OB Exam 3

Question 1

The nurse expects to administer an oxytocic (e.g., Pitocin, Methergine) to a woman after expulsion of her placenta to:

a. Relieve pain.
b. Stimulate uterine contraction.
c. Prevent infection.
d. Facilitate rest and relaxation.

Answer 1

ANS: B
Oxytocics stimulate uterine contractions, which reduce blood loss after the third stage of labor. Oxytocics are not used to treat pain or prevent infection. They cause the uterus to contract, which reduces blood loss. Oxytocics do not facilitate rest and relaxation.

Question 2

Medications used to manage postpartum hemorrhage (PPH) include (Select all that apply):

a. Pitocin
b. Methergine
c. Terbutaline
d. Hemabate
e. Magnesium sulfate.

Answer 2

ANS: A, B, D
Pitocin, Methergine, and Hemabate are all used to manage PPH. Terbutaline and magnesium sulfate are tocolytics; relaxation of the uterus causes or worsens PPH.

Question 3

The perinatal nurse is caring for a woman in the immediate postbirth period. Assessment reveals that the woman is experiencing profuse bleeding. The most likely etiology for the bleeding is:

a. Uterine atony. c. Vaginal hematoma.
b. Uterine inversion. d. Vaginal laceration.

Answer 3

ANS: A
Uterine atony is marked hypotonia of the uterus. It is the leading cause of postpartum hemorrhage. Uterine inversion may lead to hemorrhage, but it is not the most likely source of this clients bleeding. Furthermore, if the woman were experiencing a uterine inversion, it would be evidenced by the presence of a large, red, rounded mass protruding from the introitus. A vaginal hematoma may be associated with hemorrhage. However, the most likely clinical finding would be pain, not the presence of profuse bleeding. A vaginal laceration may cause hemorrhage, but it is more likely that profuse bleeding would result from uterine atony. A vaginal laceration should be suspected if vaginal bleeding continues in the presence of a firm, contracted uterine fundus.

Question 4

A primary nursing responsibility when caring for a woman experiencing an obstetric hemorrhage associated with uterine atony is to:

a. Establish venous access.
b. Perform fundal massage.
c. Prepare the woman for surgical intervention.
d. Catheterize the bladder.

Answer 4

ANS: B
The initial management of excessive postpartum bleeding is firm massage of the uterine fundus. Although establishing venous access may be a necessary intervention, the initial intervention would be fundal massage. The woman may need surgical intervention to treat her postpartum hemorrhage, but the initial nursing intervention would be to assess the uterus. After uterine massage the nurse may want to catheterize the client to eliminate any bladder distention that may be preventing the uterus from contracting properly.

Question 5

The perinatal nurse caring for the postpartum woman understands that late postpartum hemorrhage (PPH) is most likely caused by:
a. Subinvolution of the placental site
b. Defective vascularity of the decidua
c. Cervical lacerations
.d. Coagulation disorders

Answer 5

ANS: A
Late PPH may be the result of subinvolution of the uterus, pelvic infection, or retained placental fragments. Late PPH is not typically a result of defective vascularity of the decidua, cervical lacerations, or coagulation disorders.

Question 6

Which woman is at greatest risk for early postpartum hemorrhage (PPH)?
A. A primiparous woman (G 2 P 1 0 0 1) being prepared for an emergency cesarean birth for fetal distress
B. A woman with severe preeclampsia who is receiving magnesium sulfate and whose labor is being induced
C. A multiparous woman (G 3 P 2 0 0 2) with an 8-hour labor
D. A primigravida in spontaneous labor with preterm twins

Answer 6

ANS: B
Magnesium sulfate administration during labor poses a risk for PPH. Magnesium acts as a smooth muscle relaxant, thereby contributing to uterine relaxation and atony. Although many causes and risk factors are associated with PPH, the primiparous woman being prepared for an emergency C-section, the multiparous woman with 8-hour labor, and the primigravida in spontaneous labor do not pose risk factors or causes of early PPH.

Question 7

The first and most important nursing intervention when a nurse observes profuse postpartum bleeding is to:

a. Call the womans primary health care provider.
b. Administer the standing order for an oxytocic.
c. Palpate the uterus and massage it if it is boggy.
d. Assess maternal blood pressure and pulse for signs of hypovolemic shock.

Answer 7

ANS: C
The initial management of excessive postpartum bleeding is firm massage of the uterine fundus. Although calling the health care provider, administering an oxytocic, and assessing maternal BP are appropriate interventions, the primary intervention should be to assess the uterus. Uterine atony is the leading cause of postpartum hemorrhage (PPH).

Question 8

When caring for a postpartum woman experiencing hemorrhagic shock, the nurse recognizes that the most objective and least invasive assessment of adequate organ perfusion and oxygenation is:

a. Absence of cyanosis in the buccal mucosa.
b. Cool, dry skin.
c. Diminished restlessness.
d. Urinary output of at least 30 mL/hr.

Answer 8

ANS: D
Hemorrhage may result in hemorrhagic shock. Shock is an emergency situation in which the perfusion of body organs may become severely compromised and death may occur. The presence of adequate urinary output indicates adequate tissue perfusion. The assessment of the buccal mucosa for cyanosis can be subjective. The presence of cool, pale, clammy skin would be an indicative finding associated with hemorrhagic shock. Hemorrhagic shock is associated with lethargy, not restlessness.

Question 9

One of the first symptoms of puerperal infection to assess for in the postpartum woman is:

a. Fatigue continuing for longer than 1 week.
b. Pain with voiding.
c. Profuse vaginal bleeding with ambulation.
d. Temperature of 38 C (100.4 F) or higher on 2 successive days starting 24 hours after birth

Answer 9

ANS: D
Postpartum or puerperal infection is any clinical infection of the genital canal that occurs within 28 days after miscarriage, induced abortion, or childbirth. The definition used in the United States continues to be the presence of a fever of 38 C (100.4 F) or higher on 2 successive days of the first 10 postpartum days, starting 24 hours after birth. Fatigue would be a late finding associated with infection. Pain with voiding may indicate a urinary tract infection, but it is not typically one of the earlier symptoms of infection. Profuse lochia may be associated with endometritis, but it is not the first symptom associated with infection.

Question 10

To provide adequate postpartum care, the nurse should be aware that postpartum depression (PPD)without psychotic features:

a. Means that the woman is experiencing the baby blues. In addition she has a visit with a counselor or psychologist.
b. Is more common among older, Caucasian women because they have higher expectations.
c. Is distinguished by irritability, severe anxiety, and panic attacks.
d. Will disappear on its own without outside help.

Answer 10

ANS: C
PPD is also characterized by spontaneous crying long after the usual duration of the baby blues. PPD, even without psychotic features, is more serious and persistent than postpartum baby blues. It is more common among younger mothers and African-American mothers. Most women need professional help to get through PPD, including pharmacologic intervention.

Question 11

With shortened hospital stays, new mothers are often discharged before they begin to experience symptoms of the baby blues or postpartum depression. As part of the discharge teaching, the nurse can prepare the mother for this adjustment to her new role by instructing her regarding self-care activities to help prevent postpartum depression. The most accurate statement as related to these activities is to:

a. Stay home and avoid outside activities to ensure adequate rest.
b. Be certain that you are the only caregiver for your baby, to facilitate infant attachment.
c. Keep feelings of sadness and adjustment to your new role to yourself.
d. Realize that this is a common occurrence that affects many women.

Answer 11

ANS: D
Should the new mother experience symptoms of the baby blues, it is important that she be aware that this is nothing to be ashamed of. Up to 80% of women experience this type of mild depression after the birth of their infant. Although it is important for the mother to obtain enough rest, she should not distance herself from family and friends. Her spouse or partner can communicate the best visiting times so the new mother can obtain adequate rest. It is also important that she not isolate herself at home during this time of role adjustment. Even if breastfeeding, other family members can participate in the infants care. If depression occurs, the symptoms can often interfere with mothering functions, and this support will be essential. The new mother should share her feelings with someone else. It is also important that she not overcommit herself or think she has to be superwoman. A telephone call to the hospital warm line may provide reassurance with lactation issues and other infant care questions. Should symptoms continue, a referral to a professional therapist may be necessary.

Question 12

Which condition is a transient, self-limiting mood disorder that affects new mothers after childbirth?

a. Postpartum depression
b. Postpartum psychosis
c. Postpartum bipolar disorder
d. Postpartum blues

Answer 12

ANS: D
Postpartum blues or baby blues is a transient self-limiting disease that is believed to be related to hormonal fluctuations after childbirth. Postpartum depression is not the normal worries (blues) that many new mothers experience. Many caregivers believe that postpartum depression is underdiagnosed and underreported. Postpartum psychosis is a rare condition that usually surfaces within 3 weeks of delivery. Hospitalization of the woman is usually necessary for treatment of this disorder. Bipolar disorder is one of the two categories of postpartum psychosis, characterized by both manic and depressive episodes.

