Neurology Flashcards
(523 cards)
1
Q
What is the MOA of ethosuximide?
A
blocks T-type Ca2+ channels
2
Q
What is the MOA of carbamazepine?
A
Na+ channel blocker
3
Q
What is the MOA of valproic acid?
A
Na+ channel blocker
inhibit GABA transaminase
4
Q
What is the MOA of gabapentin?
A
blocks Ca2+ channels
GABA analogue
5
Q
What is the MOA of Topiramate?
A
Na+ channel blocker
6
Q
What are the MOAs of tigabine?
A
inhibits GABA transaminase
inhibit GABA reuptake
7
Q
What is the function of the notochord?
A
induce ectoderm to differentiate into neuroectoderm
8
Q
What two things does the neural plate give rise to?
A
neural crest cells
neural tube
9
Q
Is the alar plate dorsal or ventral?
A
dorsal
10
Q
Is the alar plate motor or sensory?
A
sensory
11
Q
Is the basal plate dorsal or ventral?
A
ventral
12
Q
Is the basal plate motor or sensory?
A
motor
13
Q
What two structures does the prosencephalon give rise to?
A
telencephalon and diencephalon
14
Q
What two structures does the telencephalon give rise to in adults?
A
cerebral hemispheres
lateral ventricles
15
Q
What two structures does the diencephalon give rise to in adults?
A
thalamus
3rd ventricle
16
Q
What two structures does the mesencephalon give rise to in adults?
A
midbrain
cerebral aqueduct of sylvius
17
Q
What two structures does the rhomboencephalon give rise to?
A
Metencephalon
Myelencephalin
18
Q
What three structures does the Metencephalon give rise to?
A
pons
cerebellum
upper part of 4th ventricle
19
Q
What two structures does the Myelencephalon give rise to?
A
medulla
lower part of 4th ventricle
20
Q
Which epithelial layer gives rise to microglia?
A
mesoderm
21
Q
During what week of development would the neuropores fail to close during a neural tube defect?
A
4th week
22
Q
What enzyme can be elevated during a neural tube defect?
A
AchE
23
Q
Maternal Diabetes is associated with what neural development defect?
A
anencephaly
24
Q
What specific structure is defective during Anencephaly?
A
anterior neural tube
25
What lab value would be affected by Anencephaly?
increased AFP
26
What would be noticeable during pregnancy regarding anencephaly? Why?
polyhydramnios
swallowing center
27
What signaling pathway may be implicated during Holoprosencephaly?
sonic hedgehog
28
What two structures herniate during a Chiari Type II?
cerebellar tonsils and vermis
29
What other pathology is Chiari Type Two associated with? Causing?
lumbar myelomeningocele
paralysis below defect
30
Which specific structure undergoes agenesis during Dandy-Walker?
cerebellar vermis
31
What two diseases are associated with Dandy-Walker?
hydrocephalus
spina bifida
32
Between which two vertebral levels is syringomyelia most common?
C8-T1
33
Which disease is Syringomyelia associated with?
Chiari Type One
34
What two complaints would be consistent with the manifestation of Syringomyelia?
headaches
cerebellar symptoms
35
What nerve provides sensation to the anterior 2/3 of the tongue? Taste?
V3
taste = seven
36
Muscles of the tongue are derived from which myotomes?
occipital
37
What is the function of genioglossus?
protrude tongue
38
What is the function of hyoglossus?
retract tongue
39
What is the function of palatoglossus?
push tongue to palate
40
Do dendrites send or receive signals?
receive
41
Do axons send or receive signals?
send
42
What stain can be used on neurons? What organelle is targeted?
Nissl
RER
43
What two parts of a neuron are stained by Nissl?
cell body and dendrites
44
During Wallerian degeneration, does the distal or proximal end of the axon degenerate?
distal degenerates
45
During Wallerian degeneration, does the distal or proximal end of the axon retract?
proximal retracts
46
What cell in the brain is responsible for potassium metabolism?
Astrocytes
47
Which cell in the brain stores glycogen?
astrocyte
48
Which cell participates in gliosis?
astrocyte
49
What is the function of microglia?
CNS phagocytes
50
Which HIV-infected cells fuse to form multinucleated giant cells in CNS?
Microglia
51
What cell does the JC Virus infect?
Oligodendroglia
52
Can Schwann Cells or Oligodendroglia myelinate multiple cells?
oligodendrocytes
53
What cell is destroyed during Guillain-Barre Syndrome?
Schwann cells
54
What is the function of Meissners Corpuscles?
fine/light touch
55
What is the function of Pacinian Corpuscles?
vibration
56
What is the function of Merkel Discs?
pressure
57
Where are Meissners Corpuscles located?
hairless skin
58
Where are pacinian corpuscles located?
deep skin layers
59
Where are Merkel discs located?
basal epidermal layer
60
What layer of the nerve is affected during Guillain-Barre?
Endoneurium
61
Which layer of nerve is the permeability barrier?
