what must occur?

A) Nothing; power always is enabled on a port.

B) The switch must detect that the device needs inline power.

C) The device must send a CDP message asking for power.

D) The switch is configured to turn on power to the port.

B) The switch must detect that the device needs inline power

660

Which one of these commands can enable Power over Ethernet to a switch interface?

A) inline power enable

B) inline power on

C) power inline on

D) power inline auto

D) power inline auto

661

What does a Cisco IP Phone contain to allow it to pass both voice and data packets?

A) An internal Ethernet hub

B) An internal two-port switch

C) An internal three-port switch

D) An internal four-port switch

C) An internal three-port switch

662

How can voice traffic be kept separate from any other data traffic through an IP Phone?

A) Voice and data travel over separate links.

B) A special-case 802.1Q trunk is used to connect to the switch.

C) Voice and data can’t be separated; they must intermingle on the link.

D) Voice and data packets both are encapsulated over an ISL trunk.

B) A special-case 802.1Q trunk is used to connect to the switch.

663

What command configures an IP Phone to use VLAN 9 for voice traffic?

A) switchport voice vlan 9

B) switchport voice-vlan 9

C) switchport voice 9

D) switchport voip 9

A) switchport voice vlan 9

664

What is the default voice VLAN condition for a switch port?

A) switchport voice vlan 1

B) switchport voice vlan dot1p

C) switchport voice vlan untagged

D) switchport voice vlan none

D) switchport voice vlan none

665

If the following interface configuration commands have been used, what VLAN numbers will the voice and PC data be carried over, respectively?
interface gigabitethernet1/0/1
switchport access vlan 10
switchport trunk native vlan 20
switchport voice vlan 50
switchport mode access

A) VLAN 50, VLAN 20

B) VLAN 50, VLAN 1

C) VLAN 1, VLAN 50

D) VLAN 20, VLAN 50

E) VLAN 50, VLAN 10

E) VLAN 50, VLAN 10

666

What command can verify the voice VLAN used by a Cisco IP Phone?

A) show cdp neighbor

B) show interface switchport

C) show vlan

D) show trunk

B) show interface switchport

667

When a PC is connected to the PC switch port on an IP Phone, how is QoS trust handled?

A) The IP Phone always trusts the class of service (CoS) information coming from the PC.

B) The IP Phone never trusts the PC and always overwrites the CoS bits.

C) QoS trust for the PC data is handled at the Catalyst switch port, not the IP Phone.

D) The Catalyst switch instructs the IP Phone how to trust the PC QoS information.

D) The Catalyst switch instructs the IP Phone how to trust the PC QoS information.

668

An IP Phone should mark all incoming traffic from an attached PC to have CoS 1. Complete the following switch command to make that happen:

A) switchport priority extend __________

B) untrusted

C) 1

D) cos 1

E) overwrite 1

C) 1

669

What command can verify the Power over Ethernet status of each switch port?

A) show inline power

B) show power inline

C) show interface

D) show running-config

B) show power inline

670

Which DSCP codepoint name usually is used for time-critical packets containing voice data?

A) 7

B) Critical

C) AF

D) EF

D) EF

671

Which one of the following standard sets is used in wireless LANs?

A) IEEE 802.1

B) IEEE 802.3

C) IEEE 802.5

D) IEEE 802.11

D) IEEE 802.11

672

Which one of the following methods is used to minimize collisions in a wireless LAN?

A) CSMA/CD

B) CSMA/CA

C) LWAPP

D) LACP

B) CSMA/CA

673

A wireless scenario is made up of five wireless clients and two APs connected by a switch. Which one of the following correctly describes the wireless network?

A) BSS

B) ESS

C) IBSS

D) CBS

B) ESS

674

If a wireless access point is connected to a switch by a trunk port, which one of the following is mapped to a VLAN?

A) Channel

B) Frequency

C) BSS

D) SSID

D) SSID

675

Which of the following terms represents a Cisco wireless access point that cannot operate independently?

A) Autonomous AP

B) Roaming AP

C) Lightweight AP

D) Dependent AP

C) Lightweight AP

676

Suppose that an autonomous AP is used to support wireless clients. Which one of the following answers lists the devices that traffic must take when passing from one wireless client to another?

A) Through the AP only.

B) Through the AP and its controller.

C) Through the controller only.

D) None of these answers is correct; traffic can go directly over the air.

A) Through the AP only.

677

Suppose that a lightweight AP is used to support wireless clients. Which one of the following answers lists the device path that traffic must take when passing from one wireless client to another?

A) Through the AP only.

B) Through the AP and its controller.

C) Through the controller only.

D) None of these answers is correct; traffic can go directly over the air.

B) Through the AP and its controller.

