CCRN > MULTISYSTEM > Flashcards

MULTISYSTEM Flashcards

(58 cards)

Study These Flashcards
1
Q

shock is a CELLULAR DISEASE due to…

A
  • inadequate perfusion (oxygen demand > oxygen delivered) or

- inability of cells to utilize the delivered oxygen (oxygen utilization, consumption)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

during the compensatory phase of shock, the BP is maintained due to what 2 mechanisms?

A
  • stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system –> vasoconstriction –> increased HR & contractility
  • activation of renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (RAAS) –> increased renin secretion —> angiotensin I –> angiotensin II –> vasoconstriction; aldosterone release –> Na & H2O retention
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what are the S/S of compensatory phase of shock? (BP maintained)

A

tachycardia, tachypnea, respiratory alkalosis, normal PaO2, oliguria, cool/pale skin, restlessness, anxiety, thirsty, BP MAINTAINED

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what are S/S of progressive phase of shock? (compensatory mechanisms failing)

A

HYPOTENSION, worsening tachycardia/tachypnea/oliguria, metabolic acidosis, decreased PaO2, clammy/mottled skin, change in LOC, nausea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what are S/S of refractory phase of shock?

A

not responsive to interventions, severe systemic hypoperfusion, MULTISYSTEM ORGAN DYSFUNCTION, may survive shock but die from failure of one or more organs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what are the 2 most common types of hypovolemic shock?

A
  • internal - 3rd spacing, pooling in intravascular compartments
  • external - hemorrhage, GI or renal losses, burns, excessive diaphoresis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what happens hemodynamically in hypovolemic shock?

A
  • NARROW PULSE PRESSURE (SBP decreases, DBP maintains or elevates)
  • decreased: BP, CVP (RA), CO, O2 delivery, PAOP (LA), SvO2
  • increased systemic vascular resistance
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

how would you treat hypovolemic shock?

A
  • identify cause and correct if possible
  • volume! use fluid warmer if >2L/hr
  • goal is to maintain O2 delivery and uptake into tissue and sustain aerobic metabolism
  • use NS/LR
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what is NS, how long do effects last, disadvantages, contraindications?

A
  • isotonic crystalloid
  • 40min, then leaves vascular space
  • large volumes may lead to hyperchloremic acidosis
  • don’t give to those with hypernatremia or renal failure
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what is LR, how long do effects last, disadvantages, contraindications?

A
  • isotonic crystalloid; best mimic extracellular fluid, minus proteins, recommended resuscitation fluid
  • 40 min, then leaves vascular space
  • has potential to correct lactic acidosis; yet in severe hypo perfusion may promote lactic acidosis duet lactate accumulation
  • don’t give t those who shouldn’t receive K or lactate
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

should you give pressers for hypovolemic shock?

A

NO, SVR is already high r/t compensatory mechanisms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what is hemorrhagic shock class I? how to treat?

A
  • blood loss < 750ml
  • blood loss <15%
  • HR <100
  • BP normal
  • pulse pressure normal or decreased
  • capillary refill normal
  • RR 14-20
  • UO >30ml/hr
  • slightly anxious
  • treat with crystalloids
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what is hemorrhagic shock class II?

A
  • blood loss 750-1500ml
  • blood loss 15-30%
  • HR >100
  • BP normal
  • pulse pressure decreased
  • capillary refill decreased
  • RR 20-30
  • UO 20-30ml/hr
  • mildly anxious
  • treat with crystalloids
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what is hemorrhagic shock class III?

A
  • blood loss 1.5-2L
  • blood loss 30-40%
  • HR >120
  • BP normal
  • pulse pressure decreased
  • capillary refill decreased
  • RR 30-40
  • UO 5-15ml/hr
  • anxious, confused
  • treat with crystalloids + blood
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what is hemorrhagic shock class IV?

A
  • blood loss >2L
  • blood loss >40%
  • HR >140
  • BP decreased
  • pulse pressure decreased
  • capillary refill decreased
  • RR >35
  • UO scant
  • confused, lethargic
  • treat with crystalloids + blood
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

why should blood products be warmed?

A
  • to prevent hypothermia: impairment of red cell deformability, platelet dysfunction, increase in affinity of hgb to hold onto O2
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

how can blood transfusion cause hypocalcemia and hypomagnesemia?

A

citrate in transfused blood binds ionized Ca and Mg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

banked blod doens’t have adequate 2,3-DPG. What is the consequence?

A

shifts oxyhemoglobin-dissociation curve to the LEFT, increases affinity of hemoglobin to hold onto O2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what are massive transfusion protocols?