Question 13

Possible alternative and complementary therapies for postpartum depression (PPD) for breastfeeding mothers include (Select all that apply):

a. Acupressure
b. Aromatherapy
c. St. Johns wort
d. Wine consumption
e. Yoga

Answer 13

ANS: A, B, E
Possible alternative/complementary therapies for postpartum depression include acupuncture, acupressure, aromatherapy, therapeutic touch, massage, relaxation techniques, reflexology, and yoga. St. Johns wort has not been proven to be safe for women who are breastfeeding. Women who are breastfeeding and/or have a history of PPD should not consume alcohol.

Question 14

The perinatal nurse caring for the postpartum woman understands that late postpartum hemorrhage (PPH) is most likely caused by:

a. Subinvolution of the placental site.
b. Defective vascularity of the decidua
c. Cervical lacerations
d. Coagulation disorders

Answer 14

ANS: A
Late PPH may be the result of subinvolution of the uterus, pelvic infection, or retained placental fragments. Late PPH is not typically a result of defective vascularity of the decidua, cervical lacerations, or coagulation disorders.

Question 15

What PPH conditions are considered medical emergencies that require immediate treatment?

a. Inversion of the uterus and hypovolemic shock
b. Hypotonic uterus and coagulopathies
c. Subinvolution of the uterus and idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura
d. Uterine atony and disseminated intravascular coagulation

Answer 15

ANS: A
Inversion of the uterus and hypovolemic shock are considered medical emergencies. Although hypotonic uterus and coagulopathies, subinvolution of the uterus and idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura, and uterine atony and disseminated intravascular coagulation are serious conditions, they are not necessarily medical emergencies that require immediate treatment.

Question 16

An acquired hemorrhagic disorder that is characterized by excessive destruction of platelets is:

a. Aplastic anemia.
b. Thalassemia major.
c. Disseminated intravascular coagulation.
d. Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura.

Answer 16

ANS: D
Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura is an acquired hemorrhagic disorder characterized by an excessive destruction of platelets, discolorations caused by petechiae beneath the skin, and a normal bone marrow. Aplastic anemia refers to a bone marrow failure condition in which the formed elements of the blood are simultaneously depressed. Thalassemia major is a group of blood disorders characterized by deficiency in the production rate of specific hemoglobin globin chains. Disseminated intravascular coagulation is characterized by diffuse fibrin deposition in the microvasculature, consumption of coagulation factors, and endogenous generation of thrombin and plasma.

Question 17

The perinatal nurse assisting with establishing lactation is aware that acute mastitis can be minimized by:

a. Washing the nipples and breasts with mild soap and water once a day.
b. Using proper breastfeeding techniques.
c. Wearing a nipple shield for the first few days of breastfeeding.
d. Wearing a supportive bra 24 hours a day

Answer 17

ANS: B
Almost all instances of acute mastitis can be avoided by proper breastfeeding technique to prevent cracked nipples. Washing the nipples and breasts daily is no longer indicated. In fact, this can cause tissue dryness and irritation, which can lead to tissue breakdown and infection. Wearing a nipple shield does not prevent mastitis. Wearing a supportive bra 24 hours a day may contribute to mastitis, especially if an underwire bra is worn, because it may put pressure on the upper, outer area of the breast, thus contributing to blocked ducts and mastitis.

Question 18

What infection is contracted mostly by first-time mothers who are breastfeeding?

a. Endometritis
b. Wound infections
c. Mastitis
d. Urinary tract infections

Answer 18

ANS: C
Mastitis is infection in a breast, usually confined to a milk duct. Most women who suffer this are primiparas who are breastfeeding.

Question 19

A nurse is discussing the signs and symptoms of mastitis with a mother who is breastfeeding. What signs and symptoms should the nurse include in her discussion (Select all that apply)?

a. Breast tenderness
b. Warmth in the breast
c. An area of redness on the breast often resembling the shape of a pie wedge
d. A small white blister on the tip of the nipple
e. Fever and flulike symptoms

Answer 19

ANS: A, B, C, E
Breast tenderness, breast warmth, breast redness, and fever and flulike symptoms are commonly associated with mastitis and should be included in the nurses discussion of mastitis. A small white blister on the tip of the nipple generally is not associated with mastitis. It is commonly seen in women who have a plugged milk duct.

Question 20

A woman complains of severe abdominal and pelvic pain around the time of menstruation that has gotten worse over the last 5 years. She also complains of pain during intercourse and has tried unsuccessfully to get pregnant for the past 18 months. These symptoms are most likely related to:

a. Endometriosis.
b. PMS.
c. Primary dysmenorrhea.
d. Secondary dysmenorrhea.

Answer 20

ANS: A
Symptoms of endometriosis can change over time and may not reflect the extent of the disease. Major symptoms include dysmenorrhea and deep pelvic dyspareunia (painful intercourse). Impaired fertility may result from adhesions caused by endometriosis. Although endometriosis may be associated with secondary dysmenorrhea, it is not a cause of primary dysmenorrhea or PMS. In addition, this woman is complaining of dyspareunia and infertility, which are associated with endometriosis, not with PMS or primary or secondary dysmenorrhea.

Question 21

Nafarelin is currently used as a treatment for mild-to-severe endometriosis. The nurse should tell a woman taking this medication that the drug:

a. Stimulates the secretion of gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH), thereby stimulating ovarian activity.
b. Should be sprayed into one nostril every other day.
c. Should be injected into subcutaneous tissue BID.
d. Can cause her to experience some hot flashes and vaginal dryness

Answer 21

ANS: D
Nafarelin is a GnRH agonist, and its side effects are similar to effects of menopause. The hypoestrogenism effect results in hot flashes and vaginal dryness. Nafarelin is a GnRH agonist that suppresses the secretion of GnRH and is administered twice daily by nasal spray.

Question 22

With regard to endometriosis, nurses should be aware that:

a. It is characterized by the presence and growth of endometrial tissue inside the uterus.
b. It is found more often in African-American women than in white or Asian women.
c. It may worsen with repeated cycles or remain asymptomatic and disappear after menopause.
d. It is unlikely to affect sexual intercourse or fertility.

Answer 22

ANS: C
Symptoms vary among women, ranging from nonexistent to incapacitating. With endometriosis, the endometrial tissue is outside the uterus. Symptoms vary among women, ranging from nonexistent to incapacitating. Endometriosis is found equally in white and African-American women and is slightly more prevalent in Asian women. Women can experience painful intercourse and impaired fertility.

Question 23

With regard to endometriosis, nurses should be aware that:

a. It is characterized by the presence and growth of endometrial tissue inside the uterus.
b. It is found more often in African-American women than in white or Asian women.
c. It may worsen with repeated cycles or remain asymptomatic and disappear after menopause.
d. It is unlikely to affect sexual intercourse or fertility.

Answer 23

ANS: C
Symptoms vary among women, ranging from nonexistent to incapacitating. With endometriosis, the endometrial tissue is outside the uterus. Symptoms vary among women, ranging from nonexistent to incapacitating. Endometriosis is found equally in white and African-American women and is slightly more prevalent in Asian women. Women can experience painful intercourse and impaired fertility.

Question 24

In the assessment of a preterm infant, the nurse notices continued respiratory distress even though oxygen and ventilation have been provided. The nurse should suspect:

a. Hypovolemia and/or shock.
b. A nonneutral thermal environment
c. Central nervous system injury
d. Pending renal failure

Answer 24

ANS: A
The nurse should suspect hypovolemia and/or shock. Other symptoms could include hypotension, prolonged capillary refill, and tachycardia followed by bradycardia. Intervention is necessary.

Question 25

Numerous changes in the integumentary system occur during pregnancy. Which change persists after birth? a. Epulis b. Chloasma c. Telangiectasia d. Striae gravidarum

Answer 25

ANS: D Striae gravidarum, or stretch marks, reflect separation within the underlying connective tissue of the skin. They usually fade after birth, although they never disappear completely. An epulis is a red, raised nodule on the gums that bleeds easily. Chloasma, or mask of pregnancy, is a blotchy, brown hyperpigmentation of the skin over the cheeks, nose, and forehead, especially in dark-complexioned pregnant women. Chloasma usually fades after the birth. Telangiectasia, or vascular spiders, are tiny, star-shaped or branchlike, slightly raised, pulsating end-arterioles usually found on the neck, thorax, face, and arms. They occur as a result of elevated levels of circulating estrogen. These usually disappear after birth.

Question 26

Part of the health assessment of a newborn is observing the infants breathing pattern. A full-term newborns breathing pattern is predominantly: a. Abdominal with synchronous chest movements. b. Chest breathing with nasal flaring. c. Diaphragmatic with chest retraction. d. Deep with a regular rhythm.

Answer 26

ANS: A In normal infant respiration the chest and abdomen rise synchronously, and breaths are shallow and irregular. Breathing with nasal flaring is a sign of respiratory distress. Diaphragmatic breathing with chest retraction is a sign of respiratory distress. Infant breaths are not deep with a regular rhythm.