678

A lightweight access point is said to have which one of the following architectures?

A) Proxy MAC

B) Tunnel MAC

C) Split-MAC

D) Fat MAC

C) Split-MAC

679

How does a lightweight access point communicate with a wireless LAN controller?

A) Through an IPsec tunnel

B) Through an LWAPP or CAPWAP tunnel

C) Through a GRE tunnel

D) Directly over Layer 2

B) Through an LWAPP or CAPWAP tunnel

680

Which one of the following types of traffic is sent securely over an LWAPP tunnel?

A) Control messages

B) User data

C) DHCP requests

D) 802.11 beacons

A) Control messages

681

Which one of the following must be consistent for a wireless client to roam between lightweight APs that are managed by the same WLC?

A) SSID

B) Mobility group

C) VLAN ID

D) AP management VLAN

A) SSID

682

Which one of the following must be consistent for a wireless client to roam between lightweight APs that are managed by two different WLCs?

A) VLAN ID

B) SSID

C) AP management VLAN

D) Mobility group

D) Mobility group

683

Which one of the following locations is appropriate for an LAP?

A) Access-layer switch port

B) Distribution-layer switch port

C) Core-layer switch port

D) Data center switch port

A) Access-layer switch port

684

Which one of the following locations is appropriate for a WLC?

A) Access-layer switch port

B) Distribution-layer switch port

C) Core-layer switch port

D) Data center switch port

B) Distribution-layer switch port

685

Which one of the following is the correct switch configuration for a port connected to an LAP?

A) switchport mode trunk

B) switchport mode lap

C) switchport mode access

D) switchport mode transparent

C) switchport mode access

686

Suppose an LAP/WLC combination is used to provide connectivity from SSID “staff’’ to VLAN 17. Which one of the following is the correct extent for the VLAN?

A) VLAN 17 exists on the LAP only.

B) VLAN 17 extends from the LAP to the access switch only.

C) VLAN 17 extends from the LAP to the WLC.

D) VLAN 17 extends from the distribution switch to the WLC.

D) VLAN 17 extends from the distribution switch to the WLC.

687

Which switch feature can grant access through a port only if the host with MAC address 0005.0004.0003 is connected?

A) SPAN

B) MAC address ACL

C) Port security

D) Port-based authentication

C) Port security

688

Port security is being used to control access to a switch port. Which one of these commands will put the port into the errdisable state if an unauthorized station connects?

A) switchport port-security violation protect

B) switchport port-security violation restrict

C) switchport port-security violation errdisable

D) switchport port-security violation shutdown

D) switchport port-security violation

689

If port security is left to its default configuration, how many different MAC addresses can be learned at one time on a switch port?

A) 0

B) 1

C) 16

D) 256

B) 1

690

The following commands are configured on a Catalyst switch port. What happens when the host with MAC address 0001.0002.0003 tries to connect?
switchport port-security
switchport port-security maximum 3
switchport port-security mac-address 0002.0002.0002
switchport port-security violation shutdown

A) The port shuts down.

B) The host is allowed to connect.

C) The host is denied a connection.

D) The host can connect only when 0002.0002.0002 is not connected.

B) The host is allowed to connect.

691

What protocol is used for port-based authentication?

A) 802.1D

B) 802.1Q

C) 802.1x

D) 802.1w

C) 802.1x

692

When 802.1x is used for a switch port, where must it be configured?

A) Switch port and client PC

B) Switch port only

C) Client PC only

D) Switch port and a RADIUS server

A) Switch port and client PC

693

When port-based authentication is enabled globally, what is the default behavior for all switch ports?

A) Authenticate users before enabling the port.

B) Allow all connections without authentication.

C) Do not allow any connections.

D) There is no default behavior.

B) Allow all connections without authentication.

694

When port-based authentication is enabled, what method is available for a user to authenticate?

A) Web browser

B) Telnet session

C) 802.1x client

D) DHCP

C) 802.1x client

695

The users in a department are using a variety of host platforms, some old and some new. All of them have been approved with a user ID in a RADIUS server database. Which one of these features should be used to restrict access to the switch ports in the building?

A) AAA authentication

B) AAA authorization

C) Port security

D) Port-based authentication

C) Port security

696

With DHCP snooping, an untrusted port filters out which one of the following?

A) DHCP replies from legitimate DHCP servers

B) DHCP replies from rogue DHCP servers

C) DHCP requests from legitimate clients

D) DHCP requests from rogue clients

B) DHCP replies from rogue DHCP servers

697

hich two of the following methods does a switch use to detect spoofed addresses when IP Source Guard is enabled?