Perineurium
62
What brain center is norepinephrine synthesized?
locus ceruleus
63
What happens to norepinephrine levels during anxiety?
increase
64
What happens to norepinephrine levels during depression?
decrease
65
What two structures in the brain represent the sites of dopamine synthesis?
ventral tegmentum
Sustantia nigra pars compacta
66
Does dopamine increase or decrease in Huntingtons disease?
increase
67
Does dopamine increase or decrease in depression?
decrease
68
What structure synthesizes serotonin?
raphe nucleus
69
What is the level of serotonin in Parkinsons?
increased
70
What is the level of serotonin in Anxiety?
decreased
71
What is the level of serotonin in Depression?
decreased
72
Where is acetylcholine made in brain?
Nucleus Basilis of Meynert
73
What is the level of acetylcholine in Parkinsons?
increased
74
What is the level of acetylcholine in Alzheimers?
decreased
75
What is the level of acetylcholine in Huntington?
decreased
76
Where in the brain is GABA made?
nucleus accumbens
77
What happens to GABA levels during Huntingtons?
decreased
78
What is the function of the Nucleus Accumbens in the brain?
pleasure center
79
What area of the brain is responsible for osmotic sensing? Stands for?
OVLT
organum vasculosum of lamina terminalis
80
Which nucleus of the hypothalamus synthesizes ADH?
supra-optic
81
Which nucleus of the hypothalamus synthesizez oxytocin?
paraventricular
82
What is the function of the Lateral Area of the hypothalamus?
hunger
83
What does destruction of the Lateral Area of the hypothalamus result in?
anorexia
84
What is the function of the Ventromedial nucleus of the hypothalamus?
satiety
85
What does destruction of the Ventromedial of the hypothalamus result in?
hyper-phagia
86
What part of the hypothalamus can a craniopharyngioma obstruct?
ventromedial
87
What is the function of the Anterior nucleus of the hypothalamus?
parasympathetic cooling
88
What is the function of the Posterior nucleus of the hypothalamus?
sympathetic heating
89
What structure regulates eye movements during REM sleep?
paramedian pontine reticular formation
90
What neurotransmitter cause the pineal gland to release melatonin? Released from?
norepinephrine
SCN
91
Awake with eyes open corresponds to what EEG wave form?
beta
92
Awake with eyes closed corresponds to what EEG wave form?
alpha
93
N1 corresponds to what EEG wave form?
theta
94
N2 corresponds to what EEG wave form?
sleep spindles
95
N3 corresponds to what EEG wave form?
delta
96
Which wave on the EEG occurs during REM sleep?
beta
97
Which 'N' would bedwetting occur?
N3
98
Which 'N' would sleep walking occur?
N3
99
Which 'N' would night terrors occur?
N3
100
The VPL of the thalamus receives input from which two ascending pathways?
Spinothalamic
DCML
101
The VPM of the thalamus receives input from which two structures?
trigeminal
gustatory
102
What input does the Lateral Geniculate Nucleus receive?
visual
103
Where does the Lateral Geniculate Nucleus project?
calcarine sulcus
104
What are the two inputs to the Medial Geniculate Nucleus?
superior olive
inferior colliculus
105
What are the two inputs to the Ventral Lateral nucleus of the thalamus?
basal ganglia
cerebellum
106
Where does the cerebellum receive contralateral information? Via what structure?
cortex
middle cerebellar peduncle
107
Where does the cerebellum receive ipsilateral information? Via what structure?
spinal cord
inferior cerebellar peduncle
108
From medial to lateral, what are the nuclei of the cerebellum?
F,G,E,D
109
What two structures compose the Striatum?
putamen and caudate
110
What two structures compose the Lentiform?
putamen and globus pallidus
111
Is the cortex inhibitory or excitatory on the striatum?
excitatory
112
What neurotransmitter does the striatum release?
GABA
113
Does the globus pallidus externa or interna communicate with the subthalamic nucleus? Inhibitory or excitatory?
externa
inhibitory
114
Which globus pallidus does the subthalamic nuclei communicate with? Inhibitory or excitatory?
globus pallidus internal
excitatory
115
Which layer is the output of the globus pallidus?
globus pallidus interna
116
Is the pallidum excitatory or inhibitory on the thalamus?
inhibitory
117
Is the thalamus inhibitory or excitatory on the cortex?
excitatory
118
Are Lewy Bodies intracellular or extracellular?
intracellular
119
What causes neuronal cell death during Huntingtons?
excessive glutamate
120
What atrophies during Huntingtons?
caudate
121
What is hemiballismus?
sudden flailing movements of one arm and leg
122
A lesion to what structure could produce hemiballismus?
subthalamic nucleus
contralateral
123
What kind of stroke can cause hemiballismus?
lacunar
124
What is chorea?
purposeless movements
125
What is athetosis?
writhing movements in fingers
126
What is an essential tremor? What do patients self-medicate with?
action tremor
alcohol
127
What exacerbates an essential tremor?
holding a position
128
Which type of tremor can alcohol decrease the severity of?
essential tremor
129
What two drugs can be used to treat an essential tremor?
β-blockers
primdone
130
What type of drug is primidone?
barbiturate
131
Which virus is associated with Kluver Bucy Syndrome?
HSV-1
132
Hyperorality is associated with what CNS syndrome?
kluver bucy
133
Resurgence of primitive reflexes may be indicative of lesions to where?
frontal lobe
134
What part of the brainstem is the Reticular Activating System present?
