Paeds Flashcards

1
Q

What is child abuse?

A

Action by another person that causes significant harm to a child in a given culture in a given time

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2
Q

What are the different categories of abuse?

A

Physical
Emotional
Neglect
Sexual

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3
Q

Who has responsibility for child protection?

A

Everyone

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4
Q

What is a serious case review?

A

When child either dies or is seriously harmed after previous involvement with social services/police

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5
Q

If you find that a child under 13 is having sex what should you do?

A

Sexual intercourse under age of 13 - statutory rape and must be referred to social services

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6
Q

What is a CSE screening tool?

A

Child sexual exploitation screening tool

Enable professionals to assess child’s (under 18) level of risk of CSE in a quick and consistent manner

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7
Q

What are deemed to be high risk behaviours when using the child sexual exploitation screening tool?

A
Internet use
Financial rewards
Adult mobile phone apps
Episodes of going missing
Socially adverse circumstances
High risk locations
New friends
Older relationships
Drug and alcohol misuse
Gum clinic attendances
Pregnancies
STIs
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8
Q

Which medical condition could be confused for a cigarette burn in a child?

A

Bullous impetigo

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9
Q

How should you escalate things if you are worried about a child protection issue?

A
Discuss with senior
Discuss with Paeds
Discuss with social care
Documentation
Communication
Photographs
Body maps
Re-examination at later date
Consider differences of opinion
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10
Q

What is a common assessment framework?

A

Structured approach to supporting the family of a child
Allows input from a variety of services
May avoid need for more formal child protection procedures

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11
Q

What are the 3 sides of the CAF triangle?

A

Child’s developmental needs: health, education, identity
Parenting capacity: stimulation, ensuring safety, guidance and boundaries
Family and environmental factors: housing, employment, family’s social integration

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12
Q

A male neonate is reviewed on the postnatal ward eight hours after an uncomplicated vaginal delivery at 38 weeks gestation. The paediatrician notices that his sclerae and skin appear yellow. Give causes of neonatal jaundice relevant to this patient

A
Rhesus haemolytic disease 
ABO incompatibility
G6PD deficiency 
Congenital spherocytosis 
Sepsis - TORCH infections
Gilbert's syndrome
Crigler-Nijar syndrome
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13
Q

What is the most important immediate blood test which will help determine management in a case of neonatal jaundice?

A

Bilirubin levels - conjugated/unconjugated

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14
Q

A male neonate is reviewed on the postnatal ward eight hours after an uncomplicated vaginal delivery at 38 weeks gestation. The paediatrician notices that his sclerae and skin appear yellow. List investigations that should be requested in this patient to help determine the cause of the jaundice?

A
Bilirubin 
FBC
Blood film
Blood group - ABO
Rhesus status
Direct antiglobulin/Coombs test
LFTs 
G6PD enzyme test
Blood culture
Urine dipstick/MC and S
Viral serology - TORCH/hepatitis
TORCH screen
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15
Q

Give interventions for managing neonatal jaundice. How would you decide which of these to use?

A

Phototherapy
Exchange transfusion
Plot bilirubin levels and look at relationship to nomogram/treatment lines

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16
Q

What serious complication of neonatal jaundice may develop if left untreated?

A

Kernicterus (bilirubin encephalopathy)

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17
Q

What do you look for on observation of an infant in a neuro examination?

A

Posture: flexed? Frog-like? Extended? Asymmetrical?
Supine: moving all 4 limbs against gravity, tremors, hand clenching, thumb adduction, rhythmic mouthing, cycling or swimming movements of the limbs?
Ventral Suspension and Pull to Sit/Stand
Hand regard and playing with feet. Visually active?
Attempting to roll? Any abnormal movement / muscle wasting etc?

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18
Q

What do you need to examine in an infant top to toe exam of the head in a neuro exam?

A

Palpate head (Fontanelles, Sutures) and consider shape
Plot head circumference on a centile chart, Compare with previous measures- micro or macrocephaly?
Signs of Meningism (often subtle in younger children/infants)
Eyes: visually alert, fixes and follows, any nystagmus/squint/cataract? Reactive to light? Ptosis?
Face: Dysmorphism, facial asymmetry. Any reciprocal smile? Cleft
palate?
Vocalising and cooing? Turning towards noise?

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19
Q

What neuro cutaneous stigmata might you look for in an infant neuro exam?

A

Depigmented patches
Café-au-lait spots
Trigeminal port-wine stain

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20
Q

By when should the Moro reflex integrate?

A

2 to 4 months

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21
Q

By when should the rooting reflex integrate?

A

3 to 4 months

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22
Q

By when should the palmer reflex integrate?

A

5 to 6 months

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23
Q

By when should the ATNR reflex integrate?

A

6 months

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24
Q

By when should the spinal gallant reflex integrate?