A) ARP entries

B) DHCP database

C) DHCP snooping database

D) Static IP source binding entries

E) Reverse path-forwarding entries

C) DHCP snooping database

D) Static IP source binding entries

698

Which one of the following should be configured as a trusted port for dynamic ARP inspection?

A) The port where the ARP server is located.

B) The port where an end-user host is located.

C) The port where another switch is located.

D) None; all ports are untrusted.

C) The port where another switch is located.

699

Which two of the following methods should you use to secure inbound CLI sessions to a switch?

A) Disable all inbound CLI connections.

B) Use SSH only.

C) Use Telnet only.

D) Apply an access list to the vty lines.

B) Use SSH only.

D) Apply an access list to the vty lines.

700

Suppose you need to disable CDP advertisements on a switch port so that untrusted devices cannot learn anything about your switch. Which one of the following interface configuration commands should be used?

A) cdp disable

B) no cdp

C) no cdp enable

D) no cdp trust

C) no cdp enable

701

Which one of the following can filter packets even if they are not routed to another Layer 3 interface?

A) IP extended access lists

B) MAC address access lists

C) VLAN access lists

D) Port-based access lists

C) VLAN access lists

702

In what part of a Catalyst switch are VLAN ACLs implemented?

A) NVRAM

B) CAM

C) RAM

D) TCAM

D) TCAM

703

Which one of the following commands can implement a VLAN ACL called test?

A) access-list vlan test

B) vacl test

C) switchport vacl test

D) vlan access-map test

D) vlan access-map test

704

After a VACL is configured, where is it applied?

A) Globally on a VLAN

B) On the VLAN interface

C) In the VLAN configuration

D) On all ports or interfaces mapped to a VLAN

A) Globally on a VLAN

705

Which of the following private VLANs is the most restrictive?

A) Community VLAN

B) Isolated VLAN

C) Restricted VLAN

D) Promiscuous VLAN

B) Isolated VLAN

706

The vlan 100 command has just been entered. What is the next command needed to configure VLAN 100 as a secondary isolated VLAN?

A) private-vlan isolated

B) private-vlan isolated 100

C) pvlan secondary isolated

D) No further configuration necessary

A) private-vlan isolated

707

What type of port configuration should you use for private VLAN interfaces that connect to a router?

A) Host

B) Gateway

C) Promiscuous

D) Transparent

C) Promiscuous

708

Promiscuous ports must be ______________ to primary and secondary VLANs, and host ports must be ________________.

A) Mapped, associated

B) Mapped, mapped

C) Associated, mapped

D) Associated, associated

A) Mapped, associated

709

In a switch spoofing attack, an attacker makes use of which one of the following?

A) The switch management IP address

B) CDP message exchanges

C) Spanning Tree Protocol

D) DTP to negotiate a trunk

D) DTP to negotiate a trunk

710

Which one of the following commands can be used to prevent a switch spoofing attack on an end-user port?

A) switchport mode access

B) switchport mode trunk

C) no switchport spoof

D) spanning-tree spoof-guard

A) switchport mode access

711

Which one of the following represents the spoofed information an attacker sends in a VLAN hopping attack?

A) 802.1Q tags

B) DTP information

C) VTP information

D) 802.1x information

A) 802.1Q tags

712

Which one of the following methods can be used to prevent a VLAN hopping attack?

A) Use VTP throughout the network.

B) Set the native VLAN to the user access VLAN.

C) Prune the native VLAN off a trunk link.

D) Avoid using EtherChannel link bundling.

C) Prune the native VLAN off a trunk link.

713

You execute the command show ip route 10.1.1.1, and the response of the router is % Subnet not in table. Which of the following is the most accurate conclusion you can draw from this response? (Select the best answer)

A) The host entry 10.1.1.1/32 is not in the routing table.

B) There is no route in the routing table that matches IP address 10.1.1.1. All packets to that destination will be dropped.

C) There is no specific route in the routing table that matches IP address 10.1.1.1. Packets to that destination may be forwarded by the default route, if it is present.

D) The classful network 10.0.0.0 is not present in the routing table.

C) There is no specific route in the routing table that matches IP address 10.1.1.1. Packets to that destination may be forwarded by the default route, if it is present.

714

Which of the following commands will display the part of the running configuration that contains all statements for the EIGRP routing protocol?

A) show running-config | section router eigrp

B) show running-config | include router eigrp

C) show running-config | exclude router eigrp

D) show running-config | start router eigrp

E) None of these options are correct; this requires using a regular expression.

A) show running-config | section router eigrp

715

Which of the following commands will display the output of the command show ip interface brief onscreen and copy the output of the command to the file show-output.txt on TFTP server 10.1.1.1?

