Neuro I & II Flashcards by Jojo Barnes-Jones

How would a chronic subdural hematoma appear on CT scans?

A. Well-defined and hyperdense compared with normal
adjacent brain
B. Isodense with normal brain
C. Well-defined and hypodense in comparison with
normal adjacent brain
D. Hypodense with production of widening of the
cortical sulci

C. Well-defined and hypodense in comparison with normal

adjacent brain

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What is the most common primary intracranial CNS tumor?

A. Meningioma
B. Glioblastoma multiform
C. Anaplastic astrocytoma
D. Low-grade astrocytoma

B. Glioblastoma multiform

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Stroke is also known as….

A. ischemic cerebrovascular disease
B. ischemic cerebellar disease
C. cardiovascular arthrosis
D. no correct answer listed

A. ischemic cerebrovascular disease

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Which one of the following imaging techniques is considered superior in the evaluation of musculoskeletal tumors arising in soft tissues?

A. Radiographs
B. DxUS
C. CT
D. MRI

D. MRI

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Which of the following is FALSE concerning dermoid cysts?

A. Intracranially, these tumors are more common than
epidermoid cysts.
B. Clinically, they usually present in the third decade of
life.
C. Dermoid cysts typically demonstrate marked
hyperintensity on short TR/TE images and
hypointensity on long TE images.
D. The cysts may rupture.

A. Intracranially, these tumors are more common than epidermoid cysts.

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Choose the correct statement regarding multiple sclerosis

A. most commonly found in developing countries
B. involves spinal cord plaques
C. does not have any significant imaging findings
D. no correct answer listed

B. involves spinal cord plaques

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Hormone(s) secreted by the posterior pituitary include

A. prolactin
B. antidiuretic hormone
C. growth hormone
D. follicle stimulating hormone

B. antidiuretic hormone

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What is the most common posterior fossa tumor in children?

A. Cerebellar astrocytoma
B. PNET-MB
C. Ependymoma
D. Brainstem glioma

A. Cerebellar astrocytoma

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The presence of an “empty thecal sac” appearance on axial sequences of the lumbar spine with epidural scars is characteristic for which of the following conditions?

A. Spinal dysraphism
B. Intradural intramedullary lesion
C. Arachnoiditis
D. Arachnoid cyst

C. Arachnoiditis

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The most common location for a conjoined nerve root is …

A. L3-L4
B. L4-L5
C. L5-S1
D. S1-S2

C. L5-S1

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Choose the correct statement regarding epidural hematomas

A. biconvex on CT imaging
B. between dura and arachnoid
C. most commonly found infratentorially
D. 2 of the above

A. biconvex on CT imaging

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An absent suptum pellucidum is associated with:

A. anosmia
B. holoprosencephaly
C. corpus callosum dysgenesis
D. B and C

D. B and C

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The pineal gland lies in the midline, and a displacement of______ abnormal and is most commonly due to____.

A. 2-mm; mass effect
B. 3-mm; mass effect
C. 2-mm; atrophy
D. 3-mm; atrophy

B. 3-mm; mass effect

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What is the most common location of supratentorial pilocytic or low-grade astrocytoma in children?

A. Cerebral hemisphere
B. Choroid plexus
C. Opticochiasmic-hypothalamic area
D. Pineal region

C. Opticochiasmic-hypothalamic area

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Which of the following is the most common site for intracranial saccular aneurysms?

A. Basilar artery bifurcation
B. Middle cerebral artery bifurcation
C. Anterior communicating artery
D. Posterior inferior cerebellar artery

C. Anterior communicating artery

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This is the most common location for chordomas in children and young adults.

A. Mandible
B. Spinal
C. Spheno-occipital
D. Sacrococcygeal

C. Spheno-occipital

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These are osseous structures that arise from independent ossification centers within cranial bones and are surrounded by their own sutures.

A. Sutural bone
B. Fonticular bone
C. Wormian bone
D. Intercalary bone

C. Wormian bone

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What is the most common source of infectious agents which hematogenously disseminate to the brain?

A. Paranasal sinus
B. Liver
C. Lung
D. Kidney

C. Lung

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What is the most common location for diffuse axonal injuries?

A. Midbrain
B. Deep white matter within the temporal lobe
C. Corticomedullary junction within the frontotemporal
region
D. Corticomedullary junction within the parietal region

C. Corticomedullary junction within the frontotemporal region

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The correct order of the development of the corpus callosum is

A. rostrum, genu, body, splenium
B. genu, body, splenium, rostrum
C. rostrum, body, splenium, genu
D. none of the above

B. genu, body, splenium, rostrum

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Choose the false statement

A. The mesencephalon develops into the pons and
cerebellum
B. The third and fourth cranial nerves orginate in the
midbrain
C. The tectum and tegmentum are separated by the
cerebral aqueduct
D. The thalamus is found on either side of the third
ventricle

A. The mesencephalon develops into the pons and cerebellum

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Which is the correct association with neurofibromatiosis type 2.

A. chromosome 12
B. chromosome 17
C. chromosome 19
D. chromosome 22

D. chromosome 22

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The classic plain film finding in cytomegalovirus is…

A. Microcephaly with egg-shell-like periventricular
calcification
B. Macrocephaly with egg-shell-like periventricular
calcification
C. Microcephaly with cerebral atrophy
D. Macrocephaly with cerebral atrophy

A. Microcephaly with egg-shell-like periventricular calcification

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Choose the incorrect statement regarding choroid plexus tumors

A. the most common type is papillomas
B. most commonly found in adults
C. found in the atrium of the lateral ventricle in children
D. uncommon location is the third ventricle

B. most commonly found in adults

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What is the name given a handle-like osseous protruberance found along the posterior edge of the foramen magnum in the newborn?

A. Suboccipital process
B. Occipital ridge
C. Crista occipitalis
D. Process of Kerkring

D. Process of Kerkring

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The most common suprasellar mass found in a child is what?

A. meningioma
B. pituitary ademona
C. craniopharyngioma
D. none of the above

C. craniopharyngioma

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Which one of the following is NOT a component of the triad of tuberous sclerosis?

A. Papular facial lesions
B. Seizures
C. Retinal phakomas
D. Mental retardation

C. Retinal phakomas

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Which of the following is a feature of a Dandy-Walker syndrome?

A. Large posterior fossa
B. Hydrocephalus in 10% of cases
C. Corpus callosum agenesis in 90% of cases
D. No cephaloceles

A. Large posterior fossa

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Which chromosome location is associated with NF-I?

A. Chromosome 21
B. Chromosome 17
C. Chromosome 13
D. Chromosome 5

B. Chromosome 17

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Which of the following are the expected MRI signal intensities of an infratentorial astrocytoma?

A. Hypointense on T1; hyperintense on T2
B. Hyperintense on T1; hypointense on T2
C. Hyperintense on T1; hyperintense on T2
D. Hypointense on T1; hypointense on T2

A. Hypointense on T1; hyperintense on T2

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Choose the correct statement

A. pineal calcification is common in people over 40
years of age
B. choroid calcificaiton is common in people over 40
years of age
C. basal ganglion calcification is uncommon in people
under 40 years of age
D. all statements are correct

D. all statements are correct

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Vertical division of the cord or cauda equina by a septum with possible osseous defects, such as interpediculate widening with either complete or partial fusion of the vertebral bodies is seen in the condition…

A. Sacral agenesis
B. Syringomyelia
C. Myelomeningocele
D. Diastematomyelia

D. Diastematomyelia

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Dorsal induction is best described as…

A. Formation of the brain and coccyx
B. Formation of the brain and urinary system
C. Formation of the brain and gastrointestinal tract
D. Formation of the brain and spinal cord

D. Formation of the brain and spinal cord

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Plexiform neurofibromas

A. are a hallmark of neurofibromatosis 1
B. are tortuous masses found along major nerves,
especially cranial nerve V(1)
C. are found in 1/3 of patients with neurofibromatosis I
D. all of the above

D. all of the above

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The most common form of CNS infection is…

A. Varicella
B. Toxoplasmosis
C. Cytomegalovirus
D. Meningitis

D. Meningitis

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Which clinical aspect does not fit into the classic picture of Chiari I malformation?

A. Abnormal vermis
B. Cerebellar tonsils displaced inferiorly
C. Fourth ventricle normal
D. Medulla normal

A. Abnormal vermis

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The signs and symptoms of hypertensive encephalopathy include

A. visual disturbances
B. headache
C. altered mental status
D. all of the above

D. all of the above

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How would one expect a chronic subdural hematoma to appear on CT scan?

A. Isodense with normal brain
B. Hypodense with production of widening of the
cortical sulci
C. Well-defined and hypodense on comparison with
normal adjacent brain
D. Well-defined and hyperdense compared with normal
adjacent brain

C. Well-defined and hypodense on comparison with normal adjacent brain

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Late subacute clots are…

A. Isointense with on TIWI and hyperintense on T2WI
B. Isointense with on TIWI and hypointense on TWI
C. Hyperintense on TIWI and hypointense on T2WI
D. Hyperintense on TIWI and hyperintense on T2WI

D. Hyperintense on TIWI and hyperintense on T2WI

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The most common cause of brain infarction is…

A. Compression on vascular vessel by a neighboring tumor
B. Arteritis
C. Septic embolism
D. Atherosclerotic disease

D. Atherosclerotic disease

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Choose the correct statement regarding vertebral hemangiomas

A. fast growing
B. most commonly occurs in the cervical spine
C. benign primary neoplasms of capillary, cavernours or
venous origin
D. all above are correct

C. benign primary neoplasms of capillary, cavernours or

venous origin

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This radiographic technique is useful in demonstrating air-fluid levels within the sphenoid sinus, which is an
indication of significant injury of the base of the skull.

A. PA Caldwell
B. AP Towne’s
C. Rhese Method
D. Horizontal-beam cross-table lateral

D. Horizontal-beam cross-table lateral

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What is the most common cause of symptoms in patients with subependymal giant cell astrocytoma?

A. Obstructive hydrocephalus
B. Hemiplegia
C. Hemianopsia
D. Leptomeningeal venous angiomatosis

A. Obstructive hydrocephalus

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An empty delta sign on CT imaging is characteristic of

A. vascular malformation
B. venous infarction
C. Sturge-Weber syndrome
D. Chiari 1 malformation

B. venous infarction

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In partial agenesis of the corpus callosum, which parts of the corpus callosum are generally spared?

A. Genu and body
B. Rostrum and splenium
C. Genu and rostrum
D. Body and splenium

A. Genu and body

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Which one of the following statements is false concerning hemangioblastomas?

A. 44% of all patients with von Hippel-Lindau syndrome
eventually develop a CNS hemangioblastoma.
B. Most become symptomatic during the 3rd and 5th
decades.
C. Hemangioblastoma is a common lesion of childhood.
D. The most common location is in the cerebellum

C. Hemangioblastoma is a common lesion of childhood.

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Which one of the following statements is false concerning meningiomas?

A. Sometimes meningiomas infiltrate adjacent dura.
B. Meningiomas can induce non-neoplastic reactive
dural changes.
C. Other lesions such as schwannoma, glioblastoma
multiforme, and metastases occasionally are
associated with a dural tail.
D. The “dural tail sign” is pathognomonic for
meningioma.

D. The “dural tail sign” is pathognomonic for meningioma.

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A patient that demonstrates the classical clinical triad of epileptic seizures, mental retardation and hamartomatous soft tissue lesions can also demonstrates all of the following radiographic findings except…

A. Intracranial calcifications
B. Marginal articular erosions
C. Undulating cortical contour of the short bones of the
hand
D. Blastic deposits within the pelvis and spine

B. Marginal articular erosions

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Acute clots are…

A. Isointense with on T1WI and hyperintense on T2WI
B. Isointense with on T1WI and hypointense on T2WI
C. Hyperintense on T1WI and hypointense on TWI
D. Hyperintense on T1WI and hyperintense on T2WI

B. Isointense with on T1WI and hypointense on T2WI

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A Jefferson fracture

A. involves the anterior and posterior arches
B. is the most common injury to C2
C. is also known as Hangman’s fracture
D. none of the above statements are correct

A. involves the anterior and posterior arches

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Which is NOT visualized on a Water’s projection?

A. Maxillary sinuses
B. Foramen rotundum
C. Petrous pyramids lying immediately inferior to the floor of the maxillary sinuses
D. Sphenoid sinuses

D. Sphenoid sinuses

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Which one of the following is not a differential for a “button sequestrum”?

