*Not Finished* Second Prosthetics Mock Exam Flashcards
(150 cards)
1
Q
All of the following factors contribute to vaulting with an AK prosthesis except…
a. prosthesis too long
b. excessive knee friction
c. inadequate suspension
d. weak hip extensors
A
Answer coming soon
2
Q
The gluteus medius is most active during…
a. heel strike
b. mid-stance
c. push-off
d. double support
A
Answer coming soon
3
Q
Which of the following is a characteristic of the constant friction knee?
a. eliminates the need for alignment stability
b. aids in stabilization of the knee during stance phase
c. supports body weight when the knee is slightly flexed
d. reduces heel rise and terminal impact at normal cadence
e. permits the knee to swing at varying speeds depending on cadence
A
Answer coming soon
4
Q
The toe of an AK prosthesis rotates externally at heel strike. Which of the following is the major cause of this problem?
a. knee bolt externally rotated
b. excessive toe out
c. keel too short
d. plantarflexion resistance too firm
A
Answer coming soon
5
Q
A gait cycle refers to all the activity that occurs between…
a. heel strike on one side and the following heel strike on the same side
b. double support on one side and the following double support on the opposite side.
c. heel-off to push-off on the same side
d. heel strike on one side and the following heel strike on the opposite side
e. heel contact and push-off
A
Answer coming soon
6
Q
Venous return of the blood to the heart is assisted by the…
a. action of the skeletal muscles
b. positive pressure in the heart
c. independent contraction of the arterial walls
d. arterial blood pressure
A
Answer coming soon
7
Q
During normal human locomotion, how many inches does the center of gravity shift from side to side?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
A
Answer coming soon
8
Q
The center of gravity of the adult male is located on the midline of the body at approximately the level of the…
a. acetabulum
b. coccyx
c. umbilicus
d. ischial tuberosity
e. second sacral vertebra
A
Answer coming soon
9
Q
To minimize lateral bending of the trunkk susequent to unilateral hip abductor weakness, it is best to use…
a. a cane on the involved side
b. a cane on the uninvolved side
c. a can on both sides
A
Answer coming soon
10
Q
The surgical attachment of muscle to muscle is known as…
a. myoplasty
b. myodesis
c. arthroplasty
d. arthrodesis
A
a. myoplasty
11
Q
The body’s center of gravity reaches its highest point at…
a. heel strike
b. foot flat
c. mid-stance
d. heel-off
A
Answer coming soon
12
Q
Pressure is determined by…
a. force divided by torque
b. torque divided by force
c. force divided by area
d. area divided by force
A
c. force divided by area
13
Q
During normal human locomotion, between heel contact and foot flat, the floor reaction force tends to cause which moments at the hip and knee?
a. hip flexion, knee flexion
b. hip flexion knee extension
c. hip extension, knee flexion
d. hip extension, knee extension
A
Answer coming soon
14
Q
If the sciatic nerve is severed at the level of the lesser trochanter, muscle function will not be impaired at the…
a. hip joint
b. knee joint
c. ankle joint
d. subtalar joint
A
Answer coming soon
15
Q
In the shoulder disarticulation amputee, which of the following muscle sites would be most suitable for control of myoelectric elbow?
a. superior rhomboid and sternomastoid
b. superior rhomboid and subscapularis
c. pectoralis major and trapezius
d. pectoralis major and coracobrachialis
A
Answer coming soon
16
Q
In the scapulothoracic amputee, which of the following motions can be used to operate the prosthesis?
a. glenohumeral flexion
b. biscapular abduction
c. shoulder elevation
d. chest expansion
A
Answer coming soon
17
Q
Which of the following muscles does not rotate the humerus internally?
a. subscapularis
b. pectoralis major
c. infraspinatus
d. latissimus dorsi
A
c. infraspinatus
18
Q
The terminal device on the shoulder disarticulation prosthesis is operated primarily by scapular…
a. abduction
b. adduction
c. elevation
d. depression
A
Answer coming soon
19
Q
A major limitation of the shoulder disarticulation prosthesis is…
a. difficulty in donning the prosthesis
b. excursion needed to operate the prosthesis
c. force needed to operate the prosthesis
d. weight of the prosthesis
A
Answer coming soon
20
Q
The most prominent and highest point on the shoulder girdle is the…
a. acromion
b. coracoid process
c. spine of the scapula
d. greater tuberosity of the humerus
e. superior angle of the scapula
A
a. acromion
21
Q
The elbow is flexed to 90 and a 40 pound weight is held in the hand. the distance from the elbow axis to the weight is 15 inches. How much force must the elbow flexors exert if their insertion is 2 inches from the elbow joint axis?