A) show ip interface brief | tee
tftp://10.1.1.1/show-output.txt

B) show ip interface brief | append tftp://10.1.1.1/show-output.txt

C) show ip interface brief | redirect tftp://10.1.1.1/show-output.txt

D) show ip interface brief | copy tftp://10.1.1.1/show-output.txt

E) None of these options are correct; show command output can be copied only to a file in the flash memory of the device.

A) show ip interface brief | tee
tftp://10.1.1.1/show-output.txt

716

Which of the following Cisco IOS commands will send 154 ICMP request packets of 1400 bytes each with the Don’t Fragment bit set to IP address 10.1.1.1?

A) ping 10.1.1.1 –l 1400 –r 154 -f

B) ping 10.1.1.1 size 1400 repeat 154 df-bit

C) ping 10.1.1.1 repeat 154 size 1400 df 1

D) None of these options are correct; this can be accomplished only by use of the extended ping interactive dialog.

B) ping 10.1.1.1 size 1400 repeat 154 df-bit

717

You execute the command telnet 192.168.37.2 80, and the response of the router is Trying 192.168.37.2, 80 ... Open. Which conclusion can you draw from this response?

A) The web server on host 192.168.37.2 is running and serving files.

B) There is a service running on TCP port 80 on host 192.168.37.2, and it accepts connections.

C) The server on 192.168.37.2 is accepting Telnet connections.

D) No conclusions can be drawn about the server. The word Open just means that the IP address could be found in the routing table.

B) There is a service running on TCP port 80 on host 192.168.37.2, and it accepts connections.

718

You execute the command show processes cpu, and the output includes CPU utilization for 5 seconds: 30%/26%. Which two of the following statements are correct?

A) The total CPU load over the past 5 seconds was 56 percent.

B) The total CPU load over the past 5 seconds was 30 percent.

C) The percentage of CPU time spent on scheduled processes was 26 percent.

D) The percentage of CPU time spent on scheduled processes was 30 percent.

E) The percentage of CPU time spent on scheduled processes was 4 percent.

B) The total CPU load over the past 5 seconds was 30 percent.

E) The percentage of CPU time spent on scheduled processes was 4 percent.

719

Which two of the following technologies can be implemented to create a baseline of network usage?

A) SPAN

B) SNMP

C) EEM

D) Syslog

E) NetFlow

B) SNMP

E) NetFlow

720

SPAN traffic is carried in a RSPAN VLAN over which of the following?

A) An access connection

B) An EtherChannel connection

C) An uplink connection

D) A trunk connection

E) An optical connection

D) A trunk connection

721

Which two of the following commands are necessary to configure a switch to copy all traffic from interface Fa0/1 to a packet sniffer on interface Fa0/5?

A) monitor session 1 source interface Fa0/1

B) span session 1 destination interface Fa0/5

C) span session 1 destination remote interface Fa0/5

D) monitor session 1 destination interface Fa0/5

E) span session 1 source interface Fa0/1

F) span session 1 destination remote interface Fa0/5

A) monitor session 1 source interface Fa0/1

D) monitor session 1 destination interface Fa0/5

722

Cisco IOS NetFlow technology enables you to gather detailed traffic profiles and performance statistics such as CPU and memory usage. True or False?

A) True
B) False

B) False

723

Which two of the following commands are necessary to configure a router to send SNMP traps to an SNMP manager at IP address 10.2.2.2 using community string cisco?

A) snmp-server community cisco RW

B) snmp-server ifindex persist

C) snmp-server contact 10.2.2.2 community cisco

D) snmp-server enable traps

E) snmp-server host 10.2.2.2 cisco

F) snmp-server trap-host 10.2.2.2

D) snmp-server enable traps

E) snmp-server host 10.2.2.2 cisco

724

Which of the following best describes EEM?

A) It is a framework that allows for the creation of custom events and corresponding actions.

B) It is a technology that allows traffic to be copied from one switch port to another to allow it to be captured.

C) It is a protocol that allows statistics to be gathered from a device and notifications to be sent by that same device.

D) It is a technology that enables the collection of detailed traffic profiles.

A) It is a framework that allows for the creation of custom events and corresponding actions.

725

Which of the following best describes SNMP?

A) It is a framework that allows for the creation of custom events and corresponding actions.

B) It is a technology that allows traffic to be copied from one switch port to another to allow it to be captured.

C) It is a protocol that allows statistics to be gathered from a device and notifications to be sent by that same device.

D) It is a technology that enables the collection of detailed traffic profiles.

C) It is a protocol that allows statistics to be gathered from a device and notifications to be sent by that same device.

726

Which of the following best describes NetFlow?

A) It is a framework that allows for the creation of custom events and corresponding actions.

