OBJECTIVES! Flashcards
(229 cards)
1
Q
parts of papez circuit involved in emotional processing?
A
cingulate cortex and the hypothalamus
2
Q
Nociceptors exist as free nerve endings activated only when the stimulus is ___.
A
strong enough to cause damage.
3
Q
___ nociceptors have fast responses
A
thermal/mechanical
4
Q
___ nociceptors are myelinated
A
thermal/mechanical
5
Q
___ nociceptors are unmeylinated
A
polymodal
6
Q
thermal/mechanical noiceptors are assocaited with ___ pain
A
sharp, prickling pain
7
Q
polymodal nociceptors are assocaited with
A
with high intensity mechanical, chemical, hot, and cold stimuli.
8
Q
Nociceptive specific neurons are found in___of the spinal cord
A
Lamina 1
9
Q
nocipceptive specific neurons have ___ receptor fields
A
small
10
Q
nocieptive specific neurons carry
A
only info about noceipcetion
11
Q
. Wide dynamic range neurons (WDR) are found in ___ of the spinal cord
A
Lamina 5
12
Q
Wide dynamic range neurons carry information
A
from both mechanoreceptors and noiceptors
13
Q
Wide dynamic range neurons have ___ receptor fields
A
larger
14
Q
. hyperalgesia is what happens when you have increased sensitivity to the ____.
A
surrounding unharmed region of a damaged area
15
Q
with hyperalgesia Subsequent stimuli result in the
A
enhanced sensation of pain
16
Q
referred pain is the result of a ____
A
lack of nociceptive output neurons in the dorsal horn that are dedicated to visceral pain
17
Q
dissociated sensory loss is when you have reduced sensation of epicritic sensation in the opposite side of the body from where you have ___.
A
reduced sensation of temperature and pain
18
Q
Pain modulation can occur as the result of the descending pathway synapsing with
A
an opiate containing interneuron
19
Q
The opiate containing interneruon synapses with the ascending pathway in the dorsal horn releasing enkephalin that dampens
A
both presynaptic and postsynaptic neurons
20
Q
A
21
Q
first neurons that get binocular input are in the ___
A
striate cortex, not the lgn
22
Q
X optic nerve —>
A
complete scotoma
23
Q
X optic chiasm:
A
bitemporal hemiopia.
24
Q
X optic tract on the right
A
lose left visual field
25
lesion of optic radiations
Quadrantanopia
26
leison of occipital cortex typically causes ___ hemianopias
macular sparing
27
If Meyer's loop (temporal pathway) is lesioned, the Quadrantanopia is ____ superior
28
if Baum's loop (parietal pathway) is lesioned in the optic radiations, the Quadrantanopia is \_\_\_
inferior
29
lgn cells are binocular or monocular?
monocular.. they have functional segregation
30
The V2 thin stripes contain __ cells.
color
31
Common properties of receptive fields in the **retina and LGN (3)**
center surround organization
mix of cells with on/off center
retinotopically ordered
32
The cell bodies of most mossy fibers entering the cerebellum are located in the \_\_\_\_
pons
33
The expansion of the lateral cerebellar hemisphere in humans indicates that the cerebellum is capable of \_\_\_
contributing to more than just motor function
34
\_\_\_ shows prominent activation during
extremely difficult problem solving tasks in humans?
Dentate nucleus
35
The appearance of oscillating movements of the hand while reaching toward a target is
referred to as \_\_\_
intention tremor
36
The use of ethanol to control symptoms of essential tremor is effective because ethanol (2)
1. inhibits normal excitation
2. facilitates GABAergic function
37
REM amount ____ throughout the night
increases
38
Stage __ lessens throghuout the night
4
39
order of sleep cycle?
1-2-3-4-rem-2-3-4-rem-2-3-4..
