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Flashcards in NURS 302 EXAM 1 Deck (285)
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1
Q

a change in skin color, less than 1 cm- freckles, flat moles (nevi)

A

macule

2
Q

a solid raised lesion, less than 1cm - wart, elevated mole

A

papule

3
Q

elevated, irregular-shaped area of edema - insect bites, urticaria, allergic reaction

A

wheal

4
Q

raised solid lesion, 1 to 2 cm, - lipoma

A

nodule

5
Q

raised lesions filled with clear fluid, less than 1 cm - varicella (chickenpox), herpes zoster (shingles)

A

vesicle

6
Q

fluid-flled lesion, greater than 1 cm- blister

A

bulla

7
Q

elevated lesion that contain pus - pus - acne, impetigo

A

pustule

8
Q

enlarged scar, caused by excessive collagen formation during healing

A

keloid

9
Q

linear, hollowed out - abrasion or scratch

A

excoriation

10
Q

linear crack or break which extends into dermis- athletes foot

A

fissure

11
Q

loss of epidermis, concave, decubitus ulcer- pressure sore

A

ulcer

12
Q

abnormal growth in basal layer, most common, least aggressive, pearl colored, depressed center, rolled border

A

basal cell carcinoma

13
Q

atypical squamous cells, more aggressive, slow growing, firm.

A

squamous cell carcinoma

14
Q

form melanocytes (cells that produce pigment)

can metastasize to any organ, common in young people, may arise from moles

A

malignant melanoma

15
Q

what does ABCDE stand for?

A
asymmetry
borders
color
diameter
evolution
16
Q

inflammatory disorder of sebaceous glands

A

acne

17
Q

liver spots- “age spots” (senile lentigo & lentigo maligna)

A

lentigo

18
Q

chronic, genetis, redness, dry patches, & heavy silver surface. lifelong with remissions and exacerbations

A

psoriasis

19
Q

benign plaques 3-20 mm with variety of surfaces

A

seborrheic keratosis

20
Q

arrhythmic vesicles, honey colored, highly contagious, face, arms, legs & butt

A

impetigo

21
Q

diffuse inflammation with various lesions, preceding wounds, common in adults.

A

cellulitis

22
Q

inflammed hair follicle, red lesion or pustules, in eye it is called a stye

A

folliculitis

23
Q

absess or boil, deep folliculitis, pus filled, painful, firm

A

furuncles (abscess or boil)

24
Q

herpes simplex type I is?

A

fever blister

25
Q

herpes simplex type II is ?

A

genital herpes

26
Q

herpes zoster is ?

A

shingles

27
Q

macroles =

A

flat

28
Q

pacroles =

A

raised

29
Q

type of macrole that is a yeast-like fungus?

A

candidiasis

30
Q

ringworm of scalp, patchy hairloss

A

tinea capitis

31
Q

ringworm of the body, red circles

A

tinea corporis

32
Q

athletes foot, itchy

A

tinea pedis

33
Q

moist, dark areas, treated with powders or creams

A

candidiasis (oral thrush)

34
Q

pediculosis is?

A

lice

35
Q

pediculosis capitis is?

A

head lice

36
Q

reaction with something you’ve touched

A

contact dermatitis

37
Q

itchy rash with raised areas, check airway

A

urticaria (hives)

38
Q

what is a burn?

A
injury to tissues caused by:
heat
chemicals
electrical currents
radiation
39
Q

first degree burns affect what layers of skin?

A

outer layers of epidermis
PARTIAL THICKNESS
red, pink, painful, usually no blisters

40
Q

second degree affects what layers of skin?

A

entire epidermis and dermis
FULL THICKNESS
paintful, moist, red, blistered, and edema

41
Q

third degree affects what layers?

A

extend into subcutaneous tissue & may involve muscle and bone

waxy white or yellow to tan, brown, deep red, or black

hard, dry, leathery

no pain

42
Q

what is used to estimate percentage of total body surface area of burn (TBSA)

A

rule of nines

43
Q

skeleton is made of

A

bones and joints

44
Q

what are the two systems in musculoskeletal?