A

provide rapid infusion of large quantities of blood products to restore oxygen delivery, oxygen utilization, and tissue perfusion
10 units of RBCs in 24hrs, or 5 units in <3hrs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

when is a massive transfusion protocol indicated?

A
  • traumatic injuries, ruptured abdominal aortic or thoracic aneurysm, liver transplant, OB emergencies
  • prevent TRIAD OF DEATH: hypothermia, acidosis, coagulopathy
  • > 50% mortality
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what is systemic inflammatory response syndrome? (SIRS)

A

2 or more of the following:

  • T >/= 38C or <36C
  • HR >90
  • RR >20 or PaCO2 <32mmHg
  • WBC >12K or <4K or bands >10% (shift to left)
  • MAY HAVE SIRS W/O SEPSIS
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what is sepsis?

A
  • systemic inflammatory response to a documented infection
  • clinical manifestations would include 2 or more of the SIRS criteria plus a documented infection or suspected infection
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what is a suspected infection?

A

presence of one or more of the following:

    • cx results from blood, sputum, urine, etc
  • receiving abx anti fungal, or other anti-infectives
  • AMS in elderly
  • possible PNA
  • nursing home pt w/ foley
  • presence of pressure ulcers
  • acute ab
  • infected wounds, esp w/ hx of DM
  • immunosuppression
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what is severe sepsis?

Study These Flashcards
A
  • sepsis plus markers of organ dysfunction

- EX: hypotension, acute hypoxemia, acute drop in UO, lactate >2mmol/kg, change in LOC, plt <100K, coagulopathy