a. 80 inch pounds
b. 150 inch pounds
c. 200 inch pounds
d. 300 inch pounds
e. 600 inch pounds
A
Answer coming soon
22
Q
Which of the following is not a characteristic of the shoulder saddle harness?
a. improves excursion in biscapular abduction
b. increases comfort in axial loading
c. reduces pressure in the axilla
d. presents cosmetic difficulties for females
A
Answer coming soon
23
Q
For which type of amputation is the external or ouside locking joint designed?
a. forequarter
b. shoulder disarticulation
c. midhumeral AE amputation
d. elbow disarticulation
e. short BE
A
Answer coming soon
24
Q
Which of the following is not part of the AE figure-of-eight harness?
a. anterior suspension strap
b. lateral suspension strap
c. control attachment strap
d. inverted “Y” strap
A
Answer coming soon
25
The length of the AE humeral section is determined by measuring the sound side from the...
a. acromion process to the lateral epicondyle
b. acromion process to the olecranon
c. coracoid process to the medial epicondyle
d. coracoid process to the lateral epicondyle
Answer coming soon
26
In Frantz and Aitken's classification system, complete absence of the upper limb distal to the shoulder joint is termed...
a. phocomelia
b. hemimelia
c. amelia
d. paraxial deficiency
e. intercalary deficiency
Answer coming soon
27
All of the following are characteristics of the cross back strap except...
a. makes donning and doffing more difficult
b. increases available cable excursion
c. decreases force required to operate the terminal device
d. tends to keep the cross point from migrating
Answer coming soon
28
Where should the cross point of the figure-of-eight harness be located in relation to the 7th cervical vertebra
a. inferior and toward the amputated side
b. inferior and toward the sound side
c. superior and toward the amputated side
d. superior and toward the sound side
e. directly beneath it
Answer coming soon
29
Which of the following epiphyses contributes most to longitudinal growth of the upper limb?
a. proximal humerus
b. distal humerus
c. proximal ulna
d. distal ulna
Answer coming soon
30
Elevation of the scapula is accomplished by the...
a. pectoralis minor muscle
b. trapezius muscle
c. supra and infraspinatus muscle
d. teres major and minor muscles
e. latissimus dorsi muscle
b. trapezius muscle
31
What shoulder function will be lost if the middle section of the deltoid is impaired?
a. flexion
b. extension
c. abduction
d. adduction
e. rotation
c. abduction
32
At what amputation level would flexible elbow hinges be most appropriate?
a. elbow disarticulation
b. short BE
c. mid-forearm BE
d. long BE
Answer coming soon
33
A unilateral BE prosthetic patient complains that the axilla loop of his harness is uncomfortable. The most common reason for this complaint is that the cross point is...
a. too close to the amputated side
b. too close to the sound side
c. superior to C7
d. inferior to C7
Answer coming soon
34
In the short AE prosthesis, the trim lines are extended proximally to...
a. increase the glenohumeral range of motion
b. decrease axial loading capabilities
c. increase rotational stability
d. enhance cosmesis
Answer coming soon
35
The AE prosthesis is designed with 10-15 degrees of elbow flexion in order to...
a. give a more cosmetic appearance
b. prevent the elbow from hyperextending
c. make activation of the terminal device easier
d. give a mechanical advantage when initiating forearm flexion.
Answer coming soon
36
Which of the following modifications would not increase function for the bilateral short AE amputee?
a. use a wrist flexion unit on the dominant side
b. lower the elbow centers to decrease the forearm length
c. decrease the size of the proximal wings on the socket
d. line the cable housings with teflon
Answer coming soon
37
In the Muenster socket, the principal function of the posterior proximal brim is to limit elbow extension and...
a. protect the olecranon
b. provide suspension in axial loading
c. provide a location for the cross bar assembly
d. facilitate elbow flexion
Answer coming soon
38
Which of the following muscles is most readily identified by palpation?
a. iliopsoas
b. vastus intermedius
c. sartorius
d. pectineus
e. gluteus minimus
c. sartorius
39
The muscles which pass posterior to the medial malleolus at the ankle act to...