A

3 to 9 months

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25
By when should the TNR reflex integrate?
3 and a half years
26
By when should the landau reflex integrate?
1 year
27
By when should the STNR reflex integrate?
9 to 11 months
28
What is the palmer reflex?
Palmar grasp - primitive | When object placed in infants hand and strokes palm, fingers close and they grasp it
29
What is the ATNR reflex?
Asymmetrical tonic neck reflex | Fencing reflex - face turned to one side when lying on back - arm and leg on same side extend, opposite arm and leg flex
30
What is the spinal galant reflex?
Baby curves hip outward if lower back stroked next to spine
31
What is the TLR reflex?
Tonic labyrinthine reflex Supine- Titling head back while lying on back causes back to stiffen and arch backwards, legs straighten stiffen and push together, toes point, arms bend at elbows and wrists and hands become fisted Prone - hip knee flexion with shoulder protraction and further flexion
32
What is the landau reflex?
Hold baby in air in prone position | Maintain convex arc with head raised and legs slightly flexed
33
What is the STNR reflex?
Symmetrical tonic neck reflex Important in transition from lying on floor When head flexes, arms flex, legs extend When head extends, arms extend and legs flex
34
What do you assess in the limbs in a neuro exam of an infant?
Look for asymmetry in tone, bulk and power Assess by degree of elbow and knee flexion during arm and leg traction. Note the speed of recoil Look for coordination and function during play and use of objects Examine hips for increased adductor tone Look for clonus: sudden stretching on hypertonic muscle produces reflex contraction- a measure of reflex excitability
35
What do you assess in the neck and trunk in a neuro exam of an infant?
Head control is assessed by the ability to return the head to the vertical after allowing it to fall forwards and then back in asitting position. Assess head control Assess flexor and extensor muscles when pulling to sit and in ventral suspension Is posture developmentally appropriate for age?
36
What primitive and postural reflexes are assessed for in an infant neuro exam?
``` Suck Rooting Grasp Moro Asymmetrical tonic neck Plantar Stepping Parachute ```
37
What are key areas of a paediatric history?
Antenatal Birth history Developmental history Family history
38
What are important parts of a general examination in a child?
``` Head circumference - parents and child Distinctive features - dysmorphism, special needs Assess growth - height and weight Skin - neurocutaneous markers, scars Eye - movements, asymmetry, red reflex, squint, vascular lesions Spine - scoliosis, scars Abdomen - scars, organomegaly Equipment/aids ```
39
What are important examination assessments in a newborn?
``` Head circumference and shape Posture Movement Limb and truncal tone Reflexes and neuro behaviour - sleep/cry/feeding/interaction ```
40
What further assessment should be done for a neuro exam in an infant?
Any hand dominance? Can the infant support weight when prone? Check spine for kyphoscoliosis, meningomyelocoele, sacral pit, tuft of hair Can the infant weight bear? Crawl, Cruise? Walk with support? Do the findings match with the child’s chronological and expected developmental age in all areas?
41
What are common CNS causes of hypotonia in a child?
``` Chromosome disorders i.e. Prader-Willi Metabolic diseases Spinal cord injuries Cerebral dysgenesis Hypoxic ischaemia injuries ```
42
What are common nerve causes of hypotonia in a child?
Congenital hypomyelinating neuropathy Familial dysautonomia Infantile neuraxonal degeneration
43
What are common neuromuscular junction causes of hypotonia?
Congenital and transient myasthenia gravis | Infantile botulism
44
What are common muscle causes of hypotonia?
Muscular dystrophies Metabolic myopathies Central core disease/ fibre myopathies
45
If a baby is floppy and strong, where is the problem?
Central nervous system
46
If a baby is floppy and weak where is the problem?
Peripheral nervous system
47
What are important aspects in a history of a floppy baby?
``` Reduced foetal movements Polyhydramnios Needing prolonged resuscitation/artificial ventilation Poor feeding/choking/aspiration Poor cry Poor movements Alert/not alert Fasciculations ```
48
With a central nervous system problem causing a floppy baby, what signs might you find?
``` Increased tendon reflexes Extensor plantar response Sustained ankle clonus Global developmental delay Microcephaly/dysmorphism Prolonged seizures Axial weakness ```
49
What could be some causes of a central nervous system problem leading to a floppy baby?
``` Hypoxic ishaemic encephalopathy Hypoglycaemia Down's syndrome Prader-Willi syndrome Cerebral malformations ```
50
With a peripheral nervous system problem causing a floppy baby, what signs might you find?
``` Hypo-areflexia Selective motor delay Normal head circumference and growth Preserved social interaction Weakness of limbs Low pitched weak cry Tongue fasciculations ```
51
What could be some causes of a peripheral nervous system problem leading to a floppy baby?
``` Congenital myopathy Myotonic dystrophy Myasthenia gravis Motor sensory neuropathy Spinal muscular atrophy ```
52
What additional assessments need to be done in a neuro exam of an older child?
``` Cerebellar function Gowers test Test sensation Cognitive functioning Cranial nerves ```
53
What is gowers sign?
Weakness of proximal muscles | Patient has to use arms to walk up their body from squatting position due to lack of hip and thigh strength
54
What might you look for around the room when assessing a child's neuro status?
``` Mobility aids Splints Oxygen Suction Feed pump Medication Drips Orthotic boots Wheelchair Glasses ```
55
If a child is sitting in a wheelchair what should you assess on general inspection?
``` Posture - flexed or extended Central/truncal tone Head position/support Type of wheelchair Attachments Communication aids ```
56
What do you look for in an examination of lower limb neuro in a child?
``` Posture - adducted and extended, frog leg, short leg adducted Scars - tendon releases Muscle bulk - wasting, inverted champagne bottle, high foot arch, calf hypertrophy Skin - neuro cutaneous markers Symmetry - limb hypertrophy Spine Tone Clonus Power Reflexes Sensation Pain and temp Light touch and proprioception Gait ```
57
What is cerebral palsy?
Primary abnormality of movement and posture secondary to non progressive lesion of developing brain
58
What are the different types of cerebral palsy? Where is the problem?
Ataxic - cerebellum Spastic - pyramidal system Dyskinetic - separated into athetoid and dystonic - basal ganglia
59
What is the GMFCS?
Gross motor function classification system Get an idea of how self sufficient a child can be at home, school etc Head control, movement transition, walking, gross motor skills Levels 1 (normal) to 5 (transported in manual wheelchair in all settings)
60
What problems are associated with cerebral palsy?
``` Motor - gross and fine Vision and hearing Speech Epilepsy Feeding Gastro oesophageal reflux Constipation/incontinence Secondary disability - hips, spine, arthritis Learning disabilities ```
61
What are treatment aims for cerebral palsy?
Treat spasticity - physio, systemic local and intrathecal drugs, orthopaedic surgery, nerve and spinal root surgery Treat associated problems Enhance quality of life
62
What is an epileptic seizure?
Transient occurrence of signs/symptoms, result of a primary change to electrical activity, abnormally excessive or synchronous, in the brain
63
What is epilepsy?
Recurrent unprovoked seizures due to abnormal hyper-synchronous discharge of cortical neurons
64
What are differential diagnoses for epilepsy?
``` Dystopia Movement disorder Febrile seizure Non epileptic event Vaso vagal syncope Reflex anoxic seizures Cardiac arrhythmia Sleep associated disorders ```
65
What are different classifications of generalised seizures?
``` Myoclonic Atonic Tonic Tonic clonic Infantile spasms ```
66
What are causes of epilepsy?
``` Genetic Structural Metabolic Immune Infectious Unknown ```
67
What factors are important in an epilepsy history?
DESSCRIBE Description Epileptic or non epileptic Seizure type - focal or generalised, behaviour change, sensory Syndrome - age of onset, clinical features, EEG Cause Relevant - impairment, behaviour, education
68
What is important in a history when you are getting a patient to describe their epilepsy episodes?
``` Witnessed When, where, how long Before, during, after LOC Limb jerking movements, which muscle groups Have they happened before, were they the same Triggers Prodromal period hours or days before Aura immediately preceding Residual muscle weakness Tongue biting Bladder/bowel incontinence ```
69
What are other key questions in a child with epilepsy to evaluate other differentials?
``` Family history of early adult death Palpitations Headache Vomiting Paraesthesia Regression of skills ```
70
What is childhood absence epilepsy? What are the features?
``` Vacant episodes sometimes associated with eye flickering Abrupt start and stop No post event drowsiness Brief - 5 to 15 secs Occur in clusters Precipitated by hyperventilation ```
71
In which age of child is childhood absence epilepsy least prevalent?
Uncommon before 5 years old
72
What will an EEG show in childhood absence epilepsy?
3/sec spike and wave
73
What are differentials for absence seizures?
Day dreaming | Behavioural
74
What is treatment for childhood absence epilepsy?
Sodium valproate | Ethosuximide
75
What is prognosis for childhood absence epilepsy?
Rapid remission with treatment in 80% children
76
What is west syndrome?
Severe epilepsy syndrome composed of triad of infantile spasms, an interictal electroencephalogram (EEG) pattern of hypsarrhythmia (chaotic background), and mental retardation
77
What is the age of onset of west syndrome?
3 to 12 months
78
What is an infantile spasm?
Sudden generalised symmetrical contractions of muscles of limb (extensor), trunk (flexor) and neck occurring in clusters lasting 0.2-2 secs
79
What are causes of west syndrome?
``` Hypoxic ishaemic encephalopathy Infections Acquired brain injury Cortical malformations Tuberous sclerosis ```
80
What is the treatment for west syndrome?
Steroid Vigabatrin Multiple anti epileptic medications Ketogenic diet
81
What is the prognosis for west syndrome?
Poor with developmental delay/neurological impairment | Spasms resolve with treatment but other seizure types develop
82
What is juvenile absence epilepsy?
Absence seizures with age of onset of 9-13 years 3-4Hz spike wave on EEG Generalised tonic clonic seizures may occur
83
What is juvenile myoclonic epilepsy? What does EEG show?
Characterised by myoclonic seizures that occur most commonly after waking, age of onset 5-20+ years Absence and generalised tonic clonic seizures may occur in between 50-80% of people with JME EEG shows 3-6Hz generalised polyspike and wave activity
84
What is benign epilepsy with centrotemporal spikes?
Rolandic epilepsy 5-14 years onset Characterised by focal motor and secondary generalised seizures, majority from sleep in otherwise normal individual with centrotemportal spikes on EEG
85
What investigations can be done to evaluate epilepsy?
``` Witnessed history Video Diary of episodes Investigations of other causes Bloods: baseline, genetics, metabolic ECG EEG MRI ```
86
What are treatments for epilepsy?
Anti epileptic medication Ketogenic diet Vagal nerve stimulator Epilepsy surgery
87
What is a focal seizure?
Originates in networks limited to one hemisphere
88
What is a generalised seizure?
Originates in and rapidly engages bilaterally distributed networks
89
What is a generalised tonic clonic seizure?
Sudden onset involving generalised stiffening and subsequent rhythmic jerking of the limbs as a result of widespread engagement of bilateral cortical and subcritical networks
90
What is a myoclonic seizure?
Sudden brief and almost shock like involuntary single or multiple jerks due to abnormal excessive or synchronous neuronal activity associated with poly spikes on EEG
91
What is a tonic seizure?
Abrupt generalised muscle stiffening possibly causing a fall Usually lasts 2-10 secs
92
What is an atonic seizure?
Generalised seizure characterised by sudden onset of loss of muscle tone
93
What is a febrile seizure?
