Outcome 11 Hematology & Immunology Flashcards Preview

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Flashcards in Outcome 11 Hematology & Immunology Deck (279):
1

Anemia can be a reduction of these 2 mechanisms

1. quantity of rbc
2. quantity of hemoglobin

2

Anemia can be classified by what three characteristics

1. colour
2. size
3. cause

3

3 classifications of colour in anemia

1. hypochromic
2. normochromic
3. hyperchromic

4

3 classifications of size in anemia

1. microcytic
2. normocytic
3. macrocytic

5

2 main causes of iron deficiency anemia

1. blood loss
2. insufficient dietary intake of iron

6

What type of blood loss occurs in iron deficiency anemia?

slow, chronic hemorrhage

7

In folic acid deficiency anemia, red blood cells are prevented from maturing as there is not enough folic acid available for _____

DNA synthesis

8

Aplastic anemia is caused by an insult to the ____ cells in the bone marrow

hematopoietic

9

Sickle cell anemia can be caused by heredity; there is an inherited trait that causes red blood cells to acquire a sickle or elongated shape on _____

deoxygenation

10

Hemorrhagic anemia is caused by an acute, large decline in ____ in a short time

blood volume

11

Hemolytic anemia is caused by ____ of the red blood cells

abnormal destruction

12

Another term for agrunolocytosis

neutropenia

13

2 causes of agrunolocytosis

1. drug toxicity
2. hypersensitivity

14

Polycythemia vera is an absolute increase in red blood cell mass due to an increase of what 3 substances?

1. hemoglobin
2. rbc count
3. hematocrit

15

Cause of primary (absolute) polycythemia

unknown

16

Cause of relative polycythemia

reduction of plasma volume

17

Leukemia is classified by the ___ type and the degree of ___ of the ____ cells

cell type, degree of differentiation, neoplastic cells

18

Leukemia with a rapid onset and progression

acute leukemias

19

Leukemia where progression is slower, measured in years rather than months

chronic leukemias

20

ALL is an overproduction of ____ cells in the bone marrow and lymph nodes

immature lymphoid cells (lymphoblasts)

21

CLL causes an excess of _____ which are hypofunctional

mature-appearing lymphocytes

22

Most common staging system used for CLL

Rai system

23

Acute myelogenous leukemia is divided into seven subtypes using this classification

French-American-British (FAB) classification

24

3 phases of chronic myelogenous leukemia

1. chronic phase
2. accelerated phase
3. blast crisis

25

Drug that can induce and maintain a remission of chronic myelogenous leukemia

Gleevec

26

Only risk factor for CML

exposure to radiation

27

Part of the body where the lymph normally collects in lymphedema

usually in the extremities

28

Lymphangitis is caused by a ____ at the site of local trauma or ulceration

bacterial invasion

29

2 main types of lymphoma

1. Hodgkin's disease
2. Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma (NHL)

30

Staging system used to evaluate both types of lymphoma

Ann Arbor-Cotswolds staging system

31

What are the 3 "B symptoms" of lymphoma?

1. unexplained weight loss
2. persistent or recurrent fevers
3. night sweats

32

The presence of ___ cells differentiates Hodgkin's disease from other types of lymphoma

Reed-Sternberg cells

33

Treatment for multiple relapses of Hodgkin's disease

bone marrow transplant

34

3 categories for Non-Hodgkin's Lymphoma based on aggression

1. indolent lymphomas
2. aggressive
3. highly aggressive

35

What is the effect on the red blood cells of an antigen-antibody incompatibility reaction?

hemolysis or agglutination of the RBCs that obstructs the flow of blood through capillaries

36

Most common type of hemophilia

classic hemophilia

37

Clotting factor that is deficient in classic hemophilia

Factor VIII

38

Cause of classic hemophilia

X-linked genetic inheritance (affects males)

39

Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) causes these 2 process to occur simultaneously

1. hemorrhage
2. thrombosis

40

DIC occurs secondary to a ____

major event (obstetric complications, septicemia, trauma, etc.)

