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1
Q

parts of papez circuit involved in emotional processing?

A

cingulate cortex and the hypothalamus

2
Q

Nociceptors exist as free nerve endings activated only when the stimulus is ___.

A

strong enough to cause damage. 

3
Q

___ nociceptors have fast responses

A

thermal/mechanical

4
Q

___ nociceptors are myelinated

A

thermal/mechanical

5
Q

___ nociceptors are unmeylinated

A

polymodal

6
Q

thermal/mechanical noiceptors are assocaited with ___ pain

A

sharp, prickling pain

7
Q

polymodal nociceptors are assocaited with

A

with high intensity mechanical, chemical, hot, and cold stimuli.

8
Q

Nociceptive specific neurons are found in___of the spinal cord

A

 Lamina 1 

9
Q

nocipceptive specific neurons have ___ receptor fields

A

small

10
Q

nocieptive specific neurons carry

A

only info about noceipcetion

11
Q

. Wide dynamic range neurons (WDR) are found in ___ of the spinal cord

A

Lamina 5 

12
Q

Wide dynamic range neurons  carry information

A

from both mechanoreceptors and noiceptors

13
Q

Wide dynamic range neurons have ___ receptor fields

A

larger

14
Q

. hyperalgesia is what happens when you have increased sensitivity to the ____.

A

surrounding unharmed region of a damaged area

15
Q

with hyperalgesia Subsequent stimuli result in the 

A

enhanced sensation of pain 

16
Q

referred pain is the result of a ____

A

 lack of nociceptive output neurons in the dorsal horn that are dedicated to visceral pain

17
Q

dissociated sensory loss is when you have reduced sensation of epicritic sensation in the opposite side of the body from where you have ___.

A

reduced sensation of temperature and pain

18
Q

Pain modulation can occur as the result of the descending pathway synapsing with 

A

an opiate containing interneuron

19
Q

The opiate containing interneruon synapses with the ascending pathway in the dorsal horn releasing enkephalin that dampens 

A

both presynaptic and postsynaptic neurons

20
Q
A
21
Q

 first neurons that get binocular input are in the ___

A

striate cortex, not the lgn

22
Q

X optic nerve ---> 

A

complete scotoma

23
Q

X optic chiasm: 

A

bitemporal hemiopia. 

24
Q

X optic tract on the right

A

lose  left visual field 

25
Q

lesion of optic radiations

A

Quadrantanopia

26
Q

leison of occipital cortex typically causes ___ hemianopias 

A

macular sparing

27
Q

If Meyer's loop (temporal pathway) is lesioned, the Quadrantanopia is ____ superior

A
28
Q

 if Baum's loop (parietal pathway) is lesioned in the optic radiations, the Quadrantanopia  is ___

A

inferior

29
Q

lgn cells are binocular or monocular?

A

monocular.. they have functional segregation

30
Q

The V2 thin stripes contain __ cells.

A

color

31
Q

Common properties of receptive fields in the retina and LGN (3)

A

center surround organization

mix of cells with on/off center

retinotopically ordered

32
Q

The cell bodies of most mossy fibers entering the cerebellum are located in the ____

A

pons

33
Q

The expansion of the lateral cerebellar hemisphere in humans indicates that  the cerebellum is capable of ___

A

contributing to more than just motor function

34
Q

___ shows prominent activation during
extremely difficult problem solving tasks in humans? 

A

Dentate nucleus

35
Q

The appearance of oscillating movements of the hand while reaching toward a target is
referred to as ___

A

intention tremor

36
Q

The use of ethanol to control symptoms of essential tremor is effective because  ethanol (2)

A

 1. inhibits normal excitation

2. facilitates GABAergic function

37
Q

 REM amount ____ throughout the night 

A

increases

38
Q

Stage __ lessens throghuout the night 

A

4

39
Q

order of sleep cycle?

A

1-2-3-4-rem-2-3-4-rem-2-3-4..

40
Q

order of amount of time we spend in each sleep stage? from most to least

A

stage

2

3/4

rem

1

41
Q

during alert what waves do you have

A

beta

42
Q

during awake but drowsy what waves do you have

A

alpha

43
Q

during stage 1 what waves do you have

A

theta waves

44
Q

during stage 2 what waves do you have

A

sleep spindles and k complexes

45
Q

during stage 3  and 4 what waves do you have

A

delta

46
Q

during stage __ you have parasympathetic control, lower vital signs, resotratorive sleep

A

4

47
Q

___ tone dominantes during rem

A

syympathetic

48
Q
A

stage 2

49
Q

low voltage, fast, random activity 

A

awake but drowsy, alpha waves

50
Q

the motor sysytem is ___ organized

A

heirarchially

51
Q

highest levels in motor system heirarchy are concerned with

A

complex planning and selection (at the expense of time!)