Seizure precipitated by fever without evidence of cns infection or another defined cause Onset 6 months to 6 years Usually brief, generalised, tonic clonic
94
What is todds paresis associated with in febrile seizures?
Higher risk of epilepsy
95
What are differentials for a febrile seizure?
Meningitis | Meningo encephalitis
96
What are treatments for febrile seizures?
Treat the focus Reassurance Parent education Control temp with anti pyretics and cooling measures
97
What is status epilepticus?
Any seizure lasting duration of 30 mins or repeated seizures lasting 30 mins or longer from which the patient doesn't regain consciousness
98
In which patients are convulsive status episodes most common?
Children and those over 60
99
Why does injury to the brain occur in status epilepticus?
Underlying disorder Systemic complications of the convulsions - hypoxia from airway obstruction and acidosis when hypotension occurs Direct injury from repetitive neuronal discharge
100
What areas of the brain can be damaged by status epilepticus?
``` Hippocampus Amygdala Cerebellum Thalamus Cerebral cortex ```
101
What is management of status epilepticus?
ABC - check BM and treat if less than 3 Oxygen Vascular access: midazolam/diazepam/lorazepam. Repeat after 5 mins. If no response after 5 mins - phenytoin or phenobarbital. Wait 20 mins if no response, rapid sequence induction with thiopentone or propofol No vascular access: midazolam IM, buccal or intranasal. Repeat after 10 mins. If no response after 10 mins, paraldehyde PR. Then rapid sequence induction Call outreach team for PICU Reassess ABC Monitor for respiratory depression post benzo Regular neuro obs and monitor glucose Restrict fluids to 60% of maintenance and monitor urine output Consider NG to aspirate stomach contents Consider CT head
102
What are complications of status epilepticus?
``` Airway obstruction Hypoxia Aspiration Respiratory depression secondary to excess benzodiazepines Cardiac arrhythmias Pulmonary oedema Hyperthermia Hypertension Disseminated intravascular coagulation ```
103
What factors effect choice of medication in epilepsy?
``` Seizure type Epilepsy syndrome Co medication and co morbidity Lifestyle Child and family preferences Monotherapy wherever possible Formulations ```
104
When should anticonvulsants be initiated? And how?
If diagnosis of epilepsy established After discussion of potential side effects and management plan Discuss SUDEP - sudden unexpected death in epilepsy Start at subtherapeutic dose and increase slowly in 1-2 week intervals until therapeutic window Monitor response 3-12 monthly
105
When can you withdraw epilepsy medication?
Wean treatment after 2-3 years seizure freedom Drugs gradually withdrawn over last 2-3 months by reducing daily dose by 10-25% at intervals of 1-2 weeks Benzos may take longer
106
What are side effects of anti epileptic drugs?
``` GI side effects Allergic rash Severe immune reactions - SJS Weight gain /loss Behavioural Liver/renal toxicity Tremors ```
107
The 4 month old baby daughter of a HIV positive mother is admitted with seizures. She has neonatal jaundice and microcephaly. What has caused this?
Cytomegalovirus
108
What might be some features of cytomegalovirus inclusion disease?
``` Microcephaly Seizures Neonatal jaundice Hepatosplenomegaly Deafness Mental retardation ```
109
What is Ebsteins anomaly? How does it present?
Congenital heart defect where septal and posterior leaflets of tricuspid valve displaced towards apex of right ventricle Large right atrium, small right ventricle S3 and S4 heart sounds Systolic murmur along left lower sternal border Wolff Parkinson white syndrome often accompanies
110
Which drug taken by a mother whilst pregnant may contribute to the baby developing Ebsteins anomaly?
Lithium
111
If spontaneous closure of a patent ductus arteriosus does not occur, when is surgical closure recommended?
Between 6 months to 1 year
112
Up to what size of ASD may spontaneously close without intervention?
8mm
113
If a child with a congenital heart defect is described as squatting, what do they likely have?
Tetralogy of fallot
114
Why do children with tetralogy of fallot squat?
Squatting increases peripheral vascular resistance so decreases magnitude of right to left shunt across VSD and therefore increase pulmonary blood flow
115
What are the four abnormalities in tetralogy of fallot?
VSD Overriding aorta Right ventricular outflow obstuction - pulmonary stenosis Right ventricular hypertrophy
116
What causes right ventricular outflow tract obstruction in tetralogy of fallot?
Failure of rotation by pulmonary artery during its development Causes infundibular obstruction - entrance to pulmonary artery just before valve
117
Why is dyspnoea and cyanosis much worse on exertion in tetralogy of fallot?
Right ventricular outflow tract obstruction is variable because of its infundibular nature Tissue below pulmonary valve is muscular so responds to sympathetic stimulation This can cause it to contact during exertion and so worsen the obstruction This increases the flow of deoxygenated blood across the VSD and up the left ventricular outflow tract
118
What happens to the murmur in tetralogy of fallot during cyanotic episodes (tet spells)?
Murmur becomes quieter or disappear as there is reduced flow across the stenosed valve as more blood is shunted through the VSD
119
What is a boot shaped heart sign (coeur en sabot) indicative of?
Tetralogy of fallot | Product of small pulmonary tree and enlarged right ventricle
120
What is Eisenmengers syndrome?
Process in which a long standing left to right cardiac shunt caused by congenital heart defect (VSD, ASD or PDA) causes pulmonary HTN and eventually a reversal of the shunt into a cyanotic right to left shunt
121
What factors imply significant shunting across a VSD?
Heart failure Pulmonary plethora Mid diastolic murmur due to increased flow across the mitral valve Loud second heart sound
122
Give some causes of neonatal goitre
Maternal drugs: carbimazole, iodine containing compounds Pendreds syndrome: bilateral hearing loss and goitre Maternal Graves: passage of TSH antibodies across placenta
123
Which is the most common congenital obstruction of the stomach and intestines?
Pyloric stenosis
124
What is the incidence of pyloric stenosis?
1 in 400
125
Is pyloric stenosis more common in males or females?
Males - 4/5x more common
126
What is the main presenting complaint with pyloric stenosis?
Projectile vomiting starting in 2/3rd week of life
127
What causes pyloric stenosis?
Hypertrophy and hyperplasia of antrum of stomach
128
What electrolyte abnormality might present in pyloric stenosis?
Hyponatraemia Hypokalaemia Hypochloraemia Metabolic acidosis
129
A 4 day old boy has failed to pass meconium and has a distended abdomen. What would be on your differential list?
Hirschsprung's disease Anorectal malformations: imperforate anus, colonic atresia, colonic stenosis Meconium plug/Small left colon syndrome Hypoganglionosis Neuronal intestinal dysplasia Megacystis-microcolon-intestinal hypoperistalsis syndrome
130
What is Hirschsprung's disease?
Congential aganglionic section of colon that starts at anus and progresses upwards Children present with bowel obstruction in first few weeks of life
131
What is meconium plug syndrome?
Functional colonic obstruction in a newborn due to an obstructing meconium plug
132
What is Hypoganglionsosis?
Reduced number of nerves in the intestinal wall | May present like Hirschsprung's disease
133
What is Neuroal intestinal dysplasia?
Problem with the motor neurons that lead to the intestine, inhibiting this process and thus preventing digestion May present like Hirschsprung's disease
134
What is Berdon syndrome?
Megacystis-microcolon-intestinal hypoperistalsis syndrome Constipation and urinary retention, microcolon, giant bladder (megacystis), intestinal hypoperistalis, hydronephrosis, and dilated small bowel Abundance of ganglion cells in both dilated and narrow areas of the intestine
135
A 1 year old girl has presented with severe cramping abdominal pain. She has passed a stool mixed with blood and mucus. On examination there is a sausage shaped mass in the upper abdomen. What is the likely diagnosis?
Intussusception
136
What is intussusception?
Telescoping of one portion of the bowel into an immediately adjacent segment
137
What is the commonest cause of intestinal obstruction in children aged 3 months to 6 years?
Intussusception
138
A 15 year old boy has presented with weight loss and increasing bowel frequency and diarrhoea. On examination he has apthous ulcers and perianal fistulae. What is the likely diagnosis?
Crohn's disease
139
What are characteristics of achondroplasia?
``` Macrocephaly Frontal bossing Depressed nasal bridge Rhizomelic dwarfism Unusually prominent abdomen and buttocks Short hands with trident fingers during extension ```
140
What is McArdles disease?
Glycogen storage disease that results in mild lactic acidosis with exercise
141
A newborn boy presents with mild abdominal distension and failure to pass meconium after 24 hours. X-ray shows dilated bowel loops and fluid levels, the anus is normally located. What is it?
Hirschprungs disease
142
What is a Wilms tumour? When does it present?
Nephroblastoma | Usually in first 4 years of life
143
A 6 day old baby was born prematurely at 33 weeks. He has been suffering from respiratory distress syndrome and has been receiving ventilatory support on NICU. He has developed abdominal distension and is increasingly septic. Ultrasound of the abdomen shows free fluid and evidence of small bowel dilatation. His blood pressure has remained labile despite inotropic support. What is the diagnosis and how is it managed?
Necrotising enterocolitis and whilst this is often initially managed medically a laparotomy is required if the situation deteriorates
144
A 5-year-old child has been unwell with a sore throat and fever for several days. He progresses to develop periumbilical abdominal discomfort and passes diarrhoea. This becomes blood stained. The paediatricians call you because the ultrasound has shown a 'target sign'. What is the diagnosis and how is it managed?
Intussusception. The lymphadenopathy will have initiated it. A target sign is seen on ultrasound and is the side on view of multiple layers of bowel wall. Reduction using fluoroscopy with air is the usual first line management. Ileo-colic intussceceptions are generally most reliably reduced using this method, long ileo-ileal intussceceptions usually result in surgery
145
What is the treatment for pyloric stenosis?
Ramstedt pyloromyotomy (open or laparoscopic)
146
What are red flags for speech development?
Loss of developmental skills at any age No vocalising by 3 months No babbling by 10 months Not responding to name by 12 months
147
What is the mode of inheritance of peutz jeghers syndrome?
Autosomal dominant
148
An 18 month old boy is referred with loss of consciousness on 6 occasions. Each was preceded by a tantrum. What is the diagnosis?
Blue breath holding episodes
149
What are the different types of breath holding spells?
Simple: no major alteration in circulation or oxygenation, spontaneous recovery Cyanotic/blue: precipitated by anger, cries, forced expiration, loss of muscle tone, loss of consciousness Pallid/pale: painful event, pale, loses consciousness with little or no crying Complicated: begins as blue or pale but then associated with seizure activity
150
How does congenital adrenal hyperplasia present?
Vomiting Weight loss Dehydration Girls with virilised genitalia
151
How does hirschsprungs disease present?
Constipation Generalised abdominal distension Rectum empty Palpable faecal mass
152
How's does meckels diverticulum present?
Rectal bleeding Intussusception Like appendicitis
153
How does nephroblastoma present?
``` Wilms tumour Abdominal pain Vomiting Palpable abdominal lump Hypertensive ```
154
How does neuroblastoma present?
Asymptomatic mass | Pallor and hypotension if it bleeds
155
What is the maximum age by which intervention should ideally be in place if a pre lingually deaf child is to acquire language in a manner as close as possible to a hearing child?
12 months
156
What intervention is required to correct a congenital hearing loss in a child?
Hearing aid fitted initially to allow available sound to be delivered to child's developing auditory system For children with severe-profound hearing loss for whom hearing aids are insufficient, cochlear implantation should be considered
157