a. invert and plantar flex the foot
b. evert and plantar flex the foot
c. invert and dorsiflex the foot
d. evert and dorsiflex the foot
Answer coming soon
40
Which of the following muscles flexes the knee joint?
a. peroneus longus
b. soleus
c. biceps femoris
d. vastus intermedius
c. biceps femoris
41
Which of the following is not a function of the conventional silesian bandage?
a. aids in rotational control
b. adds medio-lateral stability
c. improves suspension
d. provides a sense of security
Answer coming soon
42
How is the medial lateral dimension of the quadrilateral AK socket determined?
a. measure the distance from the ischial tuberosity to the greater trochanter
b. evaluate the relative position of the trochanter and prominence of the gluteus maximus
c. multiply the measured AP by two
d. divide the thigh circumference at ischial level by three
Answer coming soon
43
In a total contact suction socket, edema is prevented by...
a. firm positive pressure during swing phase
b. firm negative pressure during swing phase
c. constant negative pressure on the residual limb
d. alternating negative and positive distal pressures.
Answer coming soon
44
All these bones form the acetabulum except...
a. ilium
b. sacrum
c. pubis
d. ischium
b. sacrum
45
Which of the following is not a function of a hip joint and pelvic belt?
a. improve lateral stability
b. control rotation of the socket
c. control abduction
d. provide suspension
e. prevent lateral bending of the trunk
Answer coming soon
46
The normal hip reaches its maximum extension during...
a. heel strike to foot flat
b. mid-stance
c. heel-off
d. mid-swing
Answer coming soon
47
To maintain mediolateral stability when fitting a short AK residual limb, it may be necessary to...
a. plantarflex the foot
b. externally rotate the foot
c. internally rotate the foot
d. place the foot under the ischial tuberosity
e. place the foot under the midline of the posterior shelf
Answer coming soon
48
In a very short AK, which of the following groups of hip muscles has the least strength?
a. flexors
b. extensors
c. abductors
d. adductors
e. external rotators
Answer coming soon
49
Which of the following is not a boundary of scapa's triangle?
a. adductor longus
b. rectus femoris
c. sartorius
d. inguinal ligament
b. rectus femoris
50
Which of the following muscles inserts on the lesser trochanter?
a. gluteus maximus
b. adductor longus
c. vastus medialis
d. quadratus femoris
e. iliopsoas
e. iliopsoas
51
In a hip disarticulation prosthesis, the major function of the iliac crest is to...
a. prevent trendelenburg gait
b. prevent anterior posterior instability
c. provide an area for suspension
d. provide an area for weight bearing
Answer coming soon
52
In a Canadian hip disarticulation socket, which of the following is not affected by AP placement of the hip joint?
a. hip joint alignment stability
b. length discrepancy between the prosthetic and anatomical knee during sitting
c. toe clearance during the swing phase
d. lateral stability during stance phase
e. stride length
Answer coming soon
53
With respect to the hip and knee joints at mid-stance, the floor reaction line for a hip disarticulation prosthesis passes...
a. anterior to the hip, and anterior to the knee
b. anterior to the hip, and posterior to the knee
c. posterior to the hip, and anterior to the knee
d. posterior to the hip, and posterior to the knee
Answer coming soon
54
During ambulation, instability of the knee at heel strike with a hip disarticulation prosthesis may be caused by...
a. knee center aligned posterior to the weight line
b. heel wedge that is too hard
c. excessive extension of the socket
d. thigh length that is too short.
e. foot in too much plantarflexion
Answer coming soon
55
The symphysis pubis is...
a. the anterior junction of the pelvic bones
b. the posterior junction of the pelvic bones
c. made up of the ilium and ischium
d. made up of the ilium and femur.
a. the anterior junction of the pelvic bones
56
Immediate post-surgical fitting of upper limb amputees offers all of the following advantages except...
a. early maturation of the residual limb
b. more rapid rehabilitation
c. greater residual range of motion
d. early return of two-handed grasping patterns
Answer coming soon
57
Which of the following is not an advantage of a myoelectric prosthetic system over a cable driven one?
a. requires less force and excursion
b. provides inherent sensory feedback
c. harnessing is less complicated.
d. improves the cosmetic result
Answer coming soon
58
A patient with loss of the thumb only would probably benefit most from...