A

skeletal muscles and skeleton

45
Q

2 types of connective tissue

A

cartilage and bone

46
Q

rigid tissue, contains crystals and blood vessels, calcium and salts

A

bone

47
Q

gel-like and made of water

A

cartilage

48
Q

two types of bone

A

cancellous(spongy) and compact

49
Q

outer shell of bone, more rigid

A

compact

50
Q

inferior bone, lattice-like pattern

A

cancellous (spongy)

51
Q

end of bone

A

epiphysis

52
Q

shaft of bone

A

diaphysis

53
Q

what part contains bone marrow?

A

diaphysis

54
Q

makes blood cells

A

red marrow

55
Q

contains fat

A

yellow marrow

56
Q

widening before end of bone

A

metaphysis

57
Q

growth plate is called?

A

epiphyseal cartilage

58
Q

when does the growth plate (epiphyseal cartilage) calcify?

A

after puberty

59
Q

to keep bones healthy they need _____ ____.

A

mechanical stress

60
Q

bone building

A

osteoblasts

61
Q

bone chewing cells–function in bone resorption

A

osteoclasts

62
Q

parathyroid hormone (PTH) is released when blood calcium levels ____

A

decrease

63
Q

what are the 2 stages of osteoblasts….(bone building)

A

ossification and calcification

64
Q

how does PTH increase blood calcium?

A

forms bones, kidneys, and intestines

65
Q

released by thyroid gland when blood calcium is too highinhibits calcium release and reduce osteoclasts

A

calcitonin

66
Q

calcitonin reduces the _____

A

osteoclasts–which break up bones to release calcium

67
Q

fractures can be classified as:

A

complete or incomplete(green stick or partial)
open or closed
or direction of fracture line
pathologic, stress, or transchondral

68
Q

parallel to axis

A

linear

69
Q

sloping angle to shaft

A

oblique

70
Q

encircles shaft

A

spiral

71
Q

straight accross

A

transverse

72
Q

what type of break happens in osteoporosis patients?

A

pathologic

73
Q

what type of break happens in athletes?

A

stress

74
Q

what type of break happens in adolescence?

A

transchondral

75
Q

signs in symptoms of fractures?

A
pain
swelling
loss of function
deformity
no mobility
decreased sensation
76
Q

how can you diagnose fractures?

A

X-rays
manifestations
history

77
Q

3 ways to treat fractures

A

reduction
immobilization
preservation and restoration of function

78
Q

reduction means?

A

restore

79
Q

how do you reduce a fracture?

A
closed manipulation (manual pressure)
or surigical reduction (hardware by surgery)
80
Q

how do you immobolize a fracture?

A

splints or external devices

81
Q

how do you preserve and restore function of a fracture?

A

exercise to maintain strength and reduce joint stiffness

82
Q

common way to pull bones back to correct spot. used to control spasms, & immobilize area before surgery

A

traction

83
Q

what does ORIF stand for?

A

open reduction internal fixation

84
Q

what are there 4 phases of fracture healing?

A

HEMATOMA- week 1
SOFT CALLUS- week 2-3
HARD CALLUS- week 4-16
REMODELING- week 17 and beyond

85
Q

bone marrow or adipose tissue at fracture site releases fat droplets into circulation.

frequently occurs after fracture of long (femur) and pelvic bones

A

fat embolism syndrome

86
Q

result of increased pressure within a limited space

causes decreased blood flow, tissue hypoxia, and necrosis

fascia unable to accommodate excessive edema

A

compartment syndrome

87
Q

compartment syndrome is caused by:

A

bleeding and edema, related to fractures and bone surgery

or application of tight fitting dressing, splint, or cast

88
Q

what are the 5 P’s of compartment syndrome:

A
pain
parestriesia
pail or cool
paresis
pulselessness
89
Q

hallmark symptom of compartment syndrome?