Midbrain
135
What part of the brain is responsible for Spatial Neglect Syndrome?
right parietal-temporal
136
Agraphia/Acalculia/ would be indicative to lesions where in the brain? What is this called?
DOMINANT-parietal temporal cortex
Gerstmann Syndrome
137
What can precipiate Wernicke-Korsakoff Syndrome?
glucose without thiamine
138
Would damage to the hippocampus result in retrograde or anterograde amnesia?
anterograde
139
Where do the eyes look with a lesion to the Paramedian Pontine Reticular Formation?
away
140
Where do the eyes look with a lesion to the Frontal Eye Field?
toward
141
From low to high your brain will?
die
142
From high to low your brain will?
blow
143
What is the only muscular movement that is retained during central pontine myelinosis?
vertical gaze
144
What is the problem during Conduction Aphasia?
poor repitition
145
In what two ways would hypotension manifest regarding the watershed regions of the brain?
upper arm/leg weakness
visual processing
146
PO2 has to drop below what pressure to stimulate cerebral blood flow?
50 mm Hg
147
Cerebral blood flow increases in response to increased PCO2 until what pressure?
90 mm Hg
148
What two structures are supplied by the Lenticulostriate Arteries?
Striatum and Internal capsule
149
Does the tongue deviate in an ipsilateral or contralateral direction in relation to a lesion?
ipsilateral
150
Medial Medullary Syndrome is caused by an occlusion by what specific part of what specific artery?
paramedian branches of
151
What three tracts/nerves are disrupted during Medial MEdullary Syndrome?
Hypoglossal
medial lemniscus
corticospinal
152
What artery supplies the Lateral Medulla?
PICA
153
Where are two forms of pain lost during Lateral Medullary Syndrome?
ipsilateral face
contralateral body
154
Horner Syndrome could be caused by an occlusion to what artery?
PICA
155
What are the two most common presenting symptoms with Lateral Medullary Syndrome?
Hoarseness
Dysphagia
156
What artery supplies the lateral Pons?
AICA
157
Which artery supplies the Middle and Inferior Cerebral Peduncles?
AICA
158
What type of aneurysm can form on the ACom Artery?
Berry
159
What nerve can be impinged by an ACom ANeurysm?
optic
160
What type of aneurysm can form on the PCom Artery?
Saccular
161
What nerve can be impinged by an PCom Aneurysm?
CN three
162
What two directions does the eye move during a CN three lesion?
down and out
163
What junction is the most common for development of a Berry Aneurysm?
ACom and ACA
164
What type of hemorrhage would the rupture of a Berry Aneurysm produce?
Subarachpoid
165
What are the three genetic conditions that increase the risk of a Berry Aneurysm?
Marfan
ADPKD
Ehlers-Danlos
166
What two locations would be affected by a Charcot-Bouchard Microaneurysm?
Basal Ganglia and Thalamus
167
Central Post-Stroke Pain Syndrome causes pain due to lesions in what location? How does this present?
thalamus
tingling progressing to allodynia
168
Which Intracranial Hemorrhage can present with a lucid period?
middle meningeal
169
What CANT an epidural hematoma cross?
suture lines
170
What CAN an epidural hematoma cross?
falx cerebrum
tentorium cerebelli
171
What CANT an subdural hematoma cross?
falx or tentorium
172
What CAN an subdural hematoma cross?
suture lines
173
Rupture of a berry aneurysm would produce what type of intracerebral hemorrhage?
subarachnoid
174
Rupture of an AVM would produce what type of intracerebral hemorrhage?
subarachnoid
175
What type of intracerebral hemorrhage would have bilirubin or blood on a spinal tap?
subarachnoid
176
What is the most serious complication of SAH?
vasospasm
177
What drug is used to treat SAH vasospasm? MOA of this drug?
Nimodipine
CCB
178
What are the two most common locations of an Intraparenchymal Hemorrhage?
thalamus and internal capsule
179
What three locations are most common for hypoxia to produce irreversible damage?
neocortex
hippocampus
cerebellum
180
When over the time-frame of a stroke would MRI produce a bright image?
bright = early ischemia
181
What is the single most vulnerable area for hypoxia to produce damage?
hippocampus
182
What structure of the brain is most commonly affected during a hemorrhagic stroke?
basal ganglia
183
Which vessel is most commonly effected by a Thrombotic Stroke?
MCA
184
What are the three causes of hemorrhagic stroke?
cancer
anti-coagulation
HTN
185
What is the pathophysiology of a Communicating Hydrocephalus?
decreased absorption of CSF by arachnoid granulations
186
What is the most common cause of a Communicating Hydrocephalus?
post-meningitis scarring
187
What gets compressed during a Normal Pressure Hydrocephalus?
corona radiata
188
What is Hydrocephalus Ex Vacuo?
appearance of hydrocephalus due to cortical atrophy
189
How many spinal nerves are there?
31
190
Do cervical nerves exit above or below their corresponding vertebrae?
above
191
Do thoracic/lumbar nerves exit above or below their corresponding vertebrae?
below
192
Where does the DCML decussate?
medulla
193
What structure does DCML use to reach thalamus?
medial lemniscus
194
Where is the 2nd order neuron for the DCML?