A. Paget’s disease
B. Tuberculosis
C. Radiation
D. Metastasis

A. Paget’s disease

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What is the most common type of aneurysm within the calvarium?

A. Berry aneurysm
B. Atherosclerotic (fusiform) aneurysm
C. Mycotic aneurysm
D. Post-traumatic aneurysm

A. Berry aneurysm

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Myelomeningoceles, beaked tectum, and hydrocephalus are clinical findings associated with

A. chiari I malformation
B. chiari Il malformation
C. Dandy-Walker malformation
D. none of the above

B. chiari Il malformation

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How would one expect a subacute subdural hematoma to appear on MRI?

A. Variable, usually hyperintense on T2WI,
iso/hypointense on TIWI
B. Isointense on T1, iso/hyperintense on T2WI
C. iso/moderately hypointense on T1, very hypointense
on T2WI
D. Hyperintense on both T1 and T2WI

D. Hyperintense on both T1 and T2WI

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The linear indentation or groove produced by the hard edge of the tentorium is termed

A. burst lobe
B. basilar impression
C. empty delta sign
D. Kernohan’s notch

D. Kernohan’s notch

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A scimitar appearance of the sacrum is demonstrated on the lateral radiograph of the lumbopelvic area. The most commonly associated condition is…

A. Spina bifida occulta
B. Diastematomyelia
C. Caudal regression syndrome
D. Meningocele

D. Meningocele

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The appropriate term for a “smooth brain” is…

A. Lissencephaly
B. Alobar holoprosencephaly
C. Lobar holoprosencephaly
D. Luckenschadel

A. Lissencephaly

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Premature closure of the saggital suture leads to which skull deformity?

A. Dolichocephaly
B. Brachycephaly
C. Oxycephaly
D. Turricephaly

A. Dolichocephaly

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What is the most common anterior third ventricle mass?

A. Meningioma
B. Choroid plexus papilloma
C. Colloid cyst
D. Subependymal giant cell astrocytoma

C. Colloid cyst

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A condition in which the top of the head is pointed (tower head) or conical owing to premature closure of the coronal and lambdoid sutures is known as…

A. Dolichocephaly
B. Brachycephaly
C. Oxycephaly
D. Microcephaly

C. Oxycephaly

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Approximately what percent of patients with Paget’s disease involving the skull will develop basilar invagination?

A. 10%
B. 25%
C. 33%
D. 50%

C. 33%

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The most frequently affected cranial nerve in NF-2 is…

A. V
B. VII
C. VIII
D. X

C. VIII

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Wormian bones found within the fontanelles are known as….

A. Fonticular bones
B. Intercalary bones
C. Inca bones
D. Apical bones

A. Fonticular bones

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Choose the correct statement regarding ependymomas

A. hypointense to brain on T2WI 
B. 100% calcify 
C. more common in adults 
D. infratentorial ependymomas most commonly found in 
    the fourth ventricle

D. infratentorial ependymomas most commonly found in the fourth ventricle

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Hyperacute blood clots are…

A. Isointense with gray matter on TIWI and hyperintense
on T2WI
B. Isointense with gray matter on TIWI and hypointense
on T2WI
C. Hyperintense on TIWI and hypointense on T2WI
D. Hyperintense on TIWI and hyperintense on T2WI

A. isointense with gray matter on TIWI and hyperintense on T2WI

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Broad spina bifida with thinned, dorsally everted, flared laminae and a sharply demarcated fluid filled sac that is
isodense or isointense with CSF and devoid of neural tissue describes…

A. Dorsal dermal sinus
B. Meningocele
C. Myelomeningocele
D. Spinal lipoma

B. Meningocele

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____ is the best screening tool for asymptomatic patients at risk for cerebral aneurysms.

A. transcranial ultrasound
B. computed tomographic angiography
C. conventional radiograph
D. none of the above

B. computed tomographic angiography

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Choose the correct statement regarding pyogenic spondylitis

A. the least common demographic is children
B. initially found in the subchondral vertebral body in
adults
C. most common organism to spinal infection is
Enterobacterium
D. infection most commonly occurs in the cervical spine

B. initially found in the subchondral vertebral body in

adults

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A lesion, which contains solely leptomeninges, according to Osborn is properly termed alan…

A. Cephalocele
B. Meningocele
C. Meningoencephalocele
D. Meckel syndrome

B. Meningocele

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What is the most common intracranial location for dermoid cysts?

A. Cerebellopontine angle
B. Parasellar region
C. Midline within the posterior fossa
D. Cisterna magna

C. Midline within the posterior fossa

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Hydrocephalus is observed in_____ % of Dandy-Walker malformation.

A. 20%
B. 50%
C. 80%
D. 100%

C. 80%

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Common supratentorial tumors in adults include

A. gliobastoma multiforme
B. choroid plexus papilloma
C. PNET
D. A and B

A. gliobastoma multiforme

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What is the most common location of arachnoid cysts in the cranium?

A. Anterior cranial fossa
B. Middle cranial fossa
C. Posterior cranial fossa
D. Paranasal sinuses

B. Middle cranial fossa

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What is the most common nontraumatic cause of intracranial hemorrhage in adults?

A. Eclampsia
B. Preeclampsia
C. SLE
D. Hypertension

D. Hypertension

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What is the most frequent cause of congenital infections?

A. Toxoplasmosis
B. Cytomegalovirus
C. Herpes simplex
D. Rubella

B. Cytomegalovirus

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Which one of the following diseases will give a “raindrop skull” appearance?

A. Neuroblastoma
B. Multiple myeloma
C. Lymphoma
D. Paget’s disease

B. Multiple myeloma

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Clinical ataxia, occlusion/infarct of the vertebral artery and Horner syndrome describe

A. Wallerian degeneration
B. Wallenburg syndrome
C. Rendu-Osler-Weber disease
D. leukodystrophy

B. Wallenburg syndrome

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Which is not a pattern of white matter lesions on MR imaging in tuberous sclerosis?

A. Straight bands
B. Conglomerate foci
C. Cerebellar radial bands
D. Pons nodules

D. Pons nodules

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What is the most common posterior fossa site for intracranial lipomas?

A. Cerebellum hemispheres
B. Vermis
C. 4th ventricle
D. cerebellopontine angle

D. cerebellopontine angle

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The hallmark of NF-2 is/are…

A. Bilateral acoustic schwannomas
B. Unilateral acoustic schwannomas
C. Cord ependymomas
D. Meningiomas

A. Bilateral acoustic schwannomas

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Subependymal giant cell astrocytomas

A. is grade IV (WHO)
B. found in the temporal lobe
C. found at the Foramen of Monro
D. occurs with Sturge Weber syndrome

C. found at the Foramen of Monro

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The type of edema seen first in the brain following infarcts is…

A. Vasogenic edema
B. Cytotoxic edema
C. Hemorrhagic edema
D. Traumatic edema

B. Cytotoxic edema

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During normal brain development the neural tube develops at about 18 days gestation. Which portion of the neural tube will become the future brain?

A. The proximal 1/6
B. The proximal
C. The proximal 1/3
D. The proximal 2/3

D. The proximal 2/3

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This disease process produces the “lantern jaw”.

A. Acromegaly
B. Syphilis
C. Cushing’s disease
D. Hypopituitarism

A. Acromegaly

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Over 75% of strokes occur in the

A. anterior cerebral artery
B. middle cerebral artery
C. posterior cerebral artery
D. basilar artery

B. middle cerebral artery

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Which of the following conditions would least likely produce an intramedullary spinal mass on MRI?

A. Hematoma
B. Post-radiation myelopathy
C. Ependymoma
D. Meningioma

D. Meningioma

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Choose the best answer(s) regarding cerebrospinal fluid

A. CSF production is approximately 150mL per day
B. CSF flow runs from the chroid plexi in the lateral
ventricles via the foramen of Magendie
C. The arachnoid villi absorb CSF
D. In elderly persons the CSF volume decreases

C. The arachnoid villi absorb CSF

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This complication may occur if a portion of arachnoid becomes interposed through a dural tear and becomes
entrapped in a fracture of the cranium.

A. Pneumocephalus
B. Cerebrospinal fluid rhinorrhea
C. Cerebrospinal fluid otorrhea
D. Leptomeningeal cyst

D. Leptomeningeal cyst

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Choose the acceptable reasons for the use of enhancement in advanced imaging

A. to distinguish between scar and disk in a
postoperative back
B. to asses the full extent of disease in an infectious and
inflammatory condition
C. evaluate the spinal cord to rule out tumor
D. all of the above

D. all of the above

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Which is NOT a part of the evaluation criteria for a Caldwell view?

A. Petrous ridge should lie in the lower third of the orbit.
B. Anterior ethmoid air cells should lie below the
petrous ridges.
C. Frontal sinuses should lie above the frontonasal
suture.
D. Frontal and anterior ethmoid sinuses should be
visualized clearly.

B. Anterior ethmoid air cells should lie below the petrous

ridges.

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Which of the following is a feature that differentiates epidural hematomas from subdural hematomas?

A. Epidural hematomas may not cross a suture
B. Acute (1-3 days old) epidural hematomas will appear
isodense on CT
C. Only subdural hematomas will exhibit a mass effect
D. Large feeding vessels are seen to the epidural
hematomas

A. Epidural hematomas may not cross a suture

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Which myelographic finding is characteristic of an intramedullary mass within the spinal canal?

A. Fusiform enlargement of the cord, usually withint
complete block
B. Eccentric enlargement of the cord with displacement
C. Complete block of the canal due to an extradural
mass
D. Total block of flow is always seen

A. Fusiform enlargement of the cord, usually withint complete block

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The presence of multiple subcortical infarcts with associated white matter ischemic changes and a slow progressive dementia is called…

A. Alzheimer’s disease
B. Multiple sclerosis
C. Necrotizing leukoencephalopathy
D. Binswanger’s disease

D. Binswanger’s disease

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Which of the following is not part of a Chiari Il malformation?

A. Low-lying torcular Herophili
B. Colpocephaly
C. Myelomeningocele in 30%
D. Fenestrated falx

C. Myelomeningocele in 30%

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Which of the following statements is false concerning cysticercosis?

A. It is the most common parasitic infection of the
human CNS worldwide.
B. Humans are the only definitive host.
C. The racemose form develops when subarachnoid
cysts become multiloculated, resembling a “cluster of
grapes”.
D. The racemose cyst usually calcifies after
degeneration.

D. The racemose cyst usually calcifies after degeneration.

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Choose the false statement

a. The mesencephalon develops into the pons and
cerebellum
b. The third and fourth cranial nerves orginate in the
midbrain
c. The tectum and tegmentum are separated by the
cerebral aqueduct
d. The thalamus is found on either side of the third
ventricle

Grossman, RI, Yousem, DM: Neuroradiology The Requisites, ed 2, Philadelphia, Mosby, 2003, pg 40

a. The mesencephalon develops into the pons and

cerebellum

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A neurological error/insult during neuronal migration may result in

A. lissencephaly
B. schizencephaly
C. polymicrogyria
D. all of the above

Grossman, RI, Yousem, DM: Neuroradiology The Requisites, ed 2, Philadelphia, Mosby, 2003, pg 7

all of the above

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Pick 2

A disorder associated with ventral induction (MACA)

a. alobar holoprosencephaly
b. Dandy-Walker malformation
d. Chiari malformation
e. Schizencephaly

Osborn, AG: Diagnostic Neuroradiology, St. Loius, Mosby, 1994, pg 12-13

a. alobar holoprosencephaly

b. Dandy-Walker malformation

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Choose the false statement regarding Chiari I malformation

a. also known as congenital tonsillar ectopia
b. frequently an incidental finding on cervical imaging
c. syringomyelia is an associated anomaly
d. more common in males

Osborn, AG: Diagnostic Neuroradiology, St. Loius, Mosby, 1994, pg 16-18

Grossman, RI, Yousem, DM: Neuroradiology The Requisites, ed 2, Philadelphia,

Mosby, 2003, pg 436

d. more common in males

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Myelomeningoceles, beaked tectum, and hydrocephalus are clinical findings associated with

a. chiari I malformation
b. chiari II malformation
c. Dandy-Walker malformation
d. none of the above

Osborn, AG: Diagnostic Neuroradiology, St. Loius,

Mosby, 1994, pg 19

b. chiari II malformation

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Choose the incorrect statement regarding choroid plexus tumors

a. the most common type is papillomas
b. most commonly found in adults
c. found in the atrium of the lateral ventricle in children
d. uncommon location is the third ventricle