A

severe pain out of proportion to initial injury

90
Q

what are the 2 ways to reduce compartment pressures

A

fasciotomy and cast splitting or remove constrive dressings

91
Q

tear or injury to a tendon(muscle to bone)

A

strain

92
Q

tear or injury to ligament (bone to bone)

A

sprain

93
Q

complete seperation of a tendon or ligament from bony attachment site

A

avulsion

94
Q

loss of articulate of bone ends in joint- most common site: shoulder

A

dislocation

95
Q

partial dislocation

A

subluxation

96
Q

inflammation of a tendon

A

tendonitis

97
Q

inflammation of a bursa, caused by repeated trauma

A

bursitis

98
Q

type of bursitis caused by wound infection

A

septic bursitis

99
Q

what is the acronym for strains & sprains

A

RICE

rest ice compression elevation

100
Q

bone infection:

A

osteomyelitis

101
Q

causes of osteomyelitis

A

open wound or from blood borne infection

bacteria, fungi, parasites, & viruses

102
Q

open wound with direct contamination.

ex: open fractures, surgery, penetrating wounds

A

exogenous

103
Q

blood borne

A

endogenous (hematogenous)

104
Q

what happens in children with hematogenous osteomyelitis:

A

purulent exudate inside bone. affects long bones, damages arteries to bone. may penetrate skin or involve joints

105
Q

what happens in adults with hematogenous osteomyelitis:

A

spine, pelvis, and small bones (affects joint space)

106
Q

treatment for hematogenous osteomyelitis:

A

antibiotics, debrievement, surgery, hyperbaric

107
Q

decreased bone mineral density.

caused by osteoporosis

A

osteopenia

108
Q

porous bone, poorly mineralized bone, decreased bone density and strength.
reduced bone mass/density and an imbalance of bone resorption and formation

A

osteoporosis

109
Q

1st line of defense to the body

A
ear wax
tears
saliva
vomit
defecation
urination
skin
digestive acids
normal bacterial flora
110
Q

is inflammation good or bad? why or why not?

A

good because it’s a protective response

111
Q

caused by activation of chemicals and cellular components found in blood and tissues

A

inflammation

112
Q

redness

A

rubor

113
Q

swelling

A

tumor

114
Q

heat

A

calor

115
Q

pain

A

dolor

116
Q

loss of function

A

functio laesa

117
Q

inflammation is the moves ___ & ____

A

fluid & leukocytes

118
Q

itis follows what?

A

the name of the infected organ

ex: appendicitis

119
Q

quick/rapid disease

A

acute

120
Q

long period of time

A

chronic

121
Q

what type of cell “get to work” during acute inflammation?

A

leukocytes

122
Q

chronic inflammation is what?

A

proliferation of blood vessels
tissue necrosis(death)
fibrosis(scarring)

123
Q

endothelial cells are where?

A

lining of blood vessels

124
Q

endothelial cells contain what>

A

antiplatelet and antithrobotic agents

vasodilators & vasoconstricters

125
Q

contain histamines which cause leakiness

A

mast cells

126
Q

potent effect on cells.
vasoactive–dilates capillaries
increase blood flow
increase vascular permability

A

histamines

127
Q

circulate in the blood stream until vascular injury occurs.
work to stop bleeding
degranulate

A

platelets

128
Q

WBCs

adhesion molecules

A

leukocytes

129
Q

what are the 3 types of leukocytes

A

neutrophil
eosinophil
basophil

130
Q

1st one on the scene.
mature cell
removes debris, dead cells, and bacteria
works then dies

A

neutrophil

131
Q

cell ingests and gets rid of foreign matter
neutrophils and macrophages
leave blood stream and go to site of inflammation

A

phagocytosis

132
Q

mildly phagocytic

2 jobs: defend against parasites & help limit inflammation by degrading histamine

A

eosinophils

133
Q

important in allergic reactions

A

basophils and mast cells

134
Q

basophils are a precursor for _____ cells.

A

mast cells

135
Q

monocytes become _____. which kill and eat debris

A

macrophages

136
Q

these replace the neutrophils and are important in chronic inflammation

A

macrophages

137
Q

immune system is challenged by foreign substances which causes the body to create antigens. these two things are the immune systems response

A

lymphocytes and plasma

138
Q

produced by bone marrow and injure antigens

A

B cells

139
Q

made by thymus and attack antigen directly

A

T cells

140
Q

both B & T cells reside in peripheral ____ ____ once mature

A

lymph tissue

141
Q

recognize and eliminate cells infected with viruses and abnormal cells (Cancerous)

bind to infected or tumor cells & kill them

A

natural killer cells (NKs)

142
Q

type of exudate that is clear liquid and makes blisters

A

serous

143
Q

like pneumonia, blood clot-more serious.