a. an opposition post
b. cosmetic glove
c. a handy hook
d. a robin-aids hand
Answer coming soon
59
A mechanical partial hand prosthesis would probably be contraindicated for a transmetacarpal amputation with...
a. no digits remaining
b. the little finger remaining
c. the thumb remaining
d. the ring and little finger remaining
e. the thumb and index finger remaining
Answer coming soon
60
The amount of residual supination and pronation retained by a wrist disarticulation patient while wearing a prosthesis should be at least...
a. 15%
b. 33%
c. 50%
d. 75%
e. 90%
Answer coming soon
61
A 23 year old wrist disarticulation amputee intends to return to work as a carpenter. Which terminal device offers the best tool handling capabilities?
a. Dorrance 555 (lyre shaped)
b. Dorrance 7 (farmer's hook)
c. Dorrance 88X (neoprene lined)
d. Dorrance 12P (plastisol coated)
Answer coming soon
62
Which of the following would cause decreased pronation and supination in a wrist disarticulation patient?
a. proximal trim line is distal to the epicondyles
b. proximal trim line is proximal to epicondyles
c. flexible hinge attached too far anterior
d. flexible hinge attached too far posterior
Answer coming soon
63
The motions of supination and pronation of the forearm occur at which of the following joints?
a. radiocarpal
b. intercarpal
c. metacrapophalangeal
d. elbow
e. proximal radioulnar
Answer coming soon
64
In the medium legnth BE amputation, which of the following muscles is missing/
a. supinator
b. pronator quadratus
c. brachioradialis
d. flexor carpi radialis
e. extensor carpi radialis longus
Answer coming soon
65
Which of the following is not part of the BE figure-of-eight harness?
a. anterior suspension strap
b. lateral suspension strap
c. control attachment strap
d. inverted "Y" strap
Answer coming soon
66
If a BE prosthesis is harnessed with a split cable housing, which prosthetic joint has most likely been utilized?
a. polycentric hinge.
b. step-up hinge
c. flexible hinge
d. single pivot hinge
Answer coming soon
67
A BE prosthesis with flexible hinges should not inhibit flexion at the elbow more than...
a. 5 degrees
b. 10 degrees.
c. 15 degrees
d. 20 degrees
Answer coming soon
68
The primary advantage of a voluntary closing terminal device is...
a. ease of operation
b. graded prehension
c. mechanical simplicity
d. lighter weight
Answer coming soon
69
Which of the following components provides the greatest range of motion for the bilateral BE amputee?
a. standard friction wrist
b. constant friction wrist
c. flexion wrist (built-in type)
d. wrist flexion unit (sierra type)
Answer coming soon
70
Loss of the upper limb joint distal to the supinator muscle will result in what amputation level?
a. wrist disarticulation
b. mid-forearm amputation
c. short BE residual limb
d. long AE residual limb
Answer coming soon
71
What modification is made to the figure-of-eight harness for the bilateral BE patient?
a. the ring is replaced with a sewn cross point
b. the inverted Y straps are eliminated
c. the axilla loops are unnecessary
d. a cross back strap is added.
Answer coming soon
72
The force applied to open the terminal device of a BE prosthesis is 7 pounds. How many pounds of force applied at the harness would provide acceptable efficiency?
a. 10
b. 14
c. 21
d. 28
e. 70
Answer coming soon
73
The patient with long bilateral BE amputations who is also blind will have difficulty using conventional prosthetic devices. What surgical intervention can be most useful in this situation?
a. marquardt's osteotomy
b. krukenberg's operation
c. biceps cineplasty
d. gritti-stokes procedure
Answer coming soon
74
When a voluntary opening prosthetic hand is activated, the cable replaces function normally provided by the...
a. brachioradialis and extensor pollicis brevis
b. flexor digitorum longus and opponens pollicis longus
c. flexor digitorum longus and extensor carpi radialis
d. extensor carpi radialis longus and brevis
e. extensor digitorum communis and lumbricales
Answer coming soon
75
All of the following prehension patterns are provided by a prosthetic hand except...
a. cylindrical
b. spherical
c. palmar
d. lateral
Answer coming soon
76
The main supinator of the forearm is the...
a. flexor carpi radialis
b. pronator quardratus
c. triceps
d. biceps
e. extensor carpi radialis longus
Answer coming soon
77
The olecranon process is a portion of the...