40
order of amount of time we spend in each sleep stage? from most to least
stage
2
3/4
rem
1
41
during **alert** what waves do you have
beta
42
during awake but drowsy what waves do you have
alpha
43
during **stage 1** what waves do you have
theta waves
44
during stage 2 what waves do you have
sleep spindles and k complexes
45
during stage 3 and 4 what waves do you have
delta
46
during stage __ you have parasympathetic control, lower vital signs, resotratorive sleep
4
47
\_\_\_ tone dominantes during rem
syympathetic
48
stage 2
49
low voltage, fast, random activity
awake but drowsy, alpha waves
50
the motor sysytem is ___ organized
heirarchially
51
highest levels in motor system heirarchy are concerned with
complex planning and selection (at the expense of time!)
52
motor system is ___ segregated
functionally
53
\_\_\_\_ local circuit neurons control more dextrious mvoement
short distance (lateral)
54
Lateral premotor cortex is involved in
selection of motor responses based one xternal cues
55
Medial premotor cortex is involved with
learned sequences, repsonse to intenral cues
56
supplementary mtoor area and the cingulate motor area are found in the
medial premotor cortex
57
pre-sma is invovled with
learning sequencies
58
define association cortex
everything that is not a primary motor, primary sensory, or premotor area
59
association areas receives inputs from multiple areas and tie them together in some manner that was not possible in the
intiial sensory areas
generate more meaningful repsonses
60
all neocortical association areas have at least ___ layers
5, most have 6
61
facial recognition neurons are located in the
fusiform gyrus (temporal lobe)
62
planning neurons are found in the
frontal cortex
63
attention neurons are found in the
parietal lobe
64
reach neurons are found in the
parietal lobe
65
grasp neurons are a part of the ___ pathway
what/ventral
66
mirror neurons are found in the
inferior frontal gyrus
67
instructed delay neurons around found in the
prefrontal cortex
68
Brodmann Areas represent a particular anatomical structure corresponded to a particular \_\_\_\_.
function
69
Primary emotions are reflexive and involve the (3)
amygdala, hypothalamus, and PAG
70
what is included in the papez circuit
71
\_\_\_ is the synapse site of the limbic system in the thalamus
mediodorsal n.
72
primary emotions are linked with ___ reflexes
autonomic
73
Fear response involves direct connections from
thalamus to amygdala
74
Amygdala connects to __ and __ for fight-or-flight response
PAG and LC
75
Stimulation of ___ PAG = fight-or-flight,
Dorsal
76
lesion of Dorsal PAG
affective defense & "sham rage"
77
lesion fo ventral pag
quiet, biting
78
All major emotion structures are connected to
the \_\_
PAG
79
secondary emotions and involve the \_\_\_
cortical limbic structures
80
fear response
## Footnote
thalamus -\> amygdala --\>
ACC (upstream) and the PAG and LC (downstream pathways)
81
fear response
Memory of event is encoded in the\_\_ and \_\_
amygdala and cortex
82
Risk factor for depression: No ____ control of amygdala = increased fear and anxiety.
anterior cingulate control
83
seeing pain ifnlicted on others activates what pain system
medial pain system and lateral pain system
84
when asked to rate unpleasantness of a noxious heat simtulus
they activated the ___ and \_\_\_
acc and PAG (=medial pain system)
85
what does the medial pain system include?
1. acc
2. anterior mCC
3. amygdala
3. anteriro insula
5. midline and intralaminar thalamus
86
what are the major functions of the medial pain system? (5)
1. enable limbic system to assign emotion weight to stim.
2. anticipation/learning
3. nocifensive behavior
4. pain empathy
5. pain inhibition
87
\_\_\_ nociceptors have fast responses
thermal/mechanical
88
\_\_\_ nociceptors are myelinated
thermal/mechanical
89
\_\_\_ nociceptors are unmeylinated
polymodal
90
thermal/mechanical noiceptors are assocaited with ___ pain
sharp, prickling pain
91
polymodal nociceptors are assocaited with
with high intensity mechanical, chemical, hot, and cold stimuli.