Question 27

A newborn is placed under a radiant heat warmer, and the nurse evaluates the infants body temperature every hour. Maintaining the newborns body temperature is important for preventing: a. Respiratory depression. b. Cold stress c. Tachycardia d. Vasoconstriction.

Answer 27

ANS: B Loss of heat must be controlled to protect the infant from the metabolic and physiologic effects of cold stress, and that is the primary reason for placing a newborn under a radiant heat warmer. Cold stress results in an increased respiratory rate and vasoconstriction.

Question 28

With regard to the respiratory development of the newborn, nurses should be aware that: a. The first gasping breath is an exaggerated respiratory reaction within 1 minute of birth. b. Newborns must expel the fluid from the respiratory system within a few minutes of birth. c. Newborns are instinctive mouth breathers. d. Seesaw respirations are no cause for concern in the first hour after birth.

Answer 28

ANS: A The first breath produces a cry. Newborns continue to expel fluid for the first hour of life. Newborns are natural nose breathers; they may not have the mouth-breathing response to nasal blockage for 3 weeks. Seesaw respirations instead of normal abdominal respirations are not normal and should be reported.

Question 29

With regard to the newborns developing cardiovascular system, nurses should be aware that: a. The heart rate of a crying infant may rise to 120 beats/min. b. Heart murmurs heard after the first few hours are cause for concern. c. The point of maximal impulse (PMI) often is visible on the chest wall. d. Persistent bradycardia may indicate respiratory distress syndrome (RDS).

Answer 29

ANS: C The newborns thin chest wall often allows the PMI to be seen. The normal heart rate for infants who are not sleeping is 120 to 160 beats/min. However, a crying infant temporarily could have a heart rate of 180 beats/min. Heart murmurs during the first few days of life have no pathologic significance; an irregular heart rate past the first few hours should be evaluated further. Persistent tachycardia may indicate RDS; bradycardia may be a sign of congenital heart blockage.

Question 30

During life in utero, oxygenation of the fetus occurs through transplacental gas exchange. When birth occurs, four factors combine to stimulate the respiratory center in the medulla. The initiation of respiration then follows. Which is not one of these essential factors? a. Chemical b. Mechanical c. Thermal d. Psychologic

Answer 30

ANS: D A psychologic factor is not one of the essential factors in the initiation of breathing; the fourth factor is sensory. The sensory factors include handling by the provider, drying by the nurse, lights, smells, and sounds. Chemical factors are essential for the initiation of breathing. During labor, decreased levels of oxygen and increased levels of carbon dioxide seem to have a cumulative effect that is involved in the initiation of breathing. Clamping of the cord may also contribute to the start of respirations. Prostaglandins are known to inhibit breathing, and clamping of the cord results in a drop in the level of prostaglandins. Mechanical factors also are necessary to initiate respirations. As the infant passes through the birth canal, the chest is compressed. With birth the chest is relaxed, which allows for negative intrathoracic pressure that encourages air to flow into the lungs. The profound change in temperature between intrauterine and extrauterine life stimulates receptors in the skin to communicate with the receptors in the medulla. This also contributes to the initiation of breathing.

Question 31

Infants of mothers with diabetes (IDMs) are at higher risk for developing: a. Anemia. b. Hyponatremia c. Respiratory distress syndrome d. Sepsis.

Answer 31

ANS: C IDMs are at risk for macrosomia, birth injury, perinatal asphyxia, respiratory distress syndrome, hypoglycemia, hypocalcemia, hypomagnesemia, cardiomyopathy, hyperbilirubinemia, and polycythemia. They are not at risk for anemia, hyponatremia, or sepsis.

Question 32

A premature infant with respiratory distress syndrome receives artificial surfactant. How would the nurse explain surfactant therapy to the parents? a. Surfactant improves the ability of your babys lungs to exchange oxygen and carbon dioxide. b. The drug keeps your baby from requiring too much sedation. c. Surfactant is used to reduce episodes of periodic apnea. d. Your baby needs this medication to fight a possible respiratory tract infection.

Answer 32

ANS: A Surfactant can be administered as an adjunct to oxygen and ventilation therapy. With administration of artificial surfactant, respiratory compliance is improved until the infant can generate enough surfactant on his or her own. Surfactant has no bearing on the sedation needs of the infant. Surfactant is used to improve respiratory compliance, including the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide. The goal of surfactant therapy in an infant with respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) is to stimulate production of surfactant in the type 2 cells of the alveoli. The clinical presentation of RDS and neonatal pneumonia may be similar. The infant may be started on broad-spectrum antibiotics to treat infection.

Question 33

An infant is to receive gastrostomy feedings. What intervention should the nurse institute to prevent bloating, gastrointestinal reflux into the esophagus, vomiting, and respiratory compromise? a. Rapid bolusing of the entire amount in 15 minutes b. Warm cloths to the abdomen for the first 10 minutes c. Slow, small, warm bolus feedings over 30 minutes d. Cold, medium bolus feedings over 20 minutes

Answer 33

ANS: C Feedings by gravity are done slowly over 20- to 30-minute periods to prevent adverse reactions. Rapid bolusing of the entire amount in 15 minutes would most likely lead to the adverse reactions listed. Temperature stability in the newborn is critical. Warm cloths to the abdomen for the first 10 minutes would not be appropriate because it is not a thermoregulated environment. Additionally, abdominal warming is not indicated with feedings of any kind. Small feedings at room temperature are recommended to prevent adverse reactions.

Question 34

An infant at 26 weeks of gestation arrives intubated from the delivery room. The nurse weighs the infant, places him under the radiant warmer, and attaches him to the ventilator at the prescribed settings. A pulse oximeter and cardiorespiratory monitor are placed. The pulse oximeter is recording oxygen saturations of 80%. The prescribed saturations are 92%. The nurses most appropriate action would be to: a. Listen to breath sounds and ensure the patency of the endotracheal tube, increase oxygen, and notify a physician. b. Continue to observe and make no changes until the saturations are 75%. c. Continue with the admission process to ensure that a thorough assessment is completed. d. Notify the parents that their infant is not doing well.

Answer 34

ANS: A Listening to breath sounds and ensuring the patency of the endotracheal tube, increasing oxygen, and notifying a physician are appropriate nursing interventions to assist in optimal oxygen saturation of the infant. Oxygenation of the infant is crucial. O2 saturation should be maintained above 92%. Oxygenation status of the infant is crucial. The nurse should delay other tasks to stabilize the infant. Notifying the parents that the infant is not doing well is not an appropriate action. Further assessment and intervention are warranted before determination of fetal status.

Question 35

An infant is being discharged from the neonatal intensive care unit after 70 days of hospitalization. The infant was born at 30 weeks of gestation with several conditions associated with prematurity, including respiratory distress syndrome, mild bronchopulmonary dysplasia, and retinopathy of prematurity requiring surgical treatment. During discharge teaching the infants mother asks the nurse whether her baby will meet developmental milestones on time, as did her son who was born at term. The nurses most appropriate response is: a. Your baby will develop exactly like your first child did. b. Your baby does not appear to have any problems at the present time. c. Your baby will need to be corrected for prematurity. Your baby is currently 40 weeks of postconceptional age and can be expected to be doing what a 40-week-old infant would be doing. d. Your baby will need to be followed very closely.

Answer 35

ANS: C The age of a preterm newborn is corrected by adding the gestational age and the postnatal age. The infants responses are evaluated accordingly against the norm expected for the corrected age of the infant. Although it is impossible to predict with complete accuracy the growth and development potential of each preterm infant, certain measurable factors predict normal growth and development. The preterm infant experiences catch-up body growth during the first 2 to 3 years of life. The growth and developmental milestones are corrected for gestational age until the child is approximately 2.5 years old. Stating that the baby does not appear to have any problems at the present time is inaccurate. Development will need to be evaluated over time.

Question 36

A pregnant woman was admitted for induction of labor at 43 weeks of gestation with sure dates. A nonstress test (NST) in the obstetricians office revealed a nonreactive tracing. On artificial rupture of membranes, thick, meconium-stained fluid was noted. The nurse caring for the infant after birth should anticipate: a. Meconium aspiration, hypoglycemia, and dry, cracked skin. b. Excessive vernix caseosa covering the skin, lethargy, and respiratory distress syndrome. c. Golden yellow- to green stainedskin and nails, absence of scalp hair, and an increased amount of subcutaneous fat. d. Hyperglycemia, hyperthermia, and an alert, wide-eyed appearance.

Answer 36

ANS: A Meconium aspiration, hypoglycemia, and dry, cracked skin are consistent with a postmature infant. Excessive vernix caseosa covering the skin, lethargy, and respiratory distress syndrome would be consistent with a very premature infant. The skin may be meconium stained, but the infant would most likely have longer hair and decreased amounts of subcutaneous fat. Postmaturity with a nonreactive NST would indicate hypoxia. Signs and symptoms associated with fetal hypoxia are hypoglycemia, temperature instability, and lethargy.