41

reduction in quantity of either RBCs or hemoglobin

anemias

42

anemia is not a disease, it is a ____ of various diseases

symptom

43

3 color classifications of RBCs

1. hypochromic
2. normochromic
3. hyperchromic

44

3 size classifications of RBCs

1. microcytic
2. normocytic
3. macrocytic

45

4 causes of anemia

1. acute or chronic blood loss
2. impaired production of RBCs
3. inherited hemolytic conditions
4. anorexia nervosa

46

6 types of anemia

1. iron-deficiency
2. folic-acid deficiency
3. aplastic
4. sickle cell
5. hemorrhagic
6. hemolytic

47

type of anemia: secondary to blood loss through hemorrhage; insidious bleed and even heavy menstrual flow or insufficient intake of dietary iron

iron deficiency

48

type of anemia: results when insufficient amounts of folic acid are available for DNA synthesis, thus preventing the maturation of blood cells

folic acid deficiency

49

folic acid deficiency is clinically similar to ___ anemia

pernicious

50

type of anemia: results from an insult to hematopoietic cells in the bone marrow

aplastic

51

in aplastic anemia, production of these 3 cells are reduced

1. erythrocyte
2. leukocyte
3. thrombocyte

52

type of anemia: chronic HEREDITARY hemolytic form of anemia

sickle cell

53

in sickle cell anemia, sickle or elongated shaped cells obstruct ____ and lead to tissue hypoxia

capillary flow

54

type of anemia: results from large decline in blood volume or hypovolemia in a short time

hemorrhagic

55

type of anemia: caused by abnormal destruction of RBCs

hemolytic

56

3 other causes of hemolytic anemia

1. heredity
2. toxins
3. certain bacteria

57

blood dyscrasia in which leukocyte levels become extremely low; can have a rapid onset

agranulocytosis

58

aagranulocytosis is also called ____

neutropenia

59

2 causes of agranulocytosis

1. drug toxicity
2. hypersensitivity

60

agranulocytosis is treated with aggressive ____ therapy

anti-microbial

61

abnormal increase in amount of hemoglobin, RBC count, or hematocrit, causing an increase in RBC mass

polycythemia

62

polycythemia is also known as ____

polycythemia vera

63

polycythemia is caused by a sustained increase in _____ of bone marrow

hematopoiesis

64

polycythemia is also caused when ____ is reduced by dehydration, plasma loss, burns, fluid and electrolyte imbalance

plasma volume

65

family of drugs to treat polycythemia

myelosuppressive drugs

66

polycythemia is treated through ____ to reduce blood volume

periodic phlebotomy

67

overproduction of immature lymphoid cells in bone marrow and lymph nodes

acute lymphocytic leukemia (ALL)

68

ALL tends to occur in ____ or those older than ____

children; 65

69

contributing factors in ALL

radiation, exposure, chemicals, drugs, smoking, genetic factor

70

diagnostic test for ALL

peripheral blood smear

71

in ALL, aggressive chemo is used for 2 to 3 years and the central nervous system is treated ____

prophylactically

72

type of radiation therapy to treat ALL

intracranial

73

type of transplantation for adult ALL patients with poor prognostic features

allogenic bone marrow transplantation

74

slowly progressing disease; neoplasm that involves lymphocytes; most patients are males

chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL)

75

CLL is caused by _____ changes

chromosomal

76

CLL is caused by the deletion of chromosome #__

13

77

2 diagnostic tests for CLL

1. peripheral blood smear
2. bone marrow studies

78

treatment for CLL is held until ____

symptomatic

79

rapidly progressive neoplasm of cells committed to the myeloid line of development

acute myelogenous leukemia (AML)

80

in AML, leukemic cells accumulate in these 3 areas

1. bone marrow
2. peripheral blood
3. other tissues

81

3 other names for AML

1. acute myeloid
2. myelocytic
3. granulocytic

82

rapid accumulation of myeloblasts in AML lead to these 2 conditions

1. pancytopenia
2. anemia

83

most common adult leukemia

AML

84

risk factors for AML include family Hx, previous treatment with ionizing radiation, chemo, ovarian cancer, breast cancer and chronic exposure to _____

benzene

85

many cases of AML are related to _____

treatment such as chemotherapy or radiation

86

chemo is the first treatment approach to AML and ____ during the first remission may improve survival

bone marrow transplantation

87

slowly progressing neoplasm arising in hematopoeitic stem cell or early progenitor cell

chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML)