Why is tetracycline contraindicated in children?
Side effects affecting bones and teeth discoloration and growth
158
How would salt losing congenital adrenal hyperplasia present?
``` Failure to thrive Vomiting Dehydration Shocked Low sodium ```
159
What are risk factors for neonatal hearing loss?
``` Family history of hearing loss Prematurity Low birth weight Neonatal jaundice Rubella Non bacterial intrauterine infection Anoxia Craniofacial deformity Bacterial meningitis Apgar score of 0-3 ```
160
What proportion of children with born with a hearing impairment are detected by high risk screening programmes?
Half
161
What is the most common drug responsible for fatal poisonings in children?
Tricyclic antidepressants
162
What causes a barking cough in children?
Croup
163
What is the treatment for croup?
Humidified oxygen | If more severe - dexamethasone
164
What are treatments for bronchiolitis?
Supportive: humidified oxygen and supporting feeding
165
What is McArdles disease?
``` Painful muscle cramps Myoglobinuria After intense exercise Autosomal recessive condition Myophosphorylase deficiency which leads to inability to utilise glucose ```
166
What is chondromalacia patellae?
Softening of cartilage of patella Common in teenage girls Anterior knee pain on walking up and down stairs and rising from prolonged sitting
167
What is osgood schlatter disease?
Tibial apophysitis Seen in sporty teenagers Pain, tenderness and swelling over tibial tubercle
168
An 18 day old breast fed boy who has gained 300g since birth has no other problems but jaundice with yellow stools. What is the likely diagnosis?
Breastfeeding jaundice
169
A 10 day old baby has shown no weight gain since birth and has jaundice associated with clay coloured stools, what is the likely diagnosis?
Biliary atresia
170
What is osteochondritis dissecans?
Pain after exercise | Intermittent swelling and locking
171
A 1 day baby born at term is noted to be developing increasing jaundice. What is the likely cause?
Rhesus incompatibility
172
An 8 year old boy presents with puffy eyes, ascites and scrotal swelling following an URTI. What is the likely diagnosis?
Minimal change glomerulonephritis
173
A 4 year old child was seen in a refugee camp. He has angular stomatitis, hyperkeratosis with desquamation rash, sparse hair and ascites. What is the likely diagnosis?
Kwashiorkor - protein energy malnutrition
174
What is Dubin Johnson syndrome?
Autosomal recessive disorder Increase in conjugated bilirubin Black liver Defect in ability of hepatocytes to secrete conjugated bilirubin into bile due to mutation in multiple drug resistance protein 2 in canalicular membrane
175
What is rotor syndrome?
Autosomal recessive bilirubin disorder causing increased conjugated bilirubin Liver appears normal (in contrast to dubin Johnson) Mutations in transport proteins so liver cannot remove bilirubin
176
What is Gilbert's syndrome?
Reduced activity of glucuronyltransferase which conjugates bilirubin so causes unconjugated hyperbilirubinaemia
177
What is G6PD deficiency?
X linked recessive inborn error of metabolism predisposing to haemolysis and jaundice Triggered by food, illness or medication Low levels of glucose 6 phosphate dehydrogenase which is involved in pentose phosphate pathway
178
How can G6PD deficiency manifest/be complicated?
``` Prolonged neonatal jaundice Kernicterus Haemolytic crises Diabetic ketoacidosis Acute kidney failure ```
179
What is favism?
Haemolytic response to consumption of fava beans associated with G6PD deficiency
180
What are some triggers of haemolytic crises in G6PD deficiency?
Fava beans Drugs: antimalarials, sulfonamides, nitrofurantoin Stress: bacterial or viral infection
181
What are features of Klinefelters syndrome?
``` Tall Reduced muscle control and coordination Reduced secondary sexual characteristics Gynaecomastia Infertility Microorchidism ```
182
What is the karyotype of klinefelters?
47 XXY
183
What are features of fragile x syndrome?
``` Behavioural problems Intellectual disability/learning difficulties Developmental delay Low muscle tone Long narrow face, prominent ears High palate Large testicles Mitral valve prolapse ```
184
What are features of Kallmanns syndrome?
``` Anosmia Cleft palate Renal agenesis/aplasia Failure to start or complete puberty Lack of testicle development Primary amenorrhoea Infertility ```
185
What is Kallmanns syndrome?
Failure of hypothalamus to release GnRH at appropriate time due to GnRH releasing neurons not migrating into correct location during embryonic development Hypogonadotropic hypogonadism
186
What is the most common extracutanous site for chickenpox virus in children?
Cerebellar ataxia
187
What is Rett syndrome?
``` Cerebroatrophic hyperammonaemia Post natal neurological disorder of grey matter seen in females Small hands and feet Deceleration of rate of head growth Repetitive stereotyped hand movements Associated with autism ```
188
What is the management for a child under 3 months with a temperature of over 38?
Urgent referral to paediatrician
189
What is Hirschsprung's disease? How does it present?
Absence of ganglion cells in neural plexus of intestinal wall More common in boys than girls Delayed passage of meconium and abdo distension
190
In who is necrotising enterocolitis more common?
Premature infants
191
Why does necrotising enterocolitis cause sepsis?
Mesenteric ischaemia causes bacterial invasion of mucosa leading to sepsis
192
Which regions of the bowel are commonly affected in necrotising enterocolitis?
Terminal ileum Caecum Distal colon
193
How does necrotising enterocolitis present?
Distended tense abdomen Passage of blood and mucus per rectum Signs of sepsis
194
Which condition is associated with meconium ileus?
Cystic fibrosis
195
Why does cystic fibrosis cause meconium ileus?
Deficient intestinal secretions leading to abnormal bulky and viscid meconium
196
How is a diagnosis of pyloric stenosis made?
Test feed or USS
197
What is the treatment for pyloric stenosis?
Ramstedt pyloromyotomy
198
When and how does pyloric stenosis usually present?
4-6 weeks of life | Projectile non bile stained vomiting
199
How does intussusception usually present?
``` Child age 6-9 months Colicky pain Diarrhoea and vomiting Sausage shaped mass Red jelly stool ```
200
What is the treatment for intussusception?
Reduction with air insufflation
201
What is oesophageal atresia associated with?
Tracheo-oesophageal fistula | Polyhydramnios
202
How does biliary atresia usually present?
Jaundice >14 days after birth | Increased conjugated bilirubin
203
How is biliary atresia treated?
Urgent Kasai procedure - small intestine pulled up and used to create bile duct Roux en Y connection of duodenum to newly inserted small bowel
204
What are causes of constipation in children?
``` Idiopathic Dehydration Low fibre diet Medications: opiates Anal fissure Over enthusiastic potty training Hypothyroidism Hirschsprung's disease Hypercalcaemia Learning disabilities ```
205
What are some red flags in terms of stools and constipation in children?
Reported from birth or first few weeks of life Meconium passed after 48 hours Ribbon stools Faltering growth Previously unknown weakness in legs, locomotor delay Abdomen distension
206
What factors in a child suggest faecal impaction?
Symptoms of severe constipation Overflow soiling Faecal mass palpable in abdomen
207
What is the management if faecal impaction is present in a child?
Polyethylene glycol 3350 and electrolytes using escalating dose regimen (movicol paediatric plain) Add stimulant laxative if not disimpacted after 2 weeks Substitute stimulant laxative +/- osmotic laxative if MPP not tolerated Inform family that disimpaction can initially increase symptoms of soiling and abdominal pain
208
What does WETFLAG stand for in paediatric life support?
``` Weight: 0-12 months (0.5 x age in months) +4 1-5 years (2x age) +8 6-12 years (3x age) +7 Energy: 4 joules/kg Tube: age/4 +4 Fluids: illness 20ml/kg, trauma 10ml/kg Lorazepam: 0.1ml/kg IV or IO Adrenaline: 0.1ml/kg IV or IO 1:10000 Glucose: 2ml/kg 10% dextrose ```
209
How does step 3 of asthma management differ in children?
5 or over: add LABA | Under 5: add leukotriene antagonist
210
What are risk factors for neonatal meningitis?
``` Low birth weight Prematurity Traumatic delivery Foetal hypoxia Maternal peripartum infection ```
211
Which causative organisms are neonates at risk of developing meningitis from?
Group B strep E. coli Listeria monocytogenes
212
At what point should a child with an undescended testis be referred?
3 months of age | Should be seen before 6 months
213
What is the management for nocturnal enuresis?
Look for underlying causes: constipation, diabetes, UTI Advise on fluid intake, diet and toiletting before bedtime Reward systems: stars for using the toilet before sleep Child under 7: enuresis alarm 7 or over: desmopressin
214
At what age should children be offered an influenza vaccine?
Intranasally at 2-3 years | Annually after that
215
What are contraindications to a child receiving an influenza vaccine?
Immunocompromised Aged <2 Current febrile illness/blocked nose Current wheeze or history of severe asthma Egg allergy Pregnancy/breastfeeding If child is taking aspirin - Kawasaki disease, due to risk of Reye's syndrome
216
What vaccines should a child have at birth?
BCG/hep B if risk factors
217
What vaccines should a child have at 2 months?
DTaP/IPV/Hib PCV Oral rotavirus Men B
218
What vaccines should a child have at 3 months?
DTaP/IPV/Hib | Oral rotavirus
219
What vaccines should a child have at 4 months?
DTaP/IPV/Hib PCV Men B
220
What vaccines should a child have at 12-13 months?
Hib/Men C MMR PCV Men B
221
What vaccines should a child have at 2- 7 years?
annual flu vaccine
222
What vaccines should a child have at 3-4 years?
MMR and DTaP/IPV
223
What vaccines should a child have at 12-13 years?
HPV vaccine for girls
224
What vaccines should a child have at 13 - 18 years?
DT/IPV | Men ACWY
225
What is the management for croup?
Oral dexamethasone 0.15mg/kg single dose High flow oxygen Nebulised adrenaline
226
What are features of patau syndrome?
``` Microcephaly Small eyes Cleft lip/palate Polydactyly Scalp lesions ```
227
What is patau syndrome?
Trisomy 13
228
What are features of Edwards syndrome?
Micrognathia Low set ears Rocker bottom feet Overlapping of fingers
229
What is Edwards syndrome?
Trisomy 18
230
What are features of fragile x?
``` Learning difficulties Macrocephaly Long face Large ears Macro orchidism ```
231
What are features of noonan syndrome?
Webbed neck Pectus excavatum Short stature Pulmonary stenosis
232
What are features of Pierre robin syndrome?
Micrognathia Posterior displacement of tongue Cleft palate
233
What are features of prader Willi syndrome?
Hypotonia Hypogonadism Obesity
234
What are features of Williams syndrome?
``` Short stature Learning difficulties Friendly extrovert personality Transient neonatal hypercalcaemia Supravalvular aortic stenosis ```
235
What causes headlice?
Pediculosis capitis
236
How are head lice diagnosed?
Fine toothed combing of wet or dry hair
237
What is the management of head lice?
Treatment only indicated if living lice found | Choice should be offered: malathion, wet combing, dimeticone, isopropyl myrisate and cyclomethicone
238
Which patients typically get Wilms tumours?
Under 5 years, median age 3
239
How does a wilms tumour usually present?
``` Abdo mass Painless haematuria Flank pain Anorexia Fever Mets: usually lung ```
240
What is the management of a wilms tumour?
Nephrectomy Chemotherapy Radiotherapy if advanced
241
Under what age can a child not consent to sex?
Under 13
242
What is talipes equinovarus?
Club foot | Inverted and plantar flexed foot
243
What are associations with club foot?
``` Spina bifida Cerebral palsy Edwards syndrome Oligohydramnios Arthrogryposis ```
244
What is the ponseti method?
Manipulative technique that corrects congenital club foot without invasive surgery Manipulation and progressive casting starting soon after birth Usually corrected after 6-10 weeks Achilles tenotomy required in 85% Night time braces required until age 4
245
What type of diet can be useful in patients with difficult to treat epilepsy?
Ketogenic diet: high fat, low carb, controlled protein
246
What is wests syndrome?
Infantile spasms Childhood epilepsy presents in first 4-8 months of life More common in males Characteristic salaam attacks: flexion of head, trunk and arms followed by extension of arms Progressive mental handicap