Question 37

In the assessment of a preterm infant, the nurse notices continued respiratory distress even though oxygen and ventilation have been provided. The nurse should suspect: a. Hypovolemia and/or shock. b. A nonneutral thermal environment. c. Central nervous system injury. d. Pending renal failure.

Answer 37

ANS: A The nurse should suspect hypovolemia and/or shock. Other symptoms could include hypotension, prolonged capillary refill, and tachycardia followed by bradycardia. Intervention is necessary.

Question 38

Premature infants who exhibit 5 to 10 seconds of respiratory pauses followed by 10 to 15 seconds of compensatory rapid respiration are: a. Suffering from sleep or wakeful apnea. b. Experiencing severe swings in blood pressure. c. Trying to maintain a neutral thermal environment. d. Breathing in a respiratory pattern common to premature infants.

Answer 38

ANS: D This pattern is called periodic breathing and is common to premature infants. It may still require nursing intervention of oxygen and/or ventilation. Apnea is a cessation of respirations for 20 seconds or longer. It should not be confused with periodic breathing.

Question 39

A nursing student is helping the nursery nurses with morning vital signs. A baby born 10 hours ago by cesarean section is found to have moist lung sounds. What is the best interpretation of these data? a. The nurse should notify the pediatrician stat for this emergency situation. b. The neonate must have aspirated surfactant. c. If this baby was born vaginally, it could indicate a pneumothorax. d. The lungs of a baby delivered by cesarean section may sound moist for 24 hours after birth.

Answer 39

ANS: D The condition will resolve itself within a few hours. For this common condition of newborns, surfactant acts to keep the expanded alveoli partially open between respirations. In vaginal births, absorption of remaining lung fluid is accelerated by the process of labor and delivery. Remaining lung fluid will move into interstitial spaces and be absorbed by the circulatory and lymphatic systems. This is a particularly common condition for infants delivered by cesarean section. Surfactant is produced by the lungs, so aspiration is not a concern.

Question 40

When providing an infant with a gavage feeding, which of the following should be documented each time? a. The infants abdominal circumference after the feeding b. The infants heart rate and respirations c. The infants suck and swallow coordination d. The infants response to the feeding

Answer 40

ANS: D Documentation of a gavage feeding should include the size of the feeding tube, the amount and quality of the residual from the previous feeding, the type and quantity of the fluid instilled, and the infants response to the procedure. Abdominal circumference is not measured after a gavage feeding. Vital signs may be obtained before feeding. However, the infants response to the feeding is more important. Some older infants may be learning to suck, but the important factor to document would be the infants response to the feeding (including attempts to suck).

Question 41

A woman who is gravida 3 para 2 enters the intrapartum unit. The most important nursing assessments are: a. Contraction pattern, amount of discomfort, and pregnancy history. b. Fetal heart rate, maternal vital signs, and the womans nearness to birth. c. Identification of ruptured membranes, the womans gravida and para, and her support person. d. Last food intake, when labor began, and cultural practices the couple desires.

Answer 41

ANS: B All options describe relevant intrapartum nursing assessments; however, this focused assessment has priority. If the maternal and fetal conditions are normal and birth is not imminent, other assessments can be performed in an unhurried manner. This includes: gravida, para, support person, pregnancy history, pain assessment, last food intake, and cultural practices.

Question 42

A woman gave birth to a 7-pound, 6-ounce infant girl 1 hour ago. The birth was vaginal, and the estimated blood loss (EBL) was approximately 1500 mL. When assessing the womans vital signs, the nurse would be concerned to see: a. Temperature 37.9 C, heart rate 120, respirations 20, blood pressure (BP) 90/50. b. Temperature 37.4 C, heart rate 88, respirations 36, BP 126/68. c. Temperature 38 C, heart rate 80, respirations 16, BP 110/80. d. Temperature 36.8 C, heart rate 60, respirations 18, BP 140/90.

Answer 42

ANS: A An EBL of 1500 mL with tachycardia and hypotension suggests hypovolemia caused by excessive blood loss. An increased respiratory rate of 36 may be secondary to pain from the birth. Temperature may increase to 38 C during the first 24 hours as a result of the dehydrating effects of labor. A BP of 140/90 is slightly elevated, which may be caused by the use of oxytocic medications.

Question 43

The nurses initial action when caring for an infant with a slightly decreased temperature is to: a. Notify the physician immediately. b. Place a cap on the infants head and have the mother perform kangaroo care. c. Tell the mother that the infant must be kept in the nursery and observed for the next 4 hours. d. Change the formula because this is a sign of formula intolerance.

Answer 43

ANS: B Keeping the head well covered with a cap will prevent further heat loss from the head, and having the mother place the infant skin to skin should increase the infants temperature. Nursing actions are needed first to correct the problem. If the problem persists after interventions, notification may then be necessary. A slightly decreased temperature can be treated in the mothers room. This would be an excellent time for parent teaching on prevention of cold stress. Mild temperature instability is an expected deviation from normal during the first days as the infant adapts to external life.

Question 44

Pain should be assessed regularly in all newborn infants. If the infant is displaying physiologic or behavioral cues indicating pain, measures should be taken to manage the pain. Examples of nonpharmacologic pain management techniques include (Select all that apply): a. Swaddling. b. Nonnutritive sucking. c. Skin-to-skin contact with the mother. d. Sucrose. e. Acetaminophen.

Answer 44

ANS: A, B, C, D Swaddling, nonnutritive sucking, skin-to-skin contact with the mother, and sucrose are all appropriate nonpharmacologic techniques used to manage pain in neonates. Acetaminophen is a pharmacologic method of treating pain.

Question 45

The nurse providing newborn stabilization must be aware that the primary side effect of maternal narcotic analgesia in the newborn is: a. Respiratory depression. b. Bradycardia. c. Acrocyanosis. d. Tachypnea.

Answer 45

ANS: A An infant delivered within 1 to 4 hours of maternal analgesic administration is at risk for respiratory depression from the sedative effects of the narcotic. Bradycardia is not the anticipated side effect of maternal analgesics. Acrocyanosis is an expected finding in a newborn and is not related to maternal analgesics. The infant who is having a side effect to maternal analgesics normally would have a decrease in respirations, not an increase.

Question 46

A new mother states that her infant must be cold because the babys hands and feet are blue. The nurse explains that this is a common and temporary condition called: a. Acrocyanosis. b. Erythema neonatorum. c. Harlequin color. d. Vernix caseosa.

Answer 46

ANS: A Acrocyanosis, or the appearance of slightly cyanotic hands and feet, is caused by vasomotor instability, capillary stasis, and a high hemoglobin level. Acrocyanosis is normal and appears intermittently over the first 7 to 10 days. Erythema toxicum (also called erythema neonatorum) is a transient newborn rash that resembles flea bites. The harlequin sign is a benign, transient color change in newborns. Half of the body is pale, and the other half is ruddy or bluish red with a line of demarcation. Vernix caseosa is a cheese like, whitish substance that serves as a protective covering.

Question 47

The cheeselike, whitish substance that fuses with the epidermis and serves as a protective coating is called: a. Vernix caseosa. b. Surfactant. c. Caput succedaneum d. Acrocyanosis.

Answer 47

NS: A This protection, vernix caseosa, is needed because the infants skin is so thin. Surfactant is a protein that lines the alveoli of the infants lungs. Caput succedaneum is the swelling of the tissue over the presenting part of the fetal head. Acrocyanosis is cyanosis of the hands and feet that results in a blue coloring.

Question 48

The nurse should immediately alert the physician when: a. The infant is dusky and turns cyanotic when crying. b. Acrocyanosis is present at age 1 hour. c. The infants blood glucose level is 45 mg/dL. d. The infant goes into a deep sleep at age 1 hour.

Answer 48

ANS: A An infant who is dusky and becomes cyanotic when crying is showing poor adaptation to extrauterine life. Acrocyanosis is an expected finding during the early neonatal life. This is within normal range for a newborn. Infants enter the period of deep sleep when they are about 1 hour old.

Question 49

As a result of large body surface in relation to weight, the preterm infant is at high risk for heat loss and cold stress. By understanding the four mechanisms of heat transfer (convection, conduction, radiation, and evaporation), the nurse can create an environment for the infant that prevents temperature instability. While evaluating the plan that has been implemented, the nurse knows that the infant is experiencing cold stress when he or she exhibits: a. Decreased respiratory rate. b. Bradycardia followed by an increased heart rate. c. Mottled skin with acrocyanosis. d. Increased physical activity.

Answer 49

ANS: C The infant has minimal to no fat stores. During times of cold stress the skin will become mottled, and acrocyanosis will develop, progressing to cyanosis. Even if the infant is being cared for on a radiant warmer or in an isolette, the nurses role is to observe the infant frequently to prevent heat loss and respond quickly if signs and symptoms occur. The respiratory rate increases followed by periods of apnea. The infant initially tries to conserve heat and burns more calories, after which the metabolic system goes into overdrive. In the preterm infant experiencing heat loss, the heart rate initially increases, followed by periods of bradycardia. In the term infant, the natural response to heat loss is increased physical activity. However, in a term infant experiencing respiratory distress or in a preterm infant, physical activity is decreased.