a. radius
b. clavicle
c. humerus
d. ulna
e. scapula
d. ulna
78
An excursion amplifier incorporated in a control system provides increased cable excursion at the expense of...
a. elbow motion
b. cosmesis
c. ease of donning
d. requiring more force
Answer coming soon
79
When the elbow flexion attachment of the AE forearm is moved toward the terminal device, it will have what mechanical effect?
a. decrease in the force required and increase in exursion required
b. decrease in the force required and decrease in exursion required
c. increase in the force required and decrease in exursion required
d. Increase in the force required and increase in exursion required
Answer coming soon
80
Which of the following is not a characteristic of the elbow disarticulation amputation?
a. provides rotational stability
b. improves the cosmetic result
c. preserves a long lever arm
d. prevents bony overgrowth
e. leaves the epiphyseal plates intact
Answer coming soon
81
Above elbow amputation is sometimes performed for a complete brachial plexus injury. For optimum prosthetic function, what other steps would be helpful?
a. shoulder fusion
b. transcutaneous nerve
c. nerve transplants
d. myoplastic closure
Answer coming soon
82
The brachioradialis muscle acts primarily to...
a. extend the glenohumeral joint
b. flex the elbow joint
c. supinate the forearm
d. pronate the forearm
b. flex the elbow joint.
83
In AK cast modification, the term flexion angle refers to the angle between what two structures?
a. medial shelf and long axis of the medial wall.
b. anterior wall and a vertical reference line
c. ischial shelf and the lateral wall
d. posterior wall and the medial wall
Answer coming soon
84
During dynamic alignment of an AK prosthesis, the patient's trunk bend laterally toward the amputated side. This indicates what problem?
a. the prosthesis is too long
b. the socket is too abducted
c. the knee is positioned too far medially
d. the foot is positioned too far laterally
Answer coming soon
85
Compared to the AK amputation, the knee disarticulation offers all the following features except...
a. end bearing
b. greater rotational control
c. better vascular supply
d. more functioning muscles intact
Answer coming soon
86
Which adductor muscle is always transected in a knee disarticulation amputation?
a. gracilis
b. adductor magnus
c. adductor longus
d. adductor brevis
e. pectineus
Answer coming soon
87
All the following cause swing phase whips in prosthetics except...
a. knee bolt internally rotated
b. rectus channel too shallow
c. knee friction too loose
d. weak residual limb musculature
Answer coming soon
88
A burning or stretching sensation near the ischial area of an AK patient, while he is sitting, is most likely to be caused by...
a. skin reaction that occurs following activity
b. too narrow AP diameter of the socket
c. inadequate flare of the posterior wall
d. an excessively wide ischial seat
Answer coming soon
89
If the amount of adduction must be decreased on the AK plaster mold, how must the posterior shelf (seat) be modified?
a. add plaster laterally
b. add plaster medially
c. remove plaster laterally
d. remove plaster medially
Answer coming soon
90
The prosthesis designed for a patient with a proximal femoral focal deficiency (PFFD) generally utilizes ischial and gluteal weight bearing because the...
a. hip joint is unstable or non-existent
b. knee is painful when bearing weight
c. skin of the leg will not tolerate weight bearing
d. femur is osteoporotic and may fracture
e. foot is not suitable for weight bearing.
Answer coming soon
91
Which of the following would most likely cause an AK amputee to walk with an abducted gait?
a. prosthesis too short
b. anterior wall is too high
c. improperly contoured lateral wall
d. patient has an adduction contracture
Answer coming soon
92
Which of the following knees provides the least stance phase stability?
a. Mauch SNS
b. Bock Safety
c. Kolman saftey
d. Dynaplex hydraulic
e. Constant friction
Answer coming soon
93
In the AK quadriplateral socket, all the following can cause discomfort in the hamstrings except...
a. socket AP diameter too small
b. excessively wide ischial shelf
c. insufficient radius along the ischial brim
d. posterior to medial wall angle too large
Answer coming soon
94
When a mechanical friction knee is used in an above knee prosthesis, it can be expected that excessive heel-rise will occur...
a. at slower than normal cadence
b. at faster than normal cadence
c. when the patient walks up a slight incline
d. when the patient walks down a slight incline
Answer coming soon
95
A result of reduced piston action on an AK suction socket is...
a. more toe clearance during swing phase
b. greater freedom of hip motion
c. decreased body sway when walking
d. increased socket rotation during swing phase
Answer coming soon
96
The main flexor of the hip joint is the...