52
Q

motor system is ___ segregated

A

functionally

53
Q

____ local circuit neurons control more dextrious mvoement

A

short distance (lateral)

54
Q

Lateral premotor cortex is involved in

A

selection of motor responses based one xternal cues

55
Q

Medial premotor cortex is involved with

A

learned sequences, repsonse to intenral cues

56
Q

supplementary mtoor area and the cingulate motor area are found in the

A

medial premotor cortex

57
Q

pre-sma is invovled with

A

learning sequencies

58
Q

define association cortex

A

everything that is not a primary motor, primary sensory, or premotor area

59
Q

association areas receives inputs from multiple areas and tie them together in some manner that was not possible in the

A

intiial sensory areas

 

generate more meaningful repsonses

60
Q

all neocortical association areas have at least ___ layers

A

5, most have 6

61
Q

facial recognition neurons are located in the 

A

fusiform gyrus (temporal lobe)

62
Q

planning neurons are found in the

A

frontal cortex

63
Q

attention neurons are found in the

A

parietal lobe

64
Q

reach neurons are found in the 

A

parietal lobe

65
Q

grasp neurons are a part of the ___ pathway

A

what/ventral

66
Q

mirror neurons are found in the

A

 inferior frontal gyrus 

67
Q

 instructed delay neurons around found in the 

A

prefrontal cortex

68
Q

Brodmann Areas represent a particular anatomical structure corresponded to a particular ____.

A

function

69
Q

Primary emotions are reflexive and involve the (3)

A

amygdala, hypothalamus, and PAG

70
Q

what is included in the papez circuit

A
71
Q

___ is the synapse site of the limbic system in the thalamus

A

mediodorsal n. 

72
Q

primary emotions are linked with ___ reflexes

A

autonomic 

73
Q

Fear response involves direct connections from 

A

thalamus to amygdala

74
Q

Amygdala connects to __ and __ for fight-or-flight response

A

PAG and LC

75
Q

Stimulation of ___ PAG = fight-or-flight,

A

Dorsal

76
Q

lesion of Dorsal PAG

A

affective defense & "sham rage"

 

77
Q

lesion fo ventral pag

A

quiet, biting

78
Q

All major emotion structures are connected to
the __

A

 PAG

79
Q

secondary emotions and involve the ___

A

cortical limbic structures

80
Q

fear response

thalamus -> amygdala -->

A

 ACC (upstream) and the PAG and LC (downstream pathways)

81
Q

fear response

Memory of event is encoded in the__ and __

A

 amygdala and cortex 

82
Q

Risk factor for depression: No ____ control of amygdala = increased fear and anxiety.

A

anterior cingulate control

83
Q

seeing pain ifnlicted on others activates what pain system

A

medial pain system and lateral pain system

84
Q

when asked to rate unpleasantness of a noxious heat simtulus

 

they activated the ___ and ___

A

acc and PAG (=medial pain system)

85
Q

what does the medial pain system include?

A

1. acc

2. anterior mCC

3. amygdala

3. anteriro insula

5. midline and intralaminar thalamus

86
Q

what are the major functions of the medial pain system? (5)

A

1. enable limbic system to assign emotion weight to stim.

2.  anticipation/learning

3. nocifensive behavior

4. pain empathy

5.pain inhibition

87
Q

___ nociceptors have fast responses

A

thermal/mechanical

88
Q

___ nociceptors are myelinated

A

thermal/mechanical

89
Q

___ nociceptors are unmeylinated

A

polymodal

90
Q

thermal/mechanical noiceptors are assocaited with ___ pain

A

sharp, prickling pain

91
Q

polymodal nociceptors are assocaited with

A

with high intensity mechanical, chemical, hot, and cold stimuli.

92
Q

Nociceptive specific neurons are found in___of the spinal cord

A

 Lamina 1 

93
Q

Electrical stimulation of___ or ___results in the inhibition of dorsal horn neurons that respond to noxious stimulation.

A

 periaquedcutal gray or rostroventral medulla 

94
Q

Electrical stimulation in either the PAG or rostroventral medulla results in the inhibition of dorsal horn neurons that respond to noxious stimulation.

 

this effect cna be eliminated with X of the 

A

 dorsolateral funiculus (which is carrying this descending information)

95
Q

Administration of low doses of opiates directly into  __ and ___ produce analgesia

A

PAG and rostroventral medulla 

96
Q

The descending inhibition of spinothalamic tract neurons appears to be mediated by the activation of ____ interneurons in the dorsal horn.