B) It is a technology that allows traffic to be copied from one switch port to another to allow it to be captured.

C) It is a protocol that allows statistics to be gathered from a device and notifications to be sent by that same device.

D) It is a technology that enables the collection of detailed traffic profiles.

D) It is a technology that enables the collection of detailed traffic profiles.

727

Which of the following best describes SPAN?

A) It is a framework that allows for the creation of custom events and corresponding actions.

B) It is a technology that allows traffic to be copied from one switch port to another so that the traffic can be captured.

C) It is a protocol that allows statistics to be gathered from a device and notifications to be sent by that same device.

D) It is a technology that enables the collection of detailed traffic profiles.

B) It is a technology that allows traffic to be copied from one switch port to another so that the traffic can be captured.

728

Which of the following commands will display all subnets contained in the prefix 10.1.32.0/19?

A) show ip route 10.1.32.0 /19 longer-prefixes

B) show ip route 10.1.32.0 255.255.224.0 subnets

C) show ip route 10.1.32.0 /19 subnets

D) show ip route 10.1.32.0 255.255.224.0 longer-prefixes

D) show ip route 10.1.32.0 255.255.224.0 longer-prefixes

729

Which three of the following items are recorded in the MAC address table of a switch?

A) MAC address

B) Switch port

C) IP address

D) VLAN

E) Trunk or access port status

F) Type

A) MAC address

B) Switch port

D) VLAN

730

What is the correct order in which the IEEE 802.1D Spanning Tree Protocol evaluates the following criteria to select a root port?

A) The lowest bridge ID in the received bridge protocol data units (BPDUs)

B) The lowest port ID in the received bridge protocol data units (BPDUs)

C) The lowest root path cost in the received bridge protocol data units (BPDUs)

C) The lowest root path cost in the received bridge protocol data units (BPDUs)

A) The lowest bridge ID in the received bridge protocol data units (BPDUs)

B) The lowest port ID in the received bridge protocol data units (BPDUs)

731

Which two of the following port roles will be transitioned to the forwarding state by the Spanning Tree Protocol?

A) Alternate port

B) Root port

C) Backup port

D) Designated port

B) Root port


D) Designated port

732

Which three of the following symptoms indicate that a bridging loop might exist in the network?

A) The CPU load of the switches approaches 100 percent utilization.

B) MAC addresses flap frequently between ports of the switch.

C) Time To Live (TTL) expired messages are received by the hosts.

D) The load on the WAN links in the network approaches 100 percent utilization.

E) Layer 3 switches report frequent HSRP state changes.

A) The CPU load of the switches approaches 100 percent utilization.

B) MAC addresses flap frequently between ports of the switch.

E) Layer 3 switches report frequent HSRP state changes.

733

Which condition could cause a %SPANTREE-2-CHNL_MISCFG log message to be generated by a switch?

A) The switch has detected an inconsistency between two of its physical ports that are members of an EtherChannel.

B) The switch has detected a misconfiguration of the spanning-tree channel.

C) The switch has detected an attempt of a neighboring switch to promote itself to the designated switch on an EtherChannel link.

D) The switch has detected that the neighboring switch is not configured to bundle a number of physical interfaces in an EtherChannel, while this switch is configured to bundle the links.

D) The switch has detected that the neighboring switch is not configured to bundle a number of physical interfaces in an EtherChannel, while this switch is configured to bundle the links.

734

Which two of the following are differences between routers and multilayer switches?

A) Routers support a wider variety of media than multilayer switches.

B) Routers can achieve higher throughput than multilayer switches.

C) Routers are less energy efficient than switches.

D) Routers support a wider range of features than multilayer switches.

A) Routers support a wider variety of media than multilayer switches.

D) Routers support a wider range of features than multilayer switches.

735

Which of the following commands can be used on multilayer switches, but not on routers to troubleshoot Layer 3 forwarding problems?

A) show ip cef

B) show ip route

C) show adjacency

D) show platform

E) None of these options are correct. All commands necessary to troubleshoot Layer 3 forwarding are available on both routers and multilayer switches.

D) show platform

736

SVIs and routed ports are both capable of running DTP. True or False?

A) True

B) False

B) False

737

Which two of the following conditions need to be met for an SVI to be up?

A) The VLAN corresponding to the SVI must exist in the VLAN database of the switch.

B) There must be at least one access port assigned to the VLAN corresponding to the SVI.

C) There must be at least one interface in the spanning-tree forwarding state for the VLAN corresponding to the SVI.

D) The VLAN corresponding to the SVI must have been advertised by VTP.

A) The VLAN corresponding to the SVI must exist in the VLAN database of the switch.

C) There must be at least one interface in the spanning-tree forwarding state for the VLAN corresponding to the SVI.