88

2 other names for CML

1. chronic myeloid
2. myelocytic

89

CML results in excess of mature-appearing but hypofunctioning ____

neutrophils

90

CML occurs most often in adults over age ___

40

91

CML is caused by exposure to ____ radiation

ionizing

92

CML is associated with abnormal chromosome #___

22

93

triphasic course for CML

1. chronic
2. accelerated
3. blast

94

only chance for complete CML cure

bone marrow transplantation

95

bone marrow transplantation is an option for about __% of patients

25

96

abnormal collection of lymph; usually in extremities

lymphedema

97

in lymphedema, patient experiences no pain but extremities become swollen and ____

grossly distended

98

t or f. lymphedema can only be inflammatory

f. lymphedema may be inflammatory or mechanical

99

t or f. if untreated, lymphedema becomes permanent

t

100

treatment for lymphedema is aimed at reducing ____

swelling

101

the affected limb in lymphedema is elevated above the heart to encourage ____

drainage of lymph

102

inflammation of lymph vessels

lymphangitis

103

in lymphangitis, ____ may develop in surrounding tissue

cellulitis

104

lymphangitis is caused by ____ into lymph vessels at the site of local trauma or ulceration

bacterial invasion

105

t or f. occasionally, no portal of entry is detectable in lymphangitis

t

106

family of drugs to treat lymphangitis

systemic antibiotics

107

2 types of lymphoma

1. hodgkins
2. non-hodgkins

108

cancer of the body’s lymphatic system in which tumors arise in lymph tissue and spread to other lymph nodes, spleen, liver and bone marrow

hodgkin's disease

109

2 peaks of incidence in hodgkin's disease

1. patients in their 20s
2. patients over the age of 50

110

4 risk factors in hodgkin's disease

1. previous Hx of malignancy
2. prior chemo/radiation
3. family Hx
4. exposure to EPV

111

stage 1 and 2 of hodgkin's disease may be treated with ____ alone

radiation

112

stages 1, 2, and 3 of hodgkin's disease is treated with ____

combined chemoradiotherapy

113

higher stages of hodgkins is treated with ____ alone

chemo

114

preferred therapy for hodgkin's

ABVC therapy

115

number of heterogenous neoplasms of lymphoid cells

non-hodgkin's disease (NHL)

116

incidence of NHL reaches a peak in this group

preadolescents

117

2 risk factors of NHL

1. personal Hx
2. family Hx
3. previous chemo/radiation/immune therapy

118

lymphomas where treatment is put on hold until symptomatic

indolent lymphomas

119

type of chemotherapy to treat aggressive lymphomas

CHOP chemotherapy

120

transfused blood has antibodies to the recipient's RBCS; the recipient has antibodies to the donor RBCs

transfusion incompatibility reaction

121

most severe transfusion incompatibility reactions are related and characterized by ____ or ____

hemolysis; agglutination

122

ABO- and Rh- incompatible blood and antigens are not revealed in screening

transfusion incompatibility reaction

123

reaction that produces hemolysis or agglutination

antigen-antibody reaction

124

treatment for transfusion incompatibility reaction include ___ before a transfusion

transfusion protocol mandates

125

family of drugs to treat mild transfusion incompatibility reaction

antihistamines

126

hereditary bleeding disorder resulting from deficiency of clotting factors

classic hemophilia

127

classic hemophilia is caused by this type of genetic disorder in males

x-linked

128

classic hemophilia may also be caused when hemophilia is transmitted from asymptomatic carrier ____ to ____

mother to son

129

classic hemophilia may also be caused when ____ is functionally inactive; any minor trauma can initiate a bleeding episode

clotting factor (factor viii)

130

t or f. there is no cure for classic hemophilia

t

131

treatment in classic hemophilia is to prevent ____

crippling deformities

132

condition of simultaneous hemorrhage and thrombosis

disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)

133

disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) occurs when ____ activates ____

thrombin; fibrin

134

in disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) thrombin activating fibrin causes ____ to form where it is not needed

clots

135

thrombin in clots causes excessive ____ and additional bleeding

fibrinolysis

136

4 predisposing factors

1. hypotension
2. hypoxemia
3. acidosis
4. stasis of capillary blood

137

disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) is treated with IV _____

heparin

138

2 other treatment options for disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) when serious hemorrhage is present

1. platelet replacement
2. plasma clotting factors

139

progressive impairment of immune system caused by HIV

acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)

140

acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) directly damages the _____ and is ultimately life threatening

nervous system

141

cause for acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)

HIV types 1 or 2

142

in acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS), HIV attacks ____, leaving the body defenseless against infection and malignancy

helper T lymphocytes

143

t or f. acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) is cureable

t

144

upon diagnosis of AIDS, the number of ___ and ___ present is measured to determine when to begin treatment

1. CD4 T
2. HIV RNA

145

treatment for acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS); classification of drugs