Question 50

A primigravida has just delivered a healthy infant girl. The nurse is about to administer erythromycin ointment in the infants eyes when the mother asks, What is that medicine for? The nurse responds: a. It is an eye ointment to help your baby see you better. b. It is to protect your baby from contracting herpes from your vaginal tract. c. Erythromycin is given prophylactically to prevent a gonorrheal infection. d. This medicine will protect your babys eyes from drying out over the next few days.

Answer 50

ANS: C With the prophylactic use of erythromycin, the incidence of gonococcal conjunctivitis has declined to less than 0.5%. Eye prophylaxis is administered at or shortly after birth to prevent ophthalmia neonatorum. Erythromycin has no bearing on enhancing vision, is used to prevent an infection caused by gonorrhea, not herpes, and is not used for eye lubrication.

Question 51

At 1 minute after birth, the nurse assesses the newborn to assign an Apgar score. The apical heart rate is 110 bpm, and the infant is crying vigorously with the limbs flexed. The infants trunk is pink, but the hands and feet are blue. What is the correct Apgar score for this infant? a. 7 b. 8 c. 9 d. 10

Answer 51

ANS: C The Apgar score is 9 because 1 point is deducted from the total score of 10 for the infants blue hands and feet. The baby received 2 points for each of the categories except color. Because the infants hands and feet were blue, this category is given a grade of 1.

Question 52

An infant boy was born just a few minutes ago. The nurse is conducting the initial assessment. Part of the assessment includes the Apgar score. The Apgar assessment is performed: a. Only if the newborn is in obvious distress. b. Once by the obstetrician, just after the birth. c. At least twice, 1 minute and 5 minutes after birth. d. Every 15 minutes during the newborns first hour after birth.

Answer 52

ANS: C Apgar scoring is performed at 1 minute and 5 minutes after birth. Scoring may continue at 5-minute intervals if the infant is in distress and requires resuscitation efforts.

Question 53

An Apgar score of 10 at 1 minute after birth would indicate a(n): a. Infant having no difficulty adjusting to extrauterine life and needing no further testing. b. Infant in severe distress who needs resuscitation. c. Prediction of a future free of neurologic problems. d. Infant having no difficulty adjusting to extrauterine life but who should be assessed again at 5 minutes after birth.

Answer 53

ANS: D | An initial Apgar score of 10 is a good sign of healthy adaptation; however, it must be repeated at the 5-minute mark.

Question 54

At 1 minute after birth, the nurse assesses the infant and notes a heart rate of 80 beats/minute, some flexion of the extremities, a weak cry, grimacing, and a pink body with blue extremities. The nurse would calculate an Apgar score of: ________

Answer 54

ANS: 5 Each of the five signs the nurse noted would score an Apgar of 1 for a total of 5. Signs include heart rate, respiratory effort, muscle tone, reflex irritability, and color. The highest possible Apgar score is 10.

Question 55

A pregnant woman at 37 weeks of gestation has had ruptured membranes for 26 hours. A cesarean section is performed for failure to progress. The fetal heart rate (FHR) before birth is 180 beats/min with limited variability. At birth the newborn has Apgar scores of 6 and 7 at 1 and 5 minutes and is noted to be pale and tachypneic. On the basis of the maternal history, the cause of this newborns distress is most likely to be: a. Hypoglycemia. b. Phrenic nerve injury. c. Respiratory distress syndrome. d. Sepsis.

Answer 55

ANS: D The prolonged rupture of membranes and the tachypnea (before and after birth) both suggest sepsis. An FHR of 180 beats/min is also indicative. This infant is at high risk for sepsis.

Question 56

With regard to umbilical cord care, nurses should be aware that: a. The stump can easily become infected. b. A nurse noting bleeding from the vessels of the cord should immediately call for assistance. c. The cord clamp is removed at cord separation. d. The average cord separation time is 5 to 7 days.

Answer 56

ANS: A The cord stump is an excellent medium for bacterial growth. The nurse should first check the clamp (or tie) and apply a second one. If the bleeding does not stop, the nurse calls for assistance. The cord clamp is removed after 24 hours when it is dry. The average cord separation time is 10 to 14 days.

Question 57

A newborn is jaundiced and receiving phototherapy via ultraviolet bank lights. An appropriate nursing intervention when caring for an infant with hyperbilirubinemia and receiving phototherapy by this method would be to: a. Apply an oil-based lotion to the newborns skin to prevent dying and cracking. b. Limit the newborns intake of milk to prevent nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea. c. Place eye shields over the newborns closed eyes. d. Change the newborns position every 4 hours.

Answer 57

ANS: C The infants eyes must be protected by an opaque mask to prevent overexposure to the light. Eye shields should cover the eyes completely but not occlude the nares. Lotions and ointments should not be applied to the infant because they absorb heat, and this can cause burns. The lights increase insensible water loss, placing the infant at risk for fluid loss and dehydration. Therefore, it is important that the infant be adequately hydrated. The infant should be turned every 2 hours to expose all body surfaces to the light.

Question 58

Infants of mothers with diabetes (IDMs) are at higher risk for developing: a. Anemia. b. Hyponatremia. c. Respiratory distress syndrome. d. Sepsis.

Answer 58

ANS: C IDMs are at risk for macrosomia, birth injury, perinatal asphyxia, respiratory distress syndrome, hypoglycemia, hypocalcemia, hypomagnesemia, cardiomyopathy, hyperbilirubinemia, and polycythemia. They are not at risk for anemia, hyponatremia, or sepsis.

Question 59

The most common cause of pathologic hyperbilirubinemia is: a. Hepatic disease. b. Hemolytic disorders in the newborn. c. Postmaturity. d. Congenital heart defect.

Answer 59

ANS: B Hemolytic disorders in the newborn are the most common cause of pathologic jaundice. Hepatic damage may be a cause of pathologic hyperbilirubinemia, but it is not the most common cause. Prematurity would be a potential cause of pathologic hyperbilirubinemia in neonates, but it is not the most common cause. Congenital heart defect is not a common cause of pathologic hyperbilirubinemia in neonates.

Question 60

Infants born between 34 0/7 and 36 6/7 weeks of gestation are called late-preterm infants because they have many needs similar to those of preterm infants. Because they are more stable than early-preterm infants, they may receive care that is much like that of a full-term baby. The mother-baby or nursery nurse knows that these babies are at increased risk for (Select all that apply): a. Problems with thermoregulation b. Cardiac distress c. Hyperbilirubinemia d. Sepsis e. Hyperglycemia

Answer 60

ANS: A, C, D Thermoregulation problems, hyperbilirubinemia, and sepsis are all conditions related to immaturity and warrant close observation. After discharge the infant is at risk for rehospitalization related to these problems. AWHONN launched the Near-Term Infant Initiative to study the problem and ways to ensure that these infants receive adequate care. The nurse should ensure that this infant is feeding adequately before discharge and that parents are taught the signs and symptoms of these complications.

Question 61

A macrosomic infant is born after a difficult forceps-assisted delivery. After stabilization the infant is weighed, and the birth weight is 4550 g (9 pounds, 6 ounces). The nurses most appropriate action is to: a. Leave the infant in the room with the mother. b. Take the infant immediately to the nursery. c. Perform a gestational age assessment to determine whether the infant is large for gestational age. d. Monitor blood glucose levels frequently and observe closely for signs of hypoglycemia.

Answer 61

ANS: D This infant is macrosomic (more than 4000 g) and is at high risk for hypoglycemia. Blood glucose levels should be monitored frequently, and the infant should be observed closely for signs of hypoglycemia. Observation may occur in the nursery or in the mothers room, depending on the condition of the fetus. Regardless of gestational age, this infant is macrosomic.

Question 62

An infant was born 2 hours ago at 37 weeks of gestation and weighing 4.1 kg. The infant appears chubby with a flushed complexion and is very tremulous. The tremors are most likely the result of: a. Birth injury. b. Hypocalcemia. c. Hypoglycemia. d. Seizures

Answer 62

ANS: C Hypoglycemia is common in the macrosomic infant. Signs of hypoglycemia include jitteriness, apnea, tachypnea, and cyanosis.

Question 63

A pregnant woman was admitted for induction of labor at 43 weeks of gestation with sure dates. A nonstress test (NST) in the obstetricians office revealed a nonreactive tracing. On artificial rupture of membranes, thick, meconium-stained fluid was noted. The nurse caring for the infant after birth should anticipate: a. Meconium aspiration, hypoglycemia, and dry, cracked skin. b. Excessive vernix caseosa covering the skin, lethargy, and respiratory distress syndrome. c. Golden yellow- to green stainedskin and nails, absence of scalp hair, and an increased amount of subcutaneous fat. d. Hyperglycemia, hyperthermia, and an alert, wide-eyed appearance.

Answer 63

ANS: A Meconium aspiration, hypoglycemia, and dry, cracked skin are consistent with a postmature infant. Excessive vernix caseosa covering the skin, lethargy, and respiratory distress syndrome would be consistent with a very premature infant. The skin may be meconium stained, but the infant would most likely have longer hair and decreased amounts of subcutaneous fat. Postmaturity with a nonreactive NST would indicate hypoxia. Signs and symptoms associated with fetal hypoxia are hypoglycemia, temperature instability, and lethargy.

Question 64

Early this morning, an infant boy was circumcised using the PlastiBell method. The nurse tells the mother that she and the infant can be discharged after: a. The bleeding stops completely. b. Y ellow exudate forms over the glans. c. The PlastiBell rim falls off. d. The infant voids.

Answer 64

ANS: D The infant should be observed for urination after the circumcision. Bleeding is a common complication after circumcision. The nurse will check the penis for 12 hours after a circumcision to assess and provide appropriate interventions for prevention and treatment of bleeding. Yellow exudates cover the glans penis in 24 hours after the circumcision. This is part of normal healing and not an infective process. The PlastiBell remains in place for about a week and falls off when healing has taken place.

Question 65

A mother expresses fear about changing her infants diaper after he is circumcised. What does the woman need to be taught to take care of the infant when she gets home? a. Cleanse the penis with prepackaged diaper wipes every 3 to 4 hours. b. Apply constant, firm pressure by squeezing the penis with the fingers for at least 5 minutes if bleeding occurs. c. Cleanse the penis gently with water and put petroleum jelly around the glans after each diaper change. d. Wash off the yellow exudate that forms on the glans at least once every day to prevent infection.

Answer 65

ANS: C Cleansing the penis gently with water and putting petroleum jelly around the glans after each diaper change are appropriate when caring for an infant who has had a circumcision. With each diaper change, the penis should be washed off with warm water to remove any urine or feces. If bleeding occurs, the nurse should apply gentle pressure to the site of the bleeding with a sterile gauze square. Yellow exudates cover the glans penis in 24 hours after the circumcision. This is part of normal healing and not an infective process. The exudates should not be removed.

Question 66

Nurses can assist parents who are trying to decide whether their son should be circumcised by explaining: a. The pros and cons of the procedure during the prenatal period. b. That the American Academy of Pediatrics (AAP) recommends that all newborn boys be routinely circumcised. c. That circumcision is rarely painful and any discomfort can be managed without medication. d. That the infant will likely be alert and hungry shortly after the procedure.

Answer 66

ANS: A Many parents find themselves making the decision during the pressure of labor. The AAP and other professional organizations note the benefits but stop short of recommendation for routine circumcision. Circumcision is painful and must be managed with environmental, nonpharmacologic, and pharmacologic measures. After the procedure the infant may be fussy for several hours, or he may be sleepy and difficult to awaken for feeding.

Question 67

With one exception, the safest pregnancy is one in which the woman is drug and alcohol free. For women addicted to opioids, ________________________ treatment is the current standard of care during pregnancy. a. Methadone maintenance b. Detoxification c. Smoking cessation d. 4 Ps Plus

Answer 67

ANS: A Methadone maintenance treatment (MMT) is currently considered the standard of care for pregnant women who are dependent on heroin or other narcotics. Buprenorphine is another medication approved for opioid addiction treatment that is increasingly being used during pregnancy. Opioid replacement therapy has been shown to decrease opioid and other drug use, reduce criminal activity, improve individual functioning, and decrease rates of infections such as hepatitis B and C, HIV, and other sexually transmitted infections. Detoxification is the treatment used for alcohol addiction. Pregnant women requiring withdrawal from alcohol should be admitted for inpatient management. Women are more likely to stop smoking during pregnancy than at any other time in their lives. A smoking cessation program can assist in achieving this goal. The 4 Ps Plus is a screening tool designed specifically to identify pregnant women who need in-depth assessment related to substance abuse.

Question 68

A careful review of the literature on the various recreational and illicit drugs reveals that: a. More longer-term studies are needed to assess the lasting effects on infants when mothers have taken or are taking illegal drugs. b. Heroin and methadone cross the placenta; marijuana, cocaine, and phencyclidine (PCP) do not. c. Mothers should discontinue heroin use (detox) any time they can during pregnancy. d. Methadone withdrawal for infants is less severe and shorter than heroin withdrawal.

Answer 68

ANS: A Studies on the effects of marijuana and cocaine use by mothers are somewhat contradictory. More long-range studies are needed. Just about all these drugs cross the placenta, including marijuana, cocaine, and PCP. Drug withdrawal is accompanied by fetal withdrawal, which can lead to fetal death. Therefore, detoxification from heroin is not recommended, particularly later in pregnancy. Methadone withdrawal is more severe and more prolonged than heroin withdrawal.

Question 69

Which drug is usually the best choice for patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) for a child in the immediate postoperative period? a. Codeine b. Morphine c. Methadone d. Meperidine

Answer 69

ANS: B The most commonly prescribed medications for PCA are morphine, hydromorphone, and fentanyl. Parenteral use of codeine is not recommended. Methadone is not available in parenteral form in the United States. Meperidine is not used for continuous and extended pain relief.

Question 70

A new father is ready to take his wife and newborn son home. He proudly tells the nurse who is discharging them that within the next week he plans to start feeding the infant cereal between breastfeeding sessions. The nurse can explain to him that beginning solid foods before 4 to 6 months may: a. Decrease the infants intake of sufficient calories. b. Lead to early cessation of breastfeeding. c. Help the infant sleep through the night. d. Limit the infants growth.

Answer 70

ANS: B Introduction of solid foods before the infant is 4 to 6 months of age may result in overfeeding and decreased intake of breast milk. It is not true that feeding of solids helps infants sleep through the night. The proper balance of carbohydrate, protein, and fat for an infant to grow properly is in the breast milk or formula.

Question 71

A pregnant woman wants to breastfeed her infant; however, her husband is not convinced that there are any scientific reasons to do so. The nurse can give the couple printed information comparing breastfeeding and bottle-feeding. Which statement is most accurate? Bottle-feeding using commercially prepared infant formulas: a. Increases the risk that the infant will develop allergies. b. Helps the infant sleep through the night. c. Ensures that the infant is getting iron in a form that is easily absorbed. d. Requires that multivitamin supplements be given to the infant.

Answer 71

ANS: A Exposure to cows milk poses a risk of developing allergies, eczema, and asthma. Bottle-feeding using commercially prepared infant formulas helps the infant sleep through the night is a false statement. Iron is better absorbed from breast milk than from formula. Commercial formulas are designed to meet the nutritional needs of the infant and resemble breast milk.

Question 72

At a 2-month well-baby examination, it was discovered that a breastfed infant had only gained 10 ounces in the past 4 weeks. The mother and the nurse agree that, to gain weight faster, the infant needs to: a. Begin solid foods. b. Have a bottle of formula after every feeding. c. Add at least one extra breastfeeding session every 24 hours. d. Start iron supplements.

Answer 72

ANS: C Usually the solution to slow weight gain is to improve the feeding technique. Position and latch-on are evaluated, and adjustments are made. It may help to add a feeding or two in a 24-hour period. Solid foods should not be introduced to an infant for at least 4 to 6 months. Bottle-feeding may cause nipple confusion and limit the supply of milk. Iron supplements have no bearing on weight gain.

Question 73

A new mother wants to be sure that she is meeting her daughters needs while feeding her commercially prepared infant formula. The nurse should evaluate the mothers knowledge about appropriate infant care. The mother meets her childs needs when she: a. Adds rice cereal to her formula at 2 weeks of age to ensure adequate nutrition. b. Warms the bottles using a microwave oven. c. Burps her infant during and after the feeding as needed. d. Refrigerates any leftover formula for the next feeding.

Answer 73

ANS: C Most infants swallow air when fed from a bottle and should be given a chance to burp several times during a feeding and after the feeding. Solid food should not be introduced to the infant for at least 4 to 6 months after birth. A microwave should never be used to warm any food to be given to an infant. The heat is not distributed evenly, and this may pose a risk of burning the infant. Any formula left in the bottle after the feeding should be discarded because the infants saliva has mixed with it.

Question 74

While discussing the societal impacts of breastfeeding, the nurse should be cognizant of the benefits and educate the patient accordingly. Which statement as part of this discussion would be incorrect? a. Breastfeeding requires fewer supplies and less cumbersome equipment. b. Breastfeeding saves families money. c. Breastfeeding costs employers in terms of time lost from work. d. Breastfeeding benefits the environment.

Answer 74

ANS: C Actually less time is lost to work by breastfeeding mothers, in part because infants are healthier. Breastfeeding is convenient because it does not require cleaning or transporting bottles and other equipment. It saves families money because the cost of formula far exceeds the cost of extra food for the lactating mother. Breastfeeding uses a renewable resource; it does not need fossil fuels, advertising, shipping, or disposal.

Question 75

The best reason for recommending formula over breastfeeding is that: a. The mother has a medical condition or is taking drugs that could be passed along to the infant via breast milk. b. The mother lacks confidence in her ability to breastfeed. c. Other family members or care providers also need to feed the baby. d. The mother sees bottle-feeding as more convenient.

Answer 75

ANS: A Breastfeeding is contraindicated when mothers have certain viruses, are undergoing chemotherapy, or are using/abusing illicit drugs. A lack of confidence, the need for others to feed the baby, and the convenience of bottle-feeding are all honest reasons for not breastfeeding, although further education concerning the ease of breastfeeding and its convenience, benefits, and adaptability (expressing milk into bottles) could change some minds. In any case the nurse must provide information in a nonjudgmental manner and respect the mothers decision. Nonetheless, breastfeeding is definitely contraindicated when the mother has medical or drug issues of her own.

Question 76

With regard to the nutrient needs of breastfed and formula-fed infants, nurses should be understand that: a. Breastfed infants need extra water in hot climates. b. During the first 3 months breastfed infants consume more energy than do formula-fed infants. c. Breastfeeding infants should receive oral vitamin D drops daily at least during the first 2 months. d. Vitamin K injections at birth are not needed for infants fed on specially enriched formula.

Answer 76

ANS: C Human milk contains only small amounts of vitamin D. Neither breastfed nor formula-fed infants need to be given water, even in very hot climates. During the first 3 months formula-fed infants consume more energy than do breastfed infants and therefore tend to grow more rapidly. Vitamin K shots are required for all infants because the bacteria that produce it are absent from the babys stomach at birth.

Question 77

Nurses providing nutritional instruction should be cognizant of the uniqueness of human milk. Which statement is correct? a. Frequent feedings during predictable growth spurts stimulate increased milk production. b. The milk of preterm mothers is the same as the milk of mothers who gave birth at term. c. The milk at the beginning of the feeding is the same as the milk at the end of the feeding. d. Colostrum is an early, less concentrated, less rich version of mature milk.

Answer 77

ANS: A These growth spurts (10 days, 3 weeks, 6 weeks, 3 months) usually last 24 to 48 hours, after which infants resume normal feeding. The milk of mothers of preterm infants is different from that of mothers of full-term infants to meet the needs of these newborns. Milk changes composition during feeding. The fat content of the milk increases as the infant feeds. Colostrum precedes mature milk and is more concentrated and richer in proteins and minerals (but not fat).

Question 78

In assisting the breastfeeding mother position the baby, nurses should keep in mind that: a. The cradle position usually is preferred by mothers who had a cesarean birth. b. Women with perineal pain and swelling prefer the modified cradle position. c. Whatever the position used, the infant is belly to belly with the mother. d. While supporting the head, the mother should push gently on the occiput.

Answer 78

ANS: C The infant inevitably faces the mother, belly to belly. The football position usually is preferred after cesarean birth. Women with perineal pain and swelling prefer the side-lying position because they can rest while breastfeeding. The mother should never push on the back of the head. It may cause the baby to bite, hyperextend the neck, or develop an aversion to being brought near the breast.

Question 79

The nurse providing couplet care should understand that nipple confusion results when: a. Breastfeeding babies receive supplementary bottle feedings. b. The baby is weaned too abruptly. c. Pacifiers are used before breastfeeding is established. d. Twins are breastfed together.

Answer 79

ANS: A Nipple confusion can result when babies go back and forth between bottles and breasts, especially before breastfeeding is established in 3 to 4 weeks, because the two require different skills. Abrupt weaning can be distressing to mother and/or baby but should not lead to nipple confusion. Pacifiers used before breastfeeding is established can be disruptive, but this does not lead to nipple confusion. Breastfeeding twins requires some logistical adaptations, but this should not lead to nipple confusion.

Question 80

With regard to basic care of the breastfeeding mother, nurses should be able to advise her that she: a. Will need an extra 1000 calories a day to maintain energy and produce milk. b. Can go back to prepregnancy consumption patterns of any drinks, as long as she ingests enough calcium. c. Should avoid trying to lose large amounts of weight. d. Must avoid exercising because it is too fatiguing.

Answer 80

ANS: C Large weight loss would release fat-stored contaminants into her breast milk. It would also likely involve eating too little and/or exercising too much. A breastfeeding mother need add only 200 to 500 extra calories to her diet to provide extra nutrients for the infant. The mother can go back to her consumption patterns of any drinks as long as she ingests enough calcium, only if she does not drink alcohol, limits coffee to no more than two cups (caffeine in chocolate, tea, and some sodas), and reads the herbal tea ingredients carefully. The mother needs her rest, but moderate exercise is healthy.

Question 81

Parents have been asked by the neonatologist to provide breast milk for their newborn son, who was born prematurely at 32 weeks of gestation. The nurse who instructs them about pumping, storing, and transporting the milk needs to assess their knowledge of lactation. Which statement is valid? a. A premature infant more easily digests breast milk than formula. b. A glass of wine just before pumping will help reduce stress and anxiety. c. The mother should pump only as much as the infant can drink. d. The mother should pump every 2 to 3 hours, including during the night.

Answer 81

ANS: A Human milk is the ideal food for preterm infants, with benefits that are unique in addition to those received by term, healthy infants. Greater physiologic stability occurs with breastfeeding compared with formula feeding. Consumption of alcohol during lactation is approached with caution. Excessive amounts can have serious effects on the infant and can adversely affect the mothers milk ejection reflex. To establish an optimal milk supply, the mother should be instructed to pump 8 to 10 times a day for 10 to 15 minutes on each breast.

Question 82

A new mother asks whether she should feed her newborn colostrum, because it is not real milk. The nurses most appropriate answer is: a. Colostrum is high in antibodies, protein, vitamins, and minerals. b. Colostrum is lower in calories than milk and should be supplemented by formula. c. Giving colostrum is important in helping the mother learn how to breastfeed before she goes home. d. Colostrum is unnecessary for newborns.

Answer 82

ANS: A Colostrum is important because it has high levels of the nutrients needed by the neonate and helps protect against infection. Supplementation is not necessary; it will decrease stimulation to the breast and decrease the production of milk. It is important for the mother to feel comfortable in this role before discharge; however, the importance of the colostrum to the infant is the top priority. Colostrum provides immunities and enzymes necessary to cleanse the gastrointestinal system, among other things.

Question 83

A first-time father is changing the diaper of his 1-day-old daughter. He asks the nurse, What is this black, sticky stuff in her diaper? The nurses best response is: a. Thats meconium, which is your babys first stool. Its normal. b. Thats transitional stool. c. That means your baby is bleeding internally. d. Oh, dont worry about that. Its okay.

Answer 83

ANS: A Thats meconium, which is your babys first stool. Its normal is an accurate statement and the most appropriate response. Transitional stool is greenish brown to yellowish brown and usually appears by the third day after initiation of feeding. That means your baby is bleeding internally is not accurate. Oh, dont worry about that. Its okay is not an appropriate statement. It is belittling to the father and does not educate him about the normal stool patterns of his daughter.

Question 84

A meconium stool can be differentiated from a transitional stool in the newborn because the meconium stool is: a. Seen at age 3 days. b. The residue of a milk curd. c. Passed in the first 12 hours of life. d. Lighter in color and looser in consistency.

Answer 84

ANS: C Meconium stool is usually passed in the first 12 hours of life, and 99% of newborns have their first stool within 48 hours. If meconium is not passed by 48 hours, obstruction is suspected. Meconium stool is the first stool of the newborn and is made up of matter remaining in the intestines during intrauterine life. Meconium is dark and sticky.

Question 85

A postpartum woman telephones about her 4-day-old infant. She is not scheduled for a weight check until the infant is 10 days old, and she is worried about whether breastfeeding is going well. Effective breastfeeding is indicated by the newborn who: a. Sleeps for 6 hours at a time between feedings. b. Has at least one breast milk stool every 24 hours. c. Gains 1 to 2 ounces per week. d. Has at least six to eight wet diapers per day.

Answer 85

ANS: D After day 4, when the mothers milk comes in, the infant should have six to eight wet diapers every 24 hours. Sleeping for 6 hours between feedings is not an indication of whether the infant is breastfeeding well. Typically infants sleep 2 to 4 hours between feedings, depending on whether they are being fed on a 2- to 3- hour schedule or cluster fed. The infant should have a minimum of three bowel movements in a 24-hour period. Breastfed infants typically gain 15 to 30 g/day.

Question 86

Necrotizing enterocolitis (NEC) is an inflammatory disease of the gastrointestinal mucosa. The signs of NEC are nonspecific. Some generalized signs include: a. Hypertonia, tachycardia, and metabolic alkalosis. b. Abdominal distention, temperature instability, and grossly bloody stools. c. Hypertension, absence of apnea, and ruddy skin color. d. Scaphoid abdomen, no residual with feedings, and increased urinary output.