a. rectus femoris
b. tensor fascia latae
c. sartorius
d. semitendinosis
e. iliopsoas
Answer coming soon
97
During normal heel strike, the forward hip is...
a. flexed 25 degrees
b. flexed 40 degrees
c. in neutral position
d. extended 10 degrees
e. extended 25 degrees
Answer coming soon
98
A characteristic of a hydraulic knee mechanism with swing and stance phase control is that it...
a. requires more force to initiate knee flexion during swing phase than other hydraulic units
b. does not function as well during swing phase as "swing phase only" hydraulic knee mechanisms
c. eliminates the need for rotating the knee externally
d. is best suited for geriatric patients
e. requires less alignment stability
Answer coming soon
99
The biceps femoris produces which of the following hip and knee motions?
a. hip extension knee extension
b. hip extension knee flexion
c. hip flexion knee extension
d. hip flexion knee flexion
Answer coming soon
100
During dynamic alignment on a Berkley AK adjustable leg, the pylon is noted to slant medially. This condition indicates that...
a. the foot is positioned too far medially
b. prosthesis is too short
c. there is excessive adduction of the socket
d. the knee is positioned too far medially
Answer coming soon
101
Which of the following adjustments would increase AP stability of an OttoBock Modular prosthetic knee?
a. move the foot posteriorly
b. stuffen the heel bumper
c. plantarflex the foot
d. externally rotate the foot
Answer coming soon
102
Patients with short AK amputations generally exhibit lateral bending of the trunk during locomotion due to...
a. inadequate suspension
b. loss of an adequate lever arm
c. loss of abductor muscles
d. weak adductor muscles
Answer coming soon
103
In AK cast modification, the term adduction angle refers to the angle between the...
a. posterior wall and a vertical reference line
b. medial wall and brim
c. ischial shelf and the lateral wall
d. posterior wall and the medial wall
Answer coming soon
104
The majority of fluid control prosthetic knee systems provides what function?
a. stance control only
b. swing control only
c. swing and stance control
d. swing control with lock
e. stance control with lock
Answer coming soon
105
In the case of the elderly AK prosthetic patient with impaired circulation, skin breakdown of the residual limb is best avoided by...
a. total contact socket
b. pelvic belt suspension
c. suction socket
d. elastic shrinker sleeve
Answer coming soon
106
On an AK socket, where should the axis of a single-axis hip joint be located with reference to the patient's greater trochanter?
a. posterior and superior
b. posterior and level
c. anterior and superior
d. anterior and level
Answer coming soon
107
During normal human locomotion, which muscle acts to decelerate the leg before heel strike?
a. gastrocnemius
b. vastus lateralis
c. biceps femoris
d. sartorius
e. gracilis
Answer coming soon
108
One reason for initial flexion in an AK socket is to...
a. locate the site of the trochanter posteriorly
b. permit even stride length during walking.
c. permit the knee to be positioned poseriorly
d. create a more proper TKA relationship
Answer coming soon
109
A common cause of excessive pressure on the inferior pubic ramus is a quadrilateral AK socket is...
a. a socket that is too long
b. a posterior wall that slopes medially
c. an anterior brim that is too high
d. an anterior posterior dimension that is too large
e. insufficient radius on the medial wall
Answer coming soon
110
Which of the following externally powered elbow units is not usually adaptable to a switch control in the harness?
a. boston
b. fidelity (VANU)
c. variety village
d. Utah
Answer coming soon
111
A split-socket for the BE prosthetic patient is used so that...
a. the forearm has better cosmetic appearance
b. the amount of forearm flexion is increased
c. power is increased in exchange for ROM
d. the patient can lift heavier objects
Answer coming soon
112
The biceps brachii produces which of the following actions of the elbow and forearm?
a. elbow extension, forearm pronation
b. elbow extension, forearm supination
c. elbow flexion, forearm pronation
d. elbow flexion, forearm supination
Answer coming soon
113
All of the following are charcteristic of a prosthesis with step-up elbow joints except...
a. appropriate for very short residual limb
b. special harness needed
c. weaker flexion power
d. 2:1 excursion ratio
Answer coming soon
114
Patients who are converted from side joints with thigh lacer to a corsetless PTB commonly exhibit what gait problem?