247
What would an EEG show in an infant with west syndrome?
Hypsarrhythmia - high amplitude irregular waves and spikes in background of chaotic and disorganised activity
248
What are clinical features of tuberous sclerosis?
``` Ash leaf spots Adenoma sebaceum Shagreen patches Subungual fibromata Epilepsy Developmental problems Retinal hamartomas ```
249
What are risk factors for developmental dysplasia of the hip?
``` Female Breech presentation Positive family history Firstborn Oligohydramnios Birth weight >5kg Congenital calcaneovalgus foot deformity ```
250
What is the management of developmental dysplasia of the hip?
Most will spontaneously stabilise by 3-6 weeks Pavlik harness in children younger than 4-5 months Older children may require surgery
251
Which hearing test is used in newborn babies?
Automated otoacoustic emissions test
252
What is the classic triad of problems in haemolytic uraemic syndrome?
Haemolytic anaemia Renal failure Thrombocytopenia
253
Which bug usually causes haemolytic anaemic syndrome?
E. coli 0157
254
What needs to be done about a suspected case of female genital mutilation?
Inform medical team and police - child protection and safeguarding issues
255
What is a cephalohaematoma?
Swelling on newborns head Develops hours after delivery Due to bleeding between periosteum and skull Most commonly in parietal region
256
What is caput succedaneum?
Serosanguinous subcutaneous extraperiosteal fluid collection with poorly defined margins caused by pressure of presenting part of scalp against dilating cervix
257
What is a chignon?
Temporary swelling left on infants head after a ventouse suction cup has been used for delivery
258
What is a subaponeurotic haemorrhage?
Bleeding in potential space between periosteum and subgaleal aponeurosis Boggy swelling that grows insidiously and is not confined to skull sutures May present as haemorrhagic shock
259
How should a child aged less than 3 months be managed if they have a UTI?
Refer immediately to paediatrician
260
What is the management for cradle cap (seborrhoeic dermatitis)?
Mild to moderate: baby shampoo and baby oils | Severe: mild topical steroids e.g. 1% hydrocortisone
261
What is bardet Biedl syndrome?
Polydactyly Obesity Retinitis pigmentosa
262
What are causes of neonatal jaundice in the first 24 hours of life?
Rhesus haemolytic disease ABO haemolytic disease Hereditary spherocytosis G6PD deficiency
263
What is done if jaundice is still present after 14 days in a neonate?
``` Measure conjugated and unconjugated bilirubin Direct antiglobulin test TFTs FBC and blood film Urine for MC and S and reducing sugars U and Es LFTs ```
264
What are causes of prolonged jaundice in a newborn?
``` Biliary atresia Hypothyroidism Galactosaemia Urinary tract infection Breast milk jaundice Congenital infection: CMV, toxoplasmosis ```
265
What is the management for severe croup?
Steroids | Nebulised adrenaline
266
What is Kawasaki disease?
``` Small vessel vasculitis Prolonged fever Children under 5 Mucocutaneous lymph node syndrome Rash, lymphadenopathy, red eyes, dry cracked lips, red fingers and toes ```
267
What is the management for viral induced wheeze?
Salbutamol inhaler | If this isn't helping, add oral montelukast or inhaled corticosteroid
268
What are features of Kawasaki disease?
``` High grade fever >5 days Conjunctival injection Bright red, cracked lips Strawberry tongue Cervical lymphadenopathy Red palms and soles which later peel ```
269
What is the management of Kawasaki disease?
High dose aspirin IV immunoglobulin Echo to screen for coronary artery aneurysms
270
What is G6PD?
X linked disorder affecting red cell enzymes Reduced ability of red cells to respond to oxidative stress so have shorter life span and are more susceptible to haemolysis particularly in response to drugs, infection, acidosis and fava beans Red cell fragments: Heinz bodies
271
What are features of G6PD deficiency?
``` Neonatal jaundice Intravascular haemolysis Gallstones Splenomegaly Heinz bodies on blood film ```
272
What is eneuresis?
Involuntary discharge of urine day or night or both in a child aged 5 or over in absence of congenital or acquired defects of nervous system or urinary tract
273
What is the management of whooping cough?
Oral macrolide: clarithromycin, azithromycin, erythromycin if onset of cough is within previous 21 days
274
What are complications of whooping cough?
Subconjunctival haemorrhage Pneumonia Bronchiectasis Seizures
275
What are features of Bartter syndrome?
Neonatal: polyhydramnios, polyuria, polydipsia, hypocalcaemia, nephrocalcinosis Classic: polyuria, polydipsia, vomiting, growth retardation, hypokalaemia, alkalosis, low BP
276
Until what age are up going plantars normal?
1 year
277
At how many months do infant IgM levels reach that of adult?
2-5 months
278
Which immunoglobulin crosses the placenta?
IgG
279
What is Kallmanns syndrome?
Failure to start puberty and anosmia Hypogonadotrophic hypogonadism GnRH releasing neurones prevented from reaching hypothalamus or cribriform plate
280
What is Noonan syndrome?
``` Pulmonary stenosis ASD Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy Short stature Learning difficulty Pectus excavatum Webbed neck Flat nose bridge ```
281
What is a congenital undescended testis?
One that has failed to reach the bottom of the scrotum by 3 months of age
282
Which congenital defects may be associated with undescended testis?
``` Patent processus vaginalis Abnormal epididymis Cerebral palsy Mental retardation Wilms tumour Abdominal wall defect ```
283
What are reasons for correcting cryptorchidism?
Reduce risk of infertility Allows testis to be examined for cancer Avoid torsion Cosmetic appearance
284
What is the treatment for cryptorchidism?
Orchidopexy at 6-18 months of age | After age of 2 if untreated, Sertoli cells degrade and so may be better to do orchidectomy
285
Which congenital abnormality is associated with holoprosencephaly and cyclops?
Trisomy 13: patau syndrome
286
Which congenital abnormality is associated with dysplastic heart valves and oesophageal atresia?
Trisomy 18: Edwards syndrome
287
Which conditions are screened for on a neonatal blood spot screening?
``` Congenital hypothyroidism Cystic fibrosis Sickle cell Phenylketonuria Medium chain acyl coA dehydrogenase deficiency Maple syrup urine disease Isovolaemic acidaemia Glutaric aciduria type 1 Homocystinuria ```
288
When is neonatal blood spot screening performed?
Between 5th and 9th day of life
289
What is a Wilms tumour?
Nephroblastoma seen in children | Usually presents as painless palpable abdominal mass, anorexia, haematuria, HTN
290
What are some associations of a Wilms tumour?
Beckwith wiedemann syndrome WAGR syndrome Hemihypertrophy Loss of function in WT1 gene
291
How does listeriosis present in a neonate?
Multi organ disease | Granulomata on skin
292
How does toxoplasmosis present in a neonate?
Hydrocephaly Seizures Chorioretinitis
293
What advice can be given to a mother during pregnancy to try and avoid toxoplasmosis in a baby?
Wear gloves when gardening or handling cat litter | Cook meat thoroughly
294
How does cytomegalovirus present in a neonate?
Jaundice Hepatosplenomegaly Microcephaly
295
How does neonatal varicella infection present?
``` Cerebral cortical and cerebellar hypoplasia Microcephaly Convulsions Limb hypoplasia Rudimentary digits ```
296
How does neonatal rubella present?
``` Cataracts Cardiac abnormalities Thrombocytopenia Cerebral calcification Deafness ```
297
What is the antibiotic of choice for whooping cough?
Erythromycin
298
What is gnathopathy?
Protrusion of upper teeth | Feature of sickle cell
299
What order do features of male puberty develop in?
Testicular enlargement Secondary sexual characteristics: public hair, axillary hair, body odour, deepening of voice Growth spurt 18 months after onset
300
What order do features of female puberty develop in?
Breast development Axillary and pubic hair Growth spurt Menarche
301
In which groups does puberty usually occur earlier?
Afro American children Obese Due to raised oestrogen levels
302
What is pendred syndrome?
Congenital bilateral sensorineural hearing loss and goitre with euthyroid or mild hypothyroidism
303
The presence of what features alongside meconium would warrant assessment by the neonatal team?
``` Resp rate above 60 Grunting Heart rate below 100 or over 160 Cap refil over 3 Temp 38 or above or 37.5 on 2 occasions 30 mins apart Sats below 95% Central cyanosis ```
304
What is the most common cause of stridor in infants?
Laryngomalacia
305
What is laryngomalacia?
Floppy epiglottis which folds into airway on inspiration
306
Which are cyanotic heart defects?
``` Tetralogy of Fallot Transposition of great vessels Hypoplastic left heart Tricuspid atresia Eisenmengers complex ```
307
What is eisenmengers syndrome?
Reversal of a shunt due to pulmonary hypertension
308
What are causes of neonatal hypoglycaemia?
``` Maternal diabetes mellitus Prematurity IUGR Hypothermia Neonatal sepsis Inborn errors of metabolism Nesidioblastosis Beckwith Wiedemann syndrome ```
309
What is DiGeorge syndrome?
``` Thymic aplasia with agammaglobulinaemia Congenital heart problems Frequent infections Developmental delay 22q11.2 deletion syndrome ```
310
What is Wiskott Aldrich syndrome?
X linked immunodeficiency disorder characterised by lymphopenia and recurrent bacterial infections
311
What are some predisposing conditions for intussusception?
Enlarged peyers patches Meckels diverticula Tumour Haematoma complicating HSP
312
In which age group does intussusception tend to present?
3 months to 3 years
313
What are key features of the children's flu vaccine?
Intranasal First dose at 2-3 years then annually after that Live vaccine
314
What are contraindications to the children's flu vaccine?
Immunocompromised Aged <2 years Current febrile illness or blocked nose rhinorrhoea Current wheeze or hx severe asthma Egg allergy Pregnancy/breastfeeding If child is taking asthma due to risk of Reyes
315
What are side effects of flu vaccine?
Blocked nose/rhinorrhoea Headache Anorexia
316
What are features of Lesch-Nyhan syndrome?
``` Hyperuricaemia Gout Choreoathetosis Spasticity Mental deficiency Behavioural disturbance (particularly self mutilation) ```
317
What is the epidemiology of autism?
75% male | Usually develops before age 3
318
What features must be present for a diagnosis of autism to be made?
Global impairment of language and communication Impairment of social relationships Ritualistic and compulsive behaviour
319
Which conditions are particularly associated with autism?
Fragile x syndrome | Retts syndrome
320
What is the most appropriate treatment for a neonate with otitis media?
IV cefotaxime
321
How will a child with foetal alcohol syndrome present?
``` Short stature Short palpebral fissures Flat philtrum Thin upper lip vermillion Neurocognitive problems: hyperactivity, delinquent behaviour ```
322
Which criteria are used to give a diagnosis of marfans syndrome?
Ghent criteria | Two cardinal features: dilated aortic root and displacement of optic lens
323
How often would you expect a 2 month old to feed and how many wet nappies should usually go with this?
Feed 8-10 times a day for 5-10 mins at a time | 5-6 wet nappies with 3-4 stools
324
Why do patients with kallmans syndrome get anosmia and primary amenorrhoea?
Failure of development of olfactory bulb | Failure of production of gonadotrophin releasing hormone
325
Which drug can be used to close a patent ductus arteriosus?
Indomethacin
326
Which immune cells are deficient in DiGeorge syndrome?
T cells due to failure of thymic development
327
What are features of Prader-Willi syndrome?
Obesity due to compulsive food consumption | Mental retardation
328
What are features of Kawasaki disease?
``` High grade fever which lasts >5 days, resistant to antipyretics Conjunctival injection Bright red, cracked lips Strawberry tongue Cervical lymphadenopathy Red palms and soles which later peel ```
329
What is the management of Kawasaki disease?
High dose aspirin IV immunoglobulin Echo to screen for coronary artery aneurysm
330
At what point should a baby be referred if they have an undescended testicle?
Consider from 3 months Ideally should see surgeon before 6 months Usually procedure at around 1 year
331
What is the emergency management of a child with severe croup?
Oxygen and nebulised adrenaline
332