92
Nociceptive specific neurons are found in\_\_\_of the spinal cord
Lamina 1
93
Electrical stimulation of\_\_\_ or \_\_\_results in the inhibition of dorsal horn neurons that respond to noxious stimulation.
periaquedcutal gray or rostroventral medulla
94
Electrical stimulation in either the PAG or rostroventral medulla results in the inhibition of dorsal horn neurons that respond to noxious stimulation.
this effect cna be eliminated with X of the
dorsolateral funiculus (which is carrying this descending information)
95
Administration of low doses of opiates directly into \_\_ and ___ produce analgesia
PAG and rostroventral medulla
96
The descending inhibition of spinothalamic tract neurons appears to be mediated by the activation of ____ interneurons in the dorsal horn.
enkephalin
97
The descending axons of serotonergic and noradrenergic neurons from the nucleus raphe contact (2)
1. dendrites of ALS neurons
2. inhbiitory neurons in superficial dorsal horn
98
The ___ contains a high density of enkephalin- and dynorphin-containing interneurons
superficial dorsal horn
99
opiates and opioid peptides regulate nociceptive transmission by releasing
glutamate, substance P, and other transmitters
100
gp receive input to and from areas projecting back to prefrontal areas involved in \_\_\_\_
short term memory
101
esion at Wilbrand’s Knee looks like
Junctional Syndrome or Ant.
Chiasmal Syndrome = complete loss of one eye
+ sup. field defect in other eye, “pie in the sky”
102
\* Autonomic Dysreflexia with SCI =
extreme blood pressure swings (240/160) + low heart rate
103
The "indirect pathway" from cortex to spinal cord enables ___ postural adjustments.
feed-forward
104
The "indirect pathway" from cortex to spinal cord plays an important role in \_\_\_
weight shifts
105
indirect pathway Indirect: brainstem UMNs --\> anteromedial white matter (rubrospinal and extrapyramidal tracts) --\> interneurons --\> ___ muscles
axial and proximal muscles
106
Long distance interneurons are medial or ventral
medial
107
Long distance interneurons are medial, go to ___ muscles
proximal
108
Short distance interneurons are lateral, go to ___ muscles
distal
109
direct pathway goes to ___ muscles
distal
110
Most direct corticomotor innervation comes from the\_\_\_
primary motor cortex (M1)
111
in the cortex Motor units are controlled by\_\_\_ or ___ cells
Betz cells or other large, non-Betz pyramidal cells
112
Lateral premotor cortex is involved in
selection of motor responses based one xternal cues
113
Medial premotor cortex is involved with
learned sequences, repsonse to intenral cues
114
supplementary mtoor area and the cingulate motor area are found in the
medial premotor cortex
115
pre-sma is invovled with
learning sequencies
116
3 association areas?
i. Pre-SMA: learning sequences ii.Parietal and Temporal cortex - Dorsal pathway - Ventral pathway i. Prefrontal cortex: decision making, working memory, monitoring outcomes
117
\_\_\_\_ areas are not “cortical motor areas” even though they’re in the cortex.
association
118
facial recognition neurons are located in the
fusiform gyrus (temporal lobe)
119
planning neurons are found in the
frontal cortex
120
attention neurons are found in the
parietal lobe
121
reach neurons are found in the
parietal lobe
122
grasp neurons are a part of the ___ pathway
what/ventral
123
mirror neurons are found in the
inferior frontal gyrus
124
instructed delay neurons around found in the
prefrontal cortex
125
Brodmann Areas represent a particular anatomical structure corresponded to a particular \_\_\_\_.
function
126
what kind of pores do electrical synapses have? what do they let in
very large pores for unselective ion diffusion
127
describe the 2nd epsp after facilitation
2nd EPSP larger than the 1st because Ca clearance is slower than Ca entry into cell
128
Vesicle release is quantal/discrete: each vesicle =
1 mini end plate potential
129
how do miniend plate potentials cause depolarization?
Many MEPPs make up the endplate potential, EPP, causing depolarization
130
EPSP & IPSP **_amplitude_** & **_direction_** depend on
ion permeability and membrane voltage
131
chemical syanspes provide potentiation for
1. excitation and inhbiiton
2. plasticity and remodeling
132
how many chemical transmitters can a single neuron release?
many
133
synaptic potentials are passive events that become progressively smaller at
greater distances ro
134
glutamate binds to ___ receptors
metabotropic and ionotropic
135
gaba binds to ___ receptors
ionotropic and metabotropic
136
137
clonic seizures involve
repetitive movements (like shaking)
138
tonic clonic seizures involve
start as tonic, then become clonic
139
when do febrile seizures occur
occurring in childhood after 1 month of age
140
what are febrile seizures associated with?