HAART drugs

146

there are __ drug combinations in HAART treatment

3

147

HAART is a combination of 2 ___ and 1 ___

nucleoside reductase inhibitors; protease inhibitor

148

acquired b-cell deficiency resulting in decreased antibody production and/or function

common variable immunodeficiency (CVID)

149

another name for common variable immunodeficiency (CVID)

acquired hypogammaglobulinemia

150

in common variable immunodeficiency (CVID), the patient has a Hx of ____

chronic or current infections

151

common symptom of common variable immunodeficiency (CVID)

GI disease

152

2 peaks of incidence in common variable immunodeficiency (CVID)

1. ages 18-25
2. ages 1-5

153

common variable immunodeficiency (CVID) is thought to be the result of genetic defects leading to these 2 conditions

1. immune system dysregulation
2. failure of B-cell differentiation

154

t or f. common variable immunodeficiency (CVID) treatment is aimed at preventing ____

infections

155

failure to produce normal levels of IgA

selective immunoglobin A (IgA) deficiency

156

t or f. the majority of IgA deficiency is symptomatic

t. asymptomatic

157

inheritance that plays a role in IgA deficiency

autosomal dominant or recessive

158

IgA deficiency is thought to progress to ______

common variable immunodeficiency (CVID)

159

t or f. there is no cure for IgA deficiency

t

160

near absence of serum immunoglobulins and increased susceptibility to infection

x-linked agammaglobulinemia

161

another term for x-linked agammaglobulinemia

bruton's agammaglobulinemia

162

infants with agammaglobulinemia have absent or near absent ____

tonsils and adenoids

163

in x-linked agammaglobulinemia, congenital x-linked disorder only affects ____

males

164

x-linked agammaglobulinemia occurs due to a defect in the ____ gene

bruton tyrosine kinase (BTK)

165

treatment for x-linked agammaglobulinemia is aimed at improving child's ____

immune defenses

166

group of disorders that result from a disturbance in the development and function of both T and B cells

severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID)

167

severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID) manifests as severe, recurrent infections with these 6 factors

1. bacteria
2. viruses
3. fungi
4. protozoa
5. chronic diarrhea
6. failure to thrive

168

2 common infections associated with severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID)

1. pneumocystis pneumonia
2. mucocutaneous candidiasis

169

2 types of severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID)

1. x-linked
2. autosomal recessive

170

both types of severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID) are due to ____

genetic mutations

171

genetic mutations in severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID) lead to defects in ____ into B and T cells

stem cell differentiation

172

only curative treatment for most types of severe combined immunodeficiencies (SCIDs)

bone marrow transplantation

173

congenital condition of immunodeficiency that results from defective development of the pharyngeal pouch system

DiGeorge's anomaly

174

another term for DiGeorge's anomaly

thymic hypoplasia or aplasia

175

children with DiGeorge's anomaly have these 4 structural abnormalities

1. abnormally wide set eyes
2. downward slanting eyes
3. low set ears with notched pinnas
4. small mouth

176

DiGeorge's anomaly is the result of abnormal development of the _____ during the 12th week of gestation

third and fourth pharyngeal punches

177

DiGeorge's anomaly causes these 3 conditions

1. cardiac anomalies
2. hypoplastic thymus
3. hypocalcemia

178

in DiGeorge's anomaly, ____ is treated to restore electrolyte balance and reduce risk of seizures

hypocalcemia

179

2 types of transplantation to treat DiGeorge's anomaly

1. thymic
2. bone marrow

180

group of disorders characterized by persistent and recurrent candidal (fungal) infections of the skin, nails and mucous membranes

chronic mucocutaneous candidiasis (CMC)

181

in chronic mucocutaneous candidiasis (CMC), symptoms develop during the first ___ years of life

2 to 3

182

individuals with chronic mucocutaneous candidiasis (CMC) have a ____ deficit specific to ____ making them susceptible to infection

t-cell deficit; candida albicans

183

treatment for chronic mucocutaneous candidiasis (CMC) is directed at eliminating infections along with correcting _____

immunologic defects

184

congenital disorder characterized by inadequate B and T cell function

Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome

185

in Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome, the child expereinces these 3 conditions

1. eczema
2. thrombocytopenia
3. increased susceptibility to bacterial/viral infections

186

Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome is an ____ trait affecting only males

x-linked inherited trait

187

Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome is caused by mutations in gene encoding the _____