25
what is septic shock?
severe sepsis plus one or both of the following: - systemic MAP <65mmHg despite adequate fluids - maintaining systemic MAP >65mmHg requires a PRESSOR
26
what organisms can cause severe sepsis/septic shock?
- gram +/- bacteria, fungi, viruses, Rickettsia, parasites
27
what are some S/S of early septic shock?
tachycardia, bounding pulse, BP normal/low, skin warm/flushed, RR deep/fast, irritability, confusion, mental changes, oliguria, fever
28
what are some S/S of progressive, later, septic shock?
hypotension, tachycardia, pulse weak/thready, skin cool/pale, RR fast/slow, lethargy, coma, anuria, hypothermia
29
what are the hemodynamics of septic shock?
increased: CO/CI, SvO2, O2 delivery decreased: RA, PA, PAOP, SVR, O2 consumption
30
what are the hemodynamics of progressive, late, septic shock?
increased: RA, PA, PCWP, decreased: CO/CI, O2 delivery, O2 consumption variable: SVR, SVO2
31
what are the diagnostic test results for septic shock?
- mild resp alkalosis, combined respiratory alkalosis and metabolic acidosis - increased: PT/PTT, bands, glucose, lactate, troponin - decreased: PaO2, plt WBC up/down
32
what are the diagnostic test results for progressive, late septic shock?
- metabolic acidosis - very high: PT/PTT, bands - increased: BUN, creatinine, liver enzymes, lactate, troponin - very low: PaO2, plt - decreased: WBC, glucose
33
what is the treatment for septic shock?
- fluid challenge: 30ml/kg of crystalloid in first 3 hrs - pressers prn (NOREPI/LEVO, EPI, VASO) - ABX asap after blood cx X2 from different sites - inotropes (DOBUTAMINE) - for pts with cardiac dysfunction - SpO2 >95%; SvO2>65% when CVP and MAP goals met or ScvO2 >70% - if ScvO2 or SvO2 not achieved, consider further fluids, dobutamine infusion, or PRBC transfusion if hgb <7
34
what are the therapeutic endpoints for septic shock?
- CVP 8-12mmHg - MAP >65mmHg - UO >0.5ml/kg/hr - ScvO2>70% or SvO2>65% - normalization of HR - warm extremities - normal mental status - decreased lactate/improved base deficit
35
what happens in anaphylactic shock?
- IgE MEDIATED immediate hypersensitivity reaction to PROTEIN substances - usually occurs after previous exposure to substance - hives, angioedema in 88%, respiratory tract involvement in 50%, shock in 30%
36
what is the pathophysiology of anaphylactic shock?
antigen antibody reaction--> histamine released-->increase capillary permeability, massive dilation, decreased CO, bronchospasm, laryngeal edema, urticaria-->hypotension
37
how is anaphylactic shock treated?
- removal of causative agent, if able - O2 - epi IM to decrease dilation, bronchospasm - fluids 1-4L for hypovolemia - Benadryl 25-50mg IV to decrease allergic response - inhaled B-adrenergic agents to decrease bronchospasm - steroids (high dose) IV asap to decrease inflammatory response
38
what is multiple organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS)?
- progressive insufficiency of 2 or more organs in an acutely ill patient such that homeostasis can't be maintained without intervention - may be due to any type of shock
39
what is the trauma 1st and 2nd line assessment?
Airway - ensure patent/intubate Breathing - 100% O2 Circulation - 2 large bore IVs with warm LR Disability - neuro exam Exposure/Environmental - remove clothes; warm/cool prn Full set VS Give comfort measures - pain Hx Inspect posterior
40
the patient who is agitated should first receive analgesia-first sedation or anxiolytic? light/moderate/heavy level?
analgesia-first sedation; light bc improved clinical outcomes
41
what should you know about Benzo reversal with Flumazenil (Romazicon)?
reversal effects of flumazenil may were off before effects of benzos; therefore, monitor for return of sedation, respiratory depression for at least 2 hrs and until the pt is stable and resedation is unlikely
42
what are some adverse effects of Diazepam (valium)?
respiratory depression, hypotension, phlebitis
43
what are some adverse effects of lorazepam (Ativan)?
respiratory depression, hypotension, propylene glycol-related acidosis/renal failure
44
what are some adverse effects of midazolam (versed)?
respiratory depression, hypotension
45
what are some adverse effects of propofol (diprivan?
pain on injection, respiratory depression, hypotension, hypertriglyceridemia, pancreatitis, allergic reactions, propofol-related infusion syndrome *give loading dose if hypotension unlikely to occur
46
what are some adverse effects of dexmedetomidine (precedex)?
bradycardia, hypotension; hypertension with loading dose; loss of airway reflexes *avoid loading dose of hemodynamically unstable
47
fentanyl (sublimaze) has more/less hypotension than morphine? accumulation with what organ impairment(s)?
less; hepatic
48
what should you give to patients tolerant to morphine/fentanyl? accumulation with what organ impairment(s)?
dilaudid; hepatic/renal
49
morphine has what kind of release? has the potential for what adverse effect? accumulation with what organ impairment(s)?
histamine; potential hypotension; hepatic/renal impairment
50
when should remifentanil (ultiva) be used?
use IBW if body weight > 130% IBW | no accumulation in hepatic/renal failure
51
What is Therapeutic hypothermia?
Treatment that lowers the patient's core body temp in order to prevent neurological effects of ischemic injury to the brain of survivors of sudden cardiac death
52
What is the inclusion criteria for use of therapeutic hypothermia?
- cardiac arrest with ROSC - unresponsive or not following commands after cardiac arrest - witnessed arrest with downtime of <60min
53
What is the exclusion criteria for use of therapeutic hypothermia?
Pregnancy, core temp <35C, age <18 or >85, existing DNR or terminal, CKD, sustained refractory ventricular arrhythmias, active bleeding, shock, hemodynamic instability, drug intoxication
54
what is the induction phase?
- 33C; initiate w/i 90min of arrest, may go out to 6hrs of arrest - goal SBP >90mmHg and MAP >70mmHg - CBC, CMP, coags, Mg, Phos, ABG, glucose - 12 lead ECG - deep sedation - paralytic for shivering - monitor/manage systemic effects of hypothermia
55
what are systemic effects of hypothermia?
- insulin resistence --> hyperglycemia - electrolyte and fluid shifts - shivering - skin breakdown - decreased CO; up to 25% - alteration in coagulation; plt dysfunction - increased risk for infection - neutrophil and macrophage functions decrease at temps <35C
56
what is the maintenance phase (24hrs at 33C)?
- continuous temp - monitor VS qhr - bedside glucose; insulin gtt prn - monitor train of 4 qhr if paralytic used with goal twitch 1-2 to prevent prolonged paralyzation - labs q8h until rewarmed
57
what is the rewarming phase?
- passive rewarming to 36.5C - increase target temp by 1C/hr - stop all K administration 8 hrs prior to rewarming; rewarming causes rebound hyperkalemia - d/c paralytics (if used) after pt is warmed to 36.5C - repeat labs when pt rewarmed - close neuro assessment
58
what should you do during toxic ingestion?
ABCs FOR INITIAL MANAGEMENT - if comatose, give 50% dextrose 50mL, thiamine 50-100mg, narcan 2mg IV - activated charcoal 1gm/kg via gastric lavage; contraindicated with hydrocarbon or corrosive ingestions, not necessary with iron, lithium, EtOH - facilitate removal of drug - urine alkalization, HD - monitor for arrhythmias - monitor UO
CCRN
flashcards
Decks in class (10)
# Cards
Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2026 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions