Other antimicrobialss Flashcards

(236 cards)

1
Q

iodoquinolMOA

A

unknown

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Atovaquone contraindications

A

pregnancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

bithionol MOA

A

uncouples ox-phos

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Amphotericin B MOA

A

ergosterol-creates pores

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Praziquantel MOA

A

increase permeability to Ca2+

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

pentamidine MOA

A

inhibit DNA replication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Sulfadoxine MOA

A

PABA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

echinocandins MOA

A

beta (1,3)-D-glucan–cell wall

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

bactrim use

A
pneumocystis pnuemonia (DOC)
prophylaxis against P. jirovecii in AIDS pts
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

schistosomes DOC

A

Praziquantel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What antifungal has good CNS penetration?

A

flucytosine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

albendazole/mebendazole MOA

A

binds to tubulin–inhibits polymerazation and uptake of glucose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

chloroquine MOA

A

interfere w/ lysosomal degradation of Hgb

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

other than TB, what can be treated with Rifampin?

A

Leprosy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Ivermectin MOA

A

paralyzes–intensifies GABA-mediated transmission of signals in peripheral nn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

most common malaria species

A

P. vivax

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Ethambutol MOA

A

inhibits arabinosyl transferase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

dapsone MOA

A

PABA antagonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

e. hystolytica DOC

A

metronidazole+luminal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Pyrazinamide MOA

A

unknown

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what is used to treat mycobacterium avium complex

A
  1. Clarithromycin or azithromycin
  2. Ethambutol
  3. Rifabutin or Rifampin or cipro
    * R to clarithromycin–IV amikacin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

<p>echinocandins spectrum</p>

A

invasive aspergillus in refractory pts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

pyrantel/pamoate MOA

A

cholinesterase inhibitor–depolarizing NM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Pyrazinamide adverse effects

A

hepatic dysfunction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
what drugs can be used for latent TB?
monotherapy:RifampinIsonazid
26
contraindications for chloraquine
psoriasis | porphyria (hematological)
27
dapsone adverse effects
nasal obstruction
28
DOC for crytpococcus
flucytosine w/ amphotericin B
29
adverse effects of amphotericin B
immediate: chills, feverover time: nephrotoxicity (irreversible)
30
side effects of griseofulvin
HA
31
what anti-protozoal has CNS penetration?
metronidazole
32
Mefloquine MOA

