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Spirit Airbus A320 Training > Oral Exam Review > Flashcards

Flashcards in Oral Exam Review Deck (412):

How should a pilot call a mechanic outside the aircraft?

 Press and hold the MECH button. It illuminates a blue light on the EXT PWR PANEL and sounds an external horn.


How should a pilot call the forward flight attendant?

 Press the FWD button


What happens when a pilot presses the EMER pushbutton?

 Two Pink lights flash at all area Call Panels
 EMERGENCY CALL appears on all attendant indication panels
 High-low chime sounds three times on all loudspeakers


What happens when the Flight Attendants initiate an emergency call?

 The white EMER ON light and amber CALL lights flash
 The amber ATT lights flash on all ACP
 3 long buzzers (inhibited during takeoff and landing) sound consecutively
 In the cabin, the EMERGENCY CALL message will appear on all Attendant
Indication Panels (AIP)


What happens when a pilot pushes the CREW SUPPLY PUSHBUTTON?

 Valve opens to supply low pressure oxygen to the masks.


How does the passenger oxygen system work?

 Chemical oxygen generators for approximately 15 minutes


What does the illumination of the SYS ON light mean? Does this mean that all the masks have deployed?

 The signal has been sent to release the oxygen mask doors, but some masks may have to be deployed manually.


What causes automatic deployment of the masks?

 Cabin altitude reaching approximately 14,000 feet


How is the crew oxygen mask microphone deactivated when the mask is stowed?

 The RESET control slide will accomplish this – it does not happen automatically.


What indication would a pilot have of a crew oxygen cylinder thermal discharge?

 The green disk on the lower left side of the forward fuselage would be missing.


Why is the GND CTL pushbutton selected to ON during preflight?

 To record preflight activities in the cockpit


If the pushbutton was not selected ON, how would the system work in automatic mode?

 ON for 5 minutes after electrical power is supplied to the aircraft
 At least one engine is operating, stops 5 min after last engine shut down.


What allows the cabin PAs to be recorded?

 ACP 3 PA volume knob out and in the 12 o’clock position


What does pressing the SYS pushbutton do?

 All basic GPWS alerts (mode1 to 5) are inhibited.


What does an amber FAULT light in the SYS pushbutton indicate on the GPWS panel?

 Any failure of GPWS mode 1 through 5


What effect, if any, does an amber FAULT light in the SYS pushbutton have on the TERRAIN mode?

 No effect at all


Describe a situation when a pilot might press LDG FLAP 3.

 To avoid nuisance warning in case of landing in CONF 3.
 In this case, LDG MEMO displays FLAPS...CONF 3 instead of CONF FULL


Describe a situation when a pilot might press the FLAP MODE pushbutton.

 To avoid nuisance warning in case of landing with flaps setting reduced
 FLAP SYS 1 (2) FAULT would require selection of FLAP MODE off


What effect, if any, does the failure of TERR mode have on basic GPWS?

 No effect whatsoever


What is the significance of the red FAULT illuminating on the RAT & EMER GEN light?

 AC BUS1 and AC BUS 2 are lost and the RAT is not supplying electrical power


When would the red FAULT light on the RAT & EMER GEN light normally illuminate?

 The fault light will illuminate once the RAT is deployed and electrical power is not being supply (approximately eight seconds)


How can the RAT be deployed?

 Manually by pushing MAN ON (EMER ELEC PWR Panel) or RAT MAN ON (HYDRAULIC Panel).
 Automatically by the loss of both AC BUS 1 and AC BUS 2


What is the difference between the automatic RAT deployment and manual RAT deployment by pressing the RAT MAN ON on the HYD panel?

 RAT MAN ON supplies Blue Hydraulic PSI only, no electrical generation


After deploying the RAT by pressing the RAT MAN ON pushbutton on the HYD panel it becomes necessary to also extract electrical power. How can this be accomplished?

 By pressing the MAN ON pushbutton on the EMER ELEC PWR


What does the RAT supply?

Blue Hydraulic system and the emergency electrical generator


What buses are powered by the emergency electrical generator?

 AC ESS and AC ESS Shed
 DC ESS and DC ESS shed


What would cause the GEN 1 LINE SMOKE light to illuminate?

 Smoke detected in the avionics ventilation ducting


Aside from the GEN 1 LINE SMOKE light, what would be other indications of avionics smoke?

 ECAM warning
 Amber FAULT lights in the EXTRACT and BLOWER pushbuttons on the


If the ECAM directs a pilot to select GEN 1 LINE PUSHBUTTON to OFF, what will be accomplished?

 Gen 1 line contactor opens (white OFF light illuminates)
 AC BUS 1 powered by GEN 2 through the Bus Tie Contactor
 Gen 1 powers one fuel pump directly in each wing tank


What is checked on the EVAC panel during the Preliminary cockpit preparation?

 CAPT & PURS switch in CAPT position


How should the flight crew command an evacuation?

 Make a PA announcement
 Press the EVAC COMMAND pushbutton


What type of flight control system does the A320 family aircraft utilize?

 Fly-By-Wire system


Describe how the flight controls are controlled and activated.

Electrically Controlled and Hydraulically Activated


How is NORMAL LAW indicated on the PFD?

Green “=” for pitch, bank, and over speed limits Amber/black (ALPHA PROT) airspeed tape


How is ALTERNATE LAW indicated on the PFD?

Amber Xs (indicating lack of NORMAL LAW protections)


How is DIRECT LAW indicated on the PFD?

Amber Xs (indicating lack of NORMAL LAW protections)


How is MECHANICAL BACKUP indicated on the PFD?

Amber Xs (indicating lack of NORMAL LAW protections)


When operating in NORMAL LAW in “flight” mode, what does the side stick command for pitch and roll?

 Pitch – G load
 Bank – Roll rate


What is the significance of the Side Stick Priority (Red Arrow) Light?

The other pilot has gained side stick authority


Name the Flight Control Computers and the number of each.

 ELAC – Elevator Aileron Computer (2)
 SEC – Spoiler Elevator Computer (3)
 FAC – Flight Augmentation Computer (2)


What are the some of the ELAC functions?

 Normal elevator
 Normal aileron
 Normal pitch and roll
 Alternate pitch
 Direct pitch and roll
 Abnormal alt
 Aileron droop
 Autopilot orders


What are some of the SEC functions?

 Normal roll
 Speed brakes
 Alternate pitch
 Direct pitch
 Direct roll
 Abnormal altitude


What does SEC 3 control?

Spoiler Control – one flight spoiler and one ground spoiler on each wing


What are some of the FAC functions?

 Rudder Trim
 Rudder travel limit
 Yaw control
 Flight Envelope Protection – vertical
 Windshear Protection
 Low Energy Warning Protection
 Alpha Floor Protection
 PFD speed scale


What should happen to the THS after landing?

 Reset to zero


Describe some of protections a pilot will have in NORMAL LAW.

High Speed
 High Angle of Attack (AOA Alpha Protection)
 Load Factor Limitation +2.5G / -1.0G (+2.0G / 0.0G With Flaps/Slats)
 Pitch Attitude (30° UP / 15° DN)
 Bank Angle (67°)


Describe High Speed Protection.

If VMO/MMO plus a predetermined factor is exceeded, the system induces a pitch-up input to limit aircraft speed.


What, if anything, can a pilot do to override high-speed protection pitch up?

It is not possible to override a protection while still in NORMAL LAW. In this case the aircraft would need to be forced into ALTERNATE LAW (by turning 2 ADRs off, for example).


What is ALPHA MAX?

The maximum angle of attack allowed in NORMAL LAW, indicated by the top of the red strip on the airspeed scale.


How does High Angle of Attack Protection operate?

When the angle of attack exceeds ALPHA PROT, pitch trim ceases and angle of attack is now proportional to side stick deflection, not to exceed ALPHA MAX even with full aft side stick deflection.


What protections, if any, does a pilot have in ALTERNATE LAW?

 Load Factor
 High-speed stability
 Low speed stability


What protections, if any, does a pilot have in DIRECT LAW?



When, if at all, does flare mode activate in ALTERNATE LAW? Describe the whole process.

There is no flare mode if operating in ALTERNATE LAW. The aircraft proceeds directly from ALTERNATE LAW to DIRECT LAW when the gear is selected down, and flare mode will not be available.


If in ALTERNATE LAW, when will the aircraft revert to DIRECT LAW?

If the controls degrade to ALTERNATE LAW for any reason other than recovery from abnormal attitude, DIRECT LAW automatically becomes active with gear extension and autopilots not engaged. In this case, full use of autopilot is recommended until they must be disconnected.


When is there a direct relationship between side stick and flight control surface deflection?

 When in DIRECT LAW
 When below 100 feet


It's common Airbus philosophy that the Airbus cannot stall in NORMAL LAW. However, there are conditions in which it can. Describe how this can happen.

 Faulty Radio Altimeter
 A good pilot will operate under the philosophy that anything can happen.
Preventative systems such as (ALPHA PROT, ALPHA MAX, etc.) could interpret bad data as valid data and subsequently fail to recognize the actual angle of attack or flight path of the airplane. Therefore, it is hard to point to exact scenarios when the Airbus can stall in NORMAL LAW. We need to understand anything is possible and we should recognize stall indications and recover regardless of the active control law.


After recovery from an unusual attitude, what control law would the aircraft likely be in?



How would the aircraft enter ABNORMAL ATTITUDE LAW?

By exceeding approximately double the NORMAL LAW limits.


What is the purpose of ABNORMAL ATTITUDE LAW?

Allows the aircraft to be recovered from an unusual attitude.


If the flight crew is flying at 300 knots and they happen to pull full back on the side stick, how high can they pitch up?



If the flight crew selected 100 knots on the speed knob, how slow would the
aircraft fly?



Describe, in detail, what would happen if the flight crew slowly pulled the thrust levers to idle.

 As airspeed decays, the THS adjusts the pitch attitude to maintain altitude.
 If the angle of attack increases to a threshold value, known as ALPHA
PROT, the pitch function of the side stick changes. Stick movement
commands a specific angle of attack instead of a G load change.
 Since auto trimming is inoperative, the pilot must hold continuous back
pressure in order to fly slower than the speed for ALPHA PROT.
 The side stick no longer provides a “G demand.” Instead, the pilot is
requesting a specific angle of attack with the side stick.


Continuing the scenario above, describe what would happen if the flight crew continued to pull back on the side stick. How slow would the aircraft go?

The speed corresponding to ALPHA MAX
 With the stick full aft, the elevators will adjust the pitch attitude to maintain a
maximum safe angle of attack (ALPHA MAX). This maximum angle of attack, induced by the pilot, is slightly lower than the stall angle of attack; therefore, the aircraft theoretically cannot be stalled in NORMAL LAW.


At some point during this demonstration the AUTOTHRUST automatically applies TOGA power. What is this protection, and how does it work?

 ALPHA FLOOR is a function of AUTOTHRUST. It will activate at any airspeed based on angle of attack and automatically apply TOGA thrust regardless of thrust lever position.
 ALPHA FLOOR is available if the AUTOTHRUST is functional (it does not need to be active), an engine is running (not both), and the aircraft is in NORMAL LAW.
 Angle of attack protection does not depend on ALPHA FLOOR to function.
 On NEO aircraft, ALPHA FLOOR is inhibited above M 0.6


Describe what would happen if a flight crew attempted to overstress the aircraft while in NORMAL LAW.

 Maneuver protection prevents a pilot from over stressing the aircraft by limiting flight control inputs.
 If G loads become greater than normal, they are displayed in amber on the lower ECAM above the digital clock.
 When the side stick is pushed forward, less than 1G is commanded. A given pitch input always results in the same pitch response regardless of airspeed.
 When the stick is returned to neutral, the new pitch is held constant regardless of airspeed changes.


What will happen if the pilot over speeds the aircraft? Are there any protections that are available to the flight crew?

 An over speed causes the flight control computers to provide a nose up input to reduce aircraft damage due to excess speed. This protection limits the maximum airspeed by increasing the pitch attitude even if full forward stick is held.
 The speed at which this protection activates is shown on the airspeedindicator as a green "=" sign.
 An over speed warning is generated as VMO is exceeded (specifically at
VMO+4). This warning can only be silenced by the EMER CANCEL
 If the stick is released, the speed will return to VMO/MMO. The protection will
allow a momentary increase in airspeed to permit any necessary
maneuvering but then the speed will again slow to the limit.
 If high-speed protection is active, bank angle is limited to 45°. Bank angle is
also limited to 45° if angle of attack protection is active, in either case the
limit marks do not move.
 If high-speed protection is active, positive spiral stability occurs at all bank
angles, and control pressure is required to hold any bank angle greater than
 It is possible to over speed the aircraft. The computers merely limit the
maximum attainable speed.


When a pilot rolls into a bank, what is provided by the Flight Control Laws?

 In “flight” mode of NORMAL LAW, roll control is a roll rate demand. Side stick inputs commands the ailerons, spoilers 2-5, and the rudder to achieve the commanded roll rate with bank angle protection, turn coordination, and Dutch roll damping.
 The roll rate demanded by the pilot is proportional to side stick deflection. When the side stick is neutral, the ailerons and spoilers are positioned to maintain the roll rate at 0° per second. This results in a constant bank angle.
 When the side stick is displaced laterally, increasing roll rates are commanded. At full deflection, a roll rate of 15° per second is commanded in NORMAL LAW. The ailerons and spoilers are positioned as necessary to achieve the commanded roll rate.
 The side stick position cannot be used as a reference to determine the actual positions of flight control surfaces.
 In normal turns (up to 33°) pitch trim is automatic and assists the pilot in maintaining altitude (pitch inputs may still be needed to maintain altitude).
 If the bank is increased beyond 33° and the side stick is released, the aircraft would return to 33° of bank. This is known as positive spiral stability.
 Positive spiral stability is a characteristic programmed into the flight control computers, which returns the aircraft to a more stable condition (0° if high speed or angle-of-attack protection is active).
 Beyond 33°of bank, positive spiral stability is active and automatic pitch trim is inhibited. To maintain a bank angle greater than 33°, continuous side stick pressure must be used. Also, continuous back pressure will be needed to maintain altitude since automatic pitch trim is inhibited.


The pilots find themselves in ALTERNATE LAW. Describe the indications and available protections, and flight control logic.

 In most cases, a single system of component failure will not cause a flight control degradation (jammed stabilizer causes a degradation).
 Indications would be amber Xs and an EW/D message. The ECAM states PROT LOST, but maneuver protection is still available.
 Autopilot availability in ALTERNATE LAW depends on the failures that caused the degradation. Generally speaking, if the failures DO NOT affect a primary flight control surface, the autopilot should be available.
 Pitch is the same as NORMAL LAW, roll is direct (not roll rate demand), and yaw loses turn coordination.
 Attitude, high speed, and angle of attack protections are lost. They are replaced by high speed stability and low speed stability, respectively.
 High speed stability activates just prior to the over speed warning. Nose down trim is inhibited.
 Low speed stability activates just prior to the stall warning. Nose up trim is inhibited.
 The pilot can override the stabilities and over speed or stall the aircraft.
 Instead of commanding a specific roll rate, there is a direct relationship
between side stick position and control surface position. As a result, roll sensitivity now changes with aircraft speed and amount of side stick deflection.
 Bank angle protection is not available in ALTERNATE LAW. Roll commands are carried out directly without modification.
 Depending on the failure combination, the maximum roll rate may be as much as twice as it was in NORMAL LAW.
 Attitude protection is lost and the green "=" signs on the PFD are replaced with amber Xs. There are now no limits on how far a pilot can pitch or roll the aircraft. The aircraft can roll beyond the amber Xs. Positive spiral stability is also lost.
 In ALTERNATE LAW, turn coordination is always lost regardless of FAC status. Yaw damping, rudder trim and rudder limiting is available if a FAC is operational.


The pilots find themselves in DIRECT LAW. Describe the indications, protections, and flight control logic.

 When in ALTERNATE LAW, there is no landing mode that would provide consistent control during landing for all possible failure combinations. Consequently, the flight controls transition to DIRECT LAW when the landing gear is extended.
 DIRECT LAW is very unlikely in flight. It usually results from lowering the gear while in ALTERNATE LAW.
 An ECAM message is generated and says “PROT LOST”. Unlike in ALTERNATE LAW, this is now true. There are no protections or stabilities available in DIRECT LAW.
 The message “USE MAN PITCH TRIM” in amber is displayed on the FMA because automatic pitch trim is lost.
 Pitch control is direct. Load factor demand is lost. Pitch sensitivity or control is a factor of airspeed and the amount flight control deflection. Roll control is the same as ALTERNATE LAW (direct relationship with no protections).


The pilots find themselves in MECHANICAL BACKUP. What functions are available?

 MECHANICAL BACKUP control is provided for the rudder and THS in the event of a complete loss of flight control computers or electrical power.
 Although the aircraft can be flown indefinitely in this condition, it is intended to be used only as long as it takes to restore the computers.
 Note the EW/D warning message and red “MAN PITCH TRIM ONLY” indication on the FMA. There isn’t a specific mechanical backup ECAM message.
 The side sticks are inoperative. Pitch is controlled with the trim wheel via the mechanical connection to the pitch system.
 Roll and yaw are controlled through the rudder pedals and the mechanical connection to the rudder.
 In reality, the failure of only four flight control computers may result in mechanical backup: Both ELACs and SEC 1 and 2 fail, all computerized pitch control is lost. In this case, because SEC 3 is still available, the side sticks can control roll using one spoiler on each wing, but pitch control is mechanical.


What is the ADIRS?

Air Data and Inertial Reference System


What are some of the parameters that the Air Data Reference System provides?

 Barometric altitude, airspeed, over speed warnings, temperature, angle of attack, mach.


What are some of the parameters the IR provides?

Attitude, Flight Path Vector (FPV), track, heading, acceleration, angular rates, groundspeed and aircraft position.


If there was an IR1/ADR1 FAULT, what should be done with the switching panel to display backup data appropriately?

ATT/HDG to Capt 3


If the AIR DATA portion of the #1 ADIRU failed, what should be done with the switching panel to display backup data appropriately?

Air Data to Capt 3


Explain the ADIRS Power-up and Initialization.

 Switch from OFF to NAV
 ON BAT light illuminates and then extinguishes
 White ALIGN light illuminates for the duration of alignment (only on A319/ A321)
 In A320s, the E/WD memo section displays “IRS IN ALIGN” during alignment and replaces the ALIGN lights on the overhead panel.


What is the importance of observing the ON BAT light?

It confirms the ADIRS ability to revert to aircraft battery power.


What are some indications of an ADIR having reverted to battery power on the ground?

 An external horn sounds
 An ADIRU & AVNCS light illuminates in blue on the external power panel.


What is the significance of a steady FAULT light on the IR?

IR has failed and cannot be recovered


What is the significance of a flashing FAULT light on the IR?

Navigation function is lost. Attitude and Heading may be recovered in ATT mode.


What could cause the flashing white ALIGN light to illuminate on the ground?

 PPOS not entered within 10 minutes of alignment or within 3 minutes of fast- alignment
 Large difference in LAT/LONG between shutdown position and entered position
 Aircraft movement during alignment.
 No align light on A320 – The E/WD memo section displays “IRS IN ALIGN”
during alignment and replaces ALIGN lights on the overhead panel. This memo flashes in green for the same reasons as the ALIGN lights flash on the other aircraft.


Describe what would happen if an ADR was selected OFF?

 The pilots would lose barometric altitude, airspeed, Mach, angle of attack, temperature and over speed warnings from that one ADR.
 The ECAM would instruct the pilot to select the AIR DATA SWTG to CAPT 3 or F/O 3 as appropriate.
 At that point the affected pilot’s side would return to normal.


What functions are lost when an IR is turned OFF?

 There are two ADIRS control panels installed on the fleet. On the older panel with a keypad and digital display, the pilot would lose the IR part (Inertial Reference) which supplies attitude, flight path vector, track, heading, accelerations, angular rates, ground speed, and aircraft position, along with all the ADR information. The ECAM instructs the pilot to select
the ATT HDG SWTG to CAPT 3 or F/O 3 as appropriate. At that point the
affected pilot's side returns to normal.
 The newer panel with no keypad and digital display allows the pilot to turn
off only the IR, and in this case, only the IR information would be lost and the ADR information would still be available.


If the RWY TURN OFF, LAND, and NOSE switches are all in the ON position, which lights automatically extinguish after takeoff?

The NOSE and RWY TURN OFF lights extinguish when the landing gear is retracted.


What is the difference between position 1 and 2 on the NAV & LOGO Toggle Switch?

Separate bulbs.


What position should the STROBE switch be in during preflight?



When do the strobes flash in AUTO?

When the computer logic considers the aircraft airborne.


What does the illumination APU MASTER SW FAULT indicate?

Automatic APU shutdown has occurred.


What is the significance of the APU AVAIL light illuminating?

APU is running above 99.5 % or 2 seconds after N speed reaching 95%. In practical terms it is ready to accept and support ELEC and/or AIR load.


What condition in the APU system would cause an external horn to sound?

APU fire.


With the APU green AVAIL light ON and the EXT PWR green AVAIL light on, which system is powering the aircraft?

2 Avails = APU powering the aircraft.


If possible, how would the APU be used if it has already started the cool- down cycle?

Pressing the APU MASTER SW pushbutton


When will the EXIT signs automatically illuminate?

 With the EMER EXIT LT switch in ARM, and normal AC power is lost.
 DC SHED ESS BUS not powered
 Cabin altitude is excessive (above 11,300 feet), NO SMOKING, FASTEN
SEAT BELT and EXIT signs illuminated.


What lights illuminate when normal aircraft electrical power fails?

Floor proximity emergency escape path-marking system
 Overhead emergency lighting


What lights illuminate when the EMER EXIT LT switch is placed to ON?

 Overhead emergency lighting
 Floor proximity emergency escape path marking system
 EXIT lights


What occurs when the EMER EXIT LT switch is placed to OFF?

 All lights OFF
 Amber EMER EXIT LT OFF light illuminates


Why do we place the NO SMOKING SIGN to AUTO instead of ON?

It allows the EMER EXT LT to charge their batteries.


What flight deck lighting is available if normal electrical power is lost?

 Captain’s instrument panel
 Right dome light (provided DOME switch set in DIM or BRT)
 Standby compass


How is the landing field elevation entered into the pressurization system in automatic, semi-automatic and manual modes?

 Automatic = FMGC (LDG ELEV must be in AUTO)
 Semi-automatic = by LDG ELEV selector button
 Manual = By selecting the MODE SEL to MAN and then using the MAN V/S
CTL toggle switch


What does selecting the DITCHING pushbutton ON accomplish?

 Closes the outflow valve
 Closes the emergency RAM AIR inlet
 Closes the Avionics Ventilation Inlet and Extract valves
 Closes pack flow control valves
 Forward cargo isolation outlet valve (if installed)
 Cargo recirculation fans stop automatically (if installed)
 Closes all valves below the waterline


How many controllers are in the pressurization system? Do they share the load?

Two, only one is used at a time and they swap roles after each landing.


How can a pilot manually switch controllers?

Switch MODE SEL to MAN for 10 seconds, then back to AUTO


What does an amber FAULT light in the MODE SEL pushbutton indicate?

Both automatic pressure controllers are faulty.


What protects the airframe from excessive cabin differential pressure?

Two pressure relief valves


What is accomplished if the WING anti ice pushbutton is selected ON while the aircraft is on the ground?

The system will self-test for 30 seconds, and then the valves will close until the aircraft is airborne.


What does the WING FAULT light illumination on the ANTI ICE panel indicate?

 Valve disagreement. (comes on momentarily when valve in transit)
 Low pressure


What does the ENG 1(2) FAULT light illumination on the ANTI ICE panel indicate?

Valve disagreement (comes on momentarily when valve in transit)


Describe the PROBE/WINDOW HEAT logic.

Probes and window heat come on automatically (probes LOW on ground/HIGH airborne) with at least one engine running or aircraft airborne.


What part of the wing is heated?

Outboard 3 slats.


In what position do the WING and ENGINE anti ice valves fail if electrical power is lost?

 Wing – valves CLOSE
 Engine – valves OPEN


What is the significance of high swept wings versus less swept wings in ice accumulation?

The more swept the wing, the less time for the moisture to attach.


A flight crew is arriving to the aircraft in DTW early in the morning and notice that cockpit windows are frosted over. What should the flight crew do?

Select the PROBE/WINDOW HEAT on. This must be selected off prior to takeoff in order to regain normal system logic.


The temperature outside is 2°C with visible moisture. What should the flight crew turn on?

ENG anti ice after engine start.


After takeoff, when should the flight crew turn on the WING anti ice?

WING anti ice can be used after the aircraft is in a clean wing and when conditions warrant its use.


Climbing through FL240 in visible moisture, the crew notices the TAT is - 22°C and the SAT is -45°C. What would be appropriate use of the ENG anti ice?

Engine anti ice may be turned OFF in this scenario. Engine anti ice is required when icing conditions exist or are expected except during climb or cruise when the SAT is below -40°C.


Starting a descent out of FL350 with visible moisture, the TAT is -32°C and SAT is -53°C, what would be appropriate use of the ENG anti ice?

Engine anti ice should be turned ON in this scenario. Engine anti ice is required when icing conditions exist or are expected except during climb or cruise when the SAT is below -40°C.


Descending through 10,000ft, the pilots notice ice accumulation on the cockpit windshield blades. What should they do?

Turn on the WING anti ice. WING anti ice may either be used to prevent or remove ice accumulation from the wing leading edges. After takeoff, WING anti ice can be used after the aircraft is in a clean wing configuration. Iceaccumulation can be detected by observing the ice indicator located between the two cockpit windshields or by observing the windshield wipers blades.


Can the WING anti ice be used on the approach and landing?

Yes but remember second segment climb performance could be affected if a go-around is performed.


What is TAT?

Total Air Temperature is also called Indicated Air Temperature (IAT) or Ram Air Temperature (RAT)


What is SAT?

Static Air Temperature is also called: Outside Air Temperature (OAT) or True Air Temperature


Should a flight crew use TAT or SAT when determining whether to turn anti ice systems on?

Remember TAT indicates when to turn anti ice ON. SAT indicates when it may be able to be turned OFF.


What is the difference between TAT and SAT known as?

The difference between TAT and SAT is called “ram rise (RR)” and is caused by compressibility and friction of the air at high velocities. See the sample effects of “ram rise (RR)” below:
Ground TAT +2 10000ft TAT -6 18000ft TAT -13 FL240 TAT -23 FL350 TAT -28
SAT +2 SAT -17 SAT -33 SAT -45 SAT -54


If PACK FLOW is selected to LO, NORM or HIGH and only the APU is providing BLEED AIR or one pack is selected OFF, what will the packs provide?

HIGH flow rate, since the flow rate function is automatic.


If the HOT AIR valve faults, what will happen to the temperature control system?

All trim air valves close and PACK 1 controls the cockpit temperature to the last selected value. PACK 2 controls the cabin to the averages selected by the FWD and AFT CABIN temperature selector knobs.


How are the PACKS controlled and operated?

Electrically controlled and pneumatically operated.


What are some potential causes for a PACK FAULT light?

 Low air pressure
 Compressor outlet overheat
 Pack outlet overheat


What are some potential causes for ENG BLEED FAULT light?

 Bleed overpressure
 Bleed overheat
 Wing or engine leak on the related side
 Bleed valve NOT closed during engine start
 Bleed valve NOT closed with the APU BLEED ON


What is the logic for the X-BLEED rotary selector?

 SHUT = the valve is closed.
 AUTO = open if the APU bleed valve is open; closed if APU bleed valve is
closed or there is a wing, pylon or APU leak (except during an engine start).
 OPEN = the valve is open.


What does APU BLEED FAULT illumination indicate?

APU bleed leak.


What does selecting the RAM AIR pushbutton accomplish?

Ram air inlet opens if the differential pressure is less than 1 PSI.


What is the RAM AIR pushbutton used for?

 Smoke removal in cabin
 Ventilation of cabin with a dual pack failure


How is the Bleed leak detection different on CEO and NEO aircraft?

If a Bleed Air Monitoring Computer (BMC) fails on NEO airplane, over temperature protection is lost on the affected side. Has no effect on CEO.


What is the minimum battery voltage?



What would a pilot do if BAT voltage is 25.5 or below on originating preflight?

Charge the batteries with external power by selecting BAT pushbuttons to AUTO


How long should the batteries be charged?

20 minutes, then recheck the voltage


Explain how to conduct the BAT check. What if it fails the test?

 Select ELEC on ECAM
 TurnBAT1&2OFFthenON
 Check BAT charge current is < 60 amps and decreasing within 10 seconds
 If it fails the test, call maintenance


Describe the electrical power system.

 The electrical power system consists of a three-phase 115/200-volt 400- hertz constant frequency AC system and a 28-volt DC
 Normally, the system produces alternating current, some of which is then transformed into direct current for certain applications.
 Each of the aircraft's three generators can supply the whole network.
 If all normal AC generation is lost, an emergency generator can supply AC
 If all AC generation is lost, the system can transform DC power from the
batteries into AC power.


If all AC power is lost, what happens?

DC power from the batteries is converted into AC.


What would be an expected indication in the GEN pushbuttons prior to engine start?

FAULT indication.


Define and describe an IDG.

 Integrated Drive Generator
 Takes variable engine output and gives a constant output.


How would a pilot disconnect an IDG?

Lift the red guard and push the IDG pushbutton, being careful not to hold the pushbutton for longer than three seconds


How would an IDG be reconnected?

This cannot be done by the flight crew – it is a maintenance function.


Describe the function of the BUS TIE in AUTO.

 Allows a single source of power to run entire electrical system
 Allows connection of the APU GEN or EXT power to system
 Inhibits multiple sources connected simultaneously


If GEN 1 fails to supply AC Bus 1, what happens?

Gen 2 (or APU GEN if available) powers the system through the bus tie.


How is the AC ESS bus normally powered?

From AC bus 1


If AC BUS 1 fails, how is the AC ESS bus powered?

AC bus 2 automatically feed the AC ESS bus.


What indication will be present on the ELEC panel that AC BUS 2 is feeding the AC ESS bus?

AC ESS FEED ALTN light illuminated


What does a GALLEY fault light indicate?

At least one generator load is above 100% rated output.


Explain the AUTO function of the GALLEY pushbutton.

Sheds main galley if only 1 GEN is available


How is the BATTERY BUS normally powered?

DC BUS 1 through the DC tie contactor


What buses are powered by the EMER GEN?

AC essential bus
DC essential bus by the essential TR


What is the difference of the APU GEN FAULT and the ENG GEN FAULT?

Both are indicators of a line contactor open. The difference is that the ENG GEN fault may also indicate a fault detected by the ENG GCU.


What does a BAT FAULT light indicate?

 Battery charging current outside limits.
 BAT contactor opens.


When are the batteries connected to the battery bus?

 APU start
 Battery charging
 AC BUS 1 & 2 not powered and airspeed below 100 knots


Describe the layout of the fuel tanks.

 The fuel tank layout depends on the specific aircraft.
 Fuel is stored in a center tank and wing tanks:
o On some aircraft the wing tanks are divided into inner tanks, outer tanks, and vent tanks.
o On some aircraft the wing tanks are not divided into inner and outer tanks, but still have vent tanks.


Generally, what is the total fuel capacity?

42,000 lbs (41,285)


Why is it possible for there to be a value higher than 42,000 lbs indicated on the ECAM FOB?

The fuel can expand by 2% without venting overboard


How many fuel pumps are on the aircraft and where are they located?

 There are seven total fuel pumps: two center tank pumps, four wing tank pumps, (two in each wing) and one APU fuel pump. On some aircraft, the center tank pumps are jet pumps, which transfer fuel from the center tank into the wing tanks.
 The APU pump is used when fuel feed pressure is low (due to loss of tank pumps or loss of normal AC electrical supply)


On an aircraft without jet pumps, explain the flow of fuel from before engine start to climb (assume full tanks).

 At engine start the fuel is fed from the wing tanks
 After both engines are started, the center tank pumps turn on and continue
to run for 2 minutes.
 If slats are selected within those 2 minutes, the center tank pumps will
continue to run until the time has elapsed, then they will stop.
 If the slats are extended at any other time, the center pumps will shut off.
 At takeoff, the engines feed fuel from their respective wing tanks.
 When slats are retracted to zero, the fuel is fed from the center tank.
 When the center tank runs low, the pumps continue to run for 5 min.


What does a fault light in one of the L(R) TK PUMPS pushbuttons indicate?

Low delivery pressure


What does a fault light in the MODE selector indicate?

Failure of the AUTO mode
Center tank has more than 550 lbs and either wing tank has less than
11,000 lbs


How would a pilot know that fueling is in progress?

REFUELG message appears on the ECAM. This does not mean the fuel is entering the tanks, merely that the refueling door is open.


Describe IDG cooling and how it relates to the FADEC.

 Some of the fuel supplied to each engine goes from the high-pressure fuel line in that engine, through the integrated drive generator (IDG) heat exchanger (where it absorbs heat), to the fuel return valve, and back to either the wing tank or outer tank, depending on the aircraft.
 This operation ensures IDG cooling when the oil temperature is high or when at low engine power.
 The FADEC controls the fuel return valve. The rate of return is approximately 660 lbs per hour during low IDG temperature and 1,100 lbs per hour during high IDG temperature.


On aircraft without jet pumps, what happens if returned IDG cooling fuel fills the wing tanks while the center tanks are feeding?

The center tank pumps will cut off until the wing tank quantity is reduced by 1,100 lbs.


What is the approximate fuel capacity of each outer fuel tank, when installed?

Approximately 1,500 lbs


When do the wing outer tanks drain into the inner tanks?

When the inner tank quantity reaches approximately 1,650 lbs.


If only one inner tank reaches 1,650 lbs, what happens to the other transfer valve?

All four transfer valves open.


Once opened to transfer fuel, how are the fuel transfer valves closed?

Automatically at the next refueling operation.


What are the three HYD systems called?



How is each system powered?

 GREEN – engine driven
 BLUE – electrically driven
 YELLOW – engine or electrically driven


When does the BLUE pump normally operate?

After the first engine is started


If the BLUE system lost pressure, how would pressure be restored?

The RAT must be deployed. It does not deploy automatically upon BLUE system loss of pressure, so it must be manually deployed with the RAT MAN ON pushbutton.


What can be done to correct low ACUM PRESS indication?

On the ground, coordinate with personnel and turn on the beacon and YELLOW ELEC pump


With no HYD system power, how can the FWD CARGO door be opened?

By using a hand pump


What causes the PTU to operate in if selected in AUTO?

 Differential pressure of 500 psi between GREEN and YELLOW systems
 After first engine start and until second engine starts, unless inhibited.


When is the PTU inhibited?

 On the ground with master switches split and either the nose wheel steering disconnected or the parking brake ON
 For 40 seconds after cargo door is operate


What are some users of the GREEN system?

 Landing gear
 Normal brakes
 Slats and flaps
 ENG 1 thrust reverser


What are some users of the BLUE system?

 Emergency generator  Slats


What are some users of the YELLOW system?

 Flaps
 Nose wheel steering
 Alternate brakes


What do the priority valves do in the HYD systems?

Removes hydraulic power from the heavy users and protects the flight controls.


What would cause a FAULT light in the ENG 1 pump?

 Pump low pressure
 Over temp in reservoir
 Low air pressure in reservoir
 Low quantity


If the FAULT light illuminated in the ENG 1 pump, what would identify the specific reason for the FAULT?

ECAM will display the reason


Where are the engine fire loops installed?

 Pylon nacelle
 Engine core
 Fan section


What happens if both fire loops fail simultaneously?

FIRE warning will be issued (if the failure occurs within 5 seconds)


What does an amber DISCH light mean?

Bottle has lost its pressure either by a fault or pilot selection


How many fire bottles are provided for each engine?



What happens when the ENG FIRE pushbutton is pushed?

 Silences the aural fire warning
 Arms the squibs
 Closes the hydraulic fire valve
 Closes the LP fuel valve
 Closes the engine fuel return valve after the IDG
 Deactivates the generator
 Closes the pack flow control
 Closes the engine bleed valves
 Deactivates FADEC


What happens when the ENG FIRE TEST button is pressed?

 Continuous Repetitive Chime (CRC) sounds
 MASTER WARNING lights flash
 ENG FIRE pushbutton illuminates red
 SQUIB and DISCH lights illuminate
 ECAM fire warning
 FIRE light on ENG panel


What would occur if the APU is running and an APU fire is detected on the ground? In flight?

 On the ground, APU EMER shut down and bottle discharge
 In the air – no automatic functions


What must the flight crew be aware of when doing a Manual Start on the ground or an Auto Start in the Air?

The crew must abort the start if something goes wrong


What are the primary differences between a manual and a normal automatic start?

 The FADEC provides full monitoring during a manual start and will provide appropriate ECAM cautions and procedures to follow in the event of a start fault
 Automatic start interruption and auto-crank are not available


What is the approximate time the engine will dry crank during an Automatic engine start?

 IAE V2500 = Approximately 30 Seconds
 PW1100G = Approximately 2 Minutes


With the ENG MODE selector in IGN/START what occurs when the ENG MAN START pushbutton is pressed?

 The start valve opens
 Both pack flow control valves close
 FADEC - ENG MODE selector set to NORM
o CEO - FADEC power supply remains powered for 5 minutes. o NEO - FADEC power supply is cut off.


What is the primary difference between the IAE V2500 and PW1100G engine?

The NEO PW1100G engine includes a Fan Drive Gear System (FDGS) which allows the low pressure turbine to operate at higher rotational speeds for peak efficiency while the engine’s fan can operate at lower speeds for optimum propulsion efficiency and lower noise levels.


At what point, if any will the start valve automatically close?

 IAE V2500 - At 43% N2 the start valve automatically closes.
 PW1100G - At 55% N2 the start valve automatically closes


When would it be appropriate to do a manual start?

 Degraded bleed performance (hot or high altitude airfield)
 Marginal performance of external air or APU air
 Tailwind greater than 10 knots
 After aborting a start because of:
o Engine stall
o Engine EGT over limit o N1 rotation
o Hung start
o IGN A/B Fault


What are some potential causes for the illumination of the BLOWER FAULT light?

 Low blower pressure
 Duct overheat
 Computer power supply failure
 Smoke warning activated


What are some potential causes for the illumination of the EXTRACT FAULT light?

 Low extract pressure
 Computer power supply failure
 Smoke warning activated


What condition in the avionics ventilation system would cause an external horn to sound?

 BLOWER FAULT or EXTRACT FAULT illumination on the ground with both engines stopped.


Describe the avionics ventilation system.

It is a fully automated system that considers the skin temperature and adjusts inlet and outlet flaps to optimize cooling and airflow.


Following a cargo smoke indication and subsequent discharge of the cargo smoke bottle, what would be the expected indication on the CARGO SMOKE panel?

The SMOKE light and associated ECAM warning may remain illuminated due to the halon concentration present in the cargo compartment


How many fire extinguishing bottles are there in the cargo extinguishing system?

Only one that has ducting to both FWD and AFT compartments, but the discharge can only be directed to one compartment.


What is the significance of the illumination of the HOT AIR FAULT light?

Duct overheat is detected.


What is the significance of the illumination of the AFT ISOL VALVE FAULT light?

Either the inlet or the outlet valve is not in the selected position.


When would the AUDIO SWITCHING be used?

Enables Captain or First Officer to utilize the overhead Audio Control Panel in case of individual ACP failure.


Do the pilots use the maintenance panel?

Only if an MEL required pressurization of the BLUE system on the ground with the engines OFF.


Which pushbutton would be used?

The BLUE PUMP OVRD pushbutton


If a mechanic pressed the APU AUTO EXTING TEST pushbutton what would occur?

The APU would shut down.


What is the significance of black and green circuit breakers?

 Green – monitored by ECAM
 Black – not monitored by ECAM


What is the significance of a red collared circuit breaker?

The flight crew should not pull or manipulate these collared circuit breakers.


What are the main components of the FMGS?

 2 FMGCs
 2 MCDUs  1FCU
 2FACs


What are the functions of the FMGCs?

 Flight guidance
 Flight management


What are the three modes of FMGC operation?

 Independent
 Single
 Dual


What are the two modes of flight guidance?

 Managed guidance
 Selected guidance


What is the managed mode of flight guidance used for?

Long-term lateral, vertical, and speed profiles as determined by the FMGS.


What is the selected mode of flight guidance used for?

Temporary lateral, vertical, and speed commands as selected with the FCU.


Does selected or managed guidance have priority?

Selected guidance


What does ACTIVATE/CONFIRM APPR phase do for the pilot?

Allows thrust and speed target to follow a predetermined schedule, based on flap selection:
o F0 = green dot
o F1=Sspeed
o F2=Fspeed
o F3 = F speed or VAPP (depending on landing flap selection) o F4 = VAPP
 If using managed speed, GSMINI is available. If using selected speed, GSMINI is not available.


What type of database is periodically updated in the FMGS?

Navigation database


Can the crew modify data in the navigation database?

The crew has limited ability to create pilot stored navigational data.


How would a flight crew determine the validity of the navigation database?

On the A/C STATUS page.


What input does each FMGC normally use for position determination?

A hybrid IRS/GPS position.


What is the normal operational mode of the FMGS?

Dual mode, with one FMGS as master and the other FMGS as slave


How does autopilot selection influence master FMGS logic?

 If one autopilot is engaged, the respective FMGS is master
 If both autopilots are engaged, FMGS 1 will be the master
 If no autopilot is engaged FMGS 1 is the master


If an amber OFF SIDE FM CONTROL message is displayed on the ND what action should the crew take?

An FMGS has failed and both NDs must be set to the same mode and range. The full procedure can be found in the COM.


In cruise flight with AP1 engaged, what would happen if AP2 was selected?

The AP2 would takeover, and AP1 would disengage. It is only possible to engage both autopilots in the approach phase after selection of the APPR pushbutton.


What is the difference between the large and small fonts utilized in the MCDU?

 Large – Pilot entries and modifiable data
 Small – Default or computed, non-modifiable data


When would a Takeoff Shift be entered on the PERF TO page?

When takeoff begins at a runway intersection with NO GPS PRIMARY


If the FLEX TEMP is not entered on the TAKEOFF page of the MCDU, and the thrust levers are positioned in the FLEX detent, what will occur and what should be done?

 A warning will be generated
 Thrust levers should me moved into the TOGA detent and a max thrust
takeoff should be accomplished.


Where would a pilot enter the Zero Fuel Weight?

INIT B page


What do amber box prompts on the MCDU indicate?

An entry is mandatory.


What occurs when managed NAV mode is engaged and the aircraft flies into a flight plan discontinuity?

NAV mode will be lost and the HDG/TRK mode engages.


What are some causes for an AUTOLAND light?

 Excessive LOC or GS deviation or signal failure
 Radio altimeter difference of greater than 15 feet
 Both autopilots fail


What is an appropriate response to an AUTOLAND warning light illuminating below 200 feet RA?

Immediate go-around


What should be selected on the EFIS panel during the Cockpit Preparation?

 ARC or ROSE NAV (more than 70 degree turn after takeoff)
 Minimum range to display the first fix, and pertinent weather
 Other selections as appropriate


If a HDG is pre-selected (not pulled) to the FCU HDG window prior to takeoff, what lateral mode will be active after liftoff?



If MANAGED LATERAL DOT is displayed next to the FCU HDG window prior to takeoff, what lateral mode will be active after liftoff?



What does each column mean on the PFD?



How is the crew made aware of mode changes on the FMA?

A white box is temporarily displayed around the new indication.


How are armed modes displayed on the FMA?

 Blue – armed
 Magenta – armed because of a constraint
 Green – engaged


When going around in the A320 NEO, if the FMA displays an amber message reading, “FOR GA: SET TOGA”, what action should the pilot take?

 The Pilot should move the thrust levers into the TOGA detent.
 When AP/FD is in approach vertical mode and aircraft is below 1000 ft RA,
this message is displayed if all thrust levers are moved to or above the MCT detent, but below the TOGA detent.


When is the side stick position indication icon (white cross) displayed?

 Displayed when the first engine is started
 Disappears at liftoff


What would the large red arrowheads indicate?

Pitch attitude of +30°


After loading an ILS approach into the MCDU and selecting the (I)LS pushbutton, what indications on should be present on the PFD?

 ILS frequency and course
 ILS identifier (once in range and identified)
 LOC and GS scales


When would the sideslip index change from yellow to blue?

In case of an engine failure during takeoff/go-around, it becomes a blue beta target.


What does the yellow speed trend line on the airspeed display indicate?

The speed the aircraft will reach in 10 seconds if acceleration/deceleration remains constant.


What is the difference between the magenta and blue target airspeeds?

 Magenta – Managed speed computed by the FMGC
 Blue – Selected speed on the FCU


What is VLS and how is it displayed?

 Represents lowest selectable speed providing an appropriate margin to the stall speed
 Defined by the top of the amber strip along the airspeed scale
 In approach mode, it is equivalent to VREF


What speed does VMAX represent and how is it displayed?

 It is the lowest of VMO/VMMO, VLE or VFE
 Defined by the bottom of a red and black strip along the speed scale


What is Green Dot speed?

 Engine out operating speed in clean configuration
 Appears when the aircraft is in the clean configuration
 Corresponds to the best lift-to-drag ratio


What is Ground Speed Mini (GSMINI)?

 Based on a calculated groundspeed at the runway
 Protects against actual groundspeed dropping below this calculated groundspeed


What does it mean if the magenta target airspeed triangle is above VAPP on the approach?

GSMINI has increased speed due to a higher headwind component at the present location.


What is the significance of the altitude window changing from yellow to amber?

The aircraft has deviated from the FCU selected altitude or flight level.


When is altitude alerting automatically inhibited in flight?

 When slats are extended with the landing gear down
 On approach after glide slope capture


What does it mean when the altitude digits change from green to amber?

The aircraft has descended below the MDA/DH entered into the FMGC.


When is radio height displayed on the PFD?

Below 2,500 feet


Information from ILS receiver 1 is displayed where?

 Captain’s PFD
 First Officer’s ND


What would a flashing amber ILS indicate on the bottom of the PFD?

Flashes amber when APPR mode is armed and the ILS PUSHBUTTON is not selected.


Is a visual warning provided to the pilot if the aircraft is stalling?

 Non NEO Aircraft = No visual indication
 NEO Aircraft= STALL warning indication on PFD


What displays or modes are available on the ND?

 Rose ILS
 Rose VOR
 Rose NAV


What colors are used to represent the various displayed flight plans?

 Active – continuous green line
 Secondary – continuous white line
 Temporary – dashed yellow line
 Alternate – dashed blue line
 Missed approach – continuous blue line


“Top of Descent” and “Continue Descent” arrows are displayed in blue or white. What is the difference?

 Top of Descent – Always white (never armed)
 Continue Descent – Blue indicates armed, white indicates NOT armed


What color does each altitude constraint circle represent?

 White – constraint is not taken into account
 Magenta – constraint is predicted to be satisfied
 Amber – constraint is predicted to be missed


If the FCU fails, what mode and distance range should be expected on the ND?

ROSE NAV and 80 nm range.


Where is VOR data displayed?

Both NDs and the DDRMI if installed


What are the 3 levels of ECAM Malfunction Notifications?

 Level 3: WARNINGS – Associated with the red MASTER WARN light, CRC, and require immediate action
 Level 2: CAUTIONS – Associated with the amber MASTER CAUTION light, single chime, and require crew awareness
 Level 1: ALERTS – Associated with amber E/WD message, no aural signal, and requires crew monitoring


If simultaneous failures occur, how will they be presented to the crew?

A Level 3 WARNING has priority over a Level 2 CAUTION, which has priority over a Level 1 ALERT.


What types of failures are presented to the crew?

 Independent – Failure affecting an isolated system/item without degrading other systems/items
 Primary – Failure of a system/item that affects the use of other systems/items
 Secondary – Loss of a system/item resulting from a primary failure


Where on the E/WD would the crew find primary failures?

On the lower left portion of the screen.


What indication does the E/WD provide for secondary failures?

Secondary failures are displayed on the lower right portion of the E/WD and are preceded by an asterisk ( * ).


What does the appearance of a green arrow indicate at the bottom of the E/WD screen?

Information has overflowed off the screen and the pilot must scroll down using the CLR pushbutton on the ECAM panel.


What does the display of T.O. INHIBIT or LDG INHIBIT indicate?

Most warnings and cautions are inhibited to avoid unnecessary distractions during critical phases of flight.


What types of warnings are NOT inhibited with T.O INHIBIT displayed?



What are the Takeoff Configuration Warnings/Cautions?

 FLEX TEMP NOT SET (unless thrust levers in TOGA detent)


When does the Takeoff Memo appear and disappear?

 Two minutes after the 2nd engine is started or when the T.O. CONFIG TEST pushbutton is pressed with one engine running
 Memo is removed when takeoff power is applied


When does the Landing Memo appear and disappear?

 Below 2,000 feet RA with gear down; or 800 feet RA with gear up.
 Below 2,000 feet RA regardless of gear position (aircraft with new FWC)
 Memo disappears after touchdown (80 knots) 


What does the boxed STS indicate when displayed on the E/WD?

The STATUS page holds messages other than CANCELLED CAUTIONS
 Flashes after engine shutdown to alert maintenance of any other applicable


In general, when are the system pages automatically displayed on the SD?

 Relative to the current phase of flight, or
 When a system malfunction is detected


When is a STATUS page displayed?

 After a failure is displayed on the SD and all failure items have been cleared
 Display will reappear when the slats are extended


What is the function of the two Landing Gear Control and Interface Units (LGCIUs)?

 Provide sequencing, operation, monitoring, and indications for the landing gear.
 Provide aircraft “In Flight” or “On the Ground” signals to other aircraft systems


What hydraulic system powers the landing gear and doors?



If performing a gravity gear extension, what is one consideration concerning hydraulic power?

Hydraulic power is no longer available to the landing gear system (it is bypassed).


When does the red arrow in the LND panel illuminate?

Below 750 feet RA, when the aircraft is in the landing configuration and the landing gear is not locked down.


What happens if airspeed is 280 knots and the Landing Gear lever is selected DOWN?

Nothing. A safety valve shuts off hydraulic power to the landing gear system when airspeed is above 260 knots.


What do the red UNLK lights indicate?

The landing gear is not locked in the selected position.


What controls the LDG GEAR lights?



If LGCIU 1 fails will the lights still work?

Yes, as long as it is still powered.


What controls and manages all braking functions?

The Brake and Steering Control Unit (BSCU)


What happens when the A/SKID & N/W STRG is switched OFF?

 Loss of nose wheel steering
 Braking is powered by the YELLOW system
 Anti-skid is deactivated


Which hydraulic systems provide pressure to the brakes?

 Normal brakes – GREEN
 Alternate brakes – YELLOW backed up by a hydraulic accumulator


When do the Auto Brakes activate on landing if armed?

When the ground spoilers deploy.


What is the difference between LOW and MED AUTO BRK?

 LOW – progressive pressure applied to brakes 4 seconds after ground spoilers deploy in order to decelerate the aircraft at a rate of 5.6 ft./s2
 MED – progressive pressure applied to brakes 2 seconds after ground spoilers deploy in order to decelerate the aircraft at a rate of 9.8 ft./s2


What does the AUTO BRK green DECEL light indicate?

Actual rate of deceleration is within 80% of the selected rate.


What is the Takeoff setting for Auto Brakes?



What will cause the MAX AUTO BRK to activate on a rejected takeoff?

 Airspeed above 72 knots, and
 Thrust levers at IDLE, and
 Ground spoiler extension


What is the impact of the loss of GREEN hydraulic pressure on the Auto Brakes?

The Auto Brake function is lost, because the aircraft is now relying on the alternate brake system.


If on the alternate brake system, what is required in order to maintain Anti- skid function, if anything?

At least 1 channel of the BSCU


What would happen to the spoilers if they were not armed, but at least one engine was selected into reverse thrust?

They would still deploy, even if they were not armed


How many brake applications are available with accumulator pressure?

Approximately 7 full applications


What is the maximum brake temperature for takeoff?

300°C and BRK FANS OFF


What does the BRAKES & ACCU PRESS triple indicator indicate?

 YELLOW hydraulic pressure delivered to the left and right brakes
 YELLOW system brake accumulator pressure


Describe the procedure for the brake check prior to taxi. What is the significance of the callouts?

 Press the brake pedals to ensure the aircraft slows, and check the brake pressure on the triple indicator is zero.
 Calling out “pressure zero” indicates the GREEN hydraulic system has taken over, and the normal braking system is operational.


What computers feed data to the six display units?

Three Display Management Computers (DMC)


What do each of the DMCs normally supply?

 DMC 1 – Captain PFD, Captain ND, “Upper” ECAM DU (E/WD), and “Lower” ECAM DU (SD)
 DMC 2 – First Officer PFD, First Officer ND
 DMC 3 – Backup


If there are any automatic functions of the DMCs in the event of a failure, explain the automatic logic.

If DMC 1 fails (or DMC3 if “CAPT 3” was selected), DMC 2 automatically drives the ECAM.


What are the indications on the DUs if a DMC has failed?

“INVALID DATA” will be displayed in the respective EFIS/ECAM display unit.


What happens when the upper ECAM display fails?

The E/WD automatically replaces the SD on the lower ECAM display.


If both the E/WD and SD display units fail, how can the E/WD information be displayed?

By selecting the ECAM/ND XFR switch to CAPT or F/O


If the UPPER DISPLAY knob is switched to OFF what will occur?

The E/WD display would automatically transfer to the “lower” display.


With the E/WD displayed on the “lower” screen, what steps should be taken to view SD information?

Press and hold the appropriate system button on the ECAM CONTROL panel. The information selected will be available for 30 seconds.


What does the ALL pushbutton do?

 Displays ALL the system pages successively in 1-second intervals when held down
 Release the pushbutton to maintain display of the selected page


What does pressing the RCL pushbutton do?

 Allows the flight crew to review any warning or caution messages that the CLR pushbutton or flight phase inhibition may have suppressed
 If held longer than 3 seconds, the E/WD will show any caution messages suppressed by the EMER CANC pushbutton


If the STS pushbutton is pressed and the system has no STATUS messages, what will be displayed?

“NORMAL” for 5 seconds


What occurs during the Before Takeoff Flow when the T.O. CONFIG pushbutton is pressed?

 The system simulates the application of takeoff power and checks certain systems for proper configuration
 A warning is displayed if a system is not configured properly
 “TO CONFIG NORMAL” is displayed in the TO MEMO section if the
configuration is correct


Describe the FO Preliminary Cockpit Preparation actions on the ECAM control panel.

 Recall – check old warnings
 DOORS – check oxygen quantity
 HYD – check quantity
 ENG – check oil quantity


Should the ECAM control panel fail, what functions are available as hard- wired buttons?



What does the EMER CANC accomplish?

 Cancels the audio for warning messages (without removing any ECAM message)
 Cancels the present caution for the rest of the flight
 Calls up the STATUS page, which displays “CANCELLED CAUTION” and the TITLE of the failure
 Inhibited message can be recalled by holding RCL for more than three


What is the purpose of having the EMER CANC pushbutton?

Used to cancel spurious MASTER CAUTIONS


How is the Trimmable Horizontal Stabilizer (THS) normally operated in flight?

The flight control computers control trim functions automatically.


If no hydraulic power is available, what is the impact on the THS?

The THS requires hydraulic power from the GREEN or YELLOW systems in order to function.


If possible, how can the THS be positioned after a complete flight control computer failure occurs?

Mechanical trimming is possible by manually positioning the pitch trim wheel.


Explain what would happen if a pilot were to reach down and move the pitch trim wheel when all systems are working normally.

The trim will can be turned manually. However, manual inputs have priority over computer inputs, so the autopilot would disconnect (if engaged).


What happens to the THS after landing?

The trim automatically resets to zero.


What controls the engines in all operating regimes?

FADECs (Full Authority Digital Engine Controls)


What functions does the FADEC control?

 Fuel metering
 Engine limits based on thrust lever angle
 Start sequencing
 Provides engine indications and thrust limit displays on the E/WD


What redundancy does the FADEC have?

Dual channel redundancy – one channel is active while the other is standby.


What is the power source for the FADEC?

 The system has its own alternator making it independent of the aircraft electrical system when N2 is above10%
 If this alternator fails the FADEC automatically switches to aircraft electrical power


When will the FADEC abort an automatic start?

 Hot start
 Stalled start
 No ignition


The FADEC detects a fault during automatic start. What crew intervention is required?

 There is no crew intervention necessary. The FADEC will discontinue the start, clear the engine, and attempt a restart (if warranted) automatically.


When does the FADEC command a higher engine idle speed?

 Bleed demands
 Approach configuration
 High engine or IDG temperatures


How many igniters fire during a normal automatic ground start sequence?

 One igniter with the other serving as a backup
 The FADEC automatically alternates the igniters (A and B) at each start


How many igniters fire on manual or in-flight starts?

 Two, both A and B


When does continuous ignition automatically operate?

 NEO Aircraft
o Engine flameout detection
o Failure of the EIU
o In-flight unscheduled sub idle or surge
o Master switch cycled from ON to OFF then back to ON position
 Non-NEO Aircraft
o All of the above
o Engine anti ice ON
o Approach idle
o MAX/FLEX power selected


What are the 5 detent positions of the thrust levers?

 TOGA – Take Off/Go Around
 FLX / MCT – Flex/ Maximum Continuous Thrust
 CL – Climb
 IDLE – Idle
 MAX REV – Maximum Reverse Thrust


On the ground, how can the A/THR be armed?

 By setting the thrust levers in the TOGA or FLEX gate (with a FLEX temperature inserted in the MCDU)
 At least one FD must be ON for A/THR to arm during takeoff


What is the active range of the A/THR?

 Just above IDLE to the CL detent (2 engines)
 Just above IDLE to the MCT detent (1 engine)


What is the normal operational position of the thrust levers when A/THR is active?

 The CL detent


What determines the maximum thrust the A/THR system will be able to command?

 The thrust lever angle


What are three ways to disconnect the A/THR?

 A/THR pushbutton
 Instinctive disconnect pushbuttons
 Thrust levers to IDLE


What is the preferred method of disconnecting A/THR?

 Set the thrust lever angle to the existing EPR and push the instinctive disconnect pushbuttons


How would the A/THR be disconnected for the remainder of the flight?

 Press and hold the instinctive disconnect pushbutton for 15 seconds. The A/THR cannot be re-engaged once this is done. ALPHA FLOOR is also lost if this is done.


What happens to thrust and what annunciates on the FMA during ALPHA FLOOR?

 Thrust – TOGA


When does the aircraft leave ALPHA FLOOR and what does the FMA change to?

 Upon reaching a lower angle of attack. The FMA changes to “TOGA LK”


Following ALPHA FLOOR, how would the crew return normal A/THR function?

 Press the instinctive disconnect pushbutton
 Return thrust levers to CL detent
 Push the A/THR pushbutton to engage A/THR


When is ALPHA FLOOR protection active?

 From lift-off through 100 feet RA on approach


When would Thrust Lock occur?

 Thrust levers in CL detent and A/THR pushbutton on the FCU is pushed, or
 A/THR disconnects due to a failure


How is A/THR normally armed?

By advancing the thrust levers to TOGA or FLX


What would be the normal FMA indications during a takeoff roll using FLEX thrust on a RWY with a localizer?



What would the FMA indications be during a takeoff roll using TOGA thrust on a runway without a localizer?



What would the FMA indications be during takeoff roll if the A/THR didn't arm on a runway with a localizer? Should the takeoff be aborted?

 Continuing the takeoff is a safe option, but the thrust levers must be moved
to the climb detent at thrust reduction altitude and the crew must manually engage A/THR.


How should A/THR be turned off?

 Match the blue thrust lever angle indicators to the present thrust setting and push the instinctive disconnect pushbuttons or move THRUST LEVERS to IDLE


What should the pilot do to get out of TOGA LOCK?

 Push the instinctive disconnect pushbuttons and move the THRUST LEVERS to the CL detent


What should the pilot do to get out of THRUST LOCK?

Match the thrust lever angle with ENG output


What is the A/THR active zone for two-engine operations?

From slightly above IDLE to CL


What is the A/THR active zone for single-engine operations?

From slightly above IDLE to MCT


What controls the engine LP fuel valves?

 Engine MASTER switch
 ENGINE FIRE pushbutton


What does a FAULT light on the ENG panel indicate?

 Automatic start abort
 Switch disagreement between HP valve and its commanded position


If icing conditions exist on the ground, how is the Engine Run-up procedure different for NEO and non-NEO aircraft?

 IAE V2500 = Accelerate to Minimum of 50% N1
at intervals not more than 15 minutes apart
 PW1100G = Accelerate to Minimum of 60% N1
at intervals not more than 30 minutes apart


If during start, the ground crew reports a fuel leak from the engine, what should be done by the flight crew?

 IAE V2500 = Run the engine for 5 minutes, if leak disappears, the flight can
continue without Maintenance action
 PW1100G = Abort the engine start sequence, Maintenance action is


How is Approach Idle different on NEO vs non-Neo aircraft?

 Non-NEO Minimum Approach Idle Speed occurs when: o Aircraft is in flight and the flaps are extended
 NEO Minimum Approach Idle Speed occurs when:
o Aircraft is in flight and the flaps are at CONF 3 or FULL or when the
landing gear is down


How many transponders are installed?



What does illumination of the ATC FAIL light indicate?

Only the selected transponder has failed.


When selecting the flap lever to 1 after the flaps have been at CONF 2 or higher, what setting will the flaps and slats go to?

 This configuration has a maximum speed 215 knots, with automatic
retraction of flaps occurring at 210 knots.


What is the normal flap setting for a go-around?

Retract one step


How are the flaps and slats affected if only GREEN hydraulic system pressure available?

The flaps and slats will still operate, but at half speed


What system prevents flap or slat asymmetry?

Wing Tip Brakes (WTB)


What causes the WTBs to activate?

 Runaway
 Over speed (flaps)
 Asymmetry
 Movement (un-commanded)


If the WTBs activate due to a flap asymmetry, how are the slats affected?

The slats can still operate normally - only flap operation is inhibited.


How many Slat/Flap Control Computers (SFCC) are installed?



What would occur if one SFCC failed?

The slats and flaps would continue to operate, but at half speed.


What flap/slat configurations correspond to position 1 on the FLAPS lever and how do they differ?

 CONF 1+F is used for takeoff and provides both slats (position 1) + flaps
 CONF 1 is used in-flight and is slats only


When will the Automatic Retraction System (ARS) operate?

During acceleration in CONF 1+F, the flaps (not slats) will automatically retract to 0 at 210 knots.



This function inhibits retracting flaps/slats from 1 to 0 at a high angle of attack and low airspeed.


When the FLAP legend appears in cyan on the E/WD, what is indicated?

Flaps/slats in transit


What happens to the ailerons when the flaps are extended?

The ailerons droop


Is there any landing configuration when speed brake extension is inhibited?

 A319/A320 – Flaps FULL
 A321 – Flaps 3 and FULL


Discuss the ground spoiler logic on a rejected takeoff.

 If the ground spoilers are armed and the speed exceeds 72 knots, the ground spoilers will automatically extend as soon as both thrust levers are set to idle.
 If the ground spoilers are not armed and the speed exceeds 72 knots, the
ground spoilers will automatically extend as soon as reverse is selected on
one engine (the other thrust lever remains at idle).
 Therefore, selecting at least idle reverse will always provide ground spoiler


When will the ground spoilers automatically retract?

 Thrust levers at IDLE and speed brake lever is down
 When at least one thrust lever is advanced above IDLE


When is speed brake extension inhibited?

 SEC 1 and 3 failed
 L or R elevator failed
 Angle of Attack protection is active
 Flaps in CONF FULL (A319/A320)
 Flaps in CONF 3 or FULL (A321)
 Thrust levers above the MCT position
 ALPHA FLOOR is active


In flight, what happens if a spoiler fault is detected or electrical power is lost?

The spoilers automatically retract.


What capabilities does the RADAR system have?

 Weather avoidance
 Turbulence detection
 Terrain mapping
 Predictive windshear detection


What would prevent the weather display on the ND?

 Mode selector in PLAN
 TERR selected ON


When is WX/TURB mode available?

At ranges of 40 nm or less


How would a flight crew analyze windshear with the RADAR system off?

 If the PWS switch is in AUTO, windshear detection is still available, even though the RADAR system is off.


What is the scanned area of the predictive windshear detection feature?

 Up to 5 nm ahead of the aircraft when the aircraft is below 1,500 feet AGL.


When are predictive windshear alerts inhibited?

 When on the ground above 100 knots until reaching 50 feet AGL
 When landing below 50 feet AGL


How many RADAR systems are installed?



How are the communications radios controlled?

From any one of the three Radio Management Panels (RMPs)


Which RMP is powered in the Emergency Electrical Configuration?



Which communication radios are powered in the Emergency Electrical Configuration?



What would cause the SEL indicator to illuminate on both RMPs?

When a communication radio normally associated with one RMP is tuned by another RMP.


What is the significance of selecting the NAV key on an RMP?

 The FMGS cannot auto-tune navaids
 The RMP now controls the VOR/ILS receivers
 NAV key on RMP 3 has no effect
 Normal radio communication is still available


If RMP 1 fails, how can VHF 1 still be used?



With the INT/RAD switch on the ACP in the INT position, and the side stick transmit switch keyed, what radio will the crewmember transmit on?

The radio selected by the transmission key on the ACP.


What methods would the crew utilize to make a PA announcement?

 The flight deck handset dedicated to the PA system only
 Pressing the PA switch on the ACP and using the boom, hand, or mask
microphone (louder)


What effect does setting the parking brake have on other braking modes?

All other braking modes and anti-skid are deactivated.


When brake accumulator pressure is low, how is it recharged?



How is the parking brake activated when turning the parking brake switch ON?



How can the crew verify the parking brake is set?

 Triple indicator brake pressure


If during an engine start with the parking brake ON, the aircraft starts to move due to a parking brake failure, what are the appropriate actions?

Release the PARKING BRAKE handle to restore normal braking with the pedals


What is the thrust limitation with the parking brake ON?

EPR 1.15 should not be exceeded


When hand flying the aircraft how can the rudder be trimmed, if at all possible?

Using the RUDDER TRIM rotary switch


What happens if the rudder trim is manipulated with the autopilot engaged?



What is the RESET button used for?

To quickly reset the rudder trim to 0. This will not operate with the autopilot engaged.


What would be felt in the rudder pedals from the yaw damping or turn coordination functions?

Nothing. There is no feedback from these systems on the rudder pedals.


What three things occur when the manual gear extension handle is turned?

 GREEN hydraulic pressure is removed
 Gear doors are opened
 Uplocks are unlocked.


How many turns does it take to lower the gear manually?



What hydraulic system supplies nose wheel steering?



The steering hand wheels can steer the nose wheel up to how much in each direction?

+/- 75° from center


When using the rudder pedals for steering, when does the steering angle begin to reduce?

Starts reduction at 40 knots and progressively reduces to 0° at 130 knots.


What does the rudder PEDAL DISC button on the steering hand wheel do?

Pressing the button removes control of nose wheel steering from the rudder pedals until released.


What would occur if the A/SKID & N/W STRG switch were selected to OFF?

 Nose wheel steering is lost
 Anti-skid is deactivated
 YELLOW hydraulic system would supply the brakes