VPL
195
Where does the spinothalamic decussate?
anterior white commissure
196
Where is the 2nd order neuron of spinothalamic tract?
VPL of thalamus
197
Where does the lateral corticospinal tract decussate?
caudal medulla
198
Where part of the spine does polio effect?
LMNs
199
Where part of the spine does Werdnig-Hoffman Disease effect?
anterior horn neurons
200
What part of the spine is effected during Tabes Dorsalis?
Dorsal Column
201
What three tracts are affected by Subacute Combined Degeneration?
DCML
lateral corticospinal
spinocerebellar
202
What is the pathological process responsible for the symtpoms seen during Subacute Combined Degeneration?
Demyelination
203
What two locations does polio replicate?
Oropharynx and small intestine
204
By what mechanism is polio spread to the CNS?
hematogenously
205
What is the main symptom of Polio presentation?
LMN signs
206
Where is Polio virus recovered from?
stool or throat
207
What are the two characteristics of CSF during Polio?
increased WBC
slightly increased protein
208
What muscle fasiculates during Werdnig-Hoffman Disease?
tongue
209
What is the mode of inheritance of Werdnig-Hoffman?
autosomal recessive
210
What is the mode of inheritance of Friedrich Ataxia?
autosomal recessive
211
What is the repeat of Fiedrich Ataxia?
GAA
212
What chromosome is frataxin located on?
9
213
What is the function of frataxin?
mitochondrial iron handling
214
What is notable about the foot during Friedrich Ataxia?
pes cavus
215
What is the cause of death during Friedrich Ataxia?
hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
216
Which nerve innervates the cricothyroid?
external laryngeal
217
Which nerve carries sympathetic fibers to the eye?
long ciliary nerve
218
What is the dermatome of the inguinal ligament?
L1
219
What is the dermatome of the xiphoid?
T7
220
What vertebral levels compose the cremasteric reflex?
L1/L2
221
What vertebral levels compose the anal wink reflex?
S3/S4
222
What is touched during the suckling reflex?
roof of mouth
223
What is Galant Reflex?
sidebending towards stroking on back
224
Which cranial nerves lie medially at the brain stem?
three
six
twelve
225
Are the eyes or ears associated with the superior colliculus?
eyes
226
Are the eyes or ears associated with the inferior colliculus?
ears
227
Where is the conjugate vertical gaze center located?
superior colliculus
228
What is Parinaud Syndrome?
loss of conjugate vertical gaze due to impingement of superior colliculus
229
What is contained in the Edinger-Westphal Nucleus?
PANS fibers destined for eye
230
Which nerve provides pain sensation for the anterior 2/3 or the tongue?
trigeminal
231
Which salivary glands are innervated by the Facial Nerve?
submandibular and sublingual
232
Which cranial nerve mediates eyelid closing? Via what muscle?
facial
orbicularis oculi
233
What nerve innervates the parotid gland?
glossopharyngeal
234
What nerve innervates the stylopharyngeus?
glossopharyngeal
235
What is the function of the stylopharyngeus?
elevates pharynx/larynx
236
What nerve innervates the soft palate?
vagus
237
Is the alar plate medial or lateral?
lateral
238
Is the alar plate motor or sensory?
sensory
239
Is the basal plate medial or lateral?
medial
240
Is the basal plate motor or sensory?
motor
241
What is the function of the sulcus limitans?
separate sensory from motor cranial nerve nuclei
242
What is the afferent limb of the corneal reflex?
V1
243
What is the efferent limb of the corneal reflex?
seven
244
What is the afferent limb of the lacrimation reflex?
V1
245
What is the efferent limb of the lacrimation reflex?
Seven
246
What is the afferent limb of the gag reflex?
nine
247
What is the efferent limb of the gag reflex?
ten
248
What three cranial nerves compose the nucleus solitarius?
seven
nine
ten
249
What is the function of the NTS?
sensory
250
What three cranial nerves are house in the Nucleus Ambiguus?
nine
ten
eleven
251
Does a high firing rate of aortic and carotid baroreceptors occur during a high or low pressure state?
high
252
What will high firing rate of aortic and carotid baroreceptors do to PANS outflow?
increase
253
What nerves transverse the cavernous sinus?
three
four
Vone
Vtwo
six
254
What nerve is most often impinged during Cavernous Sinus Syndrome?
six
255
Does the jaw deviate towards or away the lesion? What muscle causes this?
towards
pterygoids
256
Does the uvula deviate towards or away from the side of the lesion?
away
257
Which SCM contracts to turn the head to the left?
right
258
Does the tongue deviate towards or away from side of lesion?
toward
259
Is low or high frequency sound heart at the apex of the cochlea?
low
260
Is low or high frequency sound heart at the base of the cochlea?
high
261
Which part of the organ of corti is responsible for hearing loss?
Organ of Corti
262
Is the upper or lower face spared during a facial UMN lesion? Why?
lower
bilateral LMNs to lower face
263
What infectious disease can cause a facial nerve palsy?