Answer 86

ANS: B Some generalized signs of NEC include decreased activity, hypotonia, pallor, recurrent apnea and bradycardia, decreased oxygen saturation values, respiratory distress, metabolic acidosis, oliguria, hypotension, decreased perfusion, temperature instability, cyanosis, abdominal distention, residual gastric aspirates, vomiting, grossly bloody stools, abdominal tenderness, and erythema of the abdominal wall. The infant may display hypotonia, bradycardia, and metabolic acidosis.

Question 87

The nurse providing care for the laboring woman should understand that late fetal heart rate (FHR) a. Altered cerebral blood flow. b. Umbilical cord compression. c. Uteroplacental insufficiency. d. Meconium fluid.

Answer 87

ANS: C Uteroplacental insufficiency would result in late decelerations in the FHR. Altered fetal cerebral blood flow would result in early decelerations in the FHR. Umbilical cord compression would result in variable decelerations in the FHR. Meconium-stained fluid may or may not produce changes in the fetal heart rate, depending on the gestational age of the fetus and whether other causative factors associated with fetal distress are present.

Question 88

The nurse providing care for the laboring woman should understand that amnioinfusion is used to treat: a. Variable decelerations. b. Late decelerations. c. Fetal bradycardia. d. Fetal tachycardia.

Answer 88

ANS: A Amnioinfusion is used during labor either to dilute meconium-stained amniotic fluid or to supplement the amount of amniotic fluid to reduce the severity of variable decelerations caused by cord compression. Amnioinfusion has no bearing on late decelerations, fetal bradycardia, or fetal tachycardia alterations in fetal heart rate (FHR) tracings.

Question 89

Which statement describing the first phase of the transition period is inaccurate? a. It lasts no longer than 30 minutes. b. It is marked by spontaneous tremors, crying, and head movements. c. It includes the passage of meconium. d. It may involve the infants suddenly sleeping briefly.

Answer 89

ANS: D The first phase is an active phase in which the baby is alert. Decreased activity and sleep mark the second phase. The first phase is the shortest, lasting less than 30 minutes. Such exploratory behaviors include spontaneous startle reactions. In the first phase the newborn also produces saliva.

Question 90

A pregnant woman was admitted for induction of labor at 43 weeks of gestation with sure dates. A nonstress test (NST) in the obstetricians office revealed a nonreactive tracing. On artificial rupture of membranes, thick, meconium-stained fluid was noted. The nurse caring for the infant after birth should anticipate: a. Meconium aspiration, hypoglycemia, and dry, cracked skin. b. Excessive vernix caseosa covering the skin, lethargy, and respiratory distress syndrome. c. Golden yellow- to green stainedskin and nails, absence of scalp hair, and an increased amount of subcutaneous fat. d. Hyperglycemia, hyperthermia, and an alert, wide-eyed appearance.

Answer 90

ANS: A Meconium aspiration, hypoglycemia, and dry, cracked skin are consistent with a postmature infant. Excessive vernix caseosa covering the skin, lethargy, and respiratory distress syndrome would be consistent with a very premature infant. The skin may be meconium stained, but the infant would most likely have longer hair and decreased amounts of subcutaneous fat. Postmaturity with a nonreactive NST would indicate hypoxia. Signs and symptoms associated with fetal hypoxia are hypoglycemia, temperature instability, and lethargy.

Question 91

An infant with severe meconium aspiration syndrome (MAS) is not responding to conventional treatment. Which highly technical method of treatment may be necessary for an infant who does not respond to conventional treatment? a. Extracorporeal membrane oxygenation b. Respiratory support with a ventilator c. Insertion of a laryngoscope and suctioning of the trachea d. Insertion of an endotracheal tube

Answer 91

ANS: A Extracorporeal membrane oxygenation is a highly technical method that oxygenates the blood while bypassing the lungs, thus allowing the infants lungs to rest and recover. The infant is likely to have been first connected to a ventilator. Laryngoscope insertion and tracheal suctioning are performed after birth before the infant takes the first breath.

Question 92

A child is 2 hours postoperative after a resection of a brain tumor. Which assessment by the nurse takes priority? a. Blood pressure b. Intake and output c. Neurological exam d. Temperature

Answer 92

ANS: C All actions are appropriate for a child postoperatively. However, the answer that is most specific to this childs procedure is the neurological exam.

Question 93

The class of drugs known as opioid analgesics (butorphanol, nalbuphine) is not suitable for administration to women with known opioid dependence. The antagonistic activity could precipitate withdrawal symptoms (abstinence syndrome) in both mothers and newborns. Signs of opioid/narcotic withdrawal in the mother would include (Select all that apply): a. Y awning, runny nose. b. Increase in appetite. c. Chills and hot flashes. d. Constipation. e. Irritability, restlessness.

Answer 93

ANS: A, C, E The woman experiencing maternal opioid withdrawal syndrome will exhibit yawning, runny nose, sneezing, anorexia, chills or hot flashes, vomiting, diarrhea, abdominal pain, irritability, restlessness, muscle spasms, weakness, and drowsiness. It is important for the nurse to assess both mother and baby and to plan care accordingly.

Question 94

To provide optimal care of infants born to mothers who are substance abusers, nurses should be aware that: a. Infants born to addicted mothers are also addicted. b. Mothers who abuse one substance likely will use or abuse another, thus compounding the infants difficulties. c. The NICU Network Neurobehavioral Scale (NNNS) is designed to assess the damage the mother has done to herself. d. No laboratory procedures are available that can identify the intrauterine drug exposure of the infant.

Answer 94

ANS: B Multiple substance use (even just alcohol and tobacco) makes it difficult to assess the problems of the exposed infant, particularly with regard to withdrawal manifestations. Infants of substance-abusing mothers may have some of the physiologic signs but are not addicted in the behavioral sense. Drug-exposed newborn is a more accurate description than addict. The NNNS is designed to assess the neurologic, behavioral, and stress/abstinence function of the neonate. Newborn urine, hair, or meconium sampling may be used to identify an infants intrauterine drug exposure.

Question 95

Providing care for the neonate born to a mother who abuses substances can present a challenge for the health care team. Nursing care for this infant requires a multisystem approach. The first step in the provision of this care is: a. Pharmacologic treatment. b. Reduction of environmental stimuli. c. Neonatal abstinence syndrome scoring. d. Adequate nutrition and maintenance of fluid and electrolyte balance.

Answer 95

ANS: C Neonatal abstinence syndrome (NAS) is the term used to describe the cohort of symptoms associated with drug withdrawal in the neonate. The Neonatal Abstinence Scoring System evaluates central nervous system (CNS), metabolic, vasomotor, respiratory, and gastrointestinal disturbances. This evaluation tool enables the care team to develop an appropriate plan of care. The infant is scored throughout the length of stay, and the treatment plan is adjusted accordingly. Pharmacologic treatment is based on the severity of withdrawal symptoms. Symptoms are determined by using a standard assessment tool. Medications of choice are morphine, phenobarbital, diazepam, or diluted tincture of opium. Swaddling, holding, and reducing environmental stimuli are essential in providing care to the infant who is experiencing withdrawal. These nursing interventions are appropriate for the infant who displays CNS disturbances. Poor feeding is one of the gastrointestinal symptoms common to this client population. Fluid and electrolyte balance must be maintained and adequate nutrition provided. These infants often have a poor suck reflex and may need to be fed via gavage.

Question 96

Many common drugs of abuse cause significant physiologic and behavioral problems in infants who are breastfed by mothers currently using (Select all that apply): a. Amphetamine. b. Heroin. c. Nicotine. d. PCP . e. Morphine.

Answer 96

ANS: A, B, C, D Amphetamine, heroin, nicotine, and PCP are contraindicated during breastfeeding because of the reported effects on the infant. Morphine is a medication that often is used to treat neonatal abstinence syndrome.

Question 97

While completing a newborn assessment, the nurse should be aware that the most common birth injury is: a. To the soft tissues. b. Caused by forceps gripping the head on delivery. c. Fracture of the humerus and femur. d. Fracture of the clavicle.

Answer 97

ANS: D The most common birth injury is fracture of the clavicle (collarbone). It usually heals without treatment, although the arm and shoulder may be immobilized for comfort.

Question 98

With regard to injuries to the infants plexus during labor and birth, nurses should be aware that: a. If the nerves are stretched with no avulsion, they should recover completely in 3 to 6 months. b. Erb palsy is damage to the lower plexus. c. Parents of children with brachial palsy are taught to pick up the child from under the axillae. d. Breastfeeding is not recommended for infants with facial nerve paralysis until the condition resolves.

Answer 98

ANS: A If the nerves are stretched with no avulsion, they should recover completely in 3 to 6 months. However, if the ganglia are disconnected completely from the spinal cord, the damage is permanent. Erb palsy is damage to the upper plexus and is less serious than brachial palsy. Parents of children with brachial palsy are taught to avoid picking up the child under the axillae or by pulling on the arms. Breastfeeding is not contraindicated, but both the mother and infant will need help from the nurse at the start.