NMBE 13 Flashcards

(64 cards)

1
Q

which step of the ETC does carbon monoxide inhibit?

A

the final step - cytochrome oxidase

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2
Q

which cytokine is important in the formation of a lytic lesion ?

A

IL-1

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3
Q

how do fibrates work?

A

they stimulate cellular fatty acid uptake, and catabolism of the Beta-oxidation pathways

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4
Q

how do fibrates effect the CYP450 system?

A

they inhibit it

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5
Q

if you take a statin and a fibrate youre at increased risk for what?

A

statin A/E due to inhibited CYP450 —-> increased risk of myopathy

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6
Q

an EBV infection may result in which cancer?

A

B cell lymphomas

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7
Q

an EBV infection results in atypical ___ cells?

A

atypical t cells - may appear lacey

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8
Q

In pemphigus vulgaris there are igG antibodies against what…

A

Desmoglein-1 and or desmoglein-3 (component of desmosomes in the stratum spinosum)

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9
Q

bevacizumab MOA?

A

binds to VEGF preventing receptor binding

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10
Q

sumatriptan MOA?

A

binds and activates serotonin 5-HT1D receptors in the CNS

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11
Q

how do macrolides work?

A

they bind to the 50s subunit and block protein synthesisi - specifically by blocking translocation

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12
Q

what does MELAS stand for?

A

Mitochondrial encephalopathy, lactic acidosis, and stroke-like episodes (MELAS)

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13
Q

how is MELAS inherited?

A

From the mom - mitochondrial disorder

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14
Q

what is the function of the 3’ coding AATAAA?

A

forms the signal for cleavage and polyadenylation, protecting the mRNA from degradation

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15
Q

presentation of chediak-higashi syndrome?

A

Presents in childhood with recurrent pyogenic infections, partial albinism/photosensitivity, pancytopenia, bleeding, neurological symptoms

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16
Q

how is chediak-higashi inherited?

A

autosomal recessive

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17
Q

what defect causes chediak-higashi?

A

defect in lysosomal trafficking/phagolysosome functioning

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18
Q

which substance damages the anterior vermis?

A

alcohol

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19
Q

damage to the anterior vermis results in ?

A

gait ataxia

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20
Q

what is the most common type of laryngeal cancer?

A

SCC

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21
Q

how is esophageal peristalsis effected in systemic sclerosis?

A

DECREASED

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22
Q

how is the lower esophageal sphinctor effected in systemic sclerosis?

A

DECREASED TONE

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23
Q

blood supply to lateral mid brain?

A

PCA

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24
Q

blood supply to medial mid brain?

A

PCA

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25
blood supply to lateral pons?
AICA
26
blood supply to medial pons?
basilar
27
blood supply to lateral medulla?
PICA
28
blood supply to medial medulla?
ASA
29
what is missing in abetalipoproteinemia?
A lack of B-48 and B-100 and thus no chylomicrons, LDL or VLDL
30
how is abetalipoproteinemia inherited?
Autosomal recessive
31
how does abetalipoproteinemia present?
Severe fat malapsorption with steattorhea- ADEK deficiencies -they are thus more vulnerable to retinitis pigmentosa, spinocerebellar degeneration (lack of vit E), etc.
32
what is seen on blood smear of someone with abetalipoproteinemia?
Acanthocytes (spur cells) - spikey RBCs
33
in response to excess stimulation, what process do the adrenal glands undergo?
HYPERPLASIA not hypertrophy
34
is e coli indole pos or neg ?
POSITIVE
35
what colour does e coli appear on eosin-methylne blue agar?
green sheen (characteristic of any lactose fermenter)
36
what is an important virulence factor of e coli for causing UTIs?
Adhesins - part of pili - allows e coli to adhere
37
what part of bone acts a the source for chondroblasts and osteoblasts?
periosteum
38
which part of the bone provides the cells necessary for healing after a fracture?
the periosteum
39
what are volksmans canals?
Small channels in bone that transmit blood vessels from the periosteum into the bone and interconnect haversian canals
40
In multiple myeloma, which cytokines play a role in formation of lytic lesions?
IL1 and tumor necrosis factors
41
where do the intercostal vessels lie in relation to each rib?
just inferior to the rib - Vein, artery, nerve collateral vessels are superior to the ribs
42
where should posterior thoracentisis be performed (when inserting at the mid scapular line?)
above the 9th rib
43
formula for loading dose?
loading dose = Volume of distribution x desired concentration / bioavailbability
44
what does myeloperoxide produce?
hydroxy-halide radicals to kill microorganisms
45
where are the seminal vesicles found?
superior/posterior to the prostate
46
what is the function of the seminal vesicles?
they secrete the bulk of seminal fluid (semen) - the fluid is made of fructose, proteins, citric acid, etc.
47
what antibodies do polysaccaride vaccines commonly produce?
igM and igG (if conjugated to a protein)
48
presentation of goodpastures?
abrupt onset of hemoptosis, cough, SOB, peripheral edema and hematuria
49
pathophys of goodpastures?
antibody is directed against GBM -attacks both the lungs and kidneys resulting in complement activation and t cell reaction
50
what will you see on light microscopy of goodpastures?
glomerular cresents (RPGN)
51
what deposits in the glomerular membrane in goodpastures?
linear igG and C3
52
what will you see on EM of goodpastures?
nothing
53
praziquantel MOA?
increases permeability of cell to Ca, leading to paralysis, death of parasites
54
cisplatin MOA
binding DNA and interfering with repair
55
when does crossing over occur?
prophase I
56
ibuprofen MOA
non-selective COX inhibitor
57
what is chadwicks sign?
a bluish discolaration of the cervix, vagina and labia resulting from increased blood flow - early sign of pregnancy, seen 6-8 weeks after conception
58
diverticulitis presentation?
lower left abdominal pain, distention, fever, anorexia, constipation, diarrhea, etc.
59
what is bromocriptine?
a dopamine agonist
60
what is tramadol?
a strong opioid medication for moderate to severe pain
61
what is dextramorphan?
A cough suppressent that crosses the BBB and activates sigma opioid receptors -does NOT cause constipation or dependance
62
what is orlistat?
a drug that inhibits gastric and pancreatic lipases- preventing breakdown of triglycerides into absorbabe form and thus leading to excretion
63
what is clomiphene and how does it help treat infertility?
a SERM - antagonist in the hypothalamus, thus decreasing negative feedback and leading to increased GnRH
64
what does relative risk < 1 indicate?
a decreased risk in the exposed group