738

Which of the following first-hop redundancy protocols supports multiple active forwarding gateways per group?

A) HSRP

B) VRRP

C) GLBP

C) GLBP

739

Which of the following first-hop redundancy protocols is based on an IETF standard?

A) HSRP

B) VRRP

C) GLBP

B) VRRP

740

For which of the following first-hop redundancy protocols is preemption the default behavior?

A) HSRP

B) VRRP

C) GLBP

B) VRRP

741

Which two of the following items are recorded in the routing table for a prefix?

A) VLAN

B) Next-hop IP address

C) Egress interface

D) Ingress interface

E) Next-hop MAC address

B) Next-hop IP address

C) Egress interface

742

After consulting the routing table to route a packet, which other data structure on a router needs to be consulted to encapsulate the packet in an Ethernet frame (assuming the packet is not CEF switched)?

A) MAC address table

B) Link-state database

C) Topology table

D) Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) cache

E) None of the answers are correct. All information necessary to route a packet and encapsulate it is contained in the routing table.

D) Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) cache

743

For a route that has a point-to-point interface as the egress interface, a next-hop IP address is not mandatory.

A) True

B) False

A) True

744

Which two of the following data structures contain similar information when using CEF? (Choose two.)

A) The routing table and the FIB.

B) The routing table and the adjacency table contain similar information.

C) The FIB and the Layer 3 to Layer 2 mapping tables, such as the ARP cache contain similar information.

D) The adjacency table and the Layer 3 to Layer 2 mapping tables, such as the ARP cache.

A) The routing table and the FIB.

D) The adjacency table and the Layer 3 to Layer 2 mapping tables, such as the ARP cache.

745

Which three of the following data structures does EIGRP use?

A) Link-state database

B) Topology table

C) ARP cache

D) Interface table

E) Adjacency table

F) Neighbor table

B) Topology table

D) Interface table

F) Neighbor table

746

The EIGRP topology table contains all the routes that were received from all EIGRP routers in the autonomous system.

A) True

B) False

B) False

747

Which of the following Cisco IOS commands displays the transmission and reception of EIGRP packets such as hellos, updates, queries, and replies?

A) debug ip eigrp packets

B) debug ip eigrp

C) debug eigrp packets

D) debug eigrp updates

E) debug eigrp adj

F) debug ip eigrp neighbor

C) debug eigrp packets

748

When you issue the show ip eigrp interfaces command on a router, it lists interface FastEthernet 0/1, but it does not list interface FastEthernet 0/0. Which two of the following statements could be a possible explanation for the absence of interface FastEthernet 0/0?

A) Interface FastEthernet 0/0 has been configured as a passive interface.

B) EIGRP is not enabled on the router.

C) The command ip eigrp as-number is not configured on interface FastEthernet 0/0.

D) None of the configured network statements matches the IP address of FastEthernet 0/0.

E) There are no active EIGRP neighbors on interface FastEthernet 0/0.

F) Interface FastEthernet 0/0 is not a feasible successor.

A) Interface FastEthernet 0/0 has been configured as a passive interface.

D) None of the configured network statements matches the IP address of FastEthernet 0/0.

749

Based on the command output shown, which route is the successor?

BRO1# show ip eigrp topology 10.1.220.1 255.255.255.255
IP-EIGRP (AS 1): Topology entry for 10.1.220.1/32
State is Passive, Query origin flag is 1, 1 Successor(s), FD is 40640000
Routing Descriptor Blocks:
10.1.194.1 (Serial0/0/0.111), from 10.1.194.1, Send flag is 0x0
Composite metric is (40640000/128256), Route is Internal
Vector metric:
Minimum bandwidth is 64 Kbit
Total delay is 25000 microseconds
Reliability is 255/255
Load is 1/255
Minimum MTU is 1500
Hop count is 1
10.1.163.130 (FastEthernet0/1.30), from 10.1.163.130, Send flag is 0x0
Composite metric is (40642560/40640000), Route is Internal
Vector metric:
Minimum bandwidth is 64 Kbit
Total delay is 25100 microseconds
Reliability is 255/255
Load is 1/255
Minimum MTU is 1500
Hop count is 2

A) The route via 10.1.194.1, because it has the lowest hop count.

B) The route via 10.1.163.130, because a Fast Ethernet interface has a higher bandwidth than a Serial interface.

C) The route via 10.1.163, because its feasible distance (40642560) is better than the composite feasible distance (40640000).

D) The route via 10.1.194.1, because its metric (40640000) is better than the metric via 10.1.163.1 (40642560).

E) The route via 10.1.194.1, because its metric (128256) is better than the metric via 10.1.163.1 (40640000).