associated with a febrile illness not caused by CNS infection
no hx of previous seizures & not acutely symptomatic
141
febrile seizure is a ___ channelopathy
Na 1.1
142
Generalized Epilepsy with Febrile Seizures Plus invovles mutations in
SCN1B or SCN1A
143
with Generalized Epilepsy with Febrile Seizures Plus you get a loss of
loss of fast inactivation --\> Na channel gain
of function --\> persistent Na current
144
with Severe Myoclonic Epilepsy of Infancy you get a loss of
```
loss of high frequency action potential --\> loss of inhibitory
function of GABAergic cortical interneurons & Pukinje cells --\> seizures & ataxia
```
145
what is the range of severity of Na 1.1 channelpathies?
146
sx of Benign Familial Neonatal Convulsion
brief generalized and partial seizures that usual resolve by age 6 weeks
147
Ca and Cl Channelopathies in Epilepsy Both can lead to
idiopathic generalized epilepsy
148
Antiepileptic drugs decrease the ___ of neurons
hyper-excitability
149
2 mechanism in which antielipetic drugs work?
1. block Na channels
2. increase inhibitory neurons via GABA
150
wjhat regulates the function of **_Na and Ca_** channels?
B subuniots
151
ictal refers to
seizure period or events due to seizure
152
aura is ictal or preictal?
ictal
153
prodrome is precital or ictal?
preictal
154
variations of **_simple partial seizures?_**
with:
1. motor signs
2. with somatosensory sx
3. ANS sx
4. psychic sx
155
what is the pathophysiology of seizures with SMEI?
loss of high frequency AP ---\> loss of inhibiotry function of gabaeric cortical interneurons --\> seizures
156
to tx SMEI you have to reestablish
gabergic transmission
157
how do benzos work for SMEI?
inc response of post synaptic gaba
158
how does tiagabine work for SMEI?
dec reuptake of GABA
159
tx of febrile plus involves
antipletpic meds that potentially bind tommutant channels and stabilize folding of proteins
160
K channelpathies mostly invovle cells with __ current
M current (close to resting ptoential and is regualted by msucarnic and other g protein)
161
with tympanometry
In **_conductive hearing_** losses more sound is ____ then in the normal middle ear.
reflected
162
Pathologies that result in conductive losses:
1. otitis media
2. otoschlerosis
3. ear wax build up
163
High frequencies are represented ___ in the nuclei
dorsally
164
Within area AI, neurons of similar best frequency are arrayed
in a strip or belt-like
165
Within area AI, neurons of similar best frequency are arrayed in a strip or belt-like
structure that runs perpendicular to the\_\_\_ axis.
high-to-low
frequency tonotopic
166
\_\_\_-dimensional spatial organization in
the auditory cortex.
three
167
what did patch clamp recording show?
provided evidence for single channels
168
what is different about K channel and Na channel properties?
K channels have longer latency time and longer duration
also obviously different dierection
(Na on left, K on right)
169
charactersitics that vary with K channels
1. low voltage vs. high voltage activation (voltage dependence)
2. how fast the population reaches maximum conductance (rate of activation)
3. how fast they inactivate (some dont even inactivate)
170
BK K+ channels have ___ inactivation
fast
171
\_\_\_ and ___ are nonainactivating K channels
IK and SK
172
order of channel activation
173
inactivation pattern of Kv4.1 channels?
inactivate rapdily after depolarization
174
channelpathies in voltage gated Ca channels
congential stationary night blindness
familial hemiplegic migraine
episodic ataxia type 2
175
channelpathies in Na channels
generalized epilepsy with febrile seizures
176
channelpathies in K channels
benign familial neonatal convulsion
177
what toxins block Na channels?
ttx and saxitoxin
178
what toxins inactivate Na channels?
Batrachotoxin (frogs)
179
what does a-toxin do?
prolongs the duration of Na channels
180
what does b-toxins do?
shift voltage activation of Na channels
181
which toxins blod K channels?
apaminin (bees) and dendrotoxin (wasps)
182
what does TEA block?