Wiskott-Aldrich Syndrome Protein (WASP)

188

the only curative therapy for Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome

bone marrow transplantation

189

2 diagnostic tests for HIV/AIDS

1. ELISA
2. Western Blot Test

190

diagnotistic test for HIV/AIDS: enzyme linked immunosorbent assay

ELISA

191

diagnotistic test for HIV/AIDS: done to confirm positive ELISA result

Western Blot Test

192

autoimmune condition where RBCs are destroyed by antibodies

autoimmune hemolytic anemia

193

2 types of autoimmune hemolytic anemia

1. warm antibody anemia
2. cold antibody anemia

194

in autoimmune hemolytic anemia, RBC's are destroyed by antibodies which causes ____ to the cells

agglutination

195

diagnostic test for autoimmune hemolytic anemia

Coombs test

196

warm anemia is treated with these 2 families of drugs

1. corticosteroids
2. cytotoxic drugs

197

2 warm anemia treatments

1. splenectomy
2. IV immune globulin administration

198

cold anemia is treated by avoiding ____

cold

199

in cold anemia, _____ is helpful for reducing hemolysis

plasmapheresis

200

anemia caused by chronic atrophic gastritis

pernicious anemia

201

in pernicious anemia, production of ____ and ____ are decreased

1. HCI acid
2. intrinsic factor

202

pernicious anemia results in ___ deficiency

vitamin B12

203

vitamin B12 required for ____ is deficient; causing RBCs to be deformed and reduced in number

RBC formation

204

majority of patients with pernicious anemia have ____ which are cytotoxic to the ____

antiparietal cell antibodies; parietal cells

205

pernicious anemia is associated with these 2 other diseases

1. Grave's disease
2. Hashimoto's thyroiditis

206

diagnostic test for pernicious anemia

schilling test

207

treatment for pernicious anemia

B12 injection

208

acquired disorder that results from isolated deficiency of platelets

idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP)

209

_____ with unknown cause in a patient with idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) requires medical attention

multiple bruising

210

idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) may occur after ____

viral infections like rubella or mumps

211

in idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP), ____ is administered to help with clotting

vitamin K

212

decreased number of circulating neutrophils caused by production of *anti-neutrophil antibodies*

immune neutropenia

213

in immune neutropenia, there is an almost complete absence of ____ in the blood

neutrophils

214

rare disorder caused by trans-placental transfer of maternal IgG that reacts with fetal neutrophils

isoimmune neutropenia

215

immune neutropenia is often associated with this

accelerated turnover of neutrophils or increased neutrophil production

216

3 treatment options for immune neutropenia

1. corticosteroids
2. immune globulin
3. G-CSF

217

autoimmune kidney disease characterized by presence of antibodies directed against an antigen in glomerular basement membrane (GBM)

Goodpasture's syndrome

218

another name for Goodpasture's syndrome

anti-GBM antibody disease

219

t or f. there is no known cause for Goodpasture's syndrome

t

220

3 treatment options for Goodpasture's syndrome

1. plasmapheresis with immunosuppressive agents
2. hemodialysis
3. kidney transplants

221

chronic, autoimmune disease characterized by unusual autoantibodies in the blood that target tissues of the body

systemic lupus erythemaosus (SLE)

222

systemic lupus erythemaosus (SLE) is informally known as ____

lupus

223

3 factors that may predispose individuals to lupus

1. genetic
2. hormonal
3. environmental

224

to prevent the exacerbation of lupus, avoid unnecessary _____

light exposure

225

patterns of ____ occurs with SLE

butterfly rash

226

immunosuppressive meds would be required to treat SLE when _____ is present

organ-threatening disease

227

Chronic, progressive disease characterized by mostly sclerosis (hardening) of skin, with scarring of certain internal organs.

scleroderma

228

another term for scleroderma

systemic sclerosis

229

scleroderma is classified these 2 ways

1. diffuse
2. limited

230

scleroderma that involves symmetric thickening of skin of extremities, face and trunk

diffuse

231

scleroderma that tends to be confined to the skin of fingers and face

limited

232

t or f. scleroderma is an autoimmune disease

t

233

prognosis of scleroderma depends on the ____ affected

organs

234

autoimmune disease featuring inflammation in various glands of the body

Sjögren’s syndrome

235

in Sjögren’s syndrome, this is the main result of inflammation of the glands

dryness

236

Sjögren’s syndrome is often associated with this condition

rheumatoid arthritis

237

Sjögren’s syndrome is more common in families that have a member with an _____

autoimmune disorder

238

treatment for Sjögren’s syndrome include relieving symptoms where there is____, such as increasing fluid intake, chewing gum and using oral sprays

dryness

239

2 families of drugs to lessen immune inflammation in Sjögren’s syndrome

1. prednisone
2. antimalarial medications

240

chronic inflammatory, systemic disease that affects the joints

rheumatoid arthritis (RA)

