paeds Flashcards

1
Q

Small testes in precocious puberty indicate_________________________

A

an adrenal cause of the symptoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

____________would cause unilateral enlargement of the affected testicle

A

A sex cord-gonadal stromal tumour

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

hypoglycaemia in neonates is defined as _____. what is a RF?

A

blood glucose level of less than 2.5 mmol/L

Maternal gestational diabetes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Perianal itching in children, possibly affecting other family members → which organism?

A

Enterobius vermicularis (threadworms)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

‘Examination reveals a positive head impulse test’ –> ?

A

Vestibular neuritis
not typically seen in a posterior circulation stroke

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

_______________________ is the number one cause of painless massive GI bleeding requiring a transfusion in children between the ages of 1 and 2 years

A

Meckels diverticulum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

CAH vs AIS - how to differentiate?

A

AIS causes primary amenorrhea while CAH causes precocious pubic hair

AIS: female presenting, firm palpable masses in groin (undescended testes)

CAH: ambiguous genetilia and virilisation (in F)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

______________ is the triad of the shaken baby syndrome

A

Retinal haemorrhages, subdural haematoma and encephalopathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

distended abdomen and bilious vomiting =

A

intestinal malrotation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Pansystolic murmur in lower left sternal border

A

Ventricular septal defect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Crescendo-decrescendo murmur in the upper left sternal border

A

Coarctation of the aorta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Diastolic machinery murmur in the upper left sternal border

A

Patent ductus arteriosus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Ejection systolic murmur in the upper left sternal border

A

Pulmonary stenosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

which abdo condition is associated with fluid levels?

A

Hirchsprung’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Infant with bilious vomiting & obstruction →

A

?intestinal malrotation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Parents should be advised to call an ambulance if a febrile convulsion lasts _____________

A

> 5 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Exomphalos and diaphragmatic herniae are commonly associated with

A

malrotation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

paeds seizures
1. generalised tonic-clonic seizures, myoclonic episodes in morning, 12-16 Y.O. occasional episodes of absence seizures:

  1. centrotemporal spikes on EEG, 3-13 Y.O. short seizures involving twitching and parraesthesia of one side of face and tongue:
A
  1. generalised tonic-clonic seizures, myoclonic episodes in morning, 12-16 Y.O. occasional episodes of absence seizures: juvenile myoclonic epilepsy
  2. centrotemporal spikes on EEG, 3-13 Y.O. short seizures involving twitching and parraesthesia of one side of face and tongue: benign rolandic epilepsy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Coronary artery aneurysms are a complication of Kawasaki disease and this should be screened for with an

A

echocardiogram

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

murmur in Turner’s syndrome

A

ejection systolic murmur due to bicuspid aortic valve

21
Q

definitve Mx of SCFE

A

Refer to orthopaedics for in situ internal fixation with a cannulated screw

22
Q

ITP vs TTP?

A

In TTP, schistocytes are often seen on blood smears.

23
Q

____________ is used as prophylaxis for contacts of patients with meningococcal meningitis

A

Oral ciprofloxacin or rifampicin

24
Q

Croup:_______________ is an indication for admission

A

audible stridor at rest

25
what causes roseola
HHV6
26
chickenpox rash vs roseola rash
roseola rash typically starts on the trunk and limbs (this is different to chickenpox which is typically a central rash)
27
Neonatal sepsis - early onset cause: - late onset cause: - most characteristic feature: - Tx:
- early onset cause: Group B Strep - late onset cause: Staph epidermidis - most characteristic feature: grunting/resp distreess - Tx: IV benpen and gentamicin
28
ASD in children is associated with
- Downs - FA - Ebsteins anomaly
29
Live attenuated vaccines
BCG MMR oral polio yellow fever oral typhoid
30
adrenaline dose for children under 6 years
150mcg 6-12: 300mcg adults: 500mcg in cardiac arrest: 1mg
31
Ix for bronchiolitis?
immunofluorescence of nasopharyngeal secretions
32
emergency Tx for croup
dexamethasone, O2, adrenaline (nebulised)
33
CF-specific contraindication for lung transplantation
chronic infection with Burkholderia cepacia
34
referral points for milestones
Referral points - doesn't smile at 10 weeks - cannot sit unsupported at 12 months - cannot walk at 18 months Fine motor skill problems - hand preference before 12 months is abnormal and may indicate cerebral palsy
35
which infants need routine US examination for DDH
- first-degree family history of hip problems in early life - breech presentation at or after 36 weeks gestation, irrespective of presentation at birth or mode of delivery - multiple pregnancy
36
DDH Ix
US XRAY if >4.5m
37
motor milestones
3 months = fix and follow 6 months = palmar grasp 9 months = points 12 months = pincer group
38
Play milestones
9m = peek a boo 12m = waves bye 18m = plays alone 2 years = plays near children 4 years = plays with children
39
inheritance of Duchenne's muscular dystrophy
X-linked recessive
40
Definitive Ix for Duchenne's muscular dystrophy
genetic testing
41
vaccination schedule
42
Ix of choice in NE and what does it show
Abdo XRAY: shows dilated bowel loops + pneumatosis intestinalis
43
do you treat whooping cough?
Whooping cough - azithromycin or clarithromycin if the onset of cough is within the previous 21 days
44
Newborn with intermittent grunting and nasal flaring, normal RR and O2 sats, born after C-section - Dx? Mx?
Dx: transient tachypnoea of the newborn Mx: no further investivations just monitor It is more common following caesarean sections, possibly due to the lung fluid not being 'squeezed out' during the passage through the birth canal Chest x-ray may show hyperinflation of the lungs and fluid in the horizontal fissure.
45
For a child with a palpable abdominal mass or unexplained enlarged abdominal organ:
refer very urgently (<48hr) for specialist assessment for neuroblastoma and Wilms' tumour
46
Unilateral undescended testicle -
review at 3 months - if persistent refer bilateral - review in 24h
47
____ is associated with seborrhoeic dermatitis
HIV
48
increased nuchal thickness on combined scan =
1. Down's syndrome 2. Congenital herat defects
49