Osborn, AG: Diagnostic Neuroradiology, St. Loius, Mosby, 1994, pg 403

b. most commonly found in adults

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Common supratentorial tumors in adults include

a. gliobastoma multiforme
b. choroid plexus papilloma
c. PNET
d. A and B

Osborn, AG: Diagnostic Neuroradiology, St. Loius, Mosby, 1994, pg 408

gliobastoma multiforme

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An absent septum pellucidum is associated with:

a. anosmia
b. holoprosencephaly
c. corpus callosum dysgenesis
d. B and C

Osborn, AG: Diagnostic Neuroradiology, St. Loius,
Mosby, 1994, pg 422

B and C

b. holoprosencephaly
c. corpus callosum dysgenesis

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The most common posterior fossa tumor in children is

a. medulloblastoma
b. cerebellar (juvenile) pilocytic astrocytoma
c. ependymoma brainstem
d. glioma

Osborn, AG: Diagnostic Neuroradiology, St. Loius, Mosby, 1994, pg 434

b. cerebellar (juvenile) pilocytic astrocytoma

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Choose the false statement regarding cerebellar pontine angle cistern masses

a. most common mass is the acoustic schwannoma
b. more common in adults
c. most common mass has “ice cream cone” appearance
on T1 MRI
d. all of the above are correct

Osborn, AG: Diagnostic Neuroradiology, St. Loius, Mosby, 1994, pg 438-441

all of the above are correct

Ddx CPA MASS

S-chwannoma
A-rachnoid cyst
M-eningioma
E-pidermoid Cyst

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Hormone(s) secreted by the posterior pituitary include

a. prolactin
b. anti-diuretic hormone
c. growth hormone
d. follicle stimulating hormone

Osborn, AG: Diagnostic Neuroradiology, St. Loius, Mosby, 1994, pg 464

b. anti-diuretic hormone

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The most common suprasellar mass found in a child is what?

a. meningioma
b. pituitary adenoma
c. craniopharyngioma
d. none of the above

Osborn, AG: Diagnostic Neuroradiology, St. Loius, Mosby, 1994, pg 472

c. craniopharyngioma

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Subependymal giant cell astrocytomas is

a. grade IV (WHO)
b. found in the temporal lobe
c. found at the Foramen of Monroe
d. occurs with Sturge Weber syndrome

Osborn, AG: Diagnostic Neuroradiology, St. Loius, Mosby, 1994, pg 562-563

c. found at the Foramen of Monroe

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These tumors are the most common intracranial tumor to calcify, more common in adults and their cells have a “fried egg appearance”

a. schwannomas
b. oligodenogliomas
c. glioblastoma multiforme
d. meningiomas

Osborn, AG: Diagnostic Neuroradiology, St. Loius, Mosby, 1994, pg 564

b. oligodenogliomas

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Premature closure of the sagittal suture leads to which skull deformity?

a. Dolichocephaly
b. Brachycephaly
c. Oxycephaly
d. Turricephaly

a. Dolichocephaly

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A condition in which the top of the head is pointed (tower head) or conical owing to premature closure of the coronal and lambdoid sutures is known as…

a. Dolichocephaly
b. Brachycephaly
c. Oxycephaly
d. Microcephaly

c. Oxycephaly

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Which one of the following skull deformities is associated with Marfan’s syndrome?

a. Dolichocephaly
b. Brachycephaly
c. Oxycephaly
d. Turricephaly

Yochum P 608

a. Dolichocephaly

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Which of the following syndromes will result in developmental asymmetry of the cranium?

a. Dandy-Walker syndrome
b. Arnold-Chiari syndrome
c. Dyke-Davidoff-Masson syndrome
d. Achondroplasia

c. Dyke-Davidoff-Masson syndrome

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Which one of the following is not a differential for wormian bones?

a. Osteogenesis imperfecta
b. Cleidocranial dysplasia
c. Acro-osteolysis (Pyknodysostosis)
d. Osteopetrosis

Chapman. 2nd ed. P 337

d. Osteopetrosis

PORKCHOPS mnemonic

P - pyknodysostosis
O - osteogenesis imperfecta
R - rickets
K - kinky hair syndrome
C - cleidocranial dysostosis
H - hypothyroidism/hypophosphatasia
O - otopalatodigital syndrome
P - primary acroosteolysis (Hajdu-Cheney)/pachydermoperiostosis/progeria
S - syndrome of Downs

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Which one of the following is not a characteristic of pyknodysostosis?

a. Premature closure of the cranial sutures
b. Wormian bones.
c. Small face
d. Thick and sclerotic skull base

Ref. Resnick P. 4204

a. Premature closure of the cranial sutures

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Which one of the following dysplasias gives a “hot cross bun” appearance in the skull?

a. Osteopetrosis
b. Cleidocranial dysplasia
c. Pyknodysostosis
d. Osteogenesis imperfecta

Ref. Yochum P 589

b. Cleidocranial dysplasia

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The “tam-o’shanter” skull may be observed in which one of the following?

a. Osteopetrosis
b. Cleidocranial dysplasia
c. Pyknodysostosis
d. Osteogenesis imperfecta

Ref. Resnick P 4115

d. Osteogenesis imperfecta

Also used to describe changes in the skull with Pagets
https://radiopaedia.org/articles/tam-o-shanter-sign-skull?lang=us

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Which one of the following skull findings is not observed in NF-I?

a. Microcephaly
b. Hypoplasia of the greater sphenoid ala
c. Calvarial defect within the left lambdoid suture
d. Enlargement of the internal auditory canals

Ref. Osborn P 82

a. Microcephaly

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Which of the following is a disorder of primary neurulation?

a. Chiari malformations
b. Diastematomyelia
c. Dermal sinus
d. Tethered cord

Ref. Osborn P 12

a. Chiari malformations

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Lissencephaly is a disorder of…

a. Primary neurulation
b. Cellular migration
c. Neural organization
d. Myelination

Ref. Osborn P 13

b. Cellular migration

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Lissencephaly is a disorder of…

a. Primary neurulation
b. Cellular migration
c. Neural organization
d. Myelination

Ref. Osborn P 13

b. Cellular migration

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Which clinical aspect does not fit into the classic picture of Chiari I malformation?

a. Abnormal vermis
b. Cerebellar tonsils displaced inferiorly
c. Fourth ventricle normal
d. Medulla normal

Ref. Osborn P 16-18

a. Abnormal vermis

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Which of the following is not part of a Chiari II malformation?

a. Low-lying torcular herophili
b. Colpocephaly
c. Myelomeningocele in 30%
d. Fenestrated falx

Ref. Osborn P 19

d. Myelomeningocele in 30%

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A lesion, which contains solely leptomeninges, according to Osborn is properly termed a/an…

a. Cephalocele
b. Meningocele
c. Meningoencephalocele
d. Meckel syndrome

Ref. Osborn P 24

b. Meningocele

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Which of the following best describes the Chiari III malformation?

a. Hypoplasia of the cerebellum
b. Low occipital or high cervical encephalocele in
combination with features of the Chiari II malformation. c. Low occipital or high cervical encephalocele in
combination with features of the Chiari I malformation. d. Cystic dilatation of the fourth ventricle and an
enlarged posterior fossa with upward displacement of
the lateral sinuses, tentorium, and torcular herophili
with varying degrees of vermian aplasia or hypoplasia.

Ref. Osborn P 24

b. Low occipital or high cervical encephalocele in

combination with features of the Chiari II malformation

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In partial agenesis of the corpus callosum, which parts of the corpus callosum are generally spared?

a. Genu and body
b. Rostrum and splenium
c. Genu and rostrum
d. Body and splenium

Ref. Osborn P 29

a. Genu and body

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Which is NOT a MRI manifestation of a typical Chiari II malformation?

a. Beaked Tectum
b. Large massa intermedia
c. Convex clivus
d. Low-lying torcular herophili

Ref. Osborn P 22

c. Convex clivus

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The appropriate term for a “smooth brain” is…

a. Lissencephaly
b. Alobar holoprosencephaly
c. Lobar holoprosencephaly
d. Luckenschadel

Ref. Osborn P 44

a. Lissencephaly

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Which of the following is a feature of a Dandy-Walker syndrome?

a. Large posterior fossa
b. Hydrocephalus in 10% of cases
c. Corpus callosum agenesis in 90% of cases
d. No cephaloceles

Ref. Osborn P 60

a. Large posterior fossa

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The appropriate name for conditions which present with a dysgenetic vermis which appears split or segmented is…

a. Kraabe disease
b. Joubert’s syndrome
c. Apert’s syndrome
d. Dandy-Walker variation

Ref. Osborn P 66

b. Joubert’s syndrome

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The disease entity dysplastic gangliocytoma of the cerebellum is also known as…

a. Macrocephaly
b. Lhemitte-Duclos disease
c. Dandy-Walker variant
d. Chiari IV malformation

Ref. Osborn P 69

b. Lhemitte-Duclos disease

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Hydrocephalus is observed in _________% of Dandy-Walker malformation.

``20%
50%
80%
100%

Ref. Osborn P 60

80%

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Which of the following is not a feature of the Dandy-Walker Variant?

a. Slightly to moderately enlarged fourth ventricle
b. Large posterior fossa
c. Hypoplastic inferior vermian lobules
d. Normal brainstem

Ref. Osborn P 63

b. Large posterior fossa

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Which one of the following is not a feature of the Chiari IV malformation?

a. Obstructive hydrocephalus
b. Absent or severely hypoplastic cerebellum
c. Small brainstem
d. Large posterior fossa cerebrospinal fluid spaces

Ref. Osborn P 66

a. Obstructive hydrocephalus

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Intracranial calcifications occur in what percentage of patients with tuberous sclerosis?

a. 5% to 10%
b. 20% to 30%
c. 50% to 80%
d. 80% to 100%

Ref. Resnick P 4355

c. 50% to 80%

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Which chromosome location is associated with NF-I?

a. Chromosome 21
b. Chromosome 17
c. Chromosome 13
d. Chromosome 5

Ref. Osborn P 73

b. Chromosome 17

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What is the most common spinal manifestation in NF-I?

a. Posterior vertebral body scalloping
b. Scoliosis
c. Meningoceles
d. Intradural extramedullary masses

Ref. Resnick P 4363

b. Scoliosis

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The hallmark of NF-2 is/are…

a. Bilateral acoustic schwannomas
b. Unilateral acoustic schwannomas
c. Cord ependymomas
d. Meningiomas

Ref. Osborn P 87

a. Bilateral acoustic schwannomas

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The most frequently affected cranial nerve in NF-2 is…

a. V
b. VII
c. VIII
d. X

Ref. Osborn P 87

c. VIII

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Which one of the following is NOT a component of the triad of tuberous sclerosis?

a. Papular facial lesions
b. Seizures
c. Retinal phakomas
d. Mental retardation

Ref. Osborn P 93

c. Retinal phakomas

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Which is not a pattern of white matter lesions on MR imaging in tuberous sclerosis?

a. Straight bands
b. Conglomerate foci
c. Cerebellar radial bands
d. Pons nodules

Ref. Osborn P 95

d. Pons nodules

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Encephalotrigeminal angiomatosis is a synonym for…

a. Tuberous sclerosis
b. Sturge-Webber syndrome
c. Von Hippel-Lindau syndrome
d. Von Recklinghausen’s disease

Ref. Osborn P 98

b. Sturge-Webber syndrome

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What pattern of intracranial calcification is seen in the Sturge-Webber syndrome?

a. Race track
b. Horse track
c. Tram-track
d. Shagreen patches

Ref. Osborn P 98

c. Tram-track

Von Hippel-Lindau syndrome is associated with which chromosome?

a. Chromosome 22
b. Chromosome 3
c. Chromosome 17
d. Chromosome 13

Ref. Osborn P 104

b. Chromosome 3

Multiple hamartoma syndrome is known as…

a. Cowden disease
b. Von Hippel-Lindau syndrome
c. Kraabe disease
d. Gardener’s syndrome

Ref. Osborn P 111

a. Cowden disease

Beyond the 3rd year of life, a patent frontal suture is referred to as…

a. Fronticulus metopicus
b. Fronticulus glabellaris
c. Metopic suture
d. Cranium bifidum occultum

Ref. Kohler/Zimmer P 302
UPDATE REFERENCE

c. Metopic suture

Which one of the following statements is false concerning Pacchionian depressions?

a. They are only seen in infants.
b. They are not detectable radiologically before the 7th
year of life.
c. They are most frequently observed in the frontal
region.
d. They increase in size parietally.

