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Flashcards in OBJECTIVES! Deck (229):
1

parts of papez circuit involved in emotional processing?

cingulate cortex and the hypothalamus

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2

Nociceptors exist as free nerve endings activated only when the stimulus is ___.

strong enough to cause damage. 

3

___ nociceptors have fast responses

thermal/mechanical

4

___ nociceptors are myelinated

thermal/mechanical

5

___ nociceptors are unmeylinated

polymodal

6

thermal/mechanical noiceptors are assocaited with ___ pain

sharp, prickling pain

7

polymodal nociceptors are assocaited with

with high intensity mechanical, chemical, hot, and cold stimuli.

8

Nociceptive specific neurons are found in___of the spinal cord

 Lamina 1 

9

nocipceptive specific neurons have ___ receptor fields

small

10

nocieptive specific neurons carry

only info about noceipcetion

11

. Wide dynamic range neurons (WDR) are found in ___ of the spinal cord

Lamina 5 

12

Wide dynamic range neurons  carry information

from both mechanoreceptors and noiceptors

13

Wide dynamic range neurons have ___ receptor fields

larger

14

. hyperalgesia is what happens when you have increased sensitivity to the ____.

surrounding unharmed region of a damaged area

15

with hyperalgesia Subsequent stimuli result in the 

enhanced sensation of pain 

16

referred pain is the result of a ____

 lack of nociceptive output neurons in the dorsal horn that are dedicated to visceral pain

17

dissociated sensory loss is when you have reduced sensation of epicritic sensation in the opposite side of the body from where you have ___.

reduced sensation of temperature and pain

18

Pain modulation can occur as the result of the descending pathway synapsing with 

an opiate containing interneuron

19

The opiate containing interneruon synapses with the ascending pathway in the dorsal horn releasing enkephalin that dampens 

both presynaptic and postsynaptic neurons

20

21

 first neurons that get binocular input are in the ___

striate cortex, not the lgn

22

X optic nerve ---> 

complete scotoma

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23

X optic chiasm: 

bitemporal hemiopia. 

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24

X optic tract on the right

lose  left visual field 

25

lesion of optic radiations

Quadrantanopia

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26

leison of occipital cortex typically causes ___ hemianopias 

macular sparing

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27

If Meyer's loop (temporal pathway) is lesioned, the Quadrantanopia is ____ superior

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28

 if Baum's loop (parietal pathway) is lesioned in the optic radiations, the Quadrantanopia  is ___

inferior

29

lgn cells are binocular or monocular?

monocular.. they have functional segregation

30

The V2 thin stripes contain __ cells.

color

31

Common properties of receptive fields in the retina and LGN (3)

center surround organization

mix of cells with on/off center

retinotopically ordered

32

The cell bodies of most mossy fibers entering the cerebellum are located in the ____

pons

33

The expansion of the lateral cerebellar hemisphere in humans indicates that  the cerebellum is capable of ___

contributing to more than just motor function

34

___ shows prominent activation during
extremely difficult problem solving tasks in humans? 

Dentate nucleus

35

The appearance of oscillating movements of the hand while reaching toward a target is
referred to as ___

intention tremor

36

The use of ethanol to control symptoms of essential tremor is effective because  ethanol (2)

 1. inhibits normal excitation

2. facilitates GABAergic function

37

 REM amount ____ throughout the night 

increases

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38

Stage __ lessens throghuout the night 

4

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39

order of sleep cycle?

1-2-3-4-rem-2-3-4-rem-2-3-4..

40

order of amount of time we spend in each sleep stage? from most to least

stage

2

3/4

rem

1

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41

during alert what waves do you have

beta

42

during awake but drowsy what waves do you have

alpha

43

during stage 1 what waves do you have

theta waves

44

during stage 2 what waves do you have

sleep spindles and k complexes

45

during stage 3  and 4 what waves do you have

delta

46

during stage __ you have parasympathetic control, lower vital signs, resotratorive sleep

4

47

___ tone dominantes during rem

syympathetic

48

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stage 2

49

low voltage, fast, random activity 

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awake but drowsy, alpha waves

50

the motor sysytem is ___ organized

heirarchially

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51

highest levels in motor system heirarchy are concerned with

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complex planning and selection (at the expense of time!)

52

motor system is ___ segregated

functionally

53

____ local circuit neurons control more dextrious mvoement

short distance (lateral)

54

Lateral premotor cortex is involved in

selection of motor responses based one xternal cues

55

Medial premotor cortex is involved with

learned sequences, repsonse to intenral cues

56

supplementary mtoor area and the cingulate motor area are found in the

medial premotor cortex

57

pre-sma is invovled with

learning sequencies

58

define association cortex

everything that is not a primary motor, primary sensory, or premotor area

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59

association areas receives inputs from multiple areas and tie them together in some manner that was not possible in the

intiial sensory areas

 

generate more meaningful repsonses

60

all neocortical association areas have at least ___ layers

5, most have 6

61

facial recognition neurons are located in the 

fusiform gyrus (temporal lobe)

62

planning neurons are found in the

frontal cortex

63

attention neurons are found in the

parietal lobe

64

reach neurons are found in the 

parietal lobe

65

grasp neurons are a part of the ___ pathway

what/ventral

66

mirror neurons are found in the

 inferior frontal gyrus 

67

 instructed delay neurons around found in the 

prefrontal cortex

68

Brodmann Areas represent a particular anatomical structure corresponded to a particular ____.

function

69

Primary emotions are reflexive and involve the (3)

amygdala, hypothalamus, and PAG

70

what is included in the papez circuit

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71

___ is the synapse site of the limbic system in the thalamus

mediodorsal n. 

72

primary emotions are linked with ___ reflexes

autonomic 

73

Fear response involves direct connections from 

thalamus to amygdala

74

Amygdala connects to __ and __ for fight-or-flight response

PAG and LC

75

Stimulation of ___ PAG = fight-or-flight,

Dorsal

76

lesion of Dorsal PAG

affective defense & "sham rage"

 

77

lesion fo ventral pag

quiet, biting

78

All major emotion structures are connected to
the __

 PAG

79

secondary emotions and involve the ___

cortical limbic structures

80

fear response

thalamus -> amygdala -->

 ACC (upstream) and the PAG and LC (downstream pathways)

81

fear response

Memory of event is encoded in the__ and __

 amygdala and cortex 

82

Risk factor for depression: No ____ control of amygdala = increased fear and anxiety.

anterior cingulate control

83

seeing pain ifnlicted on others activates what pain system

medial pain system and lateral pain system

84

when asked to rate unpleasantness of a noxious heat simtulus

 

they activated the ___ and ___

acc and PAG (=medial pain system)

85

what does the medial pain system include?

1. acc

2. anterior mCC

3. amygdala

3. anteriro insula

5. midline and intralaminar thalamus

86

what are the major functions of the medial pain system? (5)

1. enable limbic system to assign emotion weight to stim.

2.  anticipation/learning

3. nocifensive behavior

4. pain empathy

5.pain inhibition

87

___ nociceptors have fast responses

thermal/mechanical

88

___ nociceptors are myelinated

thermal/mechanical

89

___ nociceptors are unmeylinated

polymodal

90

thermal/mechanical noiceptors are assocaited with ___ pain

sharp, prickling pain

91

polymodal nociceptors are assocaited with

with high intensity mechanical, chemical, hot, and cold stimuli.

92

Nociceptive specific neurons are found in___of the spinal cord

 Lamina 1 

93

Electrical stimulation of___ or ___results in the inhibition of dorsal horn neurons that respond to noxious stimulation.

 periaquedcutal gray or rostroventral medulla 

94

Electrical stimulation in either the PAG or rostroventral medulla results in the inhibition of dorsal horn neurons that respond to noxious stimulation.

 

this effect cna be eliminated with X of the 

 dorsolateral funiculus (which is carrying this descending information)

95

Administration of low doses of opiates directly into  __ and ___ produce analgesia

PAG and rostroventral medulla 

96

The descending inhibition of spinothalamic tract neurons appears to be mediated by the activation of ____ interneurons in the dorsal horn.

enkephalin

97

 The descending axons of serotonergic and noradrenergic neurons from the nucleus raphe  contact (2)

1. dendrites of ALS neurons

2. inhbiitory neurons in superficial dorsal horn

98

The ___ contains a high density of enkephalin- and dynorphin-containing interneurons 

superficial dorsal horn

99

opiates and opioid peptides regulate nociceptive transmission by releasing 

 glutamate, substance P, and other transmitters

100

gp receive input to and from areas projecting back to prefrontal areas involved in ____

short term memory

101

esion at Wilbrand’s Knee looks like 

Junctional Syndrome or Ant.


Chiasmal Syndrome = complete loss of one eye

+ sup. field defect in other eye, “pie in the sky”

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102

* Autonomic Dysreflexia with SCI =

 extreme blood pressure swings (240/160) + low heart rate

103

The "indirect pathway" from cortex to spinal cord enables ___ postural adjustments.

feed-forward

104

The "indirect pathway" from cortex to spinal cord plays an important role in ___

weight shifts

105

indirect pathway Indirect: brainstem UMNs --> anteromedial white matter (rubrospinal and extrapyramidal tracts) --> interneurons --> ___ muscles

axial and proximal muscles

106

Long distance interneurons are medial or ventral

medial

107

Long distance interneurons are medial, go to ___ muscles

proximal

108

Short distance interneurons are lateral, go to ___ muscles

distal

109

direct pathway goes to ___ muscles

distal

110

Most direct corticomotor innervation comes from the___

primary motor cortex (M1)

111

in the cortex Motor units are controlled by___ or ___ cells

Betz cells or other large, non-Betz pyramidal cells

112

Lateral premotor cortex is involved in

selection of motor responses based one xternal cues

113

Medial premotor cortex is involved with

learned sequences, repsonse to intenral cues

114

supplementary mtoor area and the cingulate motor area are found in the

medial premotor cortex

115

pre-sma is invovled with

learning sequencies

116

3 association areas?

i. Pre-SMA: learning sequences ii.Parietal and Temporal cortex - Dorsal pathway - Ventral pathway i. Prefrontal cortex: decision making, working memory, monitoring outcomes

117

____ areas are not “cortical motor areas” even though they’re in the cortex.

association

118

facial recognition neurons are located in the 

fusiform gyrus (temporal lobe)

119

planning neurons are found in the

frontal cortex

120

attention neurons are found in the

parietal lobe

121

reach neurons are found in the 

parietal lobe

122

grasp neurons are a part of the ___ pathway

what/ventral

123

mirror neurons are found in the

 inferior frontal gyrus 

124

 instructed delay neurons around found in the 

prefrontal cortex

125

Brodmann Areas represent a particular anatomical structure corresponded to a particular ____.

function

126

what kind of pores do electrical synapses have? what do they let in

 very large pores for unselective ion diffusion

127

describe the 2nd epsp after facilitation 

2nd EPSP larger than the 1st  because Ca clearance is slower than Ca entry into cell

128

Vesicle release is quantal/discrete: each vesicle = 

1 mini end plate potential

129

how do miniend plate potentials cause depolarization? 

Many MEPPs make up the endplate potential, EPP, causing depolarization

130

EPSP & IPSP amplitude & direction depend on 

ion permeability and membrane voltage

131

chemical syanspes provide potentiation for

1. excitation and inhbiiton

2. plasticity and remodeling

132

how many chemical transmitters can a single neuron release?

many

133

synaptic potentials are passive events that become progressively smaller at

greater distances ro

134

glutamate binds to ___ receptors

metabotropic and ionotropic

135

gaba binds to ___ receptors

ionotropic and metabotropic

136

137

clonic seizures involve

repetitive movements (like shaking)

138

tonic clonic seizures involve

start as tonic, then become clonic

139

when do febrile seizures occur 

occurring in childhood after 1 month of age

140

what are febrile seizures associated with?

associated with a febrile illness not caused by CNS infection

no hx of previous seizures & not acutely symptomatic

141

febrile seizure is a ___ channelopathy

Na 1.1

142

Generalized Epilepsy with Febrile Seizures Plus invovles mutations in

 SCN1B or SCN1A

143

with Generalized Epilepsy with Febrile Seizures Plus you get a loss of

loss of fast inactivation --> Na channel gain
of function --> persistent Na current

144

with Severe Myoclonic Epilepsy of Infancy  you get a loss of 

 loss of high frequency action potential --> loss of inhibitory
function of GABAergic cortical interneurons & Pukinje cells --> seizures & ataxia

145

what is the range of severity of Na 1.1 channelpathies? 

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146

sx of Benign Familial Neonatal Convulsion

brief generalized and partial seizures that usual resolve by age 6 weeks

147

Ca and Cl Channelopathies in Epilepsy Both can lead to 

idiopathic generalized epilepsy

148

Antiepileptic drugs decrease the ___ of neurons

hyper-excitability

149

2 mechanism in which antielipetic drugs work? 

1. block Na channels
2. increase inhibitory neurons via GABA

150

wjhat regulates the function of Na and Ca channels?

B subuniots

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151

ictal refers to

seizure period or events due to seizure

152

aura is ictal or preictal?

ictal

153

prodrome is precital or ictal?

preictal

154

variations of simple partial seizures?

with:

1. motor signs

2. with somatosensory sx

3. ANS sx

4. psychic sx

155

what is the pathophysiology of seizures with SMEI?

loss of high frequency AP ---> loss of inhibiotry function of gabaeric cortical interneurons --> seizures

156

to tx SMEI you have to reestablish

gabergic transmission

157

how do benzos work for SMEI?

inc response of post synaptic gaba

158

how does tiagabine work for SMEI?

dec reuptake of GABA

159

tx of febrile plus involves

antipletpic meds that potentially bind tommutant channels and stabilize folding of proteins

160

K channelpathies mostly invovle cells with __ current

M current (close to resting ptoential and is regualted by msucarnic and other g protein)

161

with tympanometry

 In conductive hearing losses more sound is ____ then in the normal middle ear.

reflected

162

Pathologies that result in conductive losses:

1. otitis media

2. otoschlerosis

3. ear wax build up

163

High frequencies are represented ___ in the nuclei

dorsally

164

 Within area AI, neurons of similar best frequency are arrayed 

 in a strip or belt-like
 

165

 Within area AI, neurons of similar best frequency are arrayed in a strip or belt-like
structure that runs perpendicular  to the___ axis.

 high-to-low
frequency tonotopic

166

 ___-dimensional spatial organization in
the auditory cortex.

three

167

what did patch clamp recording show?

provided evidence for single channels

168

what is different about K channel and Na channel properties?

K channels have longer latency time and longer duration

also obviously different dierection 

(Na on left, K on right)

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169

charactersitics that vary with K channels

1. low voltage vs. high voltage activation (voltage dependence)

2. how fast the population reaches maximum conductance (rate of activation)

3. how fast they inactivate (some dont even inactivate)

170

BK K+ channels have ___ inactivation

fast

171

___ and ___ are nonainactivating K channels 

IK and SK

172

order of channel activation

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173

inactivation pattern of Kv4.1 channels?

inactivate rapdily after depolarization

174

channelpathies in voltage gated Ca channels 

congential stationary night blindness

familial hemiplegic migraine

episodic ataxia type 2

175

channelpathies in Na channels

generalized epilepsy with febrile seizures

176

channelpathies in K channels

benign familial neonatal convulsion 

177

what toxins block Na channels?

ttx and saxitoxin

178

what toxins inactivate Na channels?

Batrachotoxin (frogs)

179

what does a-toxin do?

prolongs the duration of Na channels

180

what does b-toxins do?

shift voltage activation of Na channels

181

which toxins blod K channels?

apaminin (bees) and dendrotoxin (wasps)

182

what does TEA block?

K channels and AcH receptors

183

What blocks Ca channels? 

ω-conotoxins (cone snails) and ω-agatoxin (spiders) block Ca channels

184

active ion transports work ___ a electrochemical gradient

against

185

how do active ion transporters and channels differ?

active ion transporters having slow binding and unbinding

also are slower transport than channels

186

w-conotoxins blocks ___ channels

n type Ca

187

w-agatoxin blocks ___ channels

P/Q type Ca channels

188

____ form a compelx with the ion they transport

active ion transporters

189

how do ion exchangers work?

they don't use energy

but trade an intracellular ion for an extracellular one

190

how do ion co-transporters work?

transport two or more moelcules in the SAME DIRECTION ACROSS A MEMBRANE

191

what do neurons of the olfactory epithelium need to survive? 

contact with & tropic support from olfactory bulb to survive

192

what layers in the olfactroy bulb go right to the olfactory cortex

mitral and tufted cells 

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193

Odors are identified by overall activation pattern of 

glomeruli across the whole bulb

194

Taste buds are all on ___.

papillae

195

 Each bud has ___ receptor & basal (stem) cells

50-100

196

Microvilli on ___ taste cells get initial stimulus 

Type II

197

Microvilli on Type II taste cells get initial stimulus --> gap junction --> ___ cells

type III

198

Pattern code theory of taste encoding 

 tastes are encoded by differential firing pattern across a population of axons.

199

what supports pattern code theory of taste encoding 

 supported by single axons responding to many different
primary stimuli, although they have a maximal response
to only one stimulus.

200

what is the labeled line theory of taste encoding 

 each neuron/axon is responsible for one specific taste.

201

what supports the labeled line theory of taste encoding 

specific gene knockouts that can rescue
or delete the perception of individual taste qualities. 

ex. deletion of PLCβ2 causes loss of sucrose, glutamate, and quinine tastes.

202

 Bulbar neurons project to the___

 piriform  cortex

203

All of the G protein activating receptors have a common tertiary structure with___ transmembrane domains

 7

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204

Neurons expressing a particular OR are located where? 

they are  limited to a particular region (or zone) of the epithelium. 

205

Within a zone, neurons expressing a particular OR can be either:

homogeneously distributed or have a clustered distribution pattern.

206

olfactory neurons are ___ tuned 

broadly

207

where is there pattern activation in response to odorants?

1. in the epihtelium

2. in the bulb

208

A single chemical would be composed of how many odotypes?

many

209

what does the solitary n. projec tto

1. vpm

2. hypothalamus

3. amygdala

210

what do all taste fields respond to?

all tastants

211

each___ is most sensitive to a particular taste quality. 

 taste field

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212

disadvantages to CT

1. ionizing radiation

2. not as good for soft tissue

3. lower spatial resolution

213

disadvantages to MRI

1. long study duration

2. no ferromagnetic or electronic devices

3. small as hell -- claustrophobia

214

on MRS, creatine indciates

glial

215

on MRS, lactate indicates

ischemia

216

limitations of FMRI includes

spatial and temporal resolution

217

disadvantages of PET? 

 1. need a cyclotron to make radioisotope

2. radiation exposure

218

what are 5 applications of imaging mdoalities?

1. map nml brain development

2. alzheimers disease

3. image guieded neurosurgery

4. schizopehnia

5. pain )in high vs. low sensitvity pts)

219

advantages of pet?

functional imaging

physiological variables can be determined

220

what to use when looking at brain perfusion? 

pet

221

what to use when looking at metabolism? 

PET

222

what to use when looking at chemical structure? 

MRI

223

a ___ is applied with MRS

RF pulse

224

on MRS ___ is raised in tumor tissue

choline

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225

what imaging modalities have fairly poor spatial resolution

pet 

FMRI

ct

226

with studies can provide functional imaging

pet and mri

227

disorders to study with ct

hemorrhages, generalized atrophy

228

disorders to study with mri

tumor

demyination

degenerate disorders

229

disorders to study with pet

psychiatric/addictive/degenerative disorders

epilepsy