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Captain Test > OPM’s 700 > Flashcards

OPM’s 700 Flashcards

1
Q

Basic engine company responsibilities and operations include a variety of functions including but not limited to?

A

-Fire ground operations
-Medical rescue
-Hazard reduction
-Non-emergency incident reduction
-Equipment and station maintenance

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2
Q

What are some tactical considerations for structure fire basic OFFENSIVE plan?

A
  • Complete size-up upon arrival
  • Establish “command” following the IMS
  • Determine need for victim rescue
  • Provide attack line for fast, aggressive interior attack
  • Complete primary search
  • Establish rapid intervention team
  • Provide additional support activities
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3
Q

What are some tactical considerations for structure fire basic DEFENSIVE plan?

A
  • Complete size up
  • Establish “command” following the IMS
  • Determine stopping point of fire spread
  • Prioritize fire streams (2 1/2 hose or larger)
  • Maintain sufficient resources to control spread
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4
Q

When a ALS engine requests a rescue for transport, the transport unit will respond “______” to the scene unless otherwise requested by the ALS engine

A

“emergency” code 3

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5
Q

_____ is the first choice in shutting down a unit to assist in transportation to the hospital.

A

The EMS captain

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6
Q

The ______ firefighter is the first choice of engine personnel to supplement rescue staffing during transport.

A

The jump seat firefighter

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7
Q

The loss of a jumpseat firefighter does not mandate the need to remove the engine for service. The engine will remain in service and advice dispatch what?

A

They have reduced staffing and will remain in service

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8
Q

Specific tasks typically assigned to aerial companies like _____ or _____ can only be accomplished by the aerial company while other tasks can be reassigned to engine or rescue companies for completion

A

-Elevated fire streams
-Laddering a building beyond the capabilities of ground ladders

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9
Q

Primary aerial company responsibilities and functions include, but are not limited to

A

-Victim rescue
-Ventilation
-Laddering
-Forcible entry
-Elevated water streams
-Salvage
-Overhaul
-Secondary means of egress

Secondary include:
-Utility control
-Rapid intervention team
-Engine company operations

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10
Q

A rescue being the first arriving unit at a non-medical scene, what guidelines are in effect?

A

-Give size up
-Prepare to perform any and all engine company functions
-Advise via radio initial actions, if any, taken prior to arrival of engine company, to mitigate situation
-Report to command your availability
-Establishing command is NOT recommended

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11
Q

While en route to a possible hazmat, what additional information can be checked with dispatch? And what should you do thereafter?

A
  1. Information while en route
    — Material involved
    — Size of leak or spill
    — Possibility of immediate live endangerment
  2. Determine wind direction
  3. Provide size up
  4. Start IMS
  5. Request what you need, hazmat team, PD, etc
  6. Identify situations and need for rescuing, evacuating, etc
  7. Establish and define initial evacuation zone
  8. Immediate rescue
  9. Identify material
  10. Identify need and request additional resources
  11. Use the uniform classification system to report to dispatch
  12. Clean up (their responsibility)
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12
Q

During hazmat incident immediate rescue should be attempted when the rescuers are?

A
  • Fully aware of the risk posed to them
  • Wearing full PPE & SCBA
  • Utilizing a bare minimum of personnel
  • If unknown consider waiting for hazmat team
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13
Q

During a hazmat incident identify the material by?

A
  1. Consulting witnesses or facility personnel
  2. Using DOT ERG book as initial guide
  3. Identifying type and size of container
  4. Container lettering or markings
  5. Shipping papers
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14
Q

Clean up and recovery of all spilled and leaked materials is the responsibility of ____. SFRD units will not take possession of recovered materials, remove them from scenes, or take them to a city facility

A

The property or vehicle owner

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15
Q

For daily operations, the dive rescue component of the special response team will be considered “in service” only when?

A

When staffed with at least 2 dive team members, preferably stationed at 92

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16
Q

It is recommended that dive operations have a minimum of ____ dive team members and _____ personnel prior to starting a dive operation.

A

2 dive team members
2 support personnel

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17
Q

All personnel participating in dive operations, in or out of water, must wear ________ when operating near the water

A

(PFD) Personal floatation device

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18
Q

Unless extraordinary circumstances are evident, the dive team shall ____ perform recovery operations when providing services outside the city

A

Not

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19
Q

Rapid entry dive gear is made up of what components?

A
  • Dive tank
  • Buoyance compensator with build in weigh and knife
  • Guardian dive mask 1st stage regulator
  • 2 stage regulator
  • Dive light
  • Throw bag (3PFD, dive rope, center punch, secondary cutting device)
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20
Q

Dive tank pressure should be no less than?

A

2800 psi

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21
Q

Who should check out the dive gear?

A

Only department divers

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22
Q

The first arriving officer at a dive incident shall be responsible for?

A

-Scene management
-Last scene point
-Witness interview
-and over all safety of the operations

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23
Q

Who has the final decision on dive or no dive call?

A

The diver

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24
Q

Bottom time for a diver should be kept at _______.

A

5 minutes

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25
Q

Upon arrival of the dive unit rescue divers on that unit shall be fully dressed and prepared to enter the water as ______ and another should be a ______ diver

A

Safety diver and another should be 90% percent diver

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26
Q

Recall divers at _____ PSI regulator pressure or maximum dive time of _____ minutes.

A

1000 psi
20 minutes

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27
Q

Tender to diver rope signals

A

1 pull = okay or nothing
2 pull = change direction
3 pull = surface
4 pull = stop don’t surface

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28
Q

Diver to tender rope signals

A

1 pull = okay or nothing
2 pull = need more line
3 pull = found object
4 pull = trouble

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29
Q

USAR DMAT deployment; what does DMAT stand for?

A

Disaster medical assistance team

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30
Q

USAR/DMAT is activated with a formal request by FEMA to mobilize and respond the area USAR team. Members are to arrive at a designated point of departure within _____ of being activated

A

6 hours

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31
Q

SFRD personnel who are active members of the task force must request and receive permission in writing from the ______, in order that they may be considered for activation status

A

Fire chief

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32
Q

The _____ must be notified by the shift commander of all USAR/DMAT activations

A

Fire chief

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33
Q

Areas which are not intended for continual human occupancy, have limited means of egress, and have the potential for physical chemical or atmospheric engulfment is considered?

A

Confine space rescue

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34
Q

A narrow excavation made below the surface of the earth. In general with a depth greater than width, but width no greater than 15 feet is considered?

A

Trench rescue

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35
Q

In most cases of specialty calls, command will have to send a ______ to gather information such as area, number of victims, nature of call or injury.

A

Recon team
-Consisting of 2 personnel

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36
Q

Command should designate a ____ group on specialty calls to identify potential hazards. The ____ group usually consists of _____ member of _____ assigned to this function

A

Safety group
Safety group
1 member
TRT

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37
Q

Rescue operations should be conducted from ____ risk to ____ risk.

A

Low risk to high risk

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38
Q

A stokes evacuation should be conducted with a minimum of ______ attendants

A

4 attendants

Attendants should face the direction of travel during the evacuation (if doing steep angle evacuation attendants face the anchor)

Tag line should be attached to assist through unstable areas

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39
Q

Helicopter operation are considered high risk operations. Several factors must be considered before deciding on the use of a helicopter for evacuation. Some of these factors are?

A

-Time of day
-Condition of victims
-Difficult access to victims
-and qualifications of the pilot and rescuers

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40
Q

What are the phases in a confine space, trench or rope rescue call.

A
  1. Scene preparation and reconnaissance
  2. Pre-rescue operations
  3. Rescue operations
  4. Safety considerations
  5. Termination
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41
Q

During a structural collapse the safety zone should be?

A

2 times the height of the building

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42
Q

Structure/ hazard evaluation marking should be performed prior to the initiation of rescue operations. What does a blank box indicate?

A

That the structure is accessible and safe for search and rescue operations. Damage is minor or the structure is completely pancaked with little danger of further collapse

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43
Q

Structure/ hazard evaluation marking should be performed prior to the initiation of rescue operations. What does a box with a single slash indicate?

A

That the structure is significantly damaged. Some areas are relatively safe, but other areas may need shoring, bracing, or removal of falling and collapsed hazards.

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44
Q

Structure/ hazard evaluation marking should be performed prior to the initiation of rescue operations. What does a box with a crossing slash indicate?

A

That the structure is not safe for search and rescue operations and may be subject to sudden additional collapse. Remote search operations may proceed at significant risk.

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45
Q

In structural collapse; An arrow next to a marking box indicates?

A

The direction of the safe entrance, should the marking box need to be made remote from the indicated entrance

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46
Q

The initial “HM” in structural collapse marking indicates?

A

That a hazardous material condition exist in or adjacent to the structure.

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47
Q

During a structural collapse entry preparation, ensure that there is ____ for every entry team.

A

One back up team for every entry team

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48
Q

No one shall enter a structural collapse space or void alone, entry must always be in teams of at least ____.

A

At least 2

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49
Q

Members performing the search function of a structural collapse will draw an “X” that is 2’x2’ with orange color spray paint. This “X” will be constructed in what 2 operations?

A
  1. Single slash drawn upon entry into structure or area indicated search operations are currently in progress
  2. Crossing slash will be drawn upon search and rescue members completing the search and upon exit of structure or area
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50
Q

Distinct markings will be made inside the four quadrants of the “X” to clearly denote the search status and findings at the time of this assessment. What are they?

A
  1. Left Quadrant - Identifier of rescue team completing search
  2. Top Quadrant - Time and date rescue team members left the structure
  3. Right Quadrant - Personnel hazards (e.g., rats, feces, etc)
  4. Bottom Quadrant - Number of live and dead victims removed from inside the structure (e.g., “0” no victim, “L” live, “D” deceased)
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51
Q

Entry decisions to a structural collapse shall be made based on?

A

Known locations of the victim, safety of the opening, atmospheric readings and ease of recovery points

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52
Q

Before deciding which victim to rescue in a structural collapse, what should be taken into consideration?

A

Victims condition, position, and the difficulty in extricating them

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53
Q

Signals using portable air horns for quiet, listening, resuming work, and immediate withdraw are as follows:

A

a. 1 long blast (3 seconds) -cease operations/ all quiet, personnel listen for sounds of victim

b. 1 long and 1 short blast - resume operations

c. 3 short blasts (1second each) -evacuate the area

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54
Q

Phases of a structural collapse are?

A
  1. Scene preparation and reconnaissance
  2. Exploration and search
  3. Patient removal
  4. General debris removal
  5. Safety consideration
  6. Termination
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55
Q

A high rise shall be defined as a structure where firefighting attack lines cannot reach the fire via normal pre connected lines, or via hoisting up to external balconies. A high rise building shall include all buildings where standpipes hookups must be used and all building with ______

A

Internal hallways over 2 stories

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56
Q

In most high rise situations the need for establishing command outside the structure is _____ in urgency to the need to get an officer and crew up to the fire or reported area.

A

Secondary

Passing of command by first arriving officers to the next arriving officer may be the most prudent command option

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57
Q

Because of the complexity of high rise incidents, _______ must take command upon arrival after proper command transfer procedures.

A

Shift commander

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58
Q

In a high rise incident, a hazard zone shall be established _____ around the building.

A

200 feet

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59
Q

All personnel, civilian and fire department personnel shall remain at least ______ away from hose lines supplying the building Siamese

A

50 feet

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60
Q

In a high rise incident, once attack companies have confirmed an actual fire on an upper floor, command must be concerned with what incident priorities?

A
  1. Call for additional resources
  2. Provide for life safety of persons in immediate danger
  3. Establish lobby control
  4. Provide for a sustained water supply ( this is lower priority in building with operating we systems/fire pumps)
  5. Assign a rapid intervention team to the floor below the fire
  6. Provide support systems such as staging, rehab, and resource groups early on
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61
Q

Generally, the ____ of the first arriving engine is lobby control.

A

Driver

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62
Q

Never take the elevator to the actual floor of the incident. Always take the elevator_____

A

2 floors below the incident and walk up the rest of the way

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63
Q

Companies shall set up for a high rise operation on what floor?

A

The floor below the incident

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64
Q

Dry standpipe systems require?

A

Urgent and immediate supplementation

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65
Q

Driver operators conducting pump evolutions within 100 feet of a building with a confirmed fire shall wear?

A

Helmet and bunker coat at all times

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66
Q

In building with 2 or more stairwells, one stairwell should be used for?

The other stairwell should be reserved for?

A

Fire attack and fire department support

Clear access and evacuation from the floors above the fire

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67
Q

During extended firefighting operations above a 3rd floor, a _______ area may be required. This area should be established 2 floors below the fire floor. What is this area used for?

A

Base staging area

To stage extra SCBA bottles and equipment, rehab firefighters, medically evaluate firefighters and possibly triage victims

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68
Q

WMD bags contain 1 Scott cartridge adapter, 1 NBC air purifying cartridge, 1 pair of slivershield gloves, a hooded saranex splash resistant coverall with elastic wrist and ankle.
When all equipment in the WMD bags are used together they are what level of protection?

A

Level C
Which protects against solids, particulates, mists and light liquid splashes

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69
Q

When all WMD bag equipment is worn together with a SCBA, what level of protection is it?

A

Level B
Where higher levels of respiratory protection is needed

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70
Q

The WMD kits are designed to protect rescuers who operate in the ______ only.

A

Warm zone only

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71
Q

The WMD kits are designed to protect the rescuer against _____ contamination on victims who are being decontaminated, triaged, or treated.

A

Residual

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72
Q

The NBC cartridges should be expected to provide a minimum of _____ protection against secondary (residual) chemical exposure

A

6-8 hours

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73
Q

During Decon procedures rotate crews at no more than ____ hour intervals and send them to rehab sector

A

1 hour

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74
Q

During the first Sunday of each months, the ladder company crew shall conduct a Pierce ____ inspection

A

50 hour inspection

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75
Q

All movement of the basket when in close proximity to a structure must be done with the platform operating at low idle. Although the platform has the capability to have extension, rotation and elevation function performed simultaneously, only one function should be performed at a time except in?

A

Emergency situations

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76
Q

The use of forced entry into a structure or vehicle should only occur if “exigent” circumstance exist. What does that mean?

A

An emergency situation requiring swift action to prevent imminent danger to life or serious damage to property

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77
Q

Who has the final authority on selection and appointment of the SFRD personnel to the SWAT team?

A

The sunrise police chief

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78
Q

Personnel may be suspended or removed from the SWAT team assignment at the discretion of the?

A

sunrise police chief, SWAT team commander and the fire chief

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79
Q

Upon being notified/activated, the SWAT medic team leader will contact the _____ or ______ to advise of the activation

A

Deputy Chief of operations
Or secondary duty chief

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80
Q

The SWAT team may request a rescue unit to standby and/or stage at a safe location. The rescue unit may be staged for the duration of the SWAT operation or part thereof depending on operational needs. Who has the final say as to the use of on-duty resources?

A

The deputy chief of operations (or duty chief)

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81
Q

One or more persons who participate in an on-going, random or systematic attempt to continuously inflict death and / or great bodily injury to multiple victims at a specific area or structure. This is a?

A

Active killer
The overriding objective appears to be that of mass murder

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82
Q

A specific location where casualties are assembled to receive further treatment and/or transport to a medical facility is?

A

Casualty collection point

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83
Q

A single law enforcement officer or team of law enforcement officers who while on scene have active killers is located with the goal of stopping the threat. They perform the primary clearing of areas as they advance toward the threat starting from a single point entry into the hot zone. They are able responsible for declaring any/all areas of the location as “warm zone”. Who are they?

A

Contact team in a active shooter incident

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84
Q

A team of law enforcement officers with the ability to enter the area/ structures “hot and warm zone” and either remove a victim to the casualty collection point or provide first aid in place prior to the arrival of fire rescue personnel. Who are they?

A

Extraction team

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85
Q

What are the hazard zones in an active killer incident?

A

-Hot zone: the current location of the active killer (RTF will not be deployed to Hot zone)

-Warm zone: an area that has been cleared by be contact team and therefore is declared for entry of the RTF

-Cold zone: an area where law enforcement has declared no threat and is secured by law enforcement personnel. This area is where the casualty collection point is located

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86
Q

An officers immediate communication of their personal observations of fleeing civilians, injured or deceased persons, gunfire and/or explosions or other information that provides awareness of an on-going active killer situation is?

A

Real time intelligence

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87
Q

T.H.R.E.A.T stands for?

A

T threat suppression
H hemorrhage control
RE rapid extrication to safety
A assessment by medical providers
T transport to definitive care

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88
Q

Once an active killer incident is identified, a primary objective should be _____.

A

Establishing command using the incident command system

Ideally a unified command with law enforcement authority is the first choice

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89
Q

In an active killer incident the primary responsibility that rests with law enforcement is

A

Over all Incident safety
Security
and stabilization

Fire rescue plays a support role

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90
Q

The number of personnel used to make up the RTF will be decided upon by the unified commander. The intent is to provide ____ law enforcement officers with ___ fire rescue personnel to enter the “warm zone” to begin assessing and treating the injured.

A

4 law enforcement
2 fire rescue personnel

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91
Q

Each portable radio has a ____ digit individual ID number that is mapped to a specific unit and position. Each time the portable radio transmits, its corresponding Unit/ID appears on the firecom console.

A

6 digit

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92
Q

To activate the “Emergency operations mode” personnel must?

A

Depress the orange button and hold for 1 to 2 seconds

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93
Q

Upon activation FireCom will acknowledge the alert via their console and then voice the following

A

-“All units standby emergency traffic”
-“Firecom to (unit number) Emergency traffic”

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94
Q

The mayday procedure was developed by ?

A

The mutual aid committee of the fire chiefs association of Broward county

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95
Q

The incident commander will initiate a sequence of events to manage a mayday event. (May be done in different order based on situation)

A
  1. Attempt to obtain specific information (LUNAR) (Location, Unit, Names of crew, Assignment and Air supply, Resources needed)
  2. Deploy RIT
  3. Direct FireCom to dispatch another alarm
  4. Request a technical rescue team if conditions warrant
  5. Obtain separate channel for the fire ground operations & leave the mayday in original channel
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96
Q

“Emergency traffic” and a “mayday” shall not be confused or intermingled. “Emergency traffic” is?

A

Emergency traffic transmission is used to indicate that a serious injury has occurred that is not immediately life threatening, or inform members on the fire ground of a serious change in conditions, including but not limited to
1. when a member suffers an injury that is not immediately life threatening but require medical attention
2.an interior to be discontinued and an exterior instituted
3. Discovery of structural problem
4. Fire entering an exposure
5.flashover or backdraft conditions are apparent and/or imminent
6. loss of water

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97
Q

In a PASS device activation incident, Should roll call of the fire rescue unit or crew member be unsuccessful in identifying the P.A.S.S activation, the incident commander shall request?

A

A full personal accountability report to be conducted

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98
Q

After 2 verbal or radio attempts to contact the fire rescue unit or crew member with the activated PASS device, the division supervisor, if applicable shall contact the IC to activate?

A

RIT to locate and remove the firefighter

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99
Q

While in staging, the RIT will also be responsible for taking measures to “safe” the building and may include but is not limited to? (where practical and possible)

A

-1 RIT officer shall perform a 360 degree survey of the structure to identify means of entry and egress,
-Review pre-fire plans of the building
-Identify means of egress on upper floors

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100
Q

Once down firefighter is located, the RIT will give a situation report to the incident commander upon locating the firefighter with the following information

A
  1. Unit number - crew that is making the transmission
  2. Conditions - what they have encountered
  3. Actions - what they are doing to rectify the situation
  4. Resource needed - additional equipment or manpower that may be needed

RIT should advise if the rescue is either a “clean” or “dirty”

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101
Q

What is a clean RIT rescue?

A

Careful manipulation of the firefighter for maximum safety

Clean rescue should only take place when surrounding hazards are controlled

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102
Q

What is a dirty RIT rescue

A

Rapid extrication of personnel due to surrounding circumstances or firefighter condition

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103
Q

The intent of Pre-Fire planning is? And what is it mean to do?

A

To gather information and formulate tactical considerations at certain occupancies/buildings within the city prior to the occurrence of an emergency.

Is meant to reduce the loss of life and property as well as increase firefighter safety through the analysis of data, construction features, resource needs, and tactical application at these designated occupancies/ buildings

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104
Q

The structures and/or properties for pre-fire planning shall be those which, in the event of fire present?

A
  1. Present the possibility of a large loss of life
  2. Present the possibility of a large dollar loss
  3. Present unusual or severe hazards to fire fighters
  4. Contain complex layouts or obstacles that could impede firefighting operations
  5. Require special tactical approaches
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105
Q

Initial actions for basic fire attack are?

A
  1. Provide size up
    -description
    -establish command
    -report initial action (fast attack mode, investigating)
  2. Determine plan of attack or orders of tasks to accomplish
  3. Assign RIT
  4. Primary search
  5. Establish attack lines
  6. Secondary means of egress
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106
Q

What are secondary action in basic fire attack?

A
  1. Utility control
  2. Water supply to attack engine or standpipe
  3. Ventilation
  4. Secondary search
  5. Salvage
  6. Overhaul
  7. Use of tactical sheet
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107
Q

All required inventories and records of control substances shall be maintained for at least ____from the date of such inventory or record

A

2 years

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108
Q

The ______ division shall maintain complete, accurate and up-to-date records for each controlled substance that is received, delivered or otherwise disposed of by the department

A

Support services division

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109
Q

Controlled substances shall be stored only at the locations for which the medical director is registered with the U.S. department of justice. Currently the only licensed sites are _____

A

Public safety complex, ALS units and medical supply kits

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110
Q

The off going officer in charge and the on coming officer in charge shall conduct the drug inventory each day as soon as possible, under normal circumstances no later than _____

A

0805 hours

Shall be performed face to face

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111
Q

Each complete substance log will be forwarded to the _______ or his/her designee via chain of command

A

Administrative deputy chief

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112
Q

When a controlled substance is administered to a patient, the controlled substance log is completed. Any unused/not administered medication must be disposed of in the presence of at least ______ personnel one of which must be the _____.

A

2 personnel

Officer in charge

113
Q

Only the city’s _____ and the fire chief or his/her designee shall authorize changes in the amounts of controlled substances to be carried on board any vehicle

A

City’s EMS medical director

114
Q

Whenever a missing controlled substance is discovered or presents with obvious signs of tampering the station captain or Lieutenant shall?

A
  1. Instruct assign crew to not touch and guard the potential evidence. Treat and secure vehicle like a potential crime scene
  2. Battalion and EMS will be notified immediately
  3. Dispatch will be notified the unit is out of service
  4. During a shift change all off going members are to remain in scene for written statements and questioning
  5. Battalion and EMS in conjunction with the administrative deputy chief will decide if a police officer is needed
  6. If tampering is suspected a chief officer should request PD and get a case number
  7. If the controlled substance is missing PD can be requested prior to the chief officer arrival
  8. The chief officer investigating should fully document and send a copy to the administrative deputy chief
  9. PD shall obtain statement from everyone
  10. A copy of the report should be sent to the fire chief as soon as possible
115
Q

Sunrise fire rescue personnel may accept custody of patients belonging whenever it is determined that?

A
  1. Acceptance of these items or medications is in the patients best interest
  2. Acceptance is not likely to disrupt/compromise normal operations concerning the patient or employee
  3. All reasonable efforts to secure the items were made
  4. The patient is not capable of being responsible for the belongings and no family members or patient designee are available to take custody of the belongings
116
Q

The process of removing a vehicle from around a person who has become entrapped whereby normal or conventional means of exit are impossible or in advisable is?

A

Vehicle extrication

117
Q

What is a universal safety word used to STOP all activity on scene and can be called by anyone on scene witnessing an unsafe act or condition. A hand or tap on the shoulder is a signal to the individual being touched to _____.

A

Freeze
Freeze

118
Q

The process of evaluating, controlling and rendering safe for exigent operations. For purposes of vehicle accidents, this can be further divided into 3 phases

A

Stabilization

Scene stabilization, Vehicle stabilization, patient stabilization

119
Q

What is an area extending outward from the vehicle where rescue workers will determine the best course of action to remove an entrapped victim.

The 2 area surrounding the accident generally described as the ____ and ____ where the incident commander will begin scene stabilization, scanning the entire area from the outside in.

A

Action circles

Outer and inner circle

120
Q

What is a strategically located work area outside the action circle area that is accessible for all crew members on the emergency scene?

A

Tool staging area

121
Q

In a MVA statement when the apparatus is positioned the officer should ask?

A

Is it safe to exit the apparatus

122
Q

What is the scene size up for a MVA?

A
  1. Determine the number of vehicles involved and condition ( minor, moderate or heavy damage)
  2. Hazards (fire, electrical, hazmat, traffic)
  3. Number of patients (MCI levels) or potential number of patients (think ahead)
  4. Need for extrication
  5. Additional resources
123
Q

Company officers should complete the outer circle, viewing the whole scene, considering the following hazards and action needed to remediate immediate threats to crew and patient safety such as:

A

-moving traffic
-active fire
-downed power line
-fuel leak
-vehicle loads/cargo
-hazardous material
-accident debris
-bystander crowds
-weather threats
-ejected victims

124
Q

Consider assigning a firefighter to complete the task of inner circle, considering the following hazards and immediate actions needed to remediate

A

-attempt verbal patient contact
-determine patient count
-determine if airbags deployed or not
-determine vehicle contents (hazards)
-identify leaking fluids
-identify any electrical hazards (look under vehicle)
-vehicle ignition off

125
Q

Vehicle smart keys should be moved at least ____ from vehicle

A

15 feet

126
Q

Orange and bright blue colored cables are ______. These cables can carry up to 750 volts of direct current.

A

High voltage

127
Q

Why should you avoid airbags?

A

-Electrical drain down times for devices that discharge airbags range from 30 seconds to 20 minutes
-Deployment distance for side curtain bags is 5” to 10”
-Deployment distance for steering wheel air bags is 10”
-Deployment distance for passenger air
bags is 20”

*** cylinders that deploy side impact airbags are compressed to over 3000 psi and are hidden by interior trim.

128
Q

What are the extrication terms in what is being done?

A

-Purchase point
-Door removal
-Side out
-Roof flap
-Roof removal
-Third door
-Dash roll
-Dash lift
-Tunneling

129
Q

Medical clearance can only be completed by?

A

A Florida state licensed physician

130
Q

Only _____ and ____ can apply a Baker Act.

A

Law enforcement and licensed physicians

131
Q

What is a lachrymatory agent (a chemical compound that stimulates the corneal nerves in the eyes to cause tears, pain and even temporary blindness). It causes inflammation of mucous membranes, immediate closing of the eyes, difficulty breathing, runny nose, and coughing. How long do effects last?

A

Pepper spray
(Oleoriesin Capsicum [OC]spray)

30-45 minutes, with diminished effects lasting for hours

132
Q

What is a non-lethal irritant agent containing purified tear gas and chemical solvents that temporarily incapacitate a person, mainly by causing eye and skin irritation. Most common effects include a burning sensation on the area affected with the spray and the feeling of suffocating if inhaled. Effects can be minimal on those under the influence of alcohol or drugs. How long does it last?

A

MACE
(Chloracetophenone [CN] gas)

30 minutes to 2 hours

133
Q

What is a non-specific term for any chemical that is used to cause temporary incapacitation through irritation of the eyes and/or respiratory system.

A

Tear gas

134
Q

Commonly referred to as a taser device. Delivers a controlled pulsed dose of electrical current designed to temporarily incapacitate an individual. The probes make contact with the body or clothing, resulting in immediate loss of the persons neuromuscular control and the ability to perform coordinated action for the duration of the impulse.

A

Electronic control devices

135
Q

Excited delirium is when a person is in a psychotic and extremely agitated state. Some of the causes of excited delirium are?

A
  1. Overdose on stimulant or hallucinogenic drugs
  2. Drug withdrawal
  3. Non-medicated psychiatric patients
  4. Head trauma
  5. Diabetic emergency
136
Q

During excited delirium, what is happening mentally and physically to the patient?

A

-Mentally the subject is unable to focus and process any rational thought or focus his/her attention to any one thing.

-Physically the organs within the subject are functioning at such an excited rate that they begin to shut down

137
Q

What are some of the signs and symptoms of excited delirium?

A
  1. Bizarre and aggressive behavior
  2. Dilated pupils
  3. High body temperature
  4. Incoherent speech
  5. Inconsistent breathing patterns
  6. Fear and panic
  7. Profuse sweating, shivering, hyperthermia
  8. High risk situation of sudden death
138
Q

According to most medication manufacturers guidelines, medications should be stored at temperatures that range from _____ to ______ Fahrenheit

A

55 degrees to 85 degrees

139
Q

Thermometers have been distributed to all ALS vehicles to be stored within the medical box of front line trucks. Crews will check the thermometers 2 times a day at?

A

0800 hours and 1600 hours

140
Q

The process of cleaning an object, substance or surface to remove soiled contaminants such as body fluids and biological substances is?

A

Decontamination

Use at a minimum gloves and eye protection when performing

141
Q

The method used to destroy and prevent growth of disease carrying microorganisms (viral or bacterial).

A

Disinfection

Use at a minimum N95, gloves and eye protection when performing

142
Q

If an employee is expected to participate in a special detail, and becomes ill and cannot fulfill this obligation, he/she must notify the detail officer, EMS captain or battalion chief via direct person to person contact a minimum of _____ hours prior to the starting time if the special detail

A

4 hours

143
Q

Staffing of an EMS standby shall be left to the sole discretion of the fire chief. However, a minimum of _____ personnel shall be utilized at any such detail.

A

2

144
Q

Should an incident occur while on a fire watch, the following steps must be taken immediately in the following order:

A
  1. Activate the building alarm system and begin evacuating all occupants
  2. Simultaneously notify fire dispatch via radio
  3. Supply a brief description of the problem to fire dispatch and shift commander
  4. If necessary, offensive fire fighting should be started to aid occupants in safely exiting the building
145
Q

What is the MERC?
What is the BERT?

A

Mobile emergency response cart
Bicycle emergency response team

146
Q

What is the assignment for a commercial structure fire?

A

3 engines
2 rescues
1 ladder
1 battalion
1 EMS

For a 2nd alarm double it

147
Q

What is the assignment for a high rise fire?

A

3 engine
2 rescue
1 ladder
1 battalion
1 EMS

For 2nd alarm double it

148
Q

What is the assignment for a multi family structure fire? (5 units or more)

A

3 engine
2 rescue
1 ladder
1 battalion
1 EMS

For 2nd alarm double it

149
Q

What is the assignment for a residential fire?

A

2 engine
2 rescue
1 ladder
1 battalion
1 EMS

For 2nd alarm double it

150
Q

What is the assignment for a vehicle fire (commercial tanker, semi truck, etc)?

A

2 engine
1 rescue
1 battalion
1 EMS

151
Q

What is the assignment for a vehicle fire (regular cars)?

A

1 engine
1 rescue

152
Q

Defined as any rescue attempt that requires rope and related equipment necessary to safely gain access to, and remove victims from, hazardous geographic areas with limited access

A

Rope rescue operations

153
Q

During a technical rescue operation, information that will be helpful in determining the need for additional resources would be:

A
  1. Number of victims
  2. Location and condition of victims
  3. Estimated angle of terrain
  4. Distance of victim
  5. Estimated time of evacuation
154
Q

Evacuations greater than 60 degrees are considered?

A

High angle operations and should be performed by the TRT team

155
Q

Helicopter operations are considered?

A

High risk operations

156
Q

Structural collapse or failure may occur for several reasons like?

A
  1. Natural occurrences
  2. Fire or explosion
  3. Human factors
  4. Engineering errors
157
Q

In structural collapse search operation, each entry team shall be equipped with the following items

A
  1. One member should have a portable radio
  2. Explosion proof lighting, cyalume or explosion proof light
  3. Atmospheric monitor, personal units preferred
  4. Proper protective gear
    (At a very least, coveralls flame retardant, nomex hood, appropriate footwear, hearing and eye protection, helmet and gloves
158
Q

When working close to a victim, debris should be removed by_____ to avoid further injury

A

By hand

159
Q

50% of people rescued from collapse structures are found how?

A

On top of debris and those partly or lightly buried

160
Q

What is the hailing system used in locating casualties?

A

Calling and listening

161
Q

When forcing blinding through a wall, roof or floor assembly always utilize?

A

Inspection holes

162
Q

Avoid breaching solid wall components such as column, beams, and filled cells. Reinforced concrete columns or filled cells are typically found in ?

A

In corners and adjacent to windows and door openings

163
Q

The size of shores and the types of shoring systems will be dependent on?

A

On weight to be supported and the conditions of the element to be supported

164
Q

Concrete and masonry weight is?

Normal concrete floor is?

A

125-150 lbs. per cubic foot

100-150 lbs. square foot

165
Q

Prior to shoring check?

A

Base, foundation, and ground conditions for stability

166
Q

Shoring systems should act like _____, collecting the load into the funnel, passing through the struts and distributing it out into the supporting structure and eventually into the ground

A

Double funnel

167
Q

Keep shores as short as possible. The maximum length of a shore should be no more than?

A

50 times it’s width

168
Q

Cribbing can be arranged to support cross beams and/other beams diagonally braced. Limitations are based on _____ psi cross grain bearing

A

500 psi

169
Q

Failure due to crushing of cross grain wood is?

A

Slow and noisy giving warning to the rescuers

170
Q

Lateral stability of cribbing is dependent on width to height ratio. Rule of thumb is….

A

You can build your crib box 3 times as high as the box is wide

171
Q

Utilizing wood cribbing laid flat, if at all possible use 3 members per layer to double the capacity

A

4x4 crib capacity (2 per layer) = 24,000 lbs
4x4 crib capacity (3 per layer) = 48,000 lbs
6x6 crib capacity (2 per layer) = 60,000 lbs
6x6 crib capacity (3 per layer)= 135,000 lbs

172
Q

Wood strength can vary greatly depending on

A

species, closeness of grain, knots, wane, checks, etc

173
Q

During debris removal at a structural collapse operation, a safety analysis should be performed every?

A

Every 30 minutes

174
Q

To be a member of the specialty teams, all personnel must:

A
  1. Successfully complete a recognized course in the respective area of the specific team
  2. Request in writing for admittance to the team
  3. Receive appointment to the team by fire chief
  4. Remain in good standing through participation in drills, training, and by maintaining acquired skills
175
Q

Who retains the overall responsibility on all technical rescue operations?

A

The battalion chief

176
Q

Facility security during “heightened state of alert”

A
  1. Apparatus should not be left outside of station
  2. Bay doors should remain close at all times unless crew out there
  3. All perimeter doors shall be regularly checked for security and kept locked and closed
  4. Station parking lots should be regularly assessed for unknown vehicles
  5. Station commander should assess outdoor/ perimeter lighting each shift and initiate process of repair for any inoperable lighting
  6. Station members shall not accept any food, beverages, plants, etc from well meaning civilians that are unknown
  7. In the event someone brings a suspicious package, envelope, etc it is not to be brought inside
177
Q

Apparatus security during a “heightened state of alert”

A
  1. Apparatus should not be left unattended while shopping or in details
  2. Apparatus should be parked as close to the PSC building as possible when attending classes
  3. During emergency calls attempts should be made to keep apparatus under a watchful eye
  4. All reserve apparatus which must be stored outside or in the streets must be locked at all times
  5. Portable radios should not be left in unattended vehicles
178
Q

The NBC cartridge is very effective against

A

Nuclear and biological contaminants

179
Q

NBC cartridge have a particulate matter efficiency of ____

A

99.997% and filters out particles greater than 0.3 microns

180
Q

Factors affecting the useful life of the NBC cartridge include?

A

Temperature
Humidity
Concentration of the challenge chemical

181
Q

What should be considered when deciding where to locate decon stations

A

Wind direction and grade

182
Q

For decon keep water temperature at?

A

Between 60 F and 70 F
(16 C) and (21 C)

183
Q

If forcible entry occurs for a medical emergency and alarms and no patient or dangerous situation is found…

A

The police department should be contacted for assessment and a report

184
Q

If forcible entry for fire alarms, smoke alarms, water flow alarms occurs and no hazardous situation is present….

A

The dispatch center shall be notified

185
Q

The term “MAYDAY” is used when?

A

Whenever a fire rescue unit or crew member encounters an immediately perilous situation such as

Downed
Lost
Or trapped firefighter

186
Q

Upon location of the distress firefighter the RIC should consider the following

A
  1. Locate and shut off the firefighter P.A.S.S device
  2. Ascertain air supply left in the SCBA and make arrangements for continuing air
  3. Perform secondary survey by sweeping the downed firefighters body with hands to determine possible entanglement or entrapment
187
Q

A multi-unit response to an activated fire alarm, where no other information is present, only the first-due will respond

A

code 3… all other units will turn out and respond code 1

188
Q

All personnel who handle controlled substances shall ensure that all controlled substances are stored with appropriate?

A

Sanitation
Temperature
Ventilation

189
Q

Drug log weekly review will be every?

A

Sunday
First by the Lt, then the Captain, then EMS

190
Q

Any unused/ not administered medication must be disposed of in the presence of at least ____

A

At least 2 personnel.. one which must be the officer in charge of the rescue truck

191
Q

Run assignments for sawgrass mills mall

A
  1. Confirmed false fire alarm by mall security: 1E
  2. Fire alarm: 1A — first alarm assignment
  3. Smell of smoke: 1A — first alarm assignment
  4. Smoke or Fire showing: 1A — first alarm assignment + notification to duty chief
  5. Working fire: 2 alarm assignment
192
Q

A rescue lieutenant during a sawgrass mall incident can be?

With what responsibility?

A

Incident commander aide

  1. Passport accountability
  2. Mall liaison
  3. Tactical work sheet monitor
193
Q

What is the battalion chief specific procedures during a sawgrass mills mall fire/incident

A
  1. Assume command
  2. Assure placement and activities of units on scene
  3. Establish communications with mall security
  4. Assure activation of incident management system
  5. Request dispatch to contact water department for an increase of water pressure on the mall water distribution system
194
Q

At sawgrass, primary searches outside the immediate fire area for victims come ______ to fire control

A

Second

195
Q

Non-repeated radio channels are not monitored by the dispatch

A
196
Q

In the event of a sawgrass mills mall incident, contact mall security to?

A
  1. Control HVAC
  2. Use security cameras to evaluate interior conditions
  3. Obtain keys to doors and security gates
  4. Obtain dollies and carts for hose and equipment hauling
197
Q

Weekly maintenance, for peak hour rescue will be scheduled for each _____

A

Wednesday

198
Q

Sign up for peak hour rescue will be made ____ days in advance.

Vacancies will be filled _____ in advance

A

30 days

2 weeks

199
Q

Failure to comply with the detail obligation of finding a replacement, the employee name will be removed from the list for a period of ______ for the 1st offense & _____ for the 2nd offense

A

6 months

1 year

200
Q

Failure to abide by detail rules in a professional manner will have the employee removed from the list for?

A

1 year

201
Q

Detail payment will be handled by the?

A

Division chief of operations

202
Q

Completed detail forms are to be placed in an interoffice envelope and forwarded to ?

A

The division chief of operations

203
Q

What is referred to as a cold response?

A

Code 1 response

204
Q

What is referred to as a hot response

A

Code 3 response

205
Q

SFRD units, aside from a staffed and functioning HazMat team, are considered first responders. As such, operational concerns deal primarily with?

A

Scene safety and product identification

206
Q

What system shall be used for categorizing hazardous material incidents to report to dispatch

A

The uniform classification system for categorizing hazardous material incidents

207
Q

The dive rescue response unit will respond to all dive calls. Either ____ personnel or ____ personnel may drive the vehicle to the scene

A

Dive team personnel
Support personnel

208
Q

The rapid entry dive gear should be located where

A

On the suppression unit
-If the diver is on rescue, he/she should move it to rescue and put it back on the engine at the end of the shift

209
Q

Dive pattern begins where?

A

The last seen point by witnesses

210
Q

All personnel conducting the dive operations shall be wearing ______ at all times

A

Personal floatation device (PFD)

211
Q

What is required at the site for entry in a dive operation

A

Roof ladder placement in water

212
Q

Engine companies responding to a technical rescue operation initial actions

A
  1. Size up
  2. Establish command
  3. Establish safety zone
  4. Re-evaluate situation and request additional resources (specialty team, additional engines/rescues)
  5. Obtain information pertinent to rescue
  6. Assure additional resources are responding
213
Q

What information shall be obtained pertinent to a technical rescue

A
  1. Number and location of victim
  2. Physical characteristics (type, size, etc. of confined space, trench or structure)
  3. Witnesses and job site foreman
  4. Potential electrical/mechanical/chemical hazards/hydraulic or water
214
Q

What do the phases of confine space, trench rescue and rope rescue consist of?

  1. Scene preparation and reconnaissance
  2. Pre-rescue operations
  3. Rescue operations
  4. Safety considerations
  5. Termination
A
  1. Scene preparation and reconnaissance
    Step One: assessment
    - establish command
    - secure responsible party/witness
    - designate recon team
    Step Two: manpower and equipment
    - assess need for additional resources
    - assess hazards
    - assign safety
    - decide rescue or recovery
  2. Pre-rescue operations
    - make general area safe
    - make rescue area safe
    - pre rescue/ recovery
  3. Rescue operations
    - removal of victim
  4. Safety considerations
  5. Termination
215
Q

Search and rescue team members shall use orange colored spray paint to mark the exact location of victim. It is important that marking are made specific to each area of entry or separate part of the building, in order to?

A

Reduce needless duplication of search efforts

216
Q

Once inside the void space of a structural collapse operation,

A
  1. Assure adequate interior team communication
  2. Assure adequate communications with the operations exterior
  3. Mark entry points or movement patterns with chalk, spray paint, lumber crayons to assure egress
  4. Move toward the suspected victim location as a team
  5. Beware of elevation differences and unstable footing
217
Q

Before deciding which victim should be rescued first, consider?

A

Victims condition, position, and the difficulty of extricating them

-need to search all area for victims who may still be alive before any attempt is made to rescue victims with less chance of survival

218
Q

All personnel entering the high rise building must report to?

A

Lobby control for check in before reporting to any other division or group

219
Q

The use of “______” ____ may be the only way to use an elevator during a high rise incident

A

“Fireman service” key

220
Q

To accurately determine the location of the fire (alarm), always confirm what you have been told by building personnel and SFRD dispatchers via the buildings fire protection system annunciator panel and/or video display terminal. If there is discrepancies on alarm/fire locations or , smoke/fire detectors are activated on several floors, always assume?

A

That the lowest floor is the start of the problem

221
Q

Pump operators shall deliver a minimum of ___ fire flow to attack line

A

150 gpm

222
Q

If fire has already extended into the interior hallway, the fire officer should consider

A

Deployment of a backup line prior to fire attack

223
Q

Conditions may present where it is necessary to shuttle equipment, air bottles, and hose up stairwells. If this arises command should assign ____.

A

Stair well support group

-these personnel should position themselves every other floor and if conditions allow remove their bunker gear to reduce heat stress. These personnel should not have to travel more than 2 flights each

224
Q

In high rise incidents, RIT crew should be designated as quickly as possible and deployed to ?

A

The stairwell of the floor immediately below the fire floor

225
Q

Metro load high rise kit consist of?

A

100 ft of 1 3/4 attack line
1 TFT breakaway nozzle
A gated wye
50 ft extend a bag

226
Q

During heightened state of alert station commanders shall ensure that all units in their quarters have the issued copy of “_________” on board

A

Janes bio/chem handbook

227
Q

Upon recognizing that a situation is a WMD incident, or that materials present are possibly WMD agents, or the threat of WMD agent dispersion has been made, the incident commander shall make sure that dispatch notifies?

A

The county warning point at (954)320-0520

228
Q

Under normal conditions the aerial shall not operate any closer than ____ feet of distribution power lines. In life threatening circumstances it may operate within those ___ feet, but no closer than ____ feet.

A

25 feet
25 feet
10 feet

229
Q

Aerial load capacity includes

A

Personnel, equipment, and any personnel on rappelling arms or in stokes

230
Q

If forcible entry occurs for activated fire alarms, smoke alarms, water flow alarms, and no hazardous situation is present, who should be notified?

A

The dispatch center

231
Q

Crew safety concerns should be considered before entering a structure where forcible entry has been performed. Crews should announce themselves by?

A

By repeatedly knocking on doors and windows loudly identifying themselves as the fire department prior to forcing entry and before entering the structure

232
Q

Hemorrhage control in active killer response

A
  1. Proper tourniquet application
  2. Hemorrhage control through anatomical pressure points
  3. Proper application of combat and pressure bandages
  4. Proper application of hemostatic gauze and bandages
233
Q

Airway management in active killer response

A
  1. Proper chest seal application
  2. Proper method of emergency chest decompression
234
Q

Victim extraction during active killer response

A
  1. Dragging victims by the arms and legs
  2. Use of webbing to drag a victim with 1 or 2 rescuers
  3. Use of various combat litters to move victims
235
Q

During a active killer response, when practical, _______ needs to advise of the number of injured to identify the appropriate MCI response for the additional resources needed for treatment and transport

A

RTF
Rescue task force

236
Q

In the event the “emergency operation mode” was false, units can exit mode by?

A

Pressing the orange button for approximately 1 second or restarting radio

237
Q

Unlike pre assigned radios with unit identifiers pre-programmed into the CAD, department spare radios are pre-programmed into the CAD with?

A

A generic identifier

238
Q

As a safety issue, it is the responsibility of _____ to ensure that each portable is in the correct position and being used by the person assigned to the radio designated position

A

Station commander

239
Q

In the event of a P.A.S.S device activation, the division supervisor, if applicable, shall try to ____ the audible alarm and determine which unit or person is unaccounted for

A

Physically locate

If not division supervisor, the IC will assign units to physically locate the alarm in addition to performing a roll call

240
Q

Should a roll call of the fire rescue unit or crew member be unsuccessful in identifying the P.A.S.S activation, IC shall request?

A

A full PAR to be conducted

241
Q

In the event the operation section chief or division supervisor is in fact one of the downed firefighter, the IC and or operations chief may assign the closest available ___ or ___ to take charge of the RIT/SAR

A

Division supervisor or the safety officer

242
Q

Establishment of RIT shall be?

A

Every incident in which firefighters enter a hazardous area that could be immediately dangerous to life and health (IDLH)

243
Q

Unless the fire is in the incipient stage or the rescue of trapped occupants is necessary, incident commanders should endeavor to have ______ in place prior to the commencement of interior firefighting operations

A

RIT

244
Q

Upon deployment, the RIT shall notify command of?

A

The specific entrance they take into the structure

245
Q

Upon location of the distress firefighters, the RIT should consider the following

A
  1. Locate and shut off the firefighter P.A.S.S device if activated
  2. Ascertain air supply left in SCBA and make arrangements for continuing air supply
  3. Perform secondary survey of sweeping the downed firefighter body with hands to determine possible entanglement or entrapment
246
Q

What is the response for a multi unit response to activated fire alarm, where no other information is present

A

Only the first unit will respond code 3

247
Q

Activated fire alarm in a single family dwelling

A
  1. Size up from first unit
  2. Establish command
  3. Treated as the real thing
  4. Additional units shall level I stage
248
Q

Activated fire alarm in multi family dwelling

A
  1. First unit size up
  2. First unit command
  3. Treat as the real thing
  4. Second engine locate water
  5. Additional units level 1 stage
249
Q

The Florida fire prevention code places the responsibility for maintenance for fire alarms/suppression systems with?

A

The owner and their responsibility shall apply to the resetting alarm

250
Q

Fire alarms are designed to function in trouble mode. Failure to achieve reset of a trouble mode does not require immediate repair. The alarm company servicing the alarm should be contacted and given reasonable time to make repairs. ____ should be notified of situation via fax or voice mail before the end of shift

A

Fire life safety

251
Q

If a fire alarm system cannot be reset in a multiple residential building, the building management shall be advised by the IC to provide a ______ until system is repaired and activated

A

Fire watch

252
Q

If a building owner or occupant, engineer, etc cannot be reached and there is no responsible party at the building to provide a fire watch, advise the fire marshal of the situation. A fire watch may be required utilizing

A

Personnel on overtime

-for systems malfunctioning in buildings that are not occupied and the systems cannot be restored, fire watch is not necessary

253
Q

“All clear” after a search means?

A

Indicates no victims found and the entire search and rescue crew is accounted for

254
Q

What 2 secondary actions in basic fire attack may need to be performed prior to entering the structure?

A

Ventilation or utility control

255
Q

_____ or his/her designee, shall maintain accurate records and evidence of compliance with the requirements listed in the controlled substance policy, including but not limited to, written operating procedures signed by the medical director for the handling, tracking, storage, distribution and disposal of controlled substance

A

The administrative deputy chief

256
Q

For damage or expired controlled substances the vial will be removed from service and placed in ______ with the seal and security container and returned to the EMS shift supervisor for replacement

A

Clear bio hazard bag

257
Q

The officer in charge with the responsibility for entries in the drug logs shall enter a legible, distinguishable print name and legal signature. Abbreviation and initials may be used for?

A

Printing the first name only. Last names shall be spelled out completely

258
Q

The primary duties of EMS captain at a fire scene can be?

A
  1. Incident commander aide
  2. Accountability Officer
  3. Rapid intervention team member
  4. Liaison to other agency
  5. IMS division or group leader as directed by command
  6. Join up with other fire personnel to form additional fire company
259
Q

The _____ will provide a mechanism by which a division chief will, on a weekly rotational basis, be available to respond to predetermined calls as well as to provide administrative back up for the shift commander should the need arise

A

Staff duty roster

260
Q

In the event that an additional incident requires the duty chief to the leave the communication center (where they respond to) for an extended period of time for field operations or other situations, ______

A

The next available duty chief shall be contacted to report to duty

261
Q

All patient belongings should be inventoried and listed on _____ clearly stating who the property has been transferred to and at what facility.

A

Patient care report

262
Q

During a vehicle accident/ extrication consider the need for fire suppression. _______ should be deployed at a minimum on all extrications with a _____ preferred

A

A dry chemical extinguisher

1 3/4 hose line with foam capabilities preferred

263
Q

Tempered glass should be removed with?

A
  1. Rescue hammer
  2. Center punch
  3. Glass master
264
Q

Laminated glass should be removed with?

A

Glass master or saws

265
Q

Before extrication begins, ______ must be removed from the side crews will be working on, _____ removed and _______ cut

A

Glass
Plastic
Seatbelt

266
Q

Boron and ultra strength steel (UHSS) is becoming more common. These materials are commonly found around ____, _______, and _______. Special cutters are required to cut these and are in service in the fleet of hydraulic tools

A

Posts
Roof rails
Rocker panel

267
Q

In the event an employee noticed a Knox box key is lost or found missing, the employee must immediately notify _____

A

The shift battalion chief and complete a missing equipment form

268
Q

First arriving engine and rescue at a sawgrass mills mall fire should bring what equipment at a minimum

A

Engine
1. Forcible entry tools
2. High rise kit
3. Hand lights

Rescue (meet up with engine)
1. 100 foot 2 1/2 “ hose
2. Hand light
3. Rope

269
Q

During a sawgrass mills mall fire operation, the battalion chief shall request dispatch to contact the water department for?

A

An increase of water pressure on the mall water distribution system

270
Q

For decontamination procedure use a one step germicidal detergent. For disinfection use?

A

The byoplants

-it is the final disinfection step

271
Q

Routine disinfection of stations will occur _____ during station rotation or after any suspected contamination of blood or OPIM

A

Quarterly

272
Q

Both the MERC and the BERT will be staffed with a minimum of ____ personnel for EMS details.

A

2 personnel

273
Q

Pre dive neurological exam will be conducted

A

At the start of the shift

274
Q

Fire attack should never begin until it has been verified by SFRD personnel that

A

A sustained water supply is available to support operation

275
Q

Whenever personnel are operating or climbing in the aerial, for any reason including training and maintenance, they shall wear

A

A minimum of a department issued helmet and gloves

276
Q

All temperature check sheets are to be completed and sent by inter-office mail monthly to ______ along with the controlled substance log sheets for archiving

A

Logistics

277
Q

What 2 woods have a value given of 2 to 1 with good grain and no defect ?

A

Douglas Fir & southern pine

278
Q

Mechanical advantage systems or manual winches are preferred over manual hauling. Do not use ____ to remove patients

A

Electric winch

These allow little control and could result in dismemberment or additional injury

279
Q

Rescuers should go through a ________ after each work period or shift while assigned to the disaster site

A

Psychological debriefing

Captain Test (7 decks)

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