Ref. Kohler/Zimmer P 273
UPDATE REFERENCE

a. They are only seen in infants.

When does the calcium content of the calvarium reach its highest content?

a. 2nd decade
b. 3rd decade
c. 4th decade
d. 5th decade A. B. C. D.

Ref. Kohler/Zimmer P 275
UPDATE REFERENCE

b. 3rd decade

Parietal foramina are the result of…

a. Pacchionian granulations
b. Senile atrophy
c. Persistence of accessory sutures
d. Processus asteriacus

Ref. Kohler/Zimmer P 306

c. Persistence of accessory sutures

These are osseous structures that arise from independent ossification centers within cranial bones and are surrounded by their own sutures.

a. Sutural bone
b. Fonticular bone
c. Wormian bone
d. Intercalary bone

Ref. Kohler/Zimmer P 369

c. Wormian bone

Wormian bones found within fontanelles are known as….

a. Fonticular bones
b. Intercalary bones
c. Inca bones
d. Apical bones

Ref. Kohler/Zimmer P 311

a. Fonticular bones

Platybasia may be diagnosed when Martin’s basilar angle measures…

a. <121 degrees
b. <142 degrees
c. >152 degrees
d. >172 degrees

Ref. Yochum P 200

c. >152 degrees

A measurement between the tip of the dens and a line joining the tuberculum sellae to occipital protruberance possesses a specific value in determining the extent of a basilar hypoplasia. Give the name of this measurement.

a. Boogard’s angle
b. Klaus index
c. Power’s index
d. Vastine-Kinney method

Ref. Kohler/Zimmer P 369

b. Klaus index

START with question 6 in 1 of 17 Adv Neuro questions

What is the name given a handle-like osseous protruberance found along the posterior edge of the foramen magnum in the newborn?

a. Suboccipital process
b. Occipital ridge
c. Crista occipitalis
d. Process of Kerkring

Ref. Kohler/Zimmer P 362

d. Process of Kerkring

During normal brain development the neural tube develops at about 18 days gestation. Which portion of the neural tube will become the future brain?

a. The proximal 1/6
b. The proximal 1/4
c. The proximal 1/3
d. The proximal 2/3

Ref. Osborn P 5

d. The proximal 2/3

Dorsal induction is best described as…

a. Formation of the brain and coccyx
b. Formation of the brain and urinary system
c. Formation of the brain and gastrointestinal tract
d. Formation of the brain and spinal cord

Ref. Osborn P 15

d. Formation of the brain and spinal cord

Which of the following is a normal event during dorsal induction?

a. Formation of skull
b. Cleavage of prosencephalon
c. Formation of telencephalon
d. Formation of corpus callosum

Ref. Osborn P 13

a. Formation of skull

During the progression of rickets, continued accumulation of osteoid in the frontal and parietal regions results in the squared configuration known as…

a. Box head
b. Block head
c. Caraniotabes
d. Harrison’s skull

Ref. Resnick P 1894

c. Caraniotabes

An acromegaly-like syndrome has been associated with pachydermoperiostosis. Which is not a characteristic feature of this familial syndrome?

a. Coarsening of the facial features
b. Periosteal new bone formation
c. Enlarged sinuses
d. Enlargement of the sella turcica

Ref. Resnick P 1990

d. Enlargement of the sella turcica

This disease leads to an osteopenic and speckled appearance termed the “salt and pepper” skull.

a. Hypoparathyroidism
b. Hyperparathyroidism
c. Cushing’s disease
d. Heavy metal poisoning

Ref. Resnick P 2026

b. Hyperparathyroidism

The presence of an intracranial late chronic hemorrhage on CT is

a. iso/low T1; low T2
b. iso/low T1; high T2
c. high T1; low T2
d. high T1; low T2

Osborn, AG: Diagnostic Neuroradiology, St. Loius, Mosby, 1994, pg170

a. iso/low T1; low T2

The signs and symptoms of hypertensive encephalopathy include

a. visual disturbances
b. headache
c. altered mental status
d. all of the above

Osborn, AG: Diagnostic Neuroradiology, St. Loius, Mosby, 1994, pg 176-177

d. all of the above

An empty delta sign on CT imaging is characteristic of

a. vascular malformation
b. venous infarction
c. Sturge-Weber syndrome
d. Chiari I malformation

Osborn, AG: Diagnostic Neuroradiology, St. Loius, Mosby, 1994, pg 182

b. venous infarction

The empty delta sign is a CT sign of dural venous sinus thrombosis of the superior sagittal sinus, where contrast outlines a triangular filling defect, which represents thrombus.

It is only described with CECT-scan or MRI, not with NECT nor non-contrast MRI.

Stroke is

a. sudden loss of neurological function
b. caused by emboli
c. significant vessel narrowing considered when the
diameter is decreased by 50%
d. all of the above

Grossman, RI, Yousem, DM: Neuroradiology The Requisites, ed 2, pg 175-176

d. all of the above

What is the most common non-glial hemorrhagic primary intracranial tumor?

a. schwannoma
b. pituitary adenoma
c. pineal cell tumor
d. none of the above

Osborn, AG: Diagnostic Neuroradiology, St. Loius, Mosby, 1994, pg 190

b. pituitary adenoma

Choose the correct statement regarding epidural hematomas

a. biconvex on CT imaging
b. between dura and arachnoid
c. most commonly found infratentorially
d. 2 of the above

Osborn, AG: Diagnostic Neuroradiology, St. Loius, Mosby, 1994, pg 205

a. biconvex on CT imaging

The linear indentation or groove produced by the hard edge of the tentorium is termed

a. burst lobe
b. basilar impression
c. empty delta sign
d. Kernohan’s notch

Osborn, AG: Diagnostic Neuroradiology, St. Loius, Mosby, 1994, pg 230

d. Kernohan’s notch

Diffuse axonal injury is the most important cause of

a.	significant morbidity in patients with traumatic brain 
        injuries 
b.	may occur in the corpus callosum 
c.	may be hemorrhagic 
d.	all of the above are correct

Osborn, AG: Diagnostic Neuroradiology, St. Loius, Mosby, 1994, pg 212-214

d. all of the above are correct

Intracranial saccular aneurysms

a. are most commonly found at the Circle of Willis
b. has a male predominance
c. peak age of presentation is 25
d. A and B are correct

Osborn, AG: Diagnostic Neuroradiology, St. Loius, Mosby, 1994, pg 250

a. are most commonly found at the Circle of Willis

Atherosclerotic aneurysms are also known as

a. berry aneurysms
b. serpentine aneurysms
c. fusiform aneurysms
d. dissecting aneurysms

Osborn, AG: Diagnostic Neuroradiology, St. Loius, Mosby, 1994, pg 278

c. fusiform aneurysms

What is the most frequent cause of congenital infections?

a. Toxoplasmosis
b. Cytomegalovirus
c. Herpes simplex
d. Rubella

Ref. Osborn P 674

b. Cytomegalovirus

CHECK THIS REFERENCE

Which of the following does not make up part of the typical triad found in infants with congenital toxoplasmosis encephalitis?

a. Deafness
b. Hydrocephalus
c. Bilateral chorioretinitis
d. Intracranial calcifications

Ref. Osborn P 675

a. Deafness

Which is the correct statement?

a. A normal CT scan is the most common finding in
children with acute bacterial meningitis.
b. CNS complications develop in 10% of adults with
bacterial meningitis.
c. In children over the age of 7, the most common
type of meningitis is Hemophilus influenza.
d. CT scanning is the imaging modality of choice in
evaluating for bacterial meningitis.

Ref. Osborn P 680-682

a. A normal CT scan is the most common finding in

children with acute bacterial meningitis.

The most common form of CNS infection is…

a. Varicella
b. Toxoplasmosis
c. Cytomegalovirus
d. Meningitis

Ref. Osborn P 680

d. Meningitis

The classic plain film finding in cytomegalovirus is…

a. Microcephaly with egg-shell-like periventricular
calcification
b. Macrocephaly with egg-shell-like periventricular
calcification
c. Microcephaly with cerebral atrophy
d. Macrocephaly with cerebral atrophy

Ref. Osborn P 674

a. Microcephaly with egg-shell-like periventricular

calcification

What is the most common source of infectious agents which hematogenously disseminate to the brain?

a. Paranasal sinus
b. Liver
c. Lung
d. Kidney

Ref. Juhl & Crummy P 446

c. Lung

What is the most common opportunistic CNS infection in AIDS patients?

a. Cryptococcus
b. Neurocysticercosis
c. Toxoplasmosis
d. Schistosomiasis

Ref. Osborn P 698

c. Toxoplasmosis

Which of the following statements is false concerning cysticercosis?

a. It is the most common parasitic infection of the
human CNS worldwide.
b. Humans are the only definitive host.
c. The racemose form develops when subarachnoid
cysts become multiloculated, resembling a “cluster
of grapes”.
d. The racemose cyst usually calcifies after
degeneration.

Ref. Atlas P 757-760

d. The racemose cyst usually calcifies after

degeneration.

Hyperostosis Cranialis Interna is known as __________________________ when associated with obesity, virilization, headaches, and psychoneurologic disturbances.

a. Jaffe-Lichtenstein syndrome
b. Jaffe-Campanacci syndrome
c. Troell-Junet syndrome
d. Morgagni-Stewart-Morel syndrome

Ref. Kohler/Zimmer P 282

d. Morgagni-Stewart-Morel syndrome

Which one of the following is not a radiographic finding associated with Caffey’s disease?

a. Thickening of the calvarium
b. Destructive lesions that may simulate histiocytosis
or metastatic neuroblastoma
c. J-shaped sella turcica
d. Anterior fontanel involvement leading to the
appearance of increased intracranial pressure

Ref. Yochum P 607

c. J-shaped sella turcica

Extensive thickening of the cranial vault associated with marked diploic expansion and a hair-on-end appearance is most characteristic of which disease process?

a. Hereditary spherocytosis
b. Thalassemia major
c. Sickle cell anemia
d. Sickle cell-hemoglobin C disease

Ref. Resnick P 2129 & 2132

b. Thalassemia major

What is the most common intracranial site for enterogenous cysts?

a. Midline within the posterior fossa
b. Cerebellopontine angle and craniocervical junction
anterior to the brainstem
c. Cisterna magna
d. Parasellar region

Ref. Osborn P 649

b. Cerebellopontine angle and craniocervical junction

anterior to the brainstem

Which is the correct statement concerning sarcoidosis?

a. Primary CNS involvement often develops
b. Most commonly the disease appears as a
granulomatous leptomeningitis
c. Most commonly the disease manifests as multiple
diffuse parenchymal lesions
d. Most commonly the disease manifests as a dural
based mass.

Ref. Atlas P 448

a. Primary CNS involvement often develops

Note only 5% of Sarcoid patients have CNS symptoms.

With f/u imaging of pt. w/ known Sarcoid order MRI w/ C+
Enhancing WM lesions and/or meningeal enhancement (d/t granulomatous involvement of this anatomy)

What is the most common nasaopharyngeal tumor in adults?

a. Lymphoma
b. Fibrosarcoma
c. Squamous cell carcinoma
d. Chordoma

Ref. Osborn P 491

c. Squamous cell carcinoma

What is the most common site for extramedullary plasmacytoma?

a. Nasopharynx
b. Nasal cavity
c. Oral cavity
d. Tonsils

Ref. Yochum P 1006

a. Nasopharynx

This is the most common location for hemangioma of the skull.

a. Occiput bone
b. Temporal bone
c. Parietal bone
d. Frontal bone

Ref. Yochum P 1075

d. Frontal bone

This is the most common benign paranasal tumor.

a. Polyp
b. Osteoma
c. Giant cell tumor
d. Fibrous dysplasia

Ref. Juhl & Crummy 6th ed. P 1160

b. Osteoma

The geographic skull sign is visualized in which of the following diseases?

a. Eosinophilic granuloma
b. Hand-Schuller-Christian disease
c. Letterer-Siwe disease
d. Erdheim-Chester disease

Ref. Resnick P 2217

b. Hand-Schuller-Christian disease

Osteoporosis circumscripta of Paget’s disease is found most commonly in which bones?

a. Frontal or occipital bones
b. Tibia
c. Parietal bones
d. Temporal bones

Ref. Resnick P 1927

a. Frontal or occipital bones

Approximately what percent of patients with Paget’s disease involving the skull will develop basilar invagination?

a. 10%
b. 25%
c. 33%
d. 50%

Ref. Resnick P 1933

c. 33%

Which neoplasm complicating Paget’s disease has a predilection for the skull or the facial bones?

a. Chondrosarcoma
b. Plasma cell myeloma
c. Osteosarcoma
d. Giant cell tumor

Ref. Resnick P 1950

d. Giant cell tumor

A cystic lesion of the infratentorial region in a patient with Von-Hippel-Lindau disease probably represents…

a. Hemangioblastoma
b. Medulloblastoma
c. Astrocytoma
d. Oligodendroglioma

a. Hemangioblastoma

Which of the following is the most common source for osteoblastic metastasis to the skull?

a. Lung and cervix
b. Prostate and breast
c. Kidney and thyroid
d. Kidney and lung

Ref. Osborn P 514

b. Prostate and breast

Which one of the following diseases will give a “raindrop skull” appearance?

a. Neuroblastoma
b. Multiple myeloma
c. Lymphoma
d. Paget’s disease

Ref. Yochum P 1006

b. Multiple myeloma

This is the most common location for chordomas in children and young adults.

a. Mandible
b. Spinal
c. Spheno-occipital
d. Sacrococcygeal

Ref. Resnick P 3848

c. Spheno-occipital

What is the most common malignant lesion of the jaw?

a. Metastasis
b. Fibrosarcoma
c. Multiple myeloma
d. Chondrosarcoma

Ref. Juhl & Crummy 6th ed. P 1205

a. Metastasis

What is the most common cause of symptoms in patients with subependymal giant cell astrocytoma?

a. Obstructive hydrocephalus
b. Hemiplegia
c. Hemianopia
d. Leptomeningeal venous angiomatosis

Ref. Osborn P 98

a. Obstructive hydrocephalus

The most common non-glial primary tumor is…

a. Meningioma
b. Neurofibroma
c. Acoustic schwannoma
d. Mets

Ref. Osborn P 587

a. Meningioma

What is the most common intracranial tumor in the neonatal period?

a. PNET
b. Astrocytoma
c. Teratoma
d. Choroid plexus papilloma

Ref. Osborn P 406

c. Teratoma

What is the most common location of a supratentorial pilocytic or low-grade astrocytoma in children?

a. Cerebral hemisphere
b. Choroid plexus
c. Opticochiasmic-hypothalamic area
d. Pineal region

Ref. Osborn P 406

c. Opticochiasmic-hypothalamic area

What is the most common site for childhood medulloblastoma?

a. Cerebellar hemisphere
b. Vermis
c. Trigone
d. Fourth ventricle

Ref. Osborn P 407

b. Vermis

What is the most common primary malignancy to result in secondary pituitary neoplasms?

a. Lung
b. Prostate
c. Bladder
d. Breast

Ref. Osborn P 478

d. Breast

What is the most common primary tumor of the septum pellucidum?

a. Lymphoma
b. Astrocytoma
c. Germinoma
d. Medulloblastoma

Ref. Osborn P 426

b. Astrocytoma

What is the most common suprasellar tumor?

a. Meningioma
b. Craniopharyngioma
c. Suprasellar extension of a pituitary adenoma
d. Hypothalamic/chiasmatic glioma

Ref. Osborn P 472

c. Suprasellar extension of a pituitary adenoma

In an adult in general it is a Craniopharyngioma

What is the most common posterior fossa tumor in children?

a. Cerebellar astrocytoma
b. PNET-MB
c. Ependymoma
d. Brainstem glioma

Ref. Osborn P 434

a. Cerebellar astrocytoma

What is the most common primary intracranial CNS tumor?

a. Meningioma
b. Glioblastoma multiform
c. Anaplastic astrocytoma
d. Low-grade astrocytoma

Ref. Osborn P 541

b. Glioblastoma multiform

What is the most common site of intracranial germinomas?

a. Sellar/suprasellar region
b. Pineal gland
c. Trigone
d. Vermus

Ref. Osborn P 476

b. Pineal gland

What is the most common intracranial tumor to calcify?

a. Craniopharyngeoma
b. Hypothalamic-opticochiasmatic glioma
c. Meningioma
d. Oligodendroglioma

Ref. Osborn P 565

d. Oligodendroglioma

What is the most common genetic condition that predisposes to meningioma formation?

a. Tuberous sclerosis
b. Neurofibromatosis I
c. Neurofibromatosis II
d. Klippel-Trenaunay-Weber syndrome

Ref. Osborn P 585

c. Neurofibromatosis II

MISME lesions

What is the most common anterior third ventricle mass?

a. Meningioma
b. Choroid plexus papilloma
c. Colloid cyst
d. Subependymal giant cell astrocytoma

Ref. Osborn P 432

c. Colloid cyst

What is the second most common pineal gland germ cell tumor?

a. Germinoma
b. Embryonal carcinoma
c. Choriocarcinoma
d. Teratoma

d. Teratoma

What is the pathological hallmark of glioblastoma multiforme?

a. Inhomogeneous enhancement
b. Necrosis
c. Calcification
d. Hemorrhage

Ref. Osborn P 541

b. Necrosis

Which of the following are the expected MRI signal intensities of an infratentorial astrocytoma?

a. Hypointense on T1; hyperintense on T2
b. Hyperintense on T1; hypointense on T2
c. Hyperintense on T1; hyperintense on T2
d. Hypointense on T1; hypointense on T2

Ref. Juhl and Crummy P 431

a. Hypointense on T1; hyperintense on T2

What is the most common site of subependymal giant cell astrocytomas?

a. Trigone
b. Posterior third ventricle
c. Foramen of Monroe
d. Cerebellopontine angle

Ref. Osborn P 562

c. Foramen of Monroe

Meningiomas can mimic…

a. Schwnnomas
b. Gliomas
c. Metastases
d. All of the above

Ref. Osborn P 601

d. All of the above

Which one of the following statements is false concerning meningiomas?

a. Sometimes meningiomas infiltrate adjacent dura.
b. Meningiomas can induce nonneoplastic reactive
dural changes.
c. Other lesions such as schwannoma, glioblastoma
multiforme, and metastases occasionally are
associated with a dural tail.
d. The “dural tail sign” is pathognomonic for
meningioma.

Ref. Osborn P 600

d. The “dural tail sign” is pathognomonic for

meningioma.

Which one of the following statements is false concerning hemangioblastomas?

a. 44% of all patients with von Hippel-Lindau
syndrome
eventually develop a CNS hemangioblastoma.
b. Most become symptomatic during the 3rd and 5th
decades.
c. Hemangioblastoma is a common lesion of
childhood.
d. The most common location is in the cerebellum.

Ref. Osborn P 605-607

c. Hemangioblastoma is a common lesion of

childhood.

Which one of the following statements is false concerning germinoma?

a. They are formerly called atypical choriocarcinoma.
b. They make up approximately 67% of germ cell
tumors.
c. The pineal gland is the most common location.
d. They are usually isointense with gray matter on all
pulse sequences.

Ref. Osborn P 607-610

a. They are formerly called atypical choriocarcinoma.

Which one of the following statements is false concerning pineocytoma?

a. They are an uncommon tumor.
b. The average age at diagnosis is 34 years.
c. They closely resemble normal pineal gland
parenchyma on histologic examination.
d. They have characteristic imaging features that help
differentiate these lesions from other pineal
neoplasms.

Ref. Osborn P 612

d. They have characteristic imaging features that help
differentiate these lesions from other pineal
neoplasms.

Which of the following statements is false concerning pineoblastoma?

a. They are common benign tumors.
b. They are a primitive neuroectodermal tumor.
c. They occur in young patients.
d. They invade adjacent brain.

Ref. Osborn P 613.

a. They are common benign tumors.

Which of the following is false concerning medulloepithelioma?

a. It is the most undifferentiated of the primitive n
neuroectodermal tumors.
b. It is an uncommon neoplasm.
c. They occur in the 3rd to 5th decade of life.
d. They typically present with increasing head size.

Ref. Osborn P 613.

c. They occur in the 3rd to 5th decade of life.

The median age of diagnosis is 5 years old.

Which of the following is false concerning CNS lymphoma?

a. Primary CNS lymphoma manifests primarily in the
6th decade.
b. About 1/3 of individuals with systemic lymphoma
develop secondary brain or spinal involvement.
c. There is a propensity for leptomeningeal
involvement
d. The tumor frequently extends beyond the dura into
the skull and extracranial compartment.

Ref. Atlas P 448

d. The tumor frequently extends beyond the dura into

the skull and extracranial compartment.

Which of the following statements is false concerning extra-axial metastases?

a. Epidural metastases in adults are almost invariably
secondary to metastatic tumor in the adjacent skull.
b. The dura and leptomeninges present significant
barriers to contiguous spread of malignant tumors.
c. Leptomeningeal carcinomatosis, or carcinomatous
meningitis, is a common disorder which clinically is
manifested by a low-grade meningitis syndrome
accompanied by cranial pulsies, due to infiltration
of the subarachnoid space and the structure
around the base of the brain.
d. The major feature of epidural disease which allows
distinction from subdural tumor is the neoplastic
involvement of overlying calvarium.

Ref. Atlas P 452-455

c. Leptomeningeal carcinomatosis, or carcinomatous
meningitis, is a common disorder which clinically is
manifested by a low-grade meningitis syndrome
accompanied by cranial pulsies, due to infiltration of
the subarachnoid space and the structures around
the base of the brain.

What is the most common type of metastatic tumor to spread to dural sites?

a. Neuroblastoma
b. Breast
c. Lymphoma
d. Prostate

Ref. Atlas P 452

b. Breast

Which of the following statements is false concerning acoustic schwannoma?

a. Significant heterogeneity with cystic and/or
hemorrhagic regions on MRI is more typical of
meningioma than acoustic schwannoma.
b. There is usually an intracanalicular portion of the
tumor associated with a cisternal mass.
c. Lesions without intracanalicular extension cannot
usually be differentiated from meningiomas in the
cerebellopontine angle.
d. The widening of the internal auditory canal will
usually be appreciated best on axial images.

Ref. Atlas P 466-467

a. Significant heterogeneity with cystic and/or
hemorrhagic regions on MRI is more typical of
meningioma than acoustic schwannoma.

What is the most common site of metastases to the brain?

a. Dura
b. Gray matter
c. Corticomedullary junction
d. White matter

Ref. Osborn P 661

c. Corticomedullary junction

What is the most common suprasellar mass?

a. Craniopharyngioma
b. Macroadenoma
c. Arachnoid cyst
d. Astrocytoma

Ref. Osborn P 650

b. Macroadenoma

Again, in an adult it is Craniopharyngioma
> 50% of craniopharyngiomas occur in adults
occurs in high amounts in children.

Reference:

What is the most common pituitary adenoma?

a. Gonadotroph adenoma
b. Corticotroph adenoma
c. Growth hormone-cell adenoma
d. Prolactin-cell adenoma

Ref. Osborn P 650

d. Prolactin-cell adenoma

Which of the following statements is false concerning intracranial lipomas?

a. Less than 50% of all intracranial lipomas are
associated with specific brain malformations.
b. Between 80% and 95% occur at or near the
midline.
c. Calcification and ossification are common.
d. Tubulonodular lipomas have a high incidence of
associated corpus callosum dysgenesis, frontal
lobe anomalies, and cephaloceles.

Ref. Osborn P 636-638

a. Less than 50% of all intracranial lipomas are

associated with specific brain malformations.

What is the most common posterior fossa site for intracranial lipomas?

a. Cerebellum hemispheres
b. Vermis
c. 4th ventricle
d. Cerebellopontine angle

Ref. Osborn P 638

d. Cerebellopontine angle

What is the most common location of arachnoid cysts in the cranium?

a. Anterior cranial fossa
b. Middle cranial fossa
c. Posterior cranial fossa
d. Paranasal sinuses

Ref. Osborn P 640

b. Middle cranial fossa

What is the most common site for colloid cysts?

a. Cerebellopontine angle
b. Fourth ventricle
c. Anterior third ventricle
d. Cisterna magna

Ref. Osborn P 642

c. Anterior third ventricle

Which of the following statements is false concerning arachnoid cysts?

a. Arachnoid cysts within the middle cranial fossa are
frequently associated with what is believed to be
primary hypogenesis of the temporal lobe.
b. Over time they develop calcification within their
walls.
c. They demonstrate no enhancement.
d. Intensity will usually follow almost exactly that of
CSF.

Ref. Atlas P 471-472

b. Over time they develop calcification within their

walls.

Which of the following is false concerning epidermoid cysts?

a. The cysts frequently referred to as “pearly tumors”.
b. They usually do not present clinically until the third
or fourth decades.
c. Their external surface is usually lobulated in
configuration.
d. In the vast majority of cases, epidermoids are
similar to arachnoid cysts on MRI, in that they are
usually isointense to CSF on long TR/short TE
images.

Ref. Atlas P 472-473

d. In the vast majority of cases, epidermoids are
similar to arachnoid cysts on MRI, in that they are
usually isointense to CSF on long TR/short TE
images.

Which of the following is FALSE concerning dermoid cysts?

a. Intracranially, these tumors are more common than
epidermoid cysts.
b. Clinically, they usually present in the third decade
of life.
c. Dermoid cysts typically demonstrate marked
hyperintensity on short TR/TE images and
hypointensity on long TE images.
d. The cysts may rupture.

Ref. Atlas P 475-478

a. Intracranially, these tumors are more common than

epidermoid cysts.

What is the most common intracranial location for dermoid cysts?

a. Cerebellopontine angle
b. Parasellar region
c. Midline within the posterior fossa
d. Cisterna magna

Ref. Atlas P 475

c. Midline within the posterior fossa

Contents of the foramen magnum include

a. vertebral arteries
b. vagus nerve
c. middle menigeal artery
d. two of the above

Grossman, RI, Yousem, DM: Neuroradiology The Requisites, ed 2, Philadelphia, Mosby, 2003, pg 94

a. vertebral arteries

The correct order of the development of the corpus callosum is

a. rostrum, genu, body, splenium
b. genu, body, splenium, rostrum
c. rostrum, body, splenium, genu
d. none of the above

Grossman, RI, Yousem, DM: Neuroradiology The Requisites, ed 2, Philadelphia, Mosby, 2003, pg 51

b. genu, body, splenium, rostrum

Choose the best answer(s) regarding cerebrospinal fluid

a. CSF production is approximately 150mL per day
b. CSF flow runs from the choroid plexi in the lateral
ventricles via the foramen of Magendie
c. The arachnoid villi absorb CSF
d. In elderly persons the CSF volume decreases

Grossman, RI, Yousem, DM: Neuroradiology The Requisites, ed 2, Philadelphia, Mosby, 2003, pg 53

c. The arachnoid villi absorb CSF

Choose the correct statement
a. pineal calcification is common in people over 40
years of age
b. choroid calcificaiton is common in people over 40
years of age
c. basal ganglion calcification is uncommon in people
under 40 years of age
d. all statements are correct

Grossman, RI, Yousem, DM: Neuroradiology The Requisites, ed 2, Philadelphia, Mosby, 2003, pg 53

d. all statements are correct

Edinger-Westphal nucleus is associated with

a. cranial nerve II
b. cranial nerve III
c. cranial nerve IV
d. cranial nerve VI

Grossman, RI, Yousem, DM: Neuroradiology The Requisites, ed 2, Philadelphia, Mosby, 2003, pg 75

b. cranial nerve III

Which is the correct statement concerning the Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease?

a. Most cases are familial.
b. Clinical presentation is classically that of a rapidly
progressive dementia associated with lower motor
neuron dysfunction and myoclonic jerks.
c. CT of patients with CJD is most often normal.
d. Most patients are between the ages of 20 and 40.

Ref. Atlas P 723-725

a. Most cases are familial.

Which disease, which primarily involves the liver, demonstrates cavitations in the putamen with lesser involvement of the globus pallidus, thalamus and cerebral cortex. It is considered a disorder of ceruloplasmin metabolism.

a. Pick’s disease
b. Wilson’s disease
c. Huntington’s disease
d. Hallervorden-Spatz disease

b. Wilson’s disease

What is the most common cause of both presenile and
postsenile dementia?

a. Alzheimers disease
b. Huntington’s chorea
c. Parkinson’s disease
d. Binswanger’s disease

Ref. Juhl & Crummy P 438

a. Alzheimers disease

What is the most common location for plaques associated with multiple sclerosis?

a. Corticomedullary junction
b. Basal ganglia
c. Periventricular
d. Corpus callosum

Ref. Osborn P 756

c. Periventricular

CC is more sensitive/specific… ? Look up

Which of the following amino acids is not involved in the maple syrup urine disease?

a. Leucine
b. Glycine
c. Isoleucine
d. Valine

Ref. Osborn P 734

b. Glycine

Which of the following statements is false concerning acquired hepatocerebral degeneration?

a. The most common causes include alcoholic
cirrhosis, subacute or chronic hepatitis, and portal-
systemic shunts.
b. Laminar or psuedolaminar necrosis with
microcavitary changes are seen pathologically at
the gray-white matter junction, in the corpus
striatum, and in the cerebellar white matter.
c. The typical finding is bilateral basal ganglia
hypointensities on T1WI.
d. Positive imaging findings are seen in 50-75% of
patients with advanced chronic liver disease.

Ref. Osborn P 775

c. The typical finding is bilateral basal ganglia

hypointensities on T1WI.

Choose the correct statement about Wilson’s disease.

a. It is also known as hepatothalamic degeneration.
b. The typical age of onset is between the fourth and
fifth decades.
c. It is a common genetic disorder.
d. The definitive diagnosis is made biochemically.

Ref. Atlas P 840

d. The definitive diagnosis is made biochemically.

Choose the false statement about the Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome.

a. It is thought that Korsakoff syndrome is a later
sequela of the acute encephalopathy.
b. Korsakoff psychosis manifests as impaired ability to
acquire new info and retrograde amnesia.
c. Syndrome of Wernicke-Korsakoff almost almost
always encountered in longstanding alcoholics.
d. The etiology is due to the toxic effect of alcohol.

Ref. Atlas P 840

d. The etiology is due to the toxic effect of alcohol.

Choose the false statement about the optic nerve.

a. It extends approximately 3.5 to 5 cm in length
between the posterior globe and the optic chiasm.
b. The optic nerve is fully myelinated by 2 months of
age.
c. Approximately 90% of its fibers are afferent.
d. The normal intraorbital optic nerve is usually clearly
separated from surrounding CSF on SE images.

Ref. Atlas P 1014

b. The optic nerve is fully myelinated by 2 months of

age.

Choose the false statement about ocular melanoma.

a. Malignant melanoma of the uveal tract is the most
common intraocular malignancy in adults.
b. It is nearly always bilateral.
c. Associated retinal detachment is common.
d. Local recurrence of melanoma following orbital
exenteration is extremely high if extraocular
extension has already occurred.

Ref. Atlas P 1021

b. It is nearly always bilateral.

What are the most common primary sites of metastasis to the orbit?

a. Breast and lung.
b. Prostate and breast.
c. Lung and kidney.
d. Thyroid and lung.

Ref. Atlas P 1023

a. Breast and lung.

What is the most common intraocular malignancy of childhood?

a. Rhabdomyosarcoma
b. Leukemia
c. Lymphoma
d. Retinoblastoma

Ref. Atlas P 1024

d. Retinoblastoma

Which of the following is inconsistent with Coats’ disease?

a. Malignant entity consists of unilateral retinal
telangiectasia.
b. Associated massive subretinal exudative fluid
accumulation causing retinal detachment.
c. Boys aged 6 to 8 years are typically affected.
d. A lipoproteinaceous effusion accumulates, which is
hypointense on short TR/RE sequences and
hyperintense on long TR/TE sequences.

Ref. Atlas P 1027

d. A lipoproteinaceous effusion accumulates, which is
hypointense on short TR/RE sequences and
hyperintense on long TR/TE sequences.

This is the least common of the oculomotor palsies.

a. CN III
b. CN IV
c. CN VI
d. All are equal in incidence

Ref. Atlas P 1071

b. CN IV

These are the most common individuals to get optic gliomas.

a. Adults with NF-I
b. Children with NF-I
c. Adults with NF-II
d. Children with NF-II

Ref. Juhl & Crummy P 426

b. Children with NF-I

Which is the correct association with neurofibromatiosis type 2.

a. chromosome 12
b. chromosome 17
c. chromosome 19
d. chromosome 22

Osborn, AG: Diagnostic Neuroradiology, St. Loius, Mosby, 1994, pg 72-84

d. chromosome 22

Shagreen patches are ________ and a clinical finding for ___________.

a. skin lesions; Sturge-Weber
b. skin lesions; Tuberous sclerosis
c. CNS lesions; Tuberous sclerosis
d. CNS lesions; Sturge-Weber

Osborn, AG: Diagnostic Neuroradiology, St. Loius, Mosby, 1994, pg94

b. skin lesions; Tuberous sclerosis

Choose the correct statement regarding Von Hippel-Lindau syndrome

a. chromosome 21
b. chromosome 9
c. one or more CNS hemangioblastomas, most
commonly found in the posterior fossa
d. one or more CNS hemangioblastomas, most
commonly found supratentorially

Osborn, AG: Diagnostic Neuroradiology, St. Loius, Mosby, 1994, pg104

Grossman, RI, Yousem, DM: Neuroradiology The Requisites, ed 2, Philadelphia, Mosby, 2003, pg 456

c. one or more CNS hemangioblastomas, most

commonly found in the posterior fossa

Cowden disease

a. is also known as basal cell nevus syndrome
b. is an acquired disease
c. associated with Lhermitte-Duclos disease
d. all of the above

Osborn, AG: Diagnostic Neuroradiology, St. Loius, Mosby, 1994, pg110-111

c. associated with Lhermitte-Duclos disease

Plexiform neurofibromas

a. are a hallmark of neurofibromatosis I
b. are tortuous masses found along major nerves,
especially cranial nerve V(1)
c. are found in 1/3 of patients with neurofibromatosis I
d. all of the above

Osborn, AG: Diagnostic Neuroradiology, St. Loius, Mosby, 1994, pg76-77

d. all of the above

The pineal gland lies in the midline, and a displacement of _________ or more from the midline is considered abnormal and is most commonly due to _____________.

a. 2-mm; mass effect
b. 3-mm; mass effect
c. 2-mm; atrophy
d. 3-mm; atrophy

Taveras vol 3, ch 2, P 7

b. 3-mm; mass effect

What disease process begins in early adult life and is characterized by frontal alopecia, cataracts, testicular atrophy, thick skull, large frontal sinus and small pituitary fossa?

a. Hypopituitarism
b. Klinefelter’s syndrome
c. Turner’s syndrome
d. Dystrophia myotonica

d. Dystrophia myotonica

Which one of the following is not a differential for a “button sequestrum”?

a. Paget’s disease
b. Tuberculosis
c. Radiation
d. Metastasis

Ref. Dahnert 2nd ed. P 111

a. Paget’s disease

This disease process produces the “lantern jaw”.

a. Acromegaly
b. Syphilis
c. Cushing’s disease
d. Hypopituitarism

Ref. Resnick P 1971

a. Acromegaly

What is the most common secondary effect of expanding intracranial masses?

a. Saccular aneurysm
b. Cortical contusion
c. CSF fistula
d. Brain herniation

Ref. Osborn P 224

d. Brain herniation

What is the most common location of mucoceles?

a. Frontal sinus
b. Ethmoid sinus
c. Maxillary sinus
d. Sphenoid sinus

Ref. Juhl & Crummy 6th ed. P 1157

a. Frontal sinus

What is the most common location of retention and serous cysts?

a. Ethmoid sinuses
b. Superior portion of the maxillary sinuses
c. Frontal sinuses
d. Inferior portion of the maxillary sinuses

d. Inferior portion of the maxillary sinuses

A characteristic radiographic feature of acute sinusitis not seen with chronic sinusitis is…

a. Sclerotic thickened bone of the sinus wall
b. Mucosal thickening
c. Air-fluid level
d. Opacification of the sinus

c. Air-fluid level

What are the most commonly involved paranasal sinuses in both acute and chronic sinusitis?