241

one of the most severe forms of arthritis causing deformity and disability

rheumatoid arthritis (RA)

242

rheumatoid arthritis (RA) is __ times more common in females than maes

3x

243

if untreated, rheumatoid arthritis (RA) can cause these 3 conditions

1. destruction of cartilage
2. joint deformity
3. destruction of adjacent bone

244

form of rheumatoid arthritis that affects children less than 16 years old

juvenile rheumatoid arthritis (JRA)

245

juvenile rheumatoid arthritis (JRA) begins most commonly between the ages ____

2 to 5

246

in juvenile rheumatoid arthritis (JRA), it is believed that the _____ in the joints are related to an autoimmune disease

pathologic changes

247

heredity may play a role in some children with juvenile rheumatoid arthritis (JRA), particularly those with this condition

spondylitis

248

in juvenile rheumatoid arthritis (JRA), braces or splints may be needed to correct ____ and _____

1. growth disturbances
2. joint contracture

249

t or f. juvenile rheumatoid arthritis (JRA) is treated exactly as adult rheumatoid arthritis

t

250

systemic, usually progressive inflammatory disease affecting primarily the spinal column

ankylosing spondylitis

251

ankylosing spondylitis typically affects the ____ area of the spine first

sacroiliac

252

in ankylosing spondylitis, periods of _____ occur

exacerbation; remission

253

ankylosing spondylitis may be related to genetic basis and an association with these genes

HLA-B27

254

disease of muscle that features inflammation of the muscle fibres

polymositis

255

in polymositis, muscle fibers affected are mostly closest to the ____

trunk and torso

256

polymositis is ____; there are cycles of flares, relapses and remissions

cyclical

257

polymositis occurs when ____ spontaneously invade and injure muscles

WBC

258

screening for polymositis must rule out ____

cancer

259

inflammatory disease of the CNS that attacks the myelin sheath

multiple sclerosis

260

4 types of multiple sclerosis

1. relapsing-remitting-relapsing
2. primary-progressive
3. secondary-progressive
4. progressive-relapsing-progressive

261

multiple sclerosis is an ____ that increases one's susceptibility to the disease

inherited trait

262

2/3rds of multiple sclerosis develop from ages ____

20 to 40

263

therapy used to treat multiple sclerosis

immunosuppressive

264

chronic progressive neuromuscular disease that stem from the presence of autoantibodies to the *acetylcholine* receptor

myasthenia gravis

265

myasthenia gravis is characterized by extreme muscular weakness without ____

atrophy

266

myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune mechanism in which a faulty transmission of nerve impulse to and from the CNS, especially in the ____

neuromuscular junction

267

myasthenia gravis is associated with these 2 conditions

1. thymus hyperplasia
2. thymoma

268

family of drugs to treat myasthenia gravis

anticholinesterase drugs

269

surgical intervention to treat the tumor in the thymus gland in myasthenia gravis

thymectomy

270

inflammation in the walls of the blood vessels

vasculitis

271

2 types of vasculitis

1. small vessel
2. systemic necrotizing

272

vasiculitis in which the affected vessel becomes necrotic when it is obstructed by a thrombus and results in an infarct of adjacent tissue

small vessel vasculitis

273

small vessel vasculitis affects these 3 areas

1. capillaries
2. arterioles
3. venules

274

vasculitis that primarily affects medium and large arteries

systemic necrotizing vasculitis

275

systemic necrotizing vasculitis occurs in ____ and ____ conditions

cutaneous; systemic

276

systemic necrotizing vasculitis can result in these 2 conditions

1. ulceration
2. paralysis of an affected nerve

277

some forms of systemic necrotizing vasculitis are related to these 2 factors

1. amphetamine use
2. development of hepatitis b and c

278

2 tests to diagnose systemic necrotizing vasculitis

1. CBC ESR RA factor determinaton
2. serum tests for immunoglobulin

279

treatment for systemic necrotizing vasculitis involves decreasing the ____ of the arteries

inflammaton