D) The route via 10.1.194.1, because its metric (40640000) is better than the metric via 10.1.163.1 (40642560).

750

Which three of the following data structures does the OSPF protocol use?

A) Link-state database

B) Topology table

C) ARP cache

D) Interface table

E) Adjacency table

F) Neighbor table

A) Link-state database

D) Interface table

F) Neighbor table

751

Which three of the following parameters need to match in the Hello packets for two OSPF routers to become neighbors?

A) Hello and dead timer

B) Autonomous system number

C) Area number

D) Subnet mask on a point-to-point link

E) Area type

F) Router type

A) Hello and dead timer

C) Area number

E) Area type

752

Which four of the following OSPF neighbor states are transitory states?

A) Init

B) 2-way

C) Exstart

D) Exchange

E) Loading

F) Full

A) Init

C) Exstart

D) Exchange

E) Loading

753

Which of the following Cisco IOS commands can be used to display the content of the OSPF link-state database?

A) show ip ospf lsdb

B) show ip ospf link-states

C) show ip ospf database

D) show ip route ospf

E) None of the answers are correct. Only the results of the shortest path first (SPF) calculation can be displayed, not the content of the database itself.

C) show ip ospf database

754

When you issue the show ip ospf interface command on a router, it lists interface FastEthernet 0/1, but it does not list interface FastEthernet 0/0. Which of the following statements could be a possible explanation for the absence of interface FastEthernet 0/0?

A) Interface Fast Ethernet 0/0 has been configured as a passive interface.

B) OSPF is not enabled on the router.

C) None of the configured network statements matches the IP address of FastEthernet 0/0.

D) There are no active OSPF neighbors on interface FastEthernet 0/0.

E) The router is not a designated router for interface FastEthernet 0/0.

C) None of the configured network statements matches the IP address of FastEthernet 0/0.

755

Which type of OSPF LSA is displayed

CRO1# show ip ospf database summary 10.1.152.0
OSPF Router with ID (10.1.220.1) (Process ID 100)
Summary Net Link States (Area 0)
Routing Bit Set on this LSA
LS age: 201
Options: (No TOS-capability, DC, Upward)
LS Type: Summary Links(Network)
Link State ID: 10.1.152.0 (summary Network Number)
Advertising Router: 10.1.220.252
LS Seq Number: 80000001
Checksum: 0x1C97
Length: 28
Network Mask: /24
TOS: 0 Metric: 1

A) Type 1 LSA

B) Type 2 LSA

C) Type 3 LSA

D) Type 4 LSA

E) Type 5 LSA

C) Type 3 LSA

756

How does a router determine which route to install in the routing table if two routes for the same prefix from different routing protocols are available?

A) It compares the metrics of the two protocols and installs the route with the lowest metric.

B) It compares the administrative distance of the two protocols and installs the route with the lowest administrative distance.

C) It converts the metric of each of the routing protocols to the universal route metric (URM) and then installs the route with the lowest URM.

D) It installs both routes in the routing table and load balances the traffic across the two paths.

B) It compares the administrative distance of the two protocols and installs the route with the lowest administrative distance.

757

Which two of the following routing protocols have their default seed metric for redistribution set to infinity or unreachable?

A) RIP

B) IS-IS

C) OSPF

D) EIGRP

E) BGP

A) RIP

D) EIGRP

758

Which two of the following information elements are exchanged by EIGRP for an external route that was redistributed from OSPF?

A) Originating OSPF area number

B) EIGRP router ID of the redistributing router

C) OSPF router ID of the originating router

D) Source routing protocol (OSPF)

B) EIGRP router ID of the redistributing router

D) Source routing protocol (OSPF)

759

Which two of the following data structures does Border Gateway Protocol (BGP) use?

A) Link-state database

B) Topology table

C) BGP table

D) Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) cache

E) Interface table

F) Adjacency table

G) Neighbor table

C) BGP table

G) Neighbor table

760

The BGP table on a router contains all the routes that were received from all its BGP peers. True or False?

A) True

B) False

A) True

761

BGP neighbors are discovered by use of a hello protocol. True or False?

A) True

B) False

B) False

762

Which two of the following reasons could cause the establishment of a BGP session to fail?

A) The source IP address used by the router that initiates the session does not match the configured IP address on the receiving router.

B) The TCP source port used by the router that initiates the session is not set to 179.

C) The autonomous system number of the router that initiates the session does not match the configured autonomous system number for the peer router on the receiving router.

D) The BGP keepalive and hold timer of the peers do not match.

A) The source IP address used by the router that initiates the session does not match the configured IP address on the receiving router.

C) The autonomous system number of the router that initiates the session does not match the configured autonomous system number for the peer router on the receiving router.