a. Maxillary
b. Ethmoid
c. Frontal
d. Sphenoid

a. Maxillary

A characteristic radiographic feature of chronic sinusitis not seen with acute sinusitis is…

a. Sclerotic thickened bone of the sinus wall
b. Mucosal thickening
c. Air-fluid level
d. Opacification of the sinus

a. Sclerotic thickened bone of the sinus wall

The most common malignant tumor involving the nasal cavity and paranasal sinuses is…

a. Mucosarcoma
b. Melanosarcoma
c. Rhabdomyosarcoma
d. Squamous cell carcinoma

d. Squamous cell carcinoma

What is the most common location for nose and paranasal sinus malignant tumors?

a. Frontal sinus
b. Ethmoid sinus
c. Nose
d. Maxillary sinus

Ref. Juhl & Crummy 6th ed. P 1161

d. Maxillary sinus

The most common location for a conjoined nerve root is

a. L3-L4
b. L4-L5
c. L5-S1
d. S1-S2

c. L5-S1

A MRI of the cervicothoracic spine on a patient with a history of recent trauma and brachial palsy demonstrates the presence of cerebrospinal fluid escaping outside the thecal sac within the intervertebral foramen. The most likely diagnosis is…

a. Post-traumatic disc herniation
b. Posterior ligamentous tear
c. Nerve root avulsion
d. Perched facet joint

c. Nerve root avulsion

The presence of an “empty thecal sac” appearance on axial sequences of the lumbar spine with epidural scars is characteristic for which of the following conditions?

a. Spinal dysraphism
b. Intradural intramedullary lesion
c. Arachnoiditis
d. Arachnoid cyst

c. Arachnoiditis

A scimitar appearance of the sacrum is demonstrated on the lateral radiograph of the lumbopelvic area. The most commonly associated condition is…

a. Spina bifida occulta
b. Diastematomyelia
c. Caudal regression syndrome
d. Meningocele

d. Meningocele

Which of the following statements is false regarding syringomyelia?

a. It is considered to be a diverticula of the central
spinal canal
b. It is always associated with diffuse widening of the
entire spinal cord
c. It is lined by glial cells while a hydromyelia is lined
by ependymal cells
d. It will resemble an intracedullary mass on
myelography

b. It is always associated with diffuse widening of the

entire spinal cord

Which myelographic finding is characteristic of an intramedullary mass within the spinal canal?

a. Fusiform enlargement of the cord, usually within
complete block
b. Eccentric enlargement of the cord with
displacement
c. Complete block of the canal due to an extradural
mass
d. Total block of flow is always seen

a. Fusiform enlargement of the cord, usually within

complete block

a. Sacral agenesis
b. Syringomyelia
c. Myelomeningocele
d. Diastematomyelia

d. Diastematomyelia

A perineural cyst, a commonly encountered condition on MRI examination of the sacrum, is also called…

a. Arachnoid dural ectasia
b. Tarlov cyst
c. Notochordal cystic disease
d. Tethered cord cystic disease

b. Tarlov cyst

A myelographic examination of the spine demonstrates a cap or meniscus with sharp, smooth, curvilinear borders and displacement of the spinal cord. The lesion resides most likely in the ….

a. Extradural space
b. Intramedullary space
c. Intradural extramedullary space
d. Vertebral body

c. Intradural extramedullary space

Broad spina bifida with thinned, dorsally everted, flared laminae and a sharply demarcated fluid filled sac that is isodense or isointense with CSF and devoid of neural tissue describes…

a. Dorsal dermal sinus
b. Meningocele
c. Myelomeningocele
d. Spinal lipoma

b. Meningocele

Which of the following conditions would least likely produce an intramedullary spinal mass on MRI?

a. Hematoma
b. Post-radiation myelopathy
c. Ependymoma
d. Meningioma

d. Meningioma

Caudal regression syndrome may include all the following exept…

a. Sacral agenesis
b. Bilateral renal aplasia or dysplasia
c. Partial agenesis of the thoracolumbar spine
d. Congenital megacolon

d. Congenital megacolon

Choose the correct statement regarding pyogenic spondylitis

a. the least common demongraphic is children
b. initially found in the subchondral vertebral body
c. in adults most common organism to spinal infection
is Enterobacter infection
d. most commonly occurs in the cervical spine

Osborn, AG: Diagnostic Neuroradiology, St. Loius, Mosby, 1994, pg820-821

b. initially found in the subchondral vertebral body

Annular tears within the disc occur

a. with aging transverse tears
b. involve the Sharpey fibers
c. imaging findings - high signal intensity on T2WI
d. all of the above are correct

Osborn, AG: Diagnostic Neuroradiology, St. Loius, Mosby, 1994, pg 839

d. all of the above are correct

A Jefferson fracture

a. involves the anterior and posterior arches
b. is the most common injury to C2
c. is also known as Hangman’s fracture
d. none of the above statements are correct

Osborn, AG: Diagnostic Neuroradiology, St. Loius, Mosby, 1994, pg 867

a. involves the anterior and posterior arches

Choose the correct statement regarding vertebral hemangiomas

a. fast growing
b. most commonly occurs in the cervical spine
c. benign primary neoplasms of capillary, cavernours
or venous origin
d. all above are correct

Osborn, AG: Diagnostic Neuroradiology, St. Loius, Mosby, 1994, pg877-878

c. benign primary neoplasms of capillary, cavernours

or venous origin

Choose the acceptable reasons for the use of enhancement in advanced imaging to distinguish between scar and disk in a postoperative back

a.	to assess the full extent of disease in an infectious 
        and inflammatory condition 
b.	evaluate the spinal cord 
c.	to rule out tumor 
d.	all of the above

Grossman, RI, Yousem, DM: Neuroradiology The Requisites, ed 2, Philadelphia, Mosby, 2003, pg 759

d. all of the above

Choose the disease(s) associated with disc calcification (MACA)

a. Gout
b. DISH
c. Ankylosing spondylitis
d. Sequelae of disc infection

Grossman, RI, Yousem, DM: Neuroradiology The Requisites, ed 2, Philadelphia, Mosby, 2003, pg766

ALL of the above

a. Gout
b. DISH
c. Ankylosing spondylitis
d. Sequelae of disc infection

Noncommunicating syrinxes occur with

a. Chiari I malformation
b. Chiari II malformation
c. extradural tumors
d. two of the above

Osborn, AG: Diagnostic Neuroradiology, St. Loius, Mosby, 1994, pg 816

d. two of the above

Von Hippel-Lindau syndrome

a. is an autosomal recessive disorder
b. is a phakomatosis
c. has multiple CNS hemagioblastomas
d. none of the above

Osborn, AG: Diagnostic Neuroradiology, St. Loius, Mosby, 1994, pg 817

c. has multiple CNS hemagioblastomas

Choose the correct statement regarding multiple sclerosis

a. most commonly found in developing countries
b. involves spinal cord plaques
c. does not have any significant imaging findings
d. no correct answer listed

Osborn, AG: Diagnostic Neuroradiology, St. Loius, Mosby, 1994, pg827-828

b. involves spinal cord plaques

Choose the false statement regarding spinal metastasis

a. arise from breast, lung or prostate
b. is the most common malignant spine tumor in
adults
c. the initial site is the vertebral body in adults
d. the cervical spine is the most frequently affected
site

Osborn, AG: Diagnostic Neuroradiology, St. Loius, Mosby, 1994, pg894

d. the cervical spine is the most frequently affected

site

Over 75% of strokes occur in the

a. anterior cerebral artery
b. middle cerebral artery
c. posterior cerebral artery
d. basilar artery

Osborn, AG: Diagnostic Neuroradiology, St. Loius, Mosby, 1994, pg361

b. middle cerebral artery

Clinical ataxia, occlusion/infarct of the vertebral artery and Horner syndrome describe

a. Wallerian degeneration
b. Wallenburg syndrome
c. Rendu-Osler-Weber disease
d. leukodystrophy

Osborn, AG: Diagnostic Neuroradiology, St. Loius,
Mosby, 1994, pg 367-368

Grossman, RI, Yousem, DM: Neuroradiology The Requisites, ed 2, Philadelphia, Mosby, 2003, pg 88

b. Wallenburg syndrome

_________ is the best screening tool for asymptomatic patients at risk for cerebral aneurysms.

a. transcranial ultrasound
b. computed tomographic angiography
c. conventional radiograph
d. none of the above

Grossman, RI, Yousem, DM: Neuroradiology The Requisites, ed 2, Philadelphia, Mosby, 2003, pg 179

b. computed tomographic angiography

Enhancement with advanced imaging may occur

a. if the blood-brain barrier is abnormal
b. the contrast reaches the infarct
c. the blood-brain barrier is not involved
d. A and B are correct

Grossman, RI, Yousem, DM: Neuroradiology The Requisites, ed 2, Philadelphia, Mosby, 2003, pg 185

d. A and B are correct

if the blood-brain barrier is abnormal
the contrast reaches the infarct

Which is NOT a part of the evaluation criteria for a Caldwell view?

a. Petrous ridge should lie in the lower third of the
orbit.
b. Anterior ethmoid air cells should lie below the
petrous ridges.
c. Frontal sinuses should lie above the frontonasal
suture.
d. Frontal and anterior ethmoid sinuses should be
visualized clearly.

Ref. Ballinger 7/2 P 373

b. Anterior ethmoid air cells should lie below the

petrous ridges.

Which is NOT visualized on a Water’s projection?

a. Maxillary sinuses
b. Foramen rotundum
c. Petrous pyramids lying immediately inferior to the
floor of the maxillary sinuses
d. Sphenoid sinuses

Ref. Ballinger 7/2 P 374

d. Sphenoid sinuses

When positioning the patient for a Water’s projection, the angle between the horizontal and orbitomeatal line should be…

a. 5 degrees
b. 15 degrees
c. 26 degrees
d. 37 degrees

Ref. Ballinger 7/2 P 374

d. 37 degrees

What is the central ray placement for the Caldwell method?

a. Centered to the nasion at an angle of 15 degree
caudad to the orbitomeatal line
b. Centered to the nasion with no tube angle
c. Centered to the acanthion at an angle of 37 degree
caudad to the orbitomeatal line
d. Centered to the glabella at an angle of 10 degree
cephalad

Ref. Ballinger 7/2 P 373

a. Centered to the nasion at an angle of 15 degree

caudad to the orbitomeatal line

Which one of the following imaging techniques is considered superior in the evaluation of musculoskeletal tumors arising in soft tissues?

a. Radiographs
b. DxUS
c. CT
d. MRI

Ref. Resnick P 148

d. MRI

Which one of the following is not a contraindication to a MRI?

a. Tattooed eyeliner
b. Joint prostheses
c. First trimester pregnancy
d. Implanted neurostimulator

Ref. Yockum P 379

b. Joint prostheses

This has a black appearance on MRI.

a. Echo time
b. Pixel
c. Signal void
d. Voxel

Ref. Yochum P 375

c. Signal void

This radiographic technique is useful in demonstrating air-fluid levels within the sphenoid sinus, which is an indication of significant injury of the base of the skull.

a. PA Caldwell
b. AP Towne’s
c. Rhese Method
d. Horizontal-beam cross-table lateral

Ref. Rogers P 306

d. Horizontal-beam cross-table lateral

Which portion of the temporal bone creates the division between the middle and posterior cranial fossae and contains the structures of the inner ear?

a. Petrous
b. Tympanic
c. Squamous
d. Mastoid

a. Petrous

Acute otitis media most frequently occurs in association with…

a. Acute sinusitis
b. Upper respiratory tract infections
c. Acute mastoiditis
d. Chronic sinusitis

b. Upper respiratory tract infections

Which of the following entities develops from a congenital inclusion of epithelial issue within the calvarium leading to pressure resorption of bone.

a. Hemangioma
b. Encephalocele
c. Cholesteatoma
d. Cholesterol granuloma

c. Cholesteatoma

Which syndrome presents with a purulent infection of the petrous bone with an extradural extension resulting in pain around the eye, lateral rectus palsy and otorrhea?

a. Wermer’s syndrome
b. Shulman’s syndrome
c. Gradenigo’s syndrome
d. Marshall’s syndrome

c. Gradenigo’s syndrome

What is the most commonly fractured bone at the base of the skull?

a. Occiput
b. Temporal bone
c. Sphenoid
d. Pterygoid plates

Ref. Juhl & Crummy 6th ed. P 1186

c. Sphenoid

What is the most common type of temporal bone fracture?

a. Transverse
b. Longitudinal
c. Oblique
d. Chip fracture

Ref. Juhl & Crummy 6th ed. P 1187

b. Longitudinal

What is the most commonly dislocated ossicle of the middle ear?