How is a diagnosis of pertussis confirmed?
Nasal secretions - culture
333
In what age are breath holding attacks most common?
6 months to 5 years
334
What are clinical features of turners syndrome?
``` Delayed secondary sexual characteristics Webbed neck Systolic murmur Broad shield chest with widely spaced nipples Cubitus valgus Short fourth metacarpal Low set ears Low hairline Hypoplastic nails Short stature ```
335
What treatments are used in turners syndrome?
Growth hormone Anabolic steroids Oestrogen/progesterone
336
What are possible features of galactosaemia?
``` Vomiting Diarrhoea Jaundice Lethargy Hypotonia Failure to thrive Cataracts Mental retardation Seizures Complement deficiency ```
337
What is galactosaemia?
Rare metabolic genetic disorder that affects ability to metabolise galactose properly Autosomal recessive deficiency in enzyme needed to break down galactose
338
What is a cephalohaematoma?
Haemorrhage of blood between skull and periosteum due to rupture of vessels crossing periosteum
339
What are causes of cephalohaematoma?
Prolonged second stage labour | Instrumental delivery, particularly ventouse
340
What are symptoms of cephalohaematoma?
``` Jaundice Anaemia Hypotension Infection Unnatural bulges ```
341
When does a cephalohaematoma usually manifest?
Several hours after delivery
342
Over how long will a cephalohaematoma take to resolve?
3 months
343
Which disorders can cause hair on end appearance on skull X-ray?
``` SHITE Sickle cell anemia Hereditary spherocytosis Iron deficiency anemia Thalassemia Enzyme deficiency (G6PD) ```
344
Why do patients with thalassemia get cirrhosis and iron overload?
Multiple transfusions
345
When does jaundice start in babies with beta thalassemia?
3 months because haemoglobin f is still predominant in neonates
346
In a child that has been dry for some time, what may be causes of new onset bed wetting?
Psychological UTI Diabetes
347
What are features of patau syndrome (trisomy 13)?
``` Midline defects Hypotelorism Cleft palate Microphthalmia Cyclopia ```
348
How is a patent ductus arteriosus closed?
COX inhibitor infusion to block synthesis of prostaglandins which keep it open
349
What are some causes of polyhydramnios?
``` Maternal diabetes Rhesus incompatibility Duodenal atresia GI obstruction Tracheo-oesophageal fistula Anencephaly ```
350
How is hereditary spherocytosis inherited?
Autosomal dominant
351
Which treatment can lead to a normal life for patients with hereditary spherocytosis?
Splenectomy | Done after 5 years when chances of life threatening encapsulated bacterial infection reduce
352
When is the peak age for sudden infant death syndrome?
Under 6 months | Particularly second month
353
In which babies is sudden infant death syndrome most likely?
``` Low birth weight Premature Twins Boys Babies born to young mothers Low socio economic class Smokers in household Sleeping prone Co sleeping with parents History of drug or alcohol misuse in family ```
354
What are treatment options for minimal change disease?
Diuretics Salt restriction Steroids
355
What are complications of minimal change disease?
Venous thrombosis Sepsis Acute renal failure Renal vein thrombosis
356
Why does congenital adrenal hyperplasia lead to accelerated bone age?
21 alpha hydroxylase deficiency results in increased production of androgens which drive bone proliferation, particularly at puberty
357
What does small for gestational age mean?
Birth weight below the 10th centile for gestational age and sex
358
What is intrauterine growth retardation?
Decrease in foetal growth rate that prevents infant obtaining genetic growth potential
359
What are potential complications of intrauterine growth retardation?
``` Perinatal asphyxia Meconium aspiration Electrolyte imbalance Metabolic acidosis Polycythemia Hypoglycaemia ```
360
At what age would you refer a child if they were unable to speak in intelligible short sentences?
3 years
361
At what age would you refer a child if they were not reliably dry at night whilst continent of urine and faeces?
6 years
362
At what age would you refer a child who was unable to sit unsupported?
10 months
363
What is Gaucher's disease?
Genetic disorder where glucocerebroside accumulates in cells and organs Characterised by bruising, fatigue, anaemia, hepatosplenomegaly, skeletal disorder, neuropathy, pingueculae in cornea
364
At what age would you refer a child if they were unable to walk independently?
18 months
365
At what age would you refer a child if they were unable to smile?
2 months
366
What is the name of the eye infection caused by vertical transmission of neisseria gonorrhoea to a neonate?
Ophthalmia neonatorum
367
What are features of HSP?
``` Palpable purpuric rash over buttocks and extensor surfaces of arms and legs Abdominal pain Polyarthritis Haematuria Renal failure ```
368
What proportion of patients will have a relapse of their HSP?
1/3
369
What is the management for mild croup?
Oral dexamethasone 0.15mg/kg single dose and review
370
What is the management for severe croup?
Systemic dexamethasone and nebulised adrenaline 5ml of 1:1000 Oxygen
371
How long do children need to be kept out of school if they have whooping cough?
Five days from commencing antibiotics
372
How long does a child need to be excluded from school if they have roseola inantum?
No exclusion
373
How long does a child need to be excluded from school if they have diarrhoea and vomiting?
Until symptoms have settled for 48 hours
374
Which protein is defected in Marfans syndrome?
Fibrillin
375
What is the immediate management of necrotising enterocolitis?
Broad spectrum antibiotics
376
What is the treatment for impetigo?
Topical fusidic acid
377
How does diphtheria present?
``` Grey membrane on tonsils Recent visitors to Eastern Europe/Russia/Asia Sore throat Bulky cervical lymphadenopathy Neuritis Heart block ```
378
What are features of congenital toxoplasmosis?
Microcephaly Hydrocephalus Cerebral calcification Choroidoretinitis
379
How might a baby who was exposed to cytomegalovirus during pregnancy present?
Neonatal jaundice Deafness Microcephaly
380
What is wiskott Aldrich syndrome?
Rare X-linked recessive disease characterized by eczema, thrombocytopenia, immune deficiency, and bloody diarrhoea secondary to the thrombocytopenia
381
When are doses of MMR vaccine given?
12-15 months | 3-4 years
382
What are contraindications to MMR vaccine?
Severe immunosuppression Allergy to neomycin Children who have received another live vaccine within 4 weeks Pregnancy should be avoided for 1 month after Immunoglobulin therapy within past 3 months
383
What are the criteria for immediate head CT in a child after head injury?
Loss of consciousness more than 5 mins Amnesia lasting more than 5 mins Abnormal drowsiness Three or more episodes of vomiting Clinical suspicion of NAI Post traumatic seizure with no Hx epilepsy GCS <14 or for baby under 1 GCS <15 in ED Suspicion of open or depressed skull injury or tense fontanelle Basal skull fracture: haemotympanum, panda eyes, CSF rhinorrhoea, battles sign Focal neurological deficit If under 1: bruise, swelling or laceration more than 5cm on head Dangerous mechanism of injury: high speed road accident, fall from height greater than 3cm, high speed injury from projectile
384
What are cutaneous features of tuberous sclerosis?
Depigmented ash leaf spots Roughened patches of skin over lumbar spine (shagreen patches) Adenoma sebaceum (angiofibromas over nose) Subungual fibromata Cafe au lait spots
385
What is the most common cause of a persistent watery eye in an infant?
Nasolacrimal duct obstruction
386
What is Reye's syndrome?
Severe inflammatory progressive encephalitic illness of children often accompanied by fatty infiltration
387
What is McArdles disease?
Inherited disorder resulting in rhabdomyolysis with minor illness or mild/moderate exertion Inherited defect in gene for muscle phosphorylase enzyme
388
What are causes of jaundice in first 24 hours of life?
Rhesus haemolytic disease ABO haemolytic disease Hereditary spherocytosis G6PD deficiency
389
What are some causes of prolonged jaundice in a newborn? (Beyond 14 days)
``` Biliary atresia Hypothyroidism Galactosaemia UTI Breast milk jaundice Congenital infection e.g. CMV, toxoplasmosis ```
390
When is the rotavirus vaccine given?
2 months and 3 months
391
Why should the rotavirus vaccine not be given after 23 weeks and 6 days?
Theoretical risk of intussusception
392
Which babies are most likely to have a patent ductus arteriosus?
Premature Born at high altitude Maternal rubella infection in first trimester
393
What are features of a PDA?
``` Left subclavicular thrill Continuous machinery murmur Large volume, bounding, collapsing pulse Wide pulse pressure Heaving apex beat ```
394
What is the management of PDA?
Indomethacin
395
What does a combination of scaphoid abdomen and bilious vomiting suggest?
Intestinal malrotation and volvulus
396
What should be given to a baby who has a high risk of vertical transmission of hep b?
Hep b vaccine and 0.5ml HBIG within 12 hours of birth Hepatitis vaccine at 1-2 months Vaccine at 6 months
397
What is a neonatal death? What is the difference between early and late neonatal death?
Death within 28 days of delivery of a live born foetus regardless of gestation Early: 0-6 days Late: 7-27 days
398
When should the fontanelles close?
Posterior: 8 weeks Anterior: 12 and 18 months
399
How is a diagnosis of Kawasaki disease made?
Prolonged fever more than 5 days Typical mucocutaneous changes: desquamation of fingers and toes including palms and soles Lymphadenopathy
400
What is a NIPE? When should it be done?
Newborn and infant physical examination | Within 72 hours of birth unless sick baby then within 24 hours
401
What is choanal atresia?
Congenital disorder Posterior nasal airway occluded by soft tissue or bone Episodes of cyanosis worst during feeding made better by crying
402
What are signs of respiratory distress syndrome in a neonate?
``` Cyanosis Tachypnoea Nasal flaring Grunting Intercostal/subcostal recession Apnoea ```
403
What causes tracheal tug?
Aneurysm of aortic arch
404
What is Rett syndrome?
Genetic disorder which affects brain development primarily in females Development proceeds in normal fashion for 6-18 months then change in behaviour with regression or loss of abilities including gross motor, speech, reasoning and hand use They typically have repetition of gestures e.g. Hand ringing or hand washing
405
What are features of prader Willi syndrome?
Compulsive eating Childhood obesity Developmental delay Chromosome 15 abnormalities
406
What is Harrison's sulcus?
Horizontal groove along lower border of thorax corresponding to costal insertion of diaphragm Usually caused by chronic asthma or COPD, can also appear in rickets due to defective mineralisation of bones so diaphragm pulls softened bone inwards
407
Why are newborns vitamin k deficient?
Immature hepatic metabolism Low placental transfer No oral intake of vitamin k or precursors Lack of gastrointestinal bacterial colonisation
408
Why is intramuscular vitamin k given to newborns at birth?
Reduce vitamin k deficiency bleeding - haemorrhagic disease of newborn
409
What are features of digeorge syndrome?
CATCH 22 Cardiac abnormalities Abnormal facies (high broad nose, low set ears, small teeth, narrow eyes) Thymic hypoplasia Hypocalcaemia (poor development of parathyroid) Deletion on chromosome 22
410
What are features of fragile x syndrome?
``` Tall High arched palate Long ears Long face Macro orchidism Learning difficulties ```
411
How is otitis media in a neonate managed?
IV cefotaxime
412
What is the leading cause of death in ITP?
Intracranial haemorrhage
413
What is the treatment of choice for a patient with massive haemorrhage in ITP?
Platelet transfusion Intravenous methylprednisolone IV immune globulin Splenectomy
414
Why can pyloric stenosis lead to hypocalcaemia?
Worsening alkalosis means increasing bicarbonate levels combine with calcium and so reduce serum ionised calcium
415
What are sequelae of mumps?
``` Meningoencephalitis Arthritis Transverse myelitis Cerebellar ataxia Deafness ```
416
What causes degranulation of mast cells?
Crosslinking of IgE
417
What causes hereditary angio oedema?
Autosomal dominant condition associated with deficiency of C1 esterase inhibitor
418
What is distal intestinal obstruction syndrome?
Occurs in CF patients | Accumulation of viscous mucus and faecal material in terminal ileum, caecum and ascending colon