unknown

33
what is thalidomide used for?
moderate-severe erythema nodosum leprosum*teratogenic
34
Rifampin MOA
inhibits DNA dependent RNA polymerase
35
contraindications for griseofulvin
acute porphyria hepatocellular failure pregnancy/men w/in 6 mos of fathering child
36
azoles MOA
inhibits synthesis of ergosterol--inhibit growth
37
Isoniazid MOA
inhibits synthesis of mycotic acid--requires KatG
38
contraindications for emetine+dehydroemetine
renal insufficiency cardiac problems pregnancy
39
bactrim MOA
folate metabolism
40
Artemisinins MOA
unknown
41
tetracycline/erythromycin MOA
inhibit food source
42
onychomycosis DOC
griseolfulvin
43
echinocandins
caspofungin micafungin anidulafungin
44
g. lamblia DOC
metronidazole
45
pneumocystis pneumonia DOC
bactrim
46
Lumefantrine adverse effects
headacheQT prolongation
47
nystatin spectrum
candida infection
48
treatment for leprosy with 1-5 patches
Rifampin + Dapsone x6 mos
49
adverse effects of pentamidine
hypoglycemia hypotension arrthythmias
50
adverse effects of Isoniazid
``` liver damage peripheral neuritis drug-induced SLE CNS stimulation hemolysis (G6PDd) ```
51
Primaquine MOA
unknown
52
griseofulvin MOA
binds to microtbules
53
Rifabutin
same as Rifampin but milder and not quite as effective
54
Amphotericin B DOC
most systemic fungal infections
55
bithional spectrum
flukes
56
pentamidine use
P. jrovecii
57
Ethambutol adverse effects
decreased visual acuity | loss of green-red vision
58
PCNs of antifungals
echinocandins
59
ivermectin spectrum
roundworms
60
pyrimethamine+sulfadiazine adverse effects
high dose--hematalogic disorder
61
ivermectin adverse effects
puritustender LNs fever
62
which malarial species has R against chloroquine? and how/
R. falciparum | transport pump
63
Iodoquinol use
e. hystolitical--intestinal | asymptomatic
64
t. vaginalis DOC
metronidazole
65
Flucytosine MOA
metabolic antagonism of fungal DNA/RNA-- converted to 5FU
66
Primaquine contraindications
SLE, RA-granulocytopenia | pregnancy, <6 mos, breast feeding- fetal hemolytic anemia
67
paromycin MOA
aminoglycoside--30S
68
adverse effects of emetine+dehydroemetine
cardiotoxicity GI teratogenicity
69
iodoquinol adverse effects
iodine-induced thyroid enlargement
70
malaria species with secondary tissue formation
P. vivaxP. ovale
71
Proguanil and Pyrimethamine MOA
inhibit DHFR
72
what drug has to be administered with folinic acid? and what is it called?
pyrimethamine+sulfadiazineleucovorin
73
toxoplasmosis DOC
pyrimethamine+sulfadiazine
74
Atovaquone MOA
mitochondrial ETC, ATP synthesis, pyrimidine synthesis
75
paromycin use
luminal--with metronidazole asymptomatic giardiasis, t. vaginalis
76
Lumefantrine MOA
unknown
77
adverse effects albendazole/mebendazole
+/- embryonic/teratogenic
78
mefloquine adverse effects
seziures, psychoses, vivid dreams | cardiotoxicity
79
albendazole/mebendazole spectrum
broad-roundworm
80
What drug can stimulate insulin release?
quinine
81
adverse effects of flucytosine
depression of bone marrow GI increased ALT/AST (reversible)
82
Rifampin adverse effects
potent inducer of P450s decreased BC efficacy *orange secretions
83
emetine+dehydroemetine use
alternative to metronidazole for severe intestinal infection
84
nystatin
polyene antibiotic
85
adverse effects of metronidazole
metallic taste | disulfiram
86
DOC for malaria
chloroquine
87
Pyrimethamine+Sulfadiazine MOA
folate metabolism
88
Mefloquine contraindications
pregnancy | epilepsy
89
primaquine adverse effects
GI HA caution- G6PDd
90
most lethal malaria species
P. falciparum
91
"Beaver Fever"
giardiasis
92
tetracycline/erythromycin use
alternatives for amebiasis/giardiasis with metronidazole
93
drug that binds to keratin to prevent infection in new skin
griseofulvin
94
adverse effects of chloroquine
retinal/corneal toxicity hemolysis (G6PDd) QT prolongation
95
Tuberculosis DsOC
Rifampin Isoniazid Ethambutol Pyrazinamide
96
tinidazole
similar to metronidazole
97
Quinine and quinidine gluconate adverse effects
cinchonism QT elongation diarrhea hemolysis (G6PDd)
98
herpes DOC
acyclovir
99
VZV DOC
acyclovir
100
acyclovir MOA
guanosine analogue
101
adverse effects of acyclovir
nephrotoxic w/ high IV doses (hydration!)
102
resistance to acyclovir
decreased viral thymidine kinase
103
Docosanol MOA
inhibits viral fusion
104
ganciclovir MOA
guanosine analogue
105
CMV DOC
ganciclovir
106
adverse effects of ganciclovir
CNS effects
107
contraindications for ganciclovir
pregnancy
108
foscarnet MOA
directly inhibits DNA and RNA polymerase
109
CMV encephalitis DOC
foscarnet+ganciclovir
110
adverse effects of foscarnet
nephrotoxicity (hydration!)
111
cidofovir MOA
cytosine analogue
112
cidofovir uses
alternatives: CMV retinitis, HSV
113
neuroamidase inhibitors
oseltamivirzanamivir
114
oseltamivir and zanamivir MOA
neuroamidase inhibitors- block release of virus
115
influenza DOC
neuroamidase inhibitors
116
ages for neuroamidase inhibitors
T:>1 yo Z: >7 yo
117
contraindications for zanamivir
respiratory disease
118
ribavirin MOA
guanosine analogue
119
RSV DOC
ribavirin
120
ribavirin use
RSVHCV w/ interferon
121
adverse effects of ribavirin
oral dose-dependent: hemolytic anemia aerosol: respiratory depression, cardiac arrest IV: psychiatric (off market) TERATOGENIC
122
tenofovir MOA
adenine analogue
123
entecavir MOA
guanosine analogue
124
lamivudine
cytosine analogue
125
HBV DOC
tenofovir
126
harvoni MOA
inhibits viral NS5B RNA polymerase
127
HCV DOC
Harvoni
128
what is the one non-oral HIV drug?
enfuvirtide- SUBQ
129
nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors
``` zidovudine emtricitabine tenofovir lamivudine abacavir ```
130
nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors MOA
nucleoside analogues
131
zidovudine MOA
t analogue
132
emtricitabine MOA
a analogue
133
lamivudine MOA
c analogue
134
abacavir MOA
g analogue
135
1st choice NRTI combo
emtricitabine and tenofovir
136
alternate NRTI combo
lamivudine and abacavir
137
which NRTIs can be used during pregnancy?
zidovudine | lamivudine
138
adverse effects of zidovudine
CNS | myelosuppression
139
what can we use to treat myelosuppression from antiretrovirals?
RBC: epogen WBC: neupogen
140
which NRTI has CNS penetration?
zidovudine
141
what are the two adverse effects associated with NRTIs?
lactic acidosis | hepatotoxicity
142
adverse effects of emtricitabine/tenofovir
flatulence
143
which NRTI has high rates of hypersensitivty rxns?
abacavir
144
NNRTIs
efavirenz | rilpivirine
145
NNRTI DOC
efavirenz (+NRTI)
146
which NNRTI can be used during pregnancy?
rilpivirine
147
adverse effects of efavirenz
drug interactions (BC) dizzy, drowsy, HA, insomnia teratogenic
148
rilpivirine adverse effects
depression increased cholesterol HA
149
contraindications for rilpivirine
hepatitis
150
protease inhibitors
``` darunavir atazanavir ritonavir saquinavir lopinavir/rionavir indinavir tipranavir ```
151
PI DOC
darunavir
152
PI 2nd DOC
atazanavir
153
which PI is used as a booster?
ritonivir
154
adverse effects of PIs
body fat distribution issues insulin resistance increased serum cholestero lbleeding in hemophilia A/B
155
what should be avoided when taking a PI?
St. John's Wort
156
which PIs have cross-sensitivity to sulfonamides?
darunavir tipranavir
157
which PI has least effect on body fat?
atazanivir
158
adverse effects of atazanivir
increased bilirubin diarrhea rash nausea
159
adverse effects of ritonavir
GI
160
what should never be given with ritonovir?
saquinavir- QT | anything w/ disulfirim rxn (contains ethanol)
161
adverse effects of saquinavir
QT prolongation
162
tipranavir use
tx experienced
163
indinavir adverse effects
nephrolithiasis | hyperbilirubinemia (hydration!)
164
what two PIs share cross-R?
ritonavirindinavir
165
adverse effects of tipranavir
intracranial hemorrhage w/ ritonavirliver toxicity
166
contraindications for tipranavir
sulfa allergyhead trauma
167
fusion inhibitors
enfuvirtidemaraviroc
168
enfuvirtide MOA
binds to gp41
169
maraviroc MOA
binds to CCR5 receptor
170
enfuviritide use
tx experienced
171
maravoric use
tx experienced | ONLY with CCR5 HIV infections
172
adverse effects of enfuviritide
increased chance of bacterial pneumonia
173
dolutegravir MOA
integrase inhibitor
174
dolutegravir use
DOC w/ NRTIs tx resistant
175
DNA alkylators
``` cyclophosphamide mechlorethamine carmustine cisplatin doxorubicin ```
176

cycylophosphamide adverse effects

forms acrolein--hemorrhagic cysts | MUST also give MESNA/hydration
177
adverse efects of prednisone
short: HTN, edema, hyperglycemia long: weight gain, Cushing's, osteopenia
178
T-cell suppressants
cyclosporine tacrolimus sirolimus
179
cyclosporine/tacrolimus MOA
selective inhibitio of T lymphocytes
180
DOC to prevent rejection
tacrolimus
181
adverse effects of cyclosporine
``` drug interactions renal toxicity gingival hyperplasia HTN CNS ```
182
what immunosuppresant class has no bone marrow suppression?
t-cell suppressants
183
tacrolimus adverse effects
renal HTN hyperglycemia
184
sirolimus MOA
binds to mTOR--t cell cycle arrest and B cell differentiation
185
sirolimus adverse effects
increased cholesterol/triglycerides
186
what is special abour sirolimus?
no renal toxicity--kidney transplant
187
mycophenolate MOA
inhibits de novo purine synthesis--T and B
188
cytotoxic suppressants
azathioprine methotrexate cyclophosphamide
189
azathioprine MOA
inhibits purine synthesis--induce apoptosis of t and b
190
adverse effects of azathioprine and methotrexate
bone marrow suppression | teratogenic
191
cyclophosphomide MOA
cross links DNA-inactivation
192
cyclophosphamide adverse effects
hemorrhagic cystitis- give MESNA | infertility
193
basiliximab MOA
IL-2 receptor
194
basiliximab use
induction of immunosuppression
195
what drugs are used to treat psoriasis and RA?
abatacept adalimumab etanercept
196
abatecept MOA
mimics CTLA4--competes with CD38 for CD80
197
adalimumab/etanercept MOA
neutralizes biologic effect of TNF-alpha
198
adverse effects of drugs for psoriasis/RA
infections | HA
199
neupogen MOA
human recombinant G-CSF
200
epogen MOA
recombinant EPO
201
adverse effects of neupogen
bone pain
202
adverse effects of epogen
HTN | increased risk for CVA/MI
203
mechlorethamine MOA
alkylate DNA
204
mechlorethamine adverse effects
renal | hyperuricemia (use allopurinol)
205
carmustine MOA
alkylate DNA
206
carmustine advantage
crosses BBB
207
adverse effects of cisplatin
renal | acoustic n damage
208
what is also given with cisplatin? why?
Amifostine | to reduce renal toxicity
209
doxorubicin adverse effects
cardiotoxicity (increased with iron)
210
what is given with doxorubicin? why?
dexrazoxane-chelate iron
211
methotrexate adverse effects
mucositis | thrombocytopenia
212
what drugs must be given with leucovorin?
methotrexate | 6-mercaptopurine
213
which drug must be given with leucovorin at the same time?
5-FU
214
adverse effects of 6-mercaptopurine
bone marrow suppression jaundice heme crisis when given allopurinol
215
adverse effects of 5-FU
oral/GI ulceration
216
what are the antimetabolites of S phase?
methotrexate 6-mp 5-fu
217
6-MP MOA
antimetabolite converted by HGPRT
218
5-FU MOA
inhibits thymidylate synthase
219
paclitaxel MOA
binds B-tubulin--inhibit depolymerization
220
what are the mitosis inhibitors?
paclitaxel vincristine vinblastine
221
MOA of vin- cristine/blastine
bind to tubulin--inhibit polymerization
222
adverse effects of paclitaxel
myelosuppression | anemia
223
adverse effects of vincristine
neurotoxic
224
adverse effects of vinblastine
myelosuppression
225
bleomycin MOA
G2-M phase--directly binds to DNA
226
adverse effects of bleomycin
hypersensitivity | pulm fibrosis
227
what is special about bleomycin?
low myelosuppression
228
imatinib use
Bcr-abl
229
adverse effects of imatinib
edema
230
cetuximab MOA
Ab that binds EGFR
231
adverse effects of cetuximab
acneiform rash | hypomagnesemia
232
erlotinib MOA
blocks EGFR kinase activity
233
erlotinib adverse effects
rash diarrhea anorexia
234
bevacizumab MOA
binds VEGF--prevents binding to VEGFR
235
adverse effects of bevacizumab
bleeding | thromboembolism
236
what ar the toxicities for all cancer drugs?
``` bone marrow--hemorrhage/infection GI tract hair renal reproduction/teratogenesis ```