A

enkephalin

97
Q

 The descending axons of serotonergic and noradrenergic neurons from the nucleus raphe  contact (2)

A

1. dendrites of ALS neurons

2. inhbiitory neurons in superficial dorsal horn

98
Q

The ___ contains a high density of enkephalin- and dynorphin-containing interneurons 

A

superficial dorsal horn

99
Q

opiates and opioid peptides regulate nociceptive transmission by releasing 

A

 glutamate, substance P, and other transmitters

100
Q

gp receive input to and from areas projecting back to prefrontal areas involved in ____

A

short term memory

101
Q

esion at Wilbrand’s Knee looks like 

A

Junctional Syndrome or Ant.


Chiasmal Syndrome = complete loss of one eye

+ sup. field defect in other eye, “pie in the sky”

102
Q

* Autonomic Dysreflexia with SCI =

A

 extreme blood pressure swings (240/160) + low heart rate

103
Q

The "indirect pathway" from cortex to spinal cord enables ___ postural adjustments.

A

feed-forward

104
Q

The "indirect pathway" from cortex to spinal cord plays an important role in ___

A

weight shifts

105
Q

indirect pathway Indirect: brainstem UMNs --> anteromedial white matter (rubrospinal and extrapyramidal tracts) --> interneurons --> ___ muscles

A

axial and proximal muscles

106
Q

Long distance interneurons are medial or ventral

A

medial

107
Q

Long distance interneurons are medial, go to ___ muscles

A

proximal

108
Q

Short distance interneurons are lateral, go to ___ muscles

A

distal

109
Q

direct pathway goes to ___ muscles

A

distal

110
Q

Most direct corticomotor innervation comes from the___

A

primary motor cortex (M1)

111
Q

in the cortex Motor units are controlled by___ or ___ cells

A

Betz cells or other large, non-Betz pyramidal cells

112
Q

Lateral premotor cortex is involved in

A

selection of motor responses based one xternal cues

113
Q

Medial premotor cortex is involved with

A

learned sequences, repsonse to intenral cues

114
Q

supplementary mtoor area and the cingulate motor area are found in the

A

medial premotor cortex

115
Q

pre-sma is invovled with

A

learning sequencies

116
Q

3 association areas?

A

i. Pre-SMA: learning sequences ii.Parietal and Temporal cortex - Dorsal pathway - Ventral pathway i. Prefrontal cortex: decision making, working memory, monitoring outcomes

117
Q

____ areas are not “cortical motor areas” even though they’re in the cortex.

A

association

118
Q

facial recognition neurons are located in the 

A

fusiform gyrus (temporal lobe)

119
Q

planning neurons are found in the

A

frontal cortex

120
Q

attention neurons are found in the

A

parietal lobe

121
Q

reach neurons are found in the 

A

parietal lobe

122
Q

grasp neurons are a part of the ___ pathway

A

what/ventral

123
Q

mirror neurons are found in the

A

 inferior frontal gyrus 

124
Q

 instructed delay neurons around found in the 

A

prefrontal cortex

125
Q

Brodmann Areas represent a particular anatomical structure corresponded to a particular ____.

A

function

126
Q

what kind of pores do electrical synapses have? what do they let in

A

 very large pores for unselective ion diffusion

127
Q

describe the 2nd epsp after facilitation 

A

2nd EPSP larger than the 1st  because Ca clearance is slower than Ca entry into cell

128
Q

Vesicle release is quantal/discrete: each vesicle = 

A

1 mini end plate potential

129
Q

how do miniend plate potentials cause depolarization? 

A

Many MEPPs make up the endplate potential, EPP, causing depolarization

130
Q

EPSP & IPSP amplitude & direction depend on 

A

ion permeability and membrane voltage

131
Q

chemical syanspes provide potentiation for

A

1. excitation and inhbiiton

2. plasticity and remodeling

132
Q

how many chemical transmitters can a single neuron release?

A

many

133
Q

synaptic potentials are passive events that become progressively smaller at

A

greater distances ro

134
Q

glutamate binds to ___ receptors

A

metabotropic and ionotropic

135
Q

gaba binds to ___ receptors

A

ionotropic and metabotropic

136
Q
A
137
Q

clonic seizures involve

A

repetitive movements (like shaking)

138
Q

tonic clonic seizures involve

A

start as tonic, then become clonic

139
Q

when do febrile seizures occur 

A

occurring in childhood after 1 month of age

140
Q

what are febrile seizures associated with?