763

Which of the following Cisco IOS commands displays the subsequent phases of establishing a BGP peering relationship?

A) debug ip bgp

B) debug ip bgp adj

C) debug ip bgp peer

D) debug ip bgp updates

E) debug ip bgp events

A) debug ip bgp

764

The output of the show ip bgp summary command displays Active as the state of a neighbor. What does this mean?

A) The peering session has been established and the routers are actively exchanging routes.

B) BGP has lost the best route in the BGP table for a prefix and is attempting to find a backup route via a query and reply process.

C) BGP is attempting to establish a TCP session to the neighbor, but has not succeeded yet.

D) This is the state that a peering relationship is in when the router sees its own router ID listed in the active peer list in the hello packets received from that peer.

C) BGP is attempting to establish a TCP session to the neighbor, but has not succeeded yet.

765

Which of the following is not a main NAT category?

A) Static NAT

B) Dynamic NAT

C) Controlled NAT

D) NAT overloading

C) Controlled NAT

766

Which of the following is not an advantage of NAT?

A) Conserves private IP addresses

B) Hides the actual address of internal hosts and services

C) Increases flexibility when connecting to Internet

D) Eliminates address renumbering as the network changes from one ISP to another

A) Conserves private IP addresses

767

Which of the following are disadvantages of NAT? (Choose three.)

A) Translation introduces processing delays.

B) Loss of end-to-end IP reachability.

C) Certain applications will not function with NAT enabled.

D) Hides the address of the internal hosts.

A) Translation introduces processing delays.

B) Loss of end-to-end IP reachability.

C) Certain applications will not function with NAT enabled.

768

Which two of the following are NAT-sensitive protocols?

A) IPsec

B) Telnet

C) SMTP

D) SIP

A) IPsec

D) SIP

769

For outbound traffic, address translation occurs before output access lists are evaluated. True or False?

A) True

B) False

A) True

770

Which of the following correctly describes the effect of debug condition interface serial 0/0?

A) debug output is generated only when interface serial 0/0 goes down.

B) debug output is generated only when interface serial 0/0 goes up.

C) debug output is generated when interface serial 0/0 goes up or down.

D) debug output will only be limited to interface serial 0/0.

D) debug output will only be limited to interface serial 0/0.

771

Which of the following commands displays the NAT table content?

A) show ip nat translations

B) show ip nat statistics

C) show ip nat

D) show ip nat pool

A) show ip nat translations

772

Which of the following commands configures a router interface with the relay agent functionality?

A) ip helper-address

B) ip relay-agent

C) ip server-address

D) ip helper-server

A) ip helper-address

773

What is the proper order of DHCP messages going between a client and a server?

A) DHCP offer, DHCP discover, DHCP request, DHCP ack

B) DHCP discover, DHCP request, DHCP offer, DHCP ack

C) DHCP discover, DHCP offer, DHCP request, DHCP ack

D) DHCP request, DHCP discover, DHCP offer, DHCP ack

C) DHCP discover, DHCP offer, DHCP request, DHCP ack

774

Which of the following is not a DHCP packet (message)?

A) DHCP ack

B) DHCP reject

C) DHCP release

D) DHCP inform

B) DHCP reject

775

Which of following is not among the default ports (protocols) for the ip forward-protocol udp command?

A) TFTP (port 69)

B) DNS (port 53)

C) Network Time Service (port 123)

D) NetBIOS Name Service and Datagram Service (ports 137 and 138)

E) TACACS (port 49)

C) Network Time Service (port 123)

776

Option code 82 is related to which of the following DHCP options?

A) ARP cache timeout

B) IP address lease time

C) Relay agent information

D) TFTP server IP address

C) Relay agent information

777

Option code 150 is related to which of the following DHCP options?

A) ARP cache timeout

B) IP address lease time

C) Relay agent information

D) TFTP server IP address

D) TFTP server IP address

778

Which of the following protocols has been eliminated from the IPv6 protocol suite?

A) ICMP

B) ARP

C) DHCP

D) OSPF

B) ARP

779

What type of communication is not supported by IPv6?

A) Unicast

B) Multicast

C) Anycast

D) Broadcast

D) Broadcast

780

Which of the following is not used to baseline application traffic?

A) NetFlow

B) SLB

C) NBAR Protocol Discovery

D) IP SLAs

B) SLB

781

Which of the following is not a NetFlow key field?

A) Source IP Address

B) Layer 4 Source Port

C) ToS Byte (DSCP)

D) TTL

E) Input Interface

D) TTL

782

Which of the following commands displays the NetFlow statistics?

A) show ip cache flow

B) show ip flow ingress

C) show netflow stats

D) show ip netflow statistics