a. excessive knee flexion at heel strike
b. short prosthetic stride
c. knee extension throughout stance phase
d. marked tendency to vault
Answer coming soon
115
Anerior-posterior instability of the knee is caused by a tear of the...
a. collateral ligaments
b. iliofemoral ligament
c. cruciate ligaments
d. annular ligament
c. cruciate ligaments
116
The final factor that determines your selection of heel cushion durometer in a SACH foot is the...
a. patient's activity level
b. patient's weight
c. patient's age
d. length of residual limb
e. compression of heel cushion at heel strike
Answer coming soon
117
The distal BK residual limb appears reddened and edematous after ambulation. the most common cause would be...
a. contact dermatitis
b. pressure on the peroneal nerve
c. lack of total contact
d. osteomyelitis
e. end bearing
Answer coming soon
118
During normal human locomotion, the primary function of the gluteus medius is to...
a. control the degree of femoral adduction
b. stabilize the knee
c. maintain lateral stability of the pelvis
d. flex hip joint
e. extend the hip joint
Answer coming soon
119
Compared to PTB with cuff suspension, the PTB SC/SP socket offers all of the following advantages except....
a. enhanced medial lateral stability
b. more positive knee extension stop
c. more freedom for kneeling
d. less pistoning during swing phase
e. a self-suspending prosthesis
Answer coming soon
120
In a PTB prosthesis, the BK residual limb should have the greatest vertical loading force during stance phase concentrated at the...
a. medial flare of the tibia
b. distal and medial side of the shaft of the tibia
c. popliteal space
d. tibial tubercle
Answer coming soon
121
When the counter of the shoe fits too tightly on a SACH foot, which of the following problems can results?
a. posterior lean of pylon
b. less compression of the heel
c. decrease in push-off resistance
d. decrease in external rotation of the foot
Answer coming soon
122
One week after receiving a new prosthesis, a BK patient complains of hyperextension of the knee at midstance. The most likely cause is that the patient...
a. has been fitted with a SACH foot with too soft a heel cushion
b. has changed to a show with a lower heel
c. needs more gait training
d. has an AP measurement that is too large
e. has atrophied and needs to add more socks
Answer coming soon
123
Which of the following bony landmarks is not used to determine the correct length of a prosthesis?
a. medial tibial plateau
b. posterior superior iliac spine
c. anterior superior iliac spine
d. iliac crest
e. greater trochanter
Answer coming soon
124
The anterior stop in a single axis foot substitutes for which of the following muscles?
a. tibialis anterior
b. gastrocnemius
c. extensor digitorum longus
d. peroneus tertius
Answer coming soon
125
According to Burgess et al., when a rigid plaster dressing is applied following a below knee amputation, the relief pads should be placed...
a. on the patellar tendon
b. on the tibial tubercle
c. to cover the fibular head
d. to bridge the tibial crest
Answer coming soon
126
With a PTB prosthesis, excessive knee flexion occurs after heel strike. Which of the following foot and socket adjustments best corrects the problem?
a. move foot anterior, decrease socket flexion
b. move foot anterior, increase socket flexion
c. move foot posterior, decrease socket flexion
d. move foot posterior, increase socket flexion
Answer coming soon
127
One reason for aligning the PTB prosthesis so that the patient's knee is partially flexed is to...
a. minimize the tendency of the knee to hyperextend
b. limit the weight bearing capacity of the limb
c. give the amputee better balance while standing
d. insure equal stride length
e. decrease the pressure on the popliteal area
Answer coming soon
128
In BK alignment, correct ML placement of the foot with reference to the midline of the socket is...
a. inset up to 1/2 inch (12mm)
b. inset 1/2 inch to 1inch (12mm-25mm)
c. outset up to 1/2 inch (12mm)
d. outset 1/2 inch to 1 inch (12-25mm)
Answer coming soon
129
Improperly located PTB studs can cause all of the following problems except...
a. swing phase whips
b. inadequate suspension
c. peroneal nerve impingment
d. difficulty in sitting
Answer coming soon
130
The plantarflexion bumper substitues in part for which of the following muscles?
a. extensor digitorum brevis
b. gastrocnemius
c. flexor hallucis longus
d. peroneus longus
e. tibialis anterior
Answer coming soon
131
Which of the following is not an advantage of multiaxial prosthetic foot?