419
What are features of cows milk protein intolerance/allergy?
``` Regurgitation and vomiting Diarrhoea Urticaria Atopic eczema Colic: irritability, crying Wheeze Chronic cough Rarely angioedema and anaphylaxis ```
420
How do you investigate cows milk protein intolerance?
Improvement with cows milk protein elimination Skin prick/patch testing Total IgE and specific IgE for cows milk protein (RAST)
421
How is cows milk protein intolerance managed?
Refer to paeds if failure to thrive Formula fed: extensive hydrolysed formula, amino acid based formula Breast fed: continue breast feeding, eliminate cows milk protein from maternal diet, use extensive hydrolysed milk when breast feeding stops until 12 months
422
Hand preference before what age may indicate cerebral palsy?
12 months
423
What are symptoms of threadworm infection?
Perianal itching particularly at night | Girls may have vulval symptoms
424
What are risk factors for developmental dysplasia of the hip?
``` Female sex Breech presentation Positive family history Firstborn Oligohydramnios Birth weight >5kg Congenital calcaneovalgus foot deformity ```
425
What is management for developmental dysplasia of the hip?
Most unstable hips spontaneously stabilise by 3-6 weeks Pavlik harness (flexion abduction orthosis) in children younger than 4-5 months Older children may need surgery
426
What are poor prognostic factors for ALL?
``` Age <2 or >10 WBC >20 at diagnosis T or B cell surface markers Non Caucasian Male sex ```
427
What test is used for newborn hearing screening?
Otoacoustic emission test Computer generated click played through small ear piece Presence of soft echo indicates healthy cochlea
428
What test is done if otoacoustic emission test has an abnormal result in a newborn?
Auditory brainstem response test
429
What is the problem in prader willi syndrome?
Deletion of chromosome 15 paternal gene not received
430
What is the first sign of puberty in males?
Testicular growth at around 12 years | Volume >4ml indicates puberty
431
What is the first sign of puberty in females?
Breast development at around 11.5 years
432
What are features of bartters syndrome?
``` Failure to thrive Polyuria Polydipsia Hypokalaemia Normotension Weakness ```
433
What are features of peutz jeghers syndrome?
Hamartomatous polyps in GI tract Pigmented lesions on lips, oral mucosa, face, palms and soles Intestinal obstruction: intussusception GI bleeding
434
What are some causes of minimal change nephropathy?
Idiopathic Drugs: NSAIDs, rifampicin Hodgkin's lymphoma Infectious mononucleosis
435
What is the pathophysiology of minimal change nephropathy?
T cell and cytokine mediated damage to glomerular basement membrane - polyanion loss Reduction of electrostatic charge - increased glomerular permeability to serum albumin
436
What are features of minimal change nephropathy?
Nephrotic syndrome Normotension Highly selective proteinuria Electron microscopy shows fusion of podocytes
437
What is the most useful investigation to screen for complication of Kawasaki disease?
Echo to look for coronary artery aneurysm
438
What are features of Kawasaki disease?
High grade fever lasting over 5 days, resistant to antipyretics Conjunctival injection Bright red, cracked lips Strawberry tongue Cervical lymphadenopathy Red palms of hands and soles which later peel
439
What is the management of kawasaki disease?
High dose aspirin IV immunoglobulin Echo
440
What is a suitable screening test for childhood squints?
Corneal light reflection test
441
What is the difference between a concomitant and paralytic squint?
Concomitant: imbalance in extraocular muscles, convergent more common Paralytic: paralysis of extraocular muscles
442
What test is used to identify the nature of a squint in a child?
Cover test
443
What is the management of squint in children?
Eye patches to prevent amblyopia | Referral to secondary care
444
What is the most common cause of death in the first year of life?
Sudden infant death syndrome
445
What are risk factors for sudden infant death syndrome?
``` Prematurity Parental smoking Hyperthermia Putting baby to sleep prone Male Multiple births Bottle feeding Social class IV and V Maternal drug use Winter ```
446
What are risk factors for surfactant deficient lung disease?
``` Prematurity Male Diabetic mother C section Second born of premature twins ```
447
What is management of surfactant deficient lung disease?
Maternal steroids to induce lung maturation Oxygen Assisted ventilation Exogenous surfactant given via endotracheal tube
448
What are the different classifications of squint?
Esotropia: towards nose Exotropia: temporally Hypertropia: superior Hypotropia: inferior
449
What are features of fragile x in males?
``` Learning difficulties Large low set ears, long thin face, high arched palate Macroorchidism Hypotonia Autism Mitral valve prolapse ```
450
What is palivizumab and what is it used for?
Monoclonal antibody used to prevent respiratory syncytial virus in children at increased risk of severe disease: premature, lung or heart abnormality, immunocompromise
451
What is precocious puberty?
Development of secondary sexual characteristics before 8 years in females and 9 years in males
452
What are features of HSP?
Palpable purpuric rash over buttocks and extensor surfaces of arms and legs Abdominal pain Polyarthritis Features of IgA nephropathy: haematuria, renal failure
453
What is the management for HSP?
Analgesia for arthralgia | Supportive treatment for nephropathy
454
What is an umbilical granuloma?
Overgrowth of tissue which occurs during the healing process of the umbilicus Common in first few weeks of life Small red growth, usually wet and leaks clear or yellow fluid
455
What are features of acute epiglottis?
Rapid onset High temperature Stridor Drooling of saliva
456
How are paediatric maintenance fluids calculated?
100ml/kg/day for 0-10kg 50ml/kg/day for 11-20kg 20ml/kg/day beyond that
457
What is the triad of symptoms seen in haemolytic uraemic syndrome?
Acute renal failure Microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia Thrombocytopenia
458
What are causes of haemolytic uraemic syndrome?
``` Post dysentery - E. coli Tumours Pregnancy Ciclosporin COCP SLE HIV ```
459
What is the management of haemolytic uraemic syndrome?
Fluids Blood transfusion Dialysis
460
What is toddlers diarrhoea?
Stools containing undigested food Chronic non specific diarrhoea Should remit as child grows up More common in boys age 1-5
461
What are causes of neonatal hypoglycaemia?
``` Maternal diabetes mellitus Prematurity IUGR Hypothermia Neonatal sepsis Inborn errors of metabolism Beckwith wiedemann syndrome ```
462
What is beckwith wiedemann syndrome?
``` Overgrowth disorder present at birth Increased risk of childhood cancer Macroglossia Macrosomia Microcephaly Neonatal hypoglycaemia Hepatoblastoma ```
463
What dysmorphic features are associated with Down's syndrome?
``` Hypertelorism (wide spaced eyes) Downward slanting palpebral fissures Epicanthal folds Short broad nose Deeply grooved philtrum Small chin and short neck Full lips with high wide peaks to vermillion border of upper lip Low set ears Single palmer crease Sandal gap - wide space between first and second toe ```
464
What infections do infants with SCID usually present with?
Secondary to lack of T cell function: pneumocystis jirovecii, systemic candidiasis, generalised herpetic infections
465
What is the most common cause of vomiting in infancy?
GORD
466
What are risk factors for GORD in infants?
Preterm delivery | Neurological disorders
467
How should GORD in infants be managed?
Advise regarding head position during feeds - 30 degree head up Sleep on backs Ensure not being over fed, consider trial of smaller more frequent meals Trial thickened formula Trial of alginate therapy (gaviscon) PPI or H2 antagonist if unexplained feeding difficulty, distressed, faltering growth
468
What are complications of GORD in infants?
``` Distress Failure to thrive Aspiration Frequent otitis media Dental erosion ```
469
What is ebsteins anomaly?
Posterior leaflets of tricuspid valve displaced anteriorly towards apex of right ventricle Tricuspid regurg (pan systolic murmur) Tricuspid stenosis (mid diastolic murmur) Enlargement of right atrium
470
With which drug used during pregnancy is ebsteins anomaly associated?
Lithium
471
When does the Moro reflex usually disappear?
3-4 months
472
What are brushfield spots and in which condition are they seen?
White/grey spots on periphery of iris due to aggregation of connective tissue Seen in Down's syndrome
473
What are the different types of JIA? How common are they?
``` Oligoarticular JIA (50% of JIA) Polyarticular JIA - RF negative (25%) Polyarticular JIA - RF positive (5%) Systemic-onset JIA (5-10%) Juvenile psoriatic arthritis (2-15%) Enthesitis-related arthritis (2-10%) Undifferentiated arthritis (1-10%) ```
474
What is Quebec scoring for congenital hypothyroidism?
``` Feeding problems Constipation Lethargy Hypotonia Coarse facies (3) Macroglossia Open posterior fontanel (1.5) Dry skin (1.5) Mottling of skin Umbilical hernia If score is >4/13 hypothyroidism is suspected ```
475
How does oligoarticular JIA present?
Arthritis affecting 1-4 joints in the first six months. 70% patients are ANA positive Extended oligoarthritis: more than four joints affected after six months Persistent oligoarthritis: no more than four joints affected after six months It usually presents in those under 6 years old and is more common in females. It typically presents with one or two swollen joints causing stiffness and reduced movement but often not much pain. The child usually feels well. The knee and ankle are most commonly affected.
476
What features of a murmur in a newborn suggest that it is innocent?
``` Sensitive: changes with position or respiration Short duration: not holosystolic Single: no associated clicks or gallops Small: small area or non radiating Soft: low amplitude Sweet: not harsh sounding Systolic ```
477
What complications can children with Down's syndrome get?
``` Heart defects Coeliac disease Imperforate anus Hirschsprung's disease Cataracts Nystagmus Hearing loss Hypothyroidism Alzheimer's Acute leukaemia: mainly ALL Epilepsy ```
478
What is langerhans cell histiocytosis?
Clonal proliferation of langerhans cells capable of migrating from skin to lymph nodes, bones, pituitary and thyroid
479
What chest xray findings might you expect to see with coarctation of the aorta?
Cardiomegaly | Increased pulmonary vascular markings
480
What chest xray findings might you expect to see with tetralogy of fallot?
Concavity of left heart border - boot shape | Decreased pulmonary vascular markings
481
What are features of kawasaki disease?
``` High grade fever lasting >5 days which is resistant to antipyretics Conjunctival injection Bright red cracked lips Strawberry tongue Cervical lymphadenopathy Red palms and soles which later peel ```
482
What is the management of kawasaki disease?
High dose aspirin IV immunoglobulin Echo to screen for coronary aneurysms
483
When does newborn blood spot screening occur?
Day 5
484
Which disorders are tested for on a newborn blood spot test?
``` PKU Congenital hypothyroidism Sickle cell disease Cystic fibrosis MCADD (medium chain acyl CoA dehydrogenase deficiency Maple syrup urine disease Isovlaeric acidaemia Glutaric aciduria type 1 Homocystinuria ```
485
What test is done for newborn hearing screening?
Automated otoacoustic emissions
486
Which test is used if an automated otoacoustic emissions screening test shows no clear response?
Automated auditory brain stem response
487
What is a Morgagni hernia?
Congenital diaphragmatic hernia | Usually right sided containing transverse colon
488
What is a bochdalek hernia?
Congenital diaphragmatic hernia | Tend to be left sided containing stomach
489
What are protective factors for successful development in a child?
``` Good parent-child relationship Easy, outgoing temperament Positive peer influence Successful school experiences Caring adult role models Participation in pro-social groups Access to needed services, e.g. healthcare, mental health, crisis intervention ```
490
What is the diagnostic criteria for intellectual disability?
IQ 70 or less on an individually administered IQ test Onset before age 18 years Concurrent deficits or impairments in adaptive functioning in at least two of these areas: communication, self care, home living, social and interpersonal skills, use of community resources, self direction, functional academic skills, work, leisure, health, or safety