A

associated with a febrile illness not caused by CNS infection

no hx of previous seizures & not acutely symptomatic

141
Q

febrile seizure is a ___ channelopathy

A

Na 1.1

142
Q

Generalized Epilepsy with Febrile Seizures Plus invovles mutations in

A

 SCN1B or SCN1A

143
Q

with Generalized Epilepsy with Febrile Seizures Plus you get a loss of

A

loss of fast inactivation --> Na channel gain
of function --> persistent Na current

144
Q

with Severe Myoclonic Epilepsy of Infancy  you get a loss of 

A

 loss of high frequency action potential --> loss of inhibitory
function of GABAergic cortical interneurons & Pukinje cells --> seizures & ataxia

145
Q

what is the range of severity of Na 1.1 channelpathies? 

A
146
Q

sx of Benign Familial Neonatal Convulsion

A

brief generalized and partial seizures that usual resolve by age 6 weeks

147
Q

Ca and Cl Channelopathies in Epilepsy Both can lead to 

A

idiopathic generalized epilepsy

148
Q

Antiepileptic drugs decrease the ___ of neurons

A

hyper-excitability

149
Q

2 mechanism in which antielipetic drugs work? 

A

1. block Na channels
2. increase inhibitory neurons via GABA

150
Q

wjhat regulates the function of Na and Ca channels?

A

B subuniots

151
Q

ictal refers to

A

seizure period or events due to seizure

152
Q

aura is ictal or preictal?

A

ictal

153
Q

prodrome is precital or ictal?

A

preictal

154
Q

variations of simple partial seizures?

A

with:

1. motor signs

2. with somatosensory sx

3. ANS sx

4. psychic sx

155
Q

what is the pathophysiology of seizures with SMEI?

A

loss of high frequency AP ---> loss of inhibiotry function of gabaeric cortical interneurons --> seizures

156
Q

to tx SMEI you have to reestablish

A

gabergic transmission

157
Q

how do benzos work for SMEI?

A

inc response of post synaptic gaba

158
Q

how does tiagabine work for SMEI?

A

dec reuptake of GABA

159
Q

tx of febrile plus involves

A

antipletpic meds that potentially bind tommutant channels and stabilize folding of proteins

160
Q

K channelpathies mostly invovle cells with __ current

A

M current (close to resting ptoential and is regualted by msucarnic and other g protein)

161
Q

with tympanometry

 In conductive hearing losses more sound is ____ then in the normal middle ear.

A

reflected

162
Q

Pathologies that result in conductive losses:

A

1. otitis media

2. otoschlerosis

3. ear wax build up

163
Q

High frequencies are represented ___ in the nuclei

A

dorsally

164
Q

 Within area AI, neurons of similar best frequency are arrayed 

A

 in a strip or belt-like
 

165
Q

 Within area AI, neurons of similar best frequency are arrayed in a strip or belt-like
structure that runs perpendicular  to the___ axis.

A

 high-to-low
frequency tonotopic

166
Q

 ___-dimensional spatial organization in
the auditory cortex.

A

three

167
Q

what did patch clamp recording show?

A

provided evidence for single channels

168
Q

what is different about K channel and Na channel properties?

A

K channels have longer latency time and longer duration

also obviously different dierection 

(Na on left, K on right)

169
Q

charactersitics that vary with K channels

A

1. low voltage vs. high voltage activation (voltage dependence)

2. how fast the population reaches maximum conductance (rate of activation)

3. how fast they inactivate (some dont even inactivate)

170
Q

BK K+ channels have ___ inactivation

A

fast

171
Q

___ and ___ are nonainactivating K channels 

A

IK and SK

172
Q

order of channel activation

A
173
Q

inactivation pattern of Kv4.1 channels?

A

inactivate rapdily after depolarization

174
Q

channelpathies in voltage gated Ca channels 

A

congential stationary night blindness

familial hemiplegic migraine

episodic ataxia type 2

175
Q

channelpathies in Na channels

A

generalized epilepsy with febrile seizures

176
Q

channelpathies in K channels

A

benign familial neonatal convulsion 

177
Q

what toxins block Na channels?

A

ttx and saxitoxin

178
Q

what toxins inactivate Na channels?

A

Batrachotoxin (frogs)

179
Q

what does a-toxin do?

A

prolongs the duration of Na channels

180
Q

what does b-toxins do?

A

shift voltage activation of Na channels

181
Q

which toxins blod K channels?

A

apaminin (bees) and dendrotoxin (wasps)

182
Q

what does TEA block?

A

K channels and AcH receptors

183
Q

What blocks Ca channels? 

A

ω-conotoxins (cone snails) and ω-agatoxin (spiders) block Ca channels

184
Q

active ion transports work ___ a electrochemical gradient

A

against

185
Q

how do active ion transporters and channels differ?

A

active ion transporters having slow binding and unbinding

also are slower transport than channels

186
Q

w-conotoxins blocks ___ channels

A

n type Ca

187
Q

w-agatoxin blocks ___ channels

A

P/Q type Ca channels

188
Q

____ form a compelx with the ion they transport

A

active ion transporters

189
Q

how do ion exchangers work?

A

they don't use energy

but trade an intracellular ion for an extracellular one

190
Q

how do ion co-transporters work?

A

transport two or more moelcules in the SAME DIRECTION ACROSS A MEMBRANE

191
Q

what do neurons of the olfactory epithelium need to survive? 

A

contact with & tropic support from olfactory bulb to survive

192
Q

what layers in the olfactroy bulb go right to the olfactory cortex

A

mitral and tufted cells 

193
Q

Odors are identified by overall activation pattern of 

A

glomeruli across the whole bulb

194
Q

Taste buds are all on ___.

A

papillae

195
Q

 Each bud has ___ receptor & basal (stem) cells

A

50-100

196
Q

Microvilli on ___ taste cells get initial stimulus 

A

Type II

197
Q

Microvilli on Type II taste cells get initial stimulus --> gap junction --> ___ cells

A

type III

198
Q

Pattern code theory of taste encoding 

A

 tastes are encoded by differential firing pattern across a population of axons.

199
Q

what supports pattern code theory of taste encoding 

A

 supported by single axons responding to many different
primary stimuli, although they have a maximal response
to only one stimulus.

200
Q

what is the labeled line theory of taste encoding 

A

 each neuron/axon is responsible for one specific taste.

201
Q

what supports the labeled line theory of taste encoding 

A

specific gene knockouts that can rescue
or delete the perception of individual taste qualities. 

ex. deletion of PLCβ2 causes loss of sucrose, glutamate, and quinine tastes.

202
Q

 Bulbar neurons project to the___

A

 piriform  cortex

203
Q

All of the G protein activating receptors have a common tertiary structure with___ transmembrane domains

A

 7

204
Q

Neurons expressing a particular OR are located where? 

A

they are  limited to a particular region (or zone) of the epithelium. 

205
Q

Within a zone, neurons expressing a particular OR can be either:

A

homogeneously distributed or have a clustered distribution pattern.

206
Q

olfactory neurons are ___ tuned 

A

broadly

207
Q

where is there pattern activation in response to odorants?

A

1. in the epihtelium

2. in the bulb

208
Q

A single chemical would be composed of how many odotypes?

A

many

209
Q

what does the solitary n. projec tto

A

1. vpm

2. hypothalamus

3. amygdala

210
Q

what do all taste fields respond to?

A

all tastants

211
Q

each___ is most sensitive to a particular taste quality. 

A

 taste field

212
Q

disadvantages to CT

A

1. ionizing radiation

2. not as good for soft tissue

3. lower spatial resolution

213
Q

disadvantages to MRI

A

1. long study duration

2. no ferromagnetic or electronic devices

3. small as hell -- claustrophobia

214
Q

on MRS, creatine indciates

A

glial

215
Q

on MRS, lactate indicates

A

ischemia

216
Q

limitations of FMRI includes

A

spatial and temporal resolution

217
Q

disadvantages of PET? 

A

 1. need a cyclotron to make radioisotope

2. radiation exposure

218
Q

what are 5 applications of imaging mdoalities?

A

1. map nml brain development

2. alzheimers disease

3. image guieded neurosurgery

4. schizopehnia

5. pain )in high vs. low sensitvity pts)

219
Q

advantages of pet?

A

functional imaging

physiological variables can be determined

220
Q

what to use when looking at brain perfusion? 

A

pet

221
Q

what to use when looking at metabolism? 

A

PET

222
Q

what to use when looking at chemical structure? 

A

MRI

223
Q

a ___ is applied with MRS

A

RF pulse

224
Q

on MRS ___ is raised in tumor tissue

A

choline

225
Q

what imaging modalities have fairly poor spatial resolution

A

pet 

FMRI

ct

226
Q

with studies can provide functional imaging

A

pet and mri

227
Q

disorders to study with ct

A

hemorrhages, generalized atrophy

228
Q

disorders to study with mri

A

tumor

demyination

degenerate disorders

229
Q

disorders to study with pet

A

psychiatric/addictive/degenerative disorders

epilepsy