“whited out” in chest xray

A

fibrinous

144
Q

found on mucous membranes.

necrotic cells in fiber & pus

A

membranous

145
Q

purulent (discharging pus)

A

bacterial

146
Q

RBCs.

blood clot

A

bleeding, hemorrhagic

147
Q

pus producing

A

pyogenic

148
Q

pocket of pus

A

abcess

149
Q

epithelial surface eroded, necrotic

A

ulceration

150
Q

what are some symptoms of inflammation?

A

WBC count increase
“shift to the left”
lymph node changes

151
Q

what does “shift to the left mean”?

A

immature leukocytes can’t keep up with infections

152
Q

what are way to tell if a lymph node is cancerous?

A

not painful, not tender

153
Q

normal core temperature must be?

A

97.0-99.5

154
Q

fever is higher when?

A

in the evening/night

155
Q

fever is lower in the?

A

morning

156
Q

What controls core temp?

A

hypothalamus

157
Q

difference between heat production and heat loss

A

body temp

158
Q

what is the body main heat source?

A

metabolism

159
Q

released when you need an increase in temp?

A

epinephrine and non epinephrine

160
Q

what is shifted to produce heat, not energy?

A

body metabolism

161
Q

what is a result of body metabolism being shifted?

A

weakness and fatigue

162
Q

doing this 3-5 times increase in body temp?

A

shivering and chattering of teeth

163
Q

what causes an increased body temp?

A

physical exertion

164
Q

what is produced by muscle and viscera?

A

heat

165
Q

heat is transferred in the blood to what?

A

body surfaces

166
Q

what is an example of heat loss?

A

AV shunts

167
Q

when do you have more blood volume?

A

hot weather

168
Q

when do you have less blood volume?

A

cold weather

169
Q

when is heat lost?

A
  • radiation–60%
  • conduction–cooling blankets
  • convection
  • evaporation
170
Q

what is the scientific name for fever?

A

pyrexia

171
Q

what is caused by pyrogens?

A

pyrexia (fever)

172
Q

causes of fever?

A
  • bacteria
  • myocardial infarctions
  • neurogenic fever
  • brain bleeds
  • increase in intracranial pressure
173
Q

purposes of fever?

A
  • cook the poison
  • antiparetics
  • immune function enhanced with small temp increases
174
Q

fever is considered harmful when it reaches?

A

above 105

175
Q

what are the patterns of fever?

A
  • intermittent
  • remittent
  • sustained
  • recurrent or relapsing
176
Q

sepsis, abscesses, bacterial endocarditis

A

intermittent

177
Q

viral upper respiratory infections

A

remittent

178
Q

drug fever

A

sustained

179
Q

TB, malaria

A

recurrent or relapsing

180
Q

Your heart rate normally increases how many bpm with an increase of 1 degree fahrenheit?

A

10 BPM

181
Q

when you have fever what also increases?

A

respiratory rate

182
Q

when you have fever you are also seen to have?

A
  • dehydration

- chills (draw blood cultures)

183
Q

4 stages of fever?

A
  • prodrome (warning)
  • chills
  • flush
  • defervescence (sweating)
184
Q

what are some signs that you may have fever?

A
  • anorexia
  • myalgia
  • arthralgia
  • fatigue
  • respirations increase
185
Q

if a patient has chills you should do what?

A

draw blood cultures

186
Q

there are changes in fever because of?

A

increased oxygen need and metabolic rate

use of protein instead of glucose

187
Q

what are some changes in the elderly and children?

A

elderly see confusion and agitation
febrile seizures
fever blisters

188
Q

FUO

A

fever unknown origin

189
Q

treatment for fever

A

spongebaths, or alcohol solutions
cooling blankets
fluids, carbs
antipyretic drugs

190
Q

have a high risk for bacterial infections

A

neonates

191
Q

limited signs of infection

lethargy, poor feeding, cyanosis

A

neonates, young infants

192
Q

the elderly’s lower basal temp is?

A

97.6

193
Q

in the elderly… fever is how many degrees above the baseline?

A

2

194
Q

if the elderly don’t show signs of fever, we should check for

A

change in mental status
weight loss
weakness
fatigue

195
Q

in elderly use what kind of thermometers?