491
What is the definition of mild, moderate and severe intellectual disability?
Mild ID: IQ 50/55 to 70. School may acquire skills up to 6th grade level. Social and Communication Skills develop spontaneously. May first be detected in school. May acquire vocational skills and be self-supportive Moderate ID: IQ 35/40 to 50/55. Social and Communication Skills develop, but impaired. Early detection (before entering school). School unlikely to progress past 2nd grade level. May work under close supervision (sheltered workshop) Severe ID: IQ 20/25 to 35/40. School May learn to sight-read (survival words). Social/Communication Skills little or no communicative speech. Often display poor motor development. May acquire elementary hygiene skills and perform simple tasks; unable to benefit from vocational training Profound ID: IQ Below 20/25, Social and Communication Skills rarely have communicative speech efforts; minimal sensorimotor abilities. Require constant aid and supervision; nursing care
492
What are examples of pervasive developmental disorders?
Autism Spectrum disorder Rett’s Disorder Childhood Integrative Disorder PDD, not otherwise specified
493
What are some organic associations with autism?
Congenital Rubella PKU Tuberous Sclerosis Fragile X Syndrome
494
What is Aspergers disorder?
High functioning autism Impaired use of non-verbal communication (gaze, posture, gestures regulating to social interaction) Lack of interactive play, impaired peer relations Stereotypic, repetitive mannerisms No delays in language and cognitive development
495
What is the management of autism?
Mainstay: Early intervention; speech and language services; structured behavioral and educational programs; OT, PT Medications: To control seizures, hyperactivity, severe aggression, SIB, repetitive behaviors or mood disorders
496
What is ADHD?
Persistent pattern of inattention and/or hyperactivity more frequent and severe than istypical of children at a similar level of development Onset before age 7 Impairment in at least two settings: social, academic, or work Duration at least six months Inattention, Hyperactivity, Impulsivity
497
What are management options for ADHD?
Stimulants: Methylphenidate, Dextroamphetamine Non-Stimulants: Atomoxetine, Clonidine, Guanfacine, Bupropion, TCAs (atypical antipsychotics for treatment unresponsive cases) Psychotherapy: Behavioral modifications, environmental structuring, parental Education and training, social skills training
498
What is a tic?
Sudden, rapid, recurrent, nonrhythmic, stereotyped motor movements or vocalizations
499
What are different DSM diagnoses for tic disorders?
Tourette’s Syndrome Chronic Motor Tic DisorderChronic Vocal Tic Disorder Transient Tic Disorder Tic Disorder NOS
500
What is oppositional defiant disorder?
Recurrent pattern of negativistic, defiant, disobedient and hostile behavior towards authority figures Duration > 6 Months Impairment in social, academic and work settings Symptoms not part of the mood or thought disorder
501
What is treatment for oppositional defiant disorder?
Parent training (PCIT) Individual psychotherapy Family Therapy
502
What is conduct disorder?
Aggression to people and animals Destruction of property Deceitfulness or theft Serious violation of rules
503
What are treatment options for conduct disorder?
``` Multimodality treatment programs Environmental structuring Family Therapy Group Therapy Ind. Therapy – problem solving skills Medications as adjuncts ```
504
What is separation anxiety disorder?
Developmentally inappropriate and excessive anxiety about separation from caretakers or home, of at least 4 weeks duration with onset before 18 years Can lead to school refusal (school phobia) Associated with physical complaints, fear of sleeping alone, worries about parent’s safety
505
How does childhood depression present?
``` Irritability Sleep cycle disturbance Oppositional behavior Social isolation Crying spells ```
506
What treatment options are used for childhood mental health problems?
Psychotherapy: Individual Therapies (play, behavioral, cognitive, supportive, dynamic), Family Therapy and Parent Training, Group Therapy - especially important for adolescents Pharmacological: SSRIs, Ritalin, valproate, lithium, TCAs, antipsychotics
507
Which professionals are involved in CAMHs services?
``` Psychiatrists Psychologists Social workers Nurses Psychological therapists – this may include child psychotherapists, family psychotherapists, play therapists and creative art therapists Support workers Occupational therapists Primary mental health link workers Specialist substance misuse workers Peads ```
508
Who can refer to CAMHS?
GP School or college – for example, a teacher, pastoral lead, school nurse or special educational needs co-ordinator (SENCO) Health visitors General hospitals
509
What are criteria for urgent admission in a child with pneumonia symptoms?
``` Tachypnoea, measured as: <6 months RR >55/60. <2 years RR >40. <6 years RR >34 Nasal flaring In-drawing chest Cyanosis Significant crepitations Oxygen saturation 95% or less ```
510
What are worrying features for meningococcal meningitis?
``` Non-blanching rash, particularly with one or more of the following: An ill-looking child CRT 3 or more seconds Lesions larger than 2 mm in diameter (purpura) Neck stiffness Decreased level of consciousness Bulging fontanelle Convulsive status epilepticus Photophobia ```
511
What features might make you think of herpes simplex encephalitis?
``` Focal neurological signs Focal seizures Decreased level of consciousness Recent herpes infection in household / nursery / school Immunosuppression ```
512
What proportion of children who have a febrile convulsion will go on to have further episodes?
1/3
513
By what age do febrile convulsions usually stop?
By age 6
514
Under what circumstances does a febrile convulsion warrant a 999 call?
First fit Signs of underlying meningitis or encephalitis Seizure not terminating within 5 mins, risk of status epilepticus Respiratory involvement call 999 Specialist care will assess, take urinalysis and may do EEG / LP at first fit
515
When should a complicated UTI be considered in a child?
``` children >3 months if fever plus: Persistent vomiting Lethargy Irritability Abdominal pain or tenderness Urinary frequency or dysuria Offensive urine or haematuria ```
516
What is Kawasaki disease?
Medium vessel vasculitis Fever lasting longer than 5 days and at least four of following: Bilateral conjunctival injection Change in peripheral extremities e.g oedema, erythema or desquamation Change in upper respiratory tract mucous membranes e.g injected pharynx, dry cracked lips or strawberry tongue Polymorphous rash Cervical lymphadenopathy
517
What is the management of measles exposure?
Notifiable disease, swab MMR vaccination (over 6 months old), ideally within 72 hours of exposure Human normal immunoglobulin, within five days of exposure for children and adults with compromised immune systems Pregnant women who are exposed to measles may also be considered for IM normal immunoglobulin
518
What is the management for rubella?
Keep child away from school for seven days after rash appears Use antipyretics for fever - avoid aspirin in children, due to danger of Reye's syndrome Ask about any contact with pregnant women Notifiable
519
What is the management for scarlet fever?
Penicillin or azithromycin if penicillin-allergic for 10 days Notifiable
520
What factors lead to spread of scabies?
Poverty and overcrowding Institutional care, such as rest homes, hospitals, prisons Refugee camps Individuals with immune deficiency
521
How do you catch scabies?
Nearly always acquired by skin-to-skin contact with someone else with scabies Contact may be quite brief such as holding hands with an infested child Sometimes sexually transmitted Occasionally scabies is acquired via bedding or furnishings
522
Why does the scabies rash appear 4-6 weeks after infestation?
Hypersensitivity reaction
523
What is the management of scabies?
Treat whole family simultaneously Warn patients that itch persists for few weeks after mites killed Use parasitacide: 1st line Permethrin liquid or cream, apply once weekly for 2 doses to whole body, then wash off after 8hours Or Malathion
524
What are causative organisms of cellulitis?
Streptococcus or Staphylococcus spp
525
What are risk factors for cellulitis?
Immunosuppression, wounds, toe web intertrigo, minor skin injury, Diabetes, venous insufficiency, lymphoedema
526
What is the management of cellulitis?
Elevation of any affected limbs Prescribe analgesia as necessary (paracetamol or ibuprofen) Flucloxacillin 500 mg four times daily (in adults) is usually given as first-line in uncomplicated infection. In sufficient doses, this covers both beta-haemolytic streptococci and penicillinase-resistant staphylococci Erythromycin 500 mg four times daily can be used if the patient is penicillin-allergic and clarithromycin (500 mg twice daily) if patient is intolerant to erythromycin
527
What is staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome?
Production of epidermolytic toxin from benzylpenicillin-resistant (coagulase positive) staphylococci infection Develops within a few hours to a few days Develop fever, irritability, widespread skin erythema, then fluid- filled blisters which rupture to leave area that looks like a burn Perioral crusting is typical Lesions are very painful
528
What is the management of staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome?
Admission IV Antibiotics – flucloxacillin, clindamycin Analgesia Skin care
529
How can a correct diagnosis of fungal infection be confirmed?
Skin scrapings, hair or nail clippings, skin swabs
530
What is pityriasis versicolor?
Non contagious, superficial yeast infection Can lead to temporary hypopigmentation Pityrosporumovale is normal commensal - becomes a pathogen if increased humidity at skin surface and/or increased sebum production
531
What is management of pityriasis versicolor?
Ketoconazole or Selenium Sulphide shampoo overnight then wash off, apply twice weekly for 3 weeks Topical imidazole antifungals an alternative
532
What are exacerbating factors for atopic eczema?
``` Infections Allergens Sweating Heat Stress ```
533
What is the management of eczema?
General measures: Avoid known exacerbating factors, Regular emollients, Soap substitutes Topical therapies: Steroids, Immunomodulators eg tacrolimus, pimecrolimus Oral therapies: Antihistamine for symptomatic relief, Antibiotics/fungal for secondary infection Phototherapy Immunosuppressants: Oral prednisolone, Ciclosporin, Azathioprine
534
Which heart abnormalities are associated with Down's syndrome?
AVSD VSD Tetralogy of fallot
535
Which heart abnormalities are associated with Edwards and patau syndromes?
VSD | Other various defects
536
Which heart defects are associated with turners syndrome?
Coarctation of aorta | Aortic stenosis
537
Which heart defects are associated with diGeorge syndrome?
Truncus arteriosus Interrupted aortic arch Tetralogy of fallot
538
Which heart defect is associated with Williams syndrome?
Supravalvar aortic stenosis
539
Which congenital heart defects are associated with maternal diabetes?
Transposition of great arteries VSD HOCM
540
With which foetal heart problem is maternal SLE associated?
Heart block
541
With which heart defects is teratogenic exposure to rubella associated?
Coarctation of aorta VSD Patent ductus arteriosus
542
With which heart defect is teratogenic exposure to lithium associated?
Ebsteins anomaly
543
What are clinical manifestations of congenital heart disease?
Cardiac failure: Lt to Rt shunt – first few months LV outflow obstruction – few days/weeks Functional failure-cardiomyopathy– tachypnoea, tachycardia, poor feeding, vomiting, sweating, failure to thrive, hepatomegaly Central Cyanosis: poor lung perfusion Rt to Lt shunt, duct dependant -acutely unwell neonate– cyanotic spells - Tetralogy of fallot
544
Which congenital heart diseases cause cyanosis?
``` 5 Ts: Tetralogy of fallot Transposition great arteries Tricuspid atresia Total anomalous pulmonary venous drainage Truncus Arteriosus Pulmonary atresia ```
545
What is a stills murmur?
``` Functional heart murmur Commonest age group 3-7yr Vibratory/musical in quality At apex, radiation to carotids May only be