Lyme disease
264
Which two viruses can cause a facial nerve palsy ?
herpes simplex
herpes zoster
265
Which autoimmune disease can cause a facial nerve palsy?
sarcoidosis
266
Which pterygoid opens the jaw?
lateral
267
Which pterygoid closes the jaw?
medial
268
Is the eye too short or too long during Hyperopia?
short
269
Where is light focused during Hyperopia?
behind the retina
270
Is the eye too short or too long during Myopia?
too long
271
Where is light focused during Myopia?
in front of retina
272
Which two Autoimmune diseases can cause uveitis?
sarcoid and rheumatoid
273
Which infectious disease can cause uveitis?
TB
274
Which HLA haplotype can be associated with uveitis?
HLA-B27
275
Which three viruses are associated with retinitis?
CMV/HSV/HZV
276
What is non-proliferative Diabetic Retinopathy?
damaged vessels leak lipid and fluid
277
What is proliferative Diabetic Retinopathy?
chronic hypoxia results in new blood vessel formation
278
What anti-AB can be used to treat proliferative diabetic retinopathy?
anti-VEGF
279
What atrophies during glaucoma?
optic disk
280
What line of vision is lost during glaucoma?
peripheral
281
What race is predisposed to open-angle glaucoma?
African americans
282
What is the cause of primary closed/narrow angle glaucoma?
forward displacement of lens against iris
283
Why is the pathophysiology against secondary closed/narrow angle glaucoma?
hypoxia produces vasoproliferation and enlargement of iris
284
Prolonged administration of what drug could cause cataracts?
corticosteroids
285
Which two genetic metabolic diseases could result in cataracts?
galactosemia
galactokinase deficiency
286
Which molecule could cause cataracts during diabetes?
sorbitol
287
What direction does the eye point during an optic nerve lesion?
down and out
288
Where does the eye move during a trochlear nerve lesion?
upward
289
Does the head tilt toward or away from the affected trochlear nerve lesion side? Going down stairs?
toward
stairs = opposite
290
Which ciliary nerve contains PANS fibers?
short
291
Which ciliary nerve contains SANS fibers?
long
292
Which structure mediates the afferent cranial nerve pupillary light reflex?
Pretectal nucleus
293
What does the pretectal nucleus activate during the pupillary light reflex?
Edinger-Westphal nucleus
294
Which two layers of the retina are separated during retinal detachment?
rods/cones
photoreceptor layer
295
Which is located on the exterior of the retina, pigmented layer or rods/cones?
pigmented
296
Beneath which membrane is extracellular material deposited during dry macular degeneration?
Bruch
297
Quadrantic anopia is downstream of what vessel?
MCA
298
Is upper or lower quadrantic anopia projections found in the temporal lobe?
upper
299
Is upper or lower quadrantic anopia projections found in the parietal lobe?
lower
300
Hemianopia is downstream of what vessel?
PCA
301
Does Meyer Loop correspond to upper or lower retina?
lower retina
302
What does Meyers loop wrap across?
inferior horn of lateral ventricle
303
Through what structure does the superior retina projection pass through?
internal capsule
304
What is normal during INO?
convergence
305
Why does MLF get affected so quickly during MS?
heavily myelinated
306
Which chromosome is Presenelin-1 located on?
14
307
Which chromosome is Presenelin-2 located on?
1
308
Which chromosome is ApoE located on?
19
309
What structure that develops during Alzheimers correlates with disease severity?
tau protein tangles
310
What shape is Tau during Pick Disease?
spherical
311
Which happens earlier in Pick disease, personality changes or dementia?
personality changes
312
What gets spared during Pick Dementia?
posterior 2/3 of temporal gyrus
313
What is the first symptom of Lewy Body Dementia?
Dementia
314
What follows the dementia during Lewy Body Dementia?
visual hallucinations
315
What follows the visual hallucinations during Lewy Body Dementia?
parkinsonian symptoms
316
What is the pathological protein found during Lewy Body Dementia? Where?
α-synuclein
all over cortex
317
Which neuro-pathological disease features startle myoclonus?
Creutzfeld-Jakob
318
Which neuro-pathological disease features EEG sharp waves?
Creutzfeld-Jakob
319
What is the secondary structure of Creutzfeld-Jakob?
β-pleated sheet
320
Lack of which three B vitamins can cause dementia?
B1/B3/B12
321
Which type of hydrocephalus can cause dementia?
NPH
322
What does SIIN stand for regarding MS?
Scanning speech
intention tremor
INO
nystagmus
323
What imaging modality is used for MS?
MRI
324
What two activities make up the plaques in MS?
oligodendrocyte loss
reactive gliosis
325
What antibody is used to treat MS? What does it target?
Natalizumab
α4-integrin
326
What two drugs are used to treat spasticity during MS?
baclofen and benzos
327
Which virus can cause AIDP?
CMV
328
What is the treatment for AIDP?
plasmapharesis IV immunoglobulin
329
What drug can be used to treat PML?
natalizumab
330
Which four viruses can cause Acute Disseminated Encephalomyelitis?
Measles
Shingles
Smallpox
Rabies
331
Are central, peripheral or both types of nerves demyelinated during Metachromatic Leukodystrophy?
peripheral and central
332
What is another name for Charcot-Marie-Tooth Disease?
hereditary motor and sensory neuropathy
333
What is the pathophysiology of Charcot-Marie-Tooth Disease?
defective proteins involved in myelin synthesis
334
What two skeletal pathologies are associated with Charcot-Marie-Tooth Disease?
scoliosis
foot deformities
335
Which enzyme is defective during Krabbe Disease?
Galactocerebrosidase
336
What two products accumulate during Krabbe Disease?
galactocerebroside and psychosine
337
What is destroyed during Krabbe Disease? What type of cell appears?
myelin sheath
globoid
338
What is the mode of inheritance for Adrenoleukodystrophy?
X-linked
339
What is the pathophysiology of Adrenoleukodystrophy?
metabolic defect of VERY LONG CHAIN fatty acids
340
In what three locations do long chain fatty acids buildup during Adrenoleukodystrophy?
CNS
adrenal gland
testes
341
What lobe do most seizures arise?
temporal
342
What should one do with a febrile seizure in an infant?
look for source
343
What would be seen on physical exam during a cluster headache?
lacrimation
rhinorrhea
344
What type of headache may induce Horner Syndrome?
cluster
345
What are the two treatments for Cluster Headaches?
oxygen and sumatriptan
346
Which tricycyclic is used to treat migraines?
Amitriptyline
347
Which β-blocker is used to treat migraines?
propranalol
348
How long does Trigeminal Neuralgia usually last?
less than 1 minute
349
Where is the pathology for Peripheral Vertigo?
inner ear
350
Where is the pathology for Central Vertigo?
brainstem or cerebellum
351
How does Sturge-Weber arise?
sporadically
352
Which cells are defective during Sturge-Weber Syndrome?
neural crest
353
What gene is involved in Sturge-Weber? What type of mutation?
GNAQ
activating
354
Would would be seen in the meninges during Sturge-Weber Syndrome? Causing what?
leptomeningeal angioma
increased ICP
355
Which disease can present with an Episcleral Hemangioma?
Sturge Weber
356
What is increased during Sturge-Weber? What can this lead to?
Intraocular pressure
early onset glaucoma
357
Where does Tuberous Sclerosis produce hamartomas?
skin and CNS
358
What type of fibroma is seen during Tuberous Sclerosis?
Angiofibromas
359
Which two cardiac pathologies can be seen during Tuberous Sclerosis?
Mitral regurgitation
Rhabdomyoma
360
Which renal pathology can bee seen during Tuberous Sclerosis?
Angiomyolipoma
361
Which brain tumor is pathogonomic for Tuberous Sclerosis?
subependymal astrocytoma
362
Why can Tuberous Sclerosis present with ash leaf spots?
hypo-pigmentation
363
Neurofibromin is a negative regulator of what oncogene?
Ras
364
What are Lisch Nodules?
iris hamartomas
365
What type of neoplasm can NF1 produce in the eye?
Optic nerve glioma
366
Which of the NF disease can present with pheochromocytoma?
NF1
367
Skin tumors in NF1 are derived from which cell type?
Neural crest cells
368
Which renal pathology can VHL present with?
bilateral renal cell carcinoma
369
Which two types of hemanigio defects can VHL present with?
Cavernous hemangioma
Hemangioblastoma
370
In which three locations can VHL produce a hemangioblastoma?
retina
brainstem
cerebellum
371
Which adrenal pathology can VHL present with?
pheochromocytoma
372
Is HIF constantly on or constantly being degraded during VHL disease?
degraded
373
What is the stain for glioblastoma multiforme?
GFAP
374
Glioblastoma Multiforme is a malignant proliferation of what cell type?
astrocytes
375
"Pseudopalisading" is indicative of what brain cancer?
Glioblastome Multiforme
376
What cell type does a meningioma arise from?
Arachnoid cell
377
What brain tumor can attach to the dura?
meningioma
378
Which brain tumor can present with psammoma bodies?
meningioma
379
Which brain tumor can produce EPO?
hemangioblastoma
380
Which brain tumor has thin walled capillaries?
hemangioblastoma
381
What is the stain for a schwannoma?
S100
382
In what lobes are oligodendrogliomas most often located?
frontal
383
What is the capillary pattern of oligodendroglioma?
chicken-wire
384
Round nuclei with a clear cytoplasm is indicative of what brain tumor?
oligodendroglioma
385
Which brain tumor can often be calcified?
oligodendroglioma
386
Where is a pilocytic astrocytoma most often found?
posterior fossa
387
What is the stain for Pilocytic Astrocytoma?
GFAP
388
What tumor has rosenthal fibers? What do they look like?
pilocytic astrocytoma
corkscrews
389
Cystic mass with a mural nodule is indicative of what tumor?
pilocytic astrocytoma
390
Where in the brain does a medulloblastoma often arise?
cerebellum
391
From which cells does a medullablastoma arise?
neuroectoderm
392
What tumor can send 'drop metastasis'?
medullablastoma
393
Homer-Wright rosettes are indicative of what tumor?
medulloblastoma
394
Where do ependyomas most often arise? What age?
4th ventricle
four years old
395
Subfalcine herniation can compress what cerebral artery?
anterior cerebral artery
396
Why can a cerebellar tonsil hernia cause death?
inhibition of respiration
397
How does epinephrine produce a decrease in aqueous humor synthesis?
vasoconstriction
398
What are the two indirect cholinomimetics that decrease aqueous humor synthesis?
physostigmine
echothiophate
399
What prostaglandin releives glaucoma? By what mechanism?
Latanoprost
increase outflow
400
Which glaucoma drug can darken the iris? What is this drug an analogue of?
Latanoprost
PGF-2alpha
401
Which two channels do opioids act on?
potassium and calcium
402
Tolerance to which two side effects dont develop during opioid addiction?
miosis and constipation
403
What two receptors is butorphanol active what?
mu partial agonist
kappa full agonist
404
What is the potential unwanted effect of butorphanol?
cant reverse with naloxone
405
What are the three MOAs of tramadol?
weak opioid agonist
inhibits reuptake or NE and 5HT
406
What are the two main adverse effects of tramadol?
decreases seizure threshold
serotonin syndrome
407
Which two antiepileptics are contraindicated in pregnancy?
valproate and carbamazepine
408
What are the four short acting benzos?
alprazolam
triazolam
oxazepam
midazolam
409
What are the three non-benzodiazepine hypnotics?
Zolpidem
Zaleplon
eszopiclone
410
Which subtype do the non-benzodiazepine hypnotics function?
BZ1
411
What do inhaled anesthetics do to cerebral blood flow?
increased
412
Which general anesthetic is nephrotoxic?
methoxyflurane
413
Which general anesthetic is pro-convulsant?
enflurane
414
Malignant hyperthermia is a condition associated with the use of general anesthetics and what other drug?
Sucinylcholine
415
What does thiopental do to cerebral blood flow?
decrease
416
What is the only anesthetic that doesnt lower BP?
ketamine
417
What is the MAO of propofol?
potentiates GABA-A
418
Do local anesthetics bind to activated or inactivated sodium channels? Who does this mean?
activated
better target rapidly firing neurons
419
Which local anesthetic has cardiotoxicity effects?
bupivicaine
420
What is the MOA of non-depolarizing neuromuscular blockers?
Ach competitive antagonists
421
Which two drugs are used to reverse non-depolarizing neuromuscular blockers?
neostigmine and atropine
422
What are the three dopamine agonists?
Bromocriptine
Pramipexole
Ropinirole
423
What are the two COMT inhibitors?
Entacapone and Tolcapone
424
Which two features of Parkinsons does Benztropine treat?
tremor and rigidity
425
What is the toxicity of L-DOPA?
arrhythmias
426
Which NMDA antagonist is used during Parkinsons? To prevent?
Memantine
Ca2+ toxicity
427
What are the three AchE Inhibitors used during Parkinsons?
Donepezil
Galantamine
Rivastigmine
428
What three drugs are used to treat Huntingtons?
Reserpine
Tetrabenazine
Haloperidol
429
Sumatriptan is an agonist at which two receptors?
5HT1B and 5HT1D
430
When would sumatriptan be contraindicated?
CAD and prinzmetal angina
431
Which CNS cells has a friend egg appearance?
oligodendrocyte
432
What structure in the brain controls conjugate gaze?
paramedian pontine reticular formation
433
What is the output tract of the cerebellum?
superior cerebellar peduncle
434
Does the cerebellum send output to the ipsilateral or contralateral cortex?
contralateral
435
What is the only output cell of the cerebellum?
purkinje cell
436
Why can morphine cause vasodilation?
increased release of histamine
437
What cranial nerve can be affected during an Epidural Hematoma?
three
438
What is the most common reason for intraparenchymal hemorrhage?
systemic HTN
439
What imaging modality is used for an acute stroke?
MRI
440
How does an acute stroke look on MRI?
bright
441
What imaging modality is used for an stroke post-12 hours?
noncontrast
442
How does a stroke look on noncontrast CT?
dark
443
Where does DCML decussate?
medula
444
What two structures does the medial lemniscus connect?
medulla to VPL
445
What drug is used to treat ALS? MOA?
Riluzole
decreases presynaptic glutamate release
446
What is the first physical manifestation of Friedreich Ataxia?
Kyphoscoliosis
447
What nerve is the External Laryngeal Nerve a branch of?
Superior laryngeal nerve
448
What muscle does the External Laryngeal Nerve supply?
cricothyroid
449
Damage to the External Laryngeal Nerve or cricothryoid results in what type of voice?
monotone
450
What ganglion does Horner Syndrome use?
superior cervical ganglion
451
Which dermatome is a turtle neck?
C3
452
Which dermatome is a skullcap?
C2
453
Which structure detects muscle length?
spindle afferents
454
Which carnail nerve nuclei are located in the spinal cord?
accessory
455
What structure sends PANS autonomic fibers to the heart, lungs and upper GI?
dorsal motor nuclei
456
Which nerve provides sensory for posterior part of external ear canal?
Auricular branch of vagus
457
What is the treatment for facial nerve palsy?
corticosteroids
458
Which field of vision is blocked during glaucoma?
peripheral
459
How is the superior oblique tested?
look down and aDDuct
460
What are the four major causes of ring enhancing lesions?
Toxo
GB
Lymphoma
Abscess
461
Which pathway is associated with the positive signs of schizophrenia?
mesolimbic
462
Which pathway is associated with the negative signs of schizophrenia?
mesocortical
463
What vessel of the brain is responsible for prosopagnosia?
non-dominant PCA
464
What nucleus of the thalamus would produce a motor defect?
ventro-lateral
465
What are the two inputs to the ventro-lateral nucleus of the thalamus?
basal ganglia and cerebellum
466
What is the destination of the ventro-lateral nucleus of the thalamus?
motor cortex
467
Which nerve innervates the lacrimal gland? Branch of which cranial nerve?
greater petrosal
seven
468
What cell in the brain doesnt stain with Nissl?
microglia
469
Which in the brain cell removes excess neurotransmiter?
astrocyte
470
Which protein can be stained for identification of presynaptic nerve terminals?
Synaptophysin
471
What is the function of GTOs?
to inhibit excessive muscle contraction
472
What is the function of intrafusal muscle fibers?
stretch reflex
473
Which specific structure is affected during Wilsons disease?
Putamen
474
Which hormone induces REM Sleep?
acetylcholine
475
Which hormone inhibits REM Sleep?
Norepinephrine
476
Which hormone induces sleep?
serotonin
477
Which hormone produces arousal and wakefullnes?
Dopamine
478
Where does the lateral geniculate nucleus project?
calcarine sulcus
479
Which peduncle transmits information into the cerebellum from the cortex? Ipsilateral or contralateral side?
middle
contralateral
480
Which peduncle transmits information into the cerebellum from the spinal cord? Ipsilateral or contralateral side?
inferior
ipsilateral
481
Which peduncle transmits information into the cortex from the cerebellum? Ipsilateral or contralateral side?
superior
contralateral
482
What are the only output cells of the cerebellum? What neurotransmitter?
Purkinje
GABA
483
What causes neuronal death in Huntingtons?
NMDA toxicity
484
Which two neurotransmitters are decreased in Huntingtons?
GABA and Acetylcholine
485
What is apraxia?
inability to make purposeful movements
486
What is Aprosodia?
inability to understand emotion in speech
487
What is agnosagnosia?
inability to recognize oneself
488
What is prosopagnosia?
inability to recognize known faces
489
What are the two characteristics of Transcortical Motor Aphasia?
Brocas with intact repitition
490
What are the two characteristics of Transcortical Sensory Aphasia?
fluent aphasia with intact repitition
491
What is the only thing a person with Mixed Transcortical Speech can do?
repeat
492
What two parts of the brain are affected by Cerebral Amyloid Angiopathy?
occipital and parietal lobe
493
At what partial pressure does oxygen cause cerebral vasodilation?
494
A stroke of which vessel effects the tongue?
Anterior spinal
495
Xanthochromia is indicative of what stroke?
SUbarachnoid
496
Which sinus contains arachnoid granulations?
superior sagittal
497
Which brain tumor can cause an non-communicating hydrocephalus? Which specific structure is affected?
Pinealoma
cerebral aqueduct of sylvius
498
What is the MOA of Ketamine?
NMDA antagonist
499
Pseudotumor Cerebri can impinge which cranial nerve?
six
500
What are the two pharmacological causes of Pseudotumor Cerebri?
Vitamin A and danazol
501
Which nerve mediates the afferent and efferent branch of the jaw jerk reflex?
V3
502
Microglial nodules in the brain are indicative of what disease?
HIV
503
What is Ramsay Hunt Syndrome?
facial nerve paralysis in setting of zoster reactivation
504
Does a LMN lesion to cranial nerve seven effect the upper face, lower face or both?
both
505
What are Cholesteatomas comoposed of?
squamous cell debris
506
What week would Neural Tube Defects present?
4th
507
What is the MOA of baclofen?
GABA agonist
508
Paraneoplastic Cerebellar Degeneration is seen during which three cancers?
breast
ovarian
small cell
509
Which virus can produce a slowly progressive demyelinating syndrome?
HTLV1
510
What is an advantage of Butorphanol over morphine?
less respiratory depression
511
Decerebrate posturing reflects a lesion to where?
pons or below
512
Decorticate posturing reflects a lesion to where?
midbrain or above
513
Which three benzos are the preferred for patients with liver disease?
Oxazepam
Trazolam
Lorazepam
514
Do almost all INHALEd anesthetics increase or decrease cerebral blood flow?
increase
515
In order, what four senses are lost due to local anesthetics?
Pain>temperature>touch>pressure
516
What is the toxicity of amantadine?
ataxia
517
What is the central COMT Inhibitor?
Tolcapone
518
Is dopamine increased or decreased during Huntingtons?
increased
519
Does ASA Syndrome produce ipsilateral or contralateral extremity symptoms?
contralateral
520
Which papillary muscle has two blood supplies?
antero-lateral papillary muscle
521
What stage of sleep does Bruxism occur in?
N2
522
Which local anesthetic can cause methemoglobinemia?
benzocaine
523
What protein does alpha-synuclein interact with?
tubulin