A

rectal or tympanic

not oral

196
Q

tissue repair for same type cells. sometimes there is no trace of injury

A

regeneration

197
Q

repairs connective tissues which are scars or fibrosis

A

replacement

198
Q

if regression is impossible—–

A

replacement with connective tissue and scar forms

199
Q

growth of new blood vessels

A

angiogenesis

200
Q

when is granulation good?

A

when its red and moist

201
Q

3 ways to repair connective tissue

A

granulation
angiogenesis
scar forming by replacing CT

202
Q

primary healing will…..

A

heal fine cause the cut was intended

203
Q

secondary healing will heal….

A

from bottom up and will have trouble

204
Q

“collagen on overdrive”

A

keloids

205
Q

what affects wound healing?

A

nutritional status
blood flow & oxygen delivery

(Diagnosis of Diabetes mellitus, corticosteroids, infections, and foreign bodies in wound)

206
Q

in the elderly does their skin change?

A

yes

207
Q

elderly are in increased risk of…..

A

chronic wounds

208
Q

do elderly have problem healing?

A

yes

209
Q

normal ranges for pH?

A

7.35-7.45

210
Q

normal range for PaCO2?

partial pressure of carbon dioxide

A

35-45

211
Q

normal range for HCO3?

A

22-26

212
Q

who is most sensitive to fluid deficits?

A

infants

213
Q

happens to cell in isotonic?

A

stays same

214
Q

what happens to cell in hypertonic?

A

shrinks

215
Q

what happens to cell in hypotonic?

A

swells

216
Q

Water follows…

A

salt

217
Q

normal levels of salt?

A

135-145 mEq/L

218
Q

Hyponatremia is….

A

decreased salt; under 135

219
Q

do hyponatremia patients have floppy of twitchy symptoms?

A

floppy

220
Q

hypernatremia is….

A

increased salt; over 145

221
Q

do hypernatriema patients have floppy or twitchy?

A

twitchy

222
Q

normal potassium levels?

A

3.5-5.0 mEq/L

223
Q

hypokalemia is….

A

decrease in potassium; less than 3.5

224
Q

hypokalemia; floppy or twitchy?

A

floppy

225
Q

hyperkalema is….

A

increase in potassium; over 5.0

arrhythmias

226
Q

hyperkalemia; floppy or twitchy?

A

floppy THAN twitchy

227
Q

normal calcium levels

A

8.5-10.5 mg/dL

228
Q

hypocalcemia is…

A

decrease in calcium; less than 8.5

229
Q

hypocalcemia; floppy or twitchy?

A

twitchy

230
Q

hypercalcemia is….

A

increase in calcium; over 10.5

231
Q

hypercalcemia; floppy or twitchy?

A

floppy

232
Q

sperm and egg

A

gametes

233
Q

somatic cells are..

A

body cells

234
Q

in somatic cells how many chromosomes are there?

A

46

235
Q

XX

A

girl

236
Q

XY

A

boy

237
Q

23/23 pairs identical are called

A

autosomes

238
Q

everyone inherits one copy of each ____ from each parent

A

gene

239
Q

presence of only one copy of a chromosome….LETHAL

A

monosomy

240
Q

presence of 3 copies of chromosome…may survive

A

trisomy

241
Q

birth defects are called..

A

congenital defects

242
Q

congenital defects are caused by:

A

environmental factors

genetic factors

243
Q

Disorders are almost always associated with what chromosome?

A

X; MOMs

244
Q

Risk factors for genetic problems:

A
miscarriage
maternal/paternal influences
familial
type 2 DM
VSD
Hematology
Age
Nutrition
Environment
Multifactorial
245
Q

chromosome disorder on the 21st chromosome

A

down syndrome— trisomy 21

246
Q

down syndrome is a predisposition for:

A

Congenital heart disease
leukemia
hypothyroidism
hirschsprung’s Dx—-colon

247
Q

S&S of down syndrome?

A

physical
intellectual—moderate to severe
sensory—eyes are different
one crease across palm(simian crease)

248
Q

Downs syndrome problems?

A
  • respiratory infections (since tongue protrudes)
  • vital signs, congestion, can’t feed
  • prevent infection
  • cardiac
  • monitor—urine, edema, feeding, skin color
249
Q

deletion or abnormal x on chromosome 45

A

turner’s syndrome

250
Q

what does turners affect?