K channels and AcH receptors
183
What blocks Ca channels?
ω-conotoxins (cone snails) and ω-agatoxin (spiders) block Ca channels
184
active ion transports work ___ a electrochemical gradient
against
185
how do active ion transporters and channels differ?
active ion transporters having slow binding and unbinding
also are slower transport than channels
186
w-conotoxins blocks ___ channels
n type Ca
187
w-agatoxin blocks ___ channels
P/Q type Ca channels
188
\_\_\_\_ form a compelx with the ion they transport
active ion transporters
189
how do ion exchangers work?
they don't use energy
but trade an intracellular ion for an extracellular one
190
how do ion co-transporters work?
transport two or more moelcules in the **_SAME DIRECTION ACROSS A MEMBRANE_**
191
what do neurons of the olfactory epithelium need to survive?
contact with & tropic support from olfactory bulb to survive
192
what layers in the olfactroy bulb go right to the olfactory cortex
mitral and tufted cells
193
Odors are identified by overall activation pattern of
glomeruli across the whole bulb
194
Taste buds are all on \_\_\_.
papillae
195
Each bud has ___ receptor & basal (stem) cells
50-100
196
Microvilli on ___ taste cells _**get initial stimulus** _
Type II
197
Microvilli on Type II taste cells get initial stimulus --\> gap junction --\> ___ cells
type III
198
Pattern code theory of taste encoding
tastes are encoded by differential firing pattern across a population of axons.
199
what supports pattern code theory of taste encoding
supported by single axons responding to many different
primary stimuli, although they have a maximal response
to only one stimulus.
200
what is the labeled line theory of taste encoding
each neuron/axon is responsible for one specific taste.
201
what supports the **_labeled line_** theory of taste encoding
specific gene knockouts that can rescue
or delete the perception of individual taste qualities.
ex. deletion of PLCβ2 causes loss of sucrose, glutamate, and quinine tastes.
202
Bulbar neurons project to the\_\_\_
piriform cortex
203
All of th**e G protein activating receptors** have a common tertiary structure with\_\_\_ transmembrane domains
7
204
Neurons expressing a particular OR are located where?
they are limited to a particular region (or zone) of the epithelium.
205
Within a zone, neurons expressing a particular OR can be either:
homogeneously distributed or have a clustered distribution pattern.
206
olfactory neurons are ___ tuned
broadly
207
where is there pattern activation in response to odorants?
1. in the epihtelium
2. in the bulb
208
A single chemical would be composed of how many odotypes?
many
209
what does the solitary n. projec tto
1. vpm
2. hypothalamus
3. amygdala
210
what do all taste fields respond to?
all tastants
211
each\_\_\_ is most sensitive to a particular taste quality.
taste field
212
disadvantages to CT
1. ionizing radiation
2. not as good for soft tissue
3. lower spatial resolution
213
disadvantages to MRI
1. long study duration
2. no ferromagnetic or electronic devices
3. small as hell -- claustrophobia
214
on MRS, creatine indciates
glial
215
on MRS, lactate indicates
ischemia
216
limitations of FMRI includes
spatial and temporal resolution
217
disadvantages of PET?
1. need a cyclotron to make radioisotope
2. radiation exposure
218
what are 5 applications of imaging mdoalities?
1. map nml brain development
2. alzheimers disease
3. image guieded neurosurgery
4. schizopehnia
5. pain )in high vs. low sensitvity pts)
219
advantages of pet?
functional imaging
physiological variables can be determined
220
what to use when looking at brain perfusion?
pet
221
what to use when looking at metabolism?
PET
222
what to use when looking at chemical structure?
MRI
223
a ___ is applied with MRS
RF pulse
224
on MRS ___ is raised in tumor tissue
choline
225
what imaging modalities have fairly poor spatial resolution
pet
FMRI
ct
226
with studies can provide functional imaging
pet and mri
227
disorders to study with ct
hemorrhages, generalized atrophy
228
disorders to study with mri
tumor
demyination
degenerate disorders
229
disorders to study with pet
psychiatric/addictive/degenerative disorders
epilepsy