a. absorbs torque
b. accommodates uneven ground
c. minimizes shear forces on the skin
d. requires less maintenance
Answer coming soon
132
When the BK patient controls the tendency of the knee to flex after heel strike, the pressures are increased on which areas of the limb?
a. proximal anterior, proximal posterior
b. proximal anterior, distal posterior
c. distal anterior, proximal posterior
d. distal anterior, distal posterior
Answer coming soon
133
Which of the following conditions would would require the removal of an immediate post surgical (IPSF) rigid dressing?
a. blood staining of the cast
b. phantom pain at night
c. sudden increase in the patient's temerature
d. sensation that the cast is tight distally
Answer coming soon
134
Compared to a PTB S/C prosthesis, the joints and corset PTB offers all the following advantages except...
a. enhanced ML stability
b. more positive knee extension stop
c. less quadriceps atrophy
d. greater weight bearing distribution
Answer coming soon
135
During dynamic alignment of a PTB prosthesis, excessive knee flexion occurs at the beginning of heel rise. Which of the following adjustments best corrects the problem?
a. move foot posterior, decrease socket flexion
b. move foot posterior, increase socket flexion
c. move foot anterior, decrease socket flexion
d. move foot anterior, increase socket flexion
Answer coming soon
136
A long posterior flap in a BK amputation secondary to ischemia is preferred because of...
a. better blood supply
b. more fat to protect the skin
c. better cover over the cut end of fibula
d. easier flap closure
Answer coming soon
137
A tendon that is readily visible or palpable in the popliteal area when the knee is flexed is that of the...
a. pectineus
b. vastus intermedius
c. rectus femoris
d. biceps femoris
e. popliteus
Answer coming soon
138
During static alignment of a PTB prosthesis, the prosthetist noted that the patient's knee was going into hyperextension while standing, even though bench alignment had been correct. The prosthetist should...
a. slide the foot anteriorly
b. slide socket posteriorly
c. check the compression of the SACH heel
d. plantarflex the foot
Answer coming soon
139
If the foot of the PTB prosthesis is moved too far laterally on the adjustable leg, it will cause excessive pressures on which areas of the residual limb?
a. distal lateral, proximal medial
b. distal lateral, distal medial
c. proximal lateral, proximal medial
d. proximal lateral, distal medial
Answer coming soon
140
Knee flexion built into a PTB socket increases the weight bearing capacity of the...
a. end of the residual limb
b. crest of the tibia
c. patellar tendon
d. shaft of the fibula
Answer coming soon
141
Which one of the following muscles is not a plantarflexor of the foot?
a. tibialis posterior
b. plantaris
c. extensor hallucis longus
d. peroneus longus
e. gastrocnemius
Answer coming soon
142
Which of the following muscles undergoes a lengthening contraction between heel strike and foot flat?
a. tibialis posterior
b. tibialis anterior
c. peroneus longus
d. flexor hallucis longus
e. gastrocnemius
Answer coming soon
143
Following a transmetatarsal amputation, the patient loses...
a. plantarflexion
b. inversion
c. heel off
d. toe off
e. push off
Answer coming soon
144
Inversion of the foot is accomplished primarily by the...
a. peroneal muscles
b. flexor digitorum longus
c. tibialis anterior and posterior
d. gastrocnemius-soleus group
Answer coming soon
145
The talus does not articulate with the...
a. tibia
b. cuboid
c. calcaneus
d. navicular
e. fibula
Answer coming soon
146
Active plantarflexion of the ankle joint is strongest with the...
a. hip extended
b. hip flexed
c. knee extended
d. knee flexed
Answer coming soon
147
The chopart level of amputation is performed through the...
a. metatarsal shafts
b. synovial membranes
c. tarsal metatarsal joint
d. mid-tarsal joint
e. neck of the talus
Answer coming soon
148
The anterior trim line of the symes prosthesis usually extends to the level of the patellar tendon in order to...
a. provide a long lever arm to distribute force
b. achieve better suspension
c. decrease compression loads on the prosthesis
d. improve cosmetic appearance
Answer coming soon
149
The plantarflexors are most active during...
a. heel strike
b. foot flat
c. mid-stance
d. heel-off
e. mid-swing
Answer coming soon
150
The function of the tibialis anterior muscle is...
a. dorsiflexion and inversion
b. dorsiflexion and eversion
c. plantarflexion and inversion
d. plantarflexion and eversion
Answer coming soon