A

women; they will only have 1 X chromosome

251
Q

turner’s is a predisposition for:

A

hypothyroidism
aortic coarctication (aorta narrows)
renal structure
behavioral and learning disturbances

252
Q

what do the females look like with turners?

A
short
webbed neck
underdeveloped breasts
imperfect ovaries
normal intellect
frequent UTIs
must give estrogen prior to 12 to develop normally
watch for cardiac, renal, thyroid dysfunction
253
Q

how many turner’s babies are spontaneously aborted?

A

99%

254
Q

syndrome in which you have X-linked one or more extra x chromsome

A

klinefelter’s syndrome

255
Q

how many male births are affected by this?

A

1:850

256
Q

how to klinfelter’s look?

A
tall lean body
long legs
normal intellect
testicular dyngenesis (testes don't develop)
gynecomastia
sterility
voice doesn't change after puberty
sparse facial hair
257
Q

abnormalities in klinfelter’s?

A

scoliosis
dental
cardiac
pulmonary

258
Q

metabolic disorder — lack enzyme which converts phyenylalanine to tyrosine

A

phenylketonuria (PKU)

259
Q

if untreated PKU can cause

A

severe retardation
seizures
death

260
Q

how many are affected by PKU?

A

1:15,000

261
Q

when are people screened for PKU?

A

at birth

262
Q

S&S of PKU

A

musky odor to urine
failure to thrive
mental retardation
seizures, vomiting, rashes

263
Q

PKU management…..

A
breastfeeding
blood tests
special dairy products
avoid high protein foods
some veggies
monitor nutrition
264
Q

Problems with PKU

A

if phenylalanine is not converted it can increase to toxic levels

irreversable CNS probs. and mental retardation

Seizures

265
Q

degeneration of cerebral cortex.
25-55 yrs of age
neutrotransmitters loss—GABA

A

huntington’s disease

266
Q

connective tissue disorder
chromosome 15
1:20,000

A

marfan’s syndrome

267
Q

marfan’s often causes what?

A

aortic aneurysm–common cause of early death

268
Q

in marfan’s syndrome you should monitor what?

A

growth, development, vision

CARDIAC

give beta blockers for heart probs.

269
Q

absence of tyrosinase—needed for melanin production

A

albinism

270
Q

there are two types (I & II).

which is worse?

A

type I is worse

it is worse because they have NO melanin in their eyes. type II has some pigment

271
Q

S&S of albinsim

A

bleeding problems
lung and bowel disease
low vision or legally blind

272
Q

interventions for albinism

A
screen vision
avoid sun
check for melanomas
wear glasses
genetic/cultural counseling
273
Q
  • interruption of development in utero
  • feeding difficulties
  • risk for aspiration, malnutrition
A

cleft lip/palate

274
Q

interventions for cleft palate

A

surgery

speech therapy

social worker

nutrition

audiologist

orthodontist

monitor for ear infections/hearing loss

275
Q

autosomal recessive chromosome disorder

A

cystic fibrosis

276
Q

cystic fibrosis involves blockages where?

A

pancreas

277
Q

cystic fibrosis also affects the respiratory system how?

A

thickened secretions decrease ciliary function

278
Q

cystic fibrosis affects mostly

A

Caucasians

279
Q

CF patients ____ is not transported. so people perform the ____ test to see if it is secreted through the sweat

A

NaCl & Kiss test

280
Q

CF leads to ___ side heart failure (for pulmonale)

A

right

281
Q

Treatment for CF

A

administer oxygen, but not too much cause it could kill

increase fluids

282
Q

S&S of CF

A

large protruding abdomen

failure to thrive

steatorrhea ( foul smelling stool)

Biliary obstruction

283
Q
minor-major problems
mental retardation
behavioral problems
intellectual problems
skull, brain malformation
small eye opening, thin upper lip, flat midface
A

fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS)

284
Q

anacephaly

spinabifida

all women of child bearing age should take this

all enriched grain cereals in US have this

A

folic acid deficiency

285
Q

TORCH microorganisms

A

toxoplasmosis
rubella
cytomegalovirus
herpes