a. Incus
b. Malleus
c. Stapes
d. Skillet

Ref. Juhl & Crummy 6th ed. P 1187

a. Incus

Which of the following is a feature that differentiates epidural hematomas from subdural hematomas?

a. Epidural hematomas may not cross a suture
b. Acute (1-3 days old) epidural hematomas will
appear isodense on CT
c. Only subdural hematomas will exhibit a mass effect
d. Large feeding vessels are seen to the epidural
hematomas

a. Epidural hematomas may not cross a suture

A complex fracture of the frontal sinus most typically involves which portion of the sinus?

a. Posterior wall only
b. Anterior wall only
c. Frontal and posterior walls
d. Floor of the sinus

Ref. Juhl & Crummy 6th ed. P 1167

c. Frontal and posterior walls

This complication may occur if a portion of arachnoid becomes interposed through a dural tear and becomes entrapped in a fracture of the cranium.

a. Pneumocephalus
b. Cerebrospinal fluid rhinorrhea
c. Cerebrospinal fluid otorrhea
d. Leptomeningeal cyst

Ref. Rogers P 357

d. Leptomeningeal cyst

Which suture is most commonly involved in diastatic fractures?

a. Sagittal
b. Lambdoid
c. Coronal
d. Squamosal

Ref. Rogers P 321

b. Lambdoid

How would a chronic subdural hematoma appear on CT scans?

a. Well-defined and hyperdense compared with
normal adjacent brain
b. Isodense with normal brain
c. Well-defined and hypodense in comparison with
normal adjacent brain
d. Hypodense with production of widening of the
cortical sulci

c. Well-defined and hypodense in comparison with

normal adjacent brain

Contusions of the brain at the inferior surface and pole of the frontal lobe and at the inferolateral surface of the temporal lobe are usually resulting from…

a. Facial trauma
b. Blowout fractures
c. Contrecoup injuries
d. Direct injuries

c. Contrecoup injuries

What is the most common location for diffuse axonal injuries?

a. Midbrain
b. Deep white matter within the temporal lobe
c. Corticomedullary junction within the frontotemporal
region
d. Corticomedullary junction within the parietal region

Ref. Osborn P 212

c. Corticomedullary junction within the frontotemporal

region

What is the most common location of cortical contusions?

a. Frontal lobes
b. Temporal lobes
c. Occipital lobes
d. Parietal lobes

Ref. Osborn P 216

b. Temporal lobes

What is the most common primary neuronal injury?

a. Diffuse axonal injury
b. Cortical contusion
c. Deep cerebral injury
d. Deep brainstem injury

Ref. Osborn 212

a. Diffuse axonal injury

What is the most common nontraumatic cause of intracranial hemorrhage in adults?

a. Eclampsia
b. Preeclampsia
c. SLE
d. Hypertension

Ref. Osborn P 174

d. Hypertension

Hyperacute blood clots are…

a. Isointense with gray matter on T1WI and
hyperintense on T2WI
b. Isointense with gray matter on T1WI and
hypointense on T2WI
c. Hyperintense on T1WI and hypointense on T2WI
d. Hyperintense on T1WI and hyperintense on T2WI

Ref. Osborn P 166

a. Isointense with gray matter on T1WI and

hyperintense on T2WI

Early subacute clots are…

a. Isointense with on T1WI and hyperintense on T2WI
b. Isointense with on T1WI and hypointense on T2WI
c. Hyperintense on T1WI and hypointense on T2WI
d. Hyperintense on T1WI and hyperintense on T2WI

Ref. Osborn P 167

c. Hyperintense on T1WI and hypointense on T2WI

Acute clots are…

a. Isointense with on T1WI and hyperintense on T2WI
b. Isointense with on T1WI and hypointense on T2WI
c. Hyperintense on T1WI and hypointense on T2WI
d. Hyperintense on T1WI and hyperintense on T2WI

Ref. Osborn P 166

b. Isointense with on T1WI and hypointense on T2WI

Late subacute clots are…

a. Isointense with on T1WI and hyperintense on T2WI
b. Isointense with on T1WI and hypointense on T2WI
c. Hyperintense on T1WI and hypointense on T2WI
d. Hyperintense on T1WI and hyperintense on T2WI

Ref. Osborn P 167

d. Hyperintense on T1WI and hyperintense on T2WI

What is the most common cause of hypertensive emcephalopathy?

a. Chronic renal failure
b. Toxemia
c. Hemolytic-uremic syndrome
d. Eclampsia

Ref. Osborn P 177

b. Toxemia

What is the most common nonglial hemorrhagic primary intracranial tumor?

a. Meningioma
b. Teratoma
c. Lipoma
d. Pituitary adenoma

Ref. Osborn P 190

d. Pituitary adenoma

Arteriovenous malformations are most common along the distribution of which artery?

a. Anterior cerebral
b. Middle cerebral
c. Posterior cerebral
d. Anterior communicating

b. Middle cerebral

What is the most common type of aneurysm within the calvarium?

a. Berry aneurysm (aka saccular)
b. Atherosclerotic (fusiform) aneurysm
c. Mycotic aneurysm
d. Post-traumatic aneurysm

a. Berry aneurysm (aka saccular)

What is the most common type of vascular malformation within the cranium?

a. Arteriovenous malformations
b. Telangiectasia
c. Cavernous hemangiomas
d. Venous angiomas

d. Venous angiomas

Look up reference

How would one expect a subacute subdural hematoma to appear on MRI?

a. Variable, usually hyperintense on T2WI,
iso/hypointense on T1WI
b. Isointense on T1, iso/hyperintense on T2WI
c. Iso/moderately hypointense on T1, very
hypointense on T2WI
d. Hyperintense on both T1 and T2WI

Ref. Osborn P 205

d. Hyperintense on both T1 and T2WI

How would one expect a chronic subdural hematoma to appear on CT scan?

a. Isodense with normal brain
b. Hypodense with production of widening of the
cortical sulci
c. Well-defined and hypodense on comparison with
normal adjacent brain
d. Well-defined and hyperdense compared with
normal adjacent brain

Ref. Juhl and Crummy P 443

c. Well-defined and hypodense on comparison with

normal adjacent brain

What is the initiating lesion in most cases of hemorrhagic infarction?

a. Middle cerebral artery aneurysm.
b. Cerebral artery embolism.
c. Basal ganglia artery embolism.
d. Vertebral artery aneurysm.

Ref. Osborn P 179

b. Cerebral artery embolism.

What is the most common site for hemorrhagic infarctions?

a. Occipital lobe.
b. Temporal lobe.
c. Cerebellum and midbrain.
d. Basal ganglia and cortex.

Ref. Osborn P 180

d. Basal ganglia and cortex.

What is the most common presentation of an intracranial aneurysm?

a. Subarachnoid hemorrhage
b. Cranial neuropathies
c. Seizures
d. Headache

Ref. Osborn P 253

a. Subarachnoid hemorrhage

Which of the following is the most common site for intracranial saccular aneurysms?

a. Basilar artery bifurcation
b. Middle cerebral artery bifurcation
c. Anterior communicating artery
d. Posterior inferior cerebellar artery

Ref. Osborn P 252

c. Anterior communicating artery

What is the most common site for a tandem lesion?

a. Horizontal middle cerebral artery segment
b. Carotid siphon
c. Anterior communicating artery
d. Posterior communicating artery

Ref. Osborn P 335

b. Carotid siphon

What is the most common neurocutaneous syndrome associated with vascular abnormalities?

a. NF-I
b. NF-II
c. Tuberous sclerosis
d. Sturge-Webber syndrome

Ref. Osborn P 371

a. NF-I

Look up

Approximately what percentage of ischemic brain infarcts are etiologically related to atherosclerotic disease of the extracranial segment of the internal carotid artery?

a. 10%
b. 30%
c. 60%
d. 100%

c. 60%

This is the most common cause of an isolated pupil-involving third nerve palsy.

a. Aneurysm at the junction of the internal carotid artery 
    and posterior communicating artery. 
b. Microvascular occlusion 
c. Trauma 
d. Neoplasm

Ref. Atlas P 1067

a. Aneurysm at the junction of the internal carotid artery

and posterior communicating artery.

Which of the sinus projections allows one to visualize the optic foramen clearly?

a. Hopkin’s method
b. Water’s method
c. Rhese method
d. Kovac’s method

Ref. Ballinger 7/2 P 385

c. Rhese method

The presence of multiple subcortical infarcts with associated white matter ischemic changes and a slow progressive dementia is called…

a. Alzheimer’s disease
b. Multiple sclerosis
c. Necrotizing leukoencephalopathy
d. Binswanger’s disease

d. Binswanger’s disease

The most common cause of brain infarction is…

a.	Compression on vascular vessel by a neighboring 
        tumor 
b.	Arteritis 
c.	Septic embolism 
d.	Atherosclerotic disease

d. Atherosclerotic disease

A major branch of the vertebral artery that originates in front of the medulla and passes around the brainstem in the cerebello-medullary cistern to approach the midline posteriorly is known as…

a. The anterior inferior cerebellar artery
b. The posterior inferior cerebellar artery
c. The superior cerebellar artery
d. The inferior cerebellar artery

b. The posterior inferior cerebellar artery

The type of edema seen first in the brain following infarcts is…

a. Vasogenic edema
b. Cytotoxic edema
c. Hemorrhagic edema
d. Traumatic edema

b. Cytotoxic edema

What is the most common location of intracranial AVMs?

a. Within the distribution of the anterior cerebral
artery
b. Within the distribution of the middle cerebral artery
c. Within the distribution of the posterior cerebral
artery
d. Within the distribution of the posterior inferior
cerebellar artery

Ref. Juhl & Crummy P 461

b. Within the distribution of the middle cerebral artery

Which of the following statements is false concerning metachromatic leukodystrophy?

a. MLD is a lysosomal disorder caused by deficiency
of the catabolic enzyme aspartoacylase.
b. Symmetric demyelination that spares the
subcortical
U fibers is characteristic.
c. MLD is the most common hereditary
leukodystrophy.
d. The anterior white matter is more severely affected.

Ref. Osborn P 722-724

a. MLD is a lysosomal disorder caused by deficiency

of the catabolic enzyme aspartoacylase.

Which of the following statements is false concerning Krabbe disease?

a. It is also known as globoid cell leukodystrophy.
b. The brain is small and atrophic.
c. Extensive symmetric dysmyelination of the centrum
semiovale, corona radiata, and subcortical arcuate
fibers is seen.
d. The late infantile form is the most common.

Ref. Osborn P 724

d. The late infantile form is the most common.

Which of the following statements is false concerning Alexander disease?

a. The diagnosis is usually made by brain biopsy.
b. The brain is increased in size and weight.
c. The cortex is normal.
d. It has a predilection for the occipital lobe white
matter early in its course.

Ref. Osborn P 730

d. It has a predilection for the occipital lobe white

matter early in its cours

Which of the following statements is false concerning Canavan disease?

a. It is also known as spongy degeneration of the
brain.
b. It is also known as van Bogaert-Bertrand disease.
c. Demyelination seen in Canavan disease
preferentially involves the subcortical U fibers.
d. The frontal lobe is more involved than the parietal
and occipital lobes.

Ref. Osborn P 732

d. The frontal lobe is more involved than the parietal

and occipital lobes.

Which of the following conditions is not a demyelinating disease

a. Alexander’s disease
b. Metachromatic leukodystrophy
c. Moya-moya
d. Adrenomeukodystrophy

c. Moya-moya

What is the most common site of involvement with Pick disease?

a. Parietal and occipital lobes
b. Frontal and temporal lobes
c. Frontal and parietal lobes
d. Parietal and temporal lobes

Ref. Osborn P 773 & 774

b. Frontal and temporal lobes

Which of the following statements is false concerning Pick disease?

a. It is much less frequent than Alzheimer disease.
b. The parietal and occipital lobes are relatively
spared.
c. Pre-senile onset is common.
d. It is characterized by strikingly circumscribed lobar
atrophy that is symmetric.

Ref. Osborn P 773 & 774

d. It is characterized by strikingly circumscribed lobar

atrophy that is symmetric.

Which of the following statements is false concerning progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy?

a. This disorder affects immune-compromised
patients.
b. It is caused by reactivation of a latent papovavirus.
c. Up to 90% of patients have gray matter
involvement.
d. Hemorrhage is a very uncommon feature.

Ref. Atlas P 677 & 678

c. Up to 90% of patients have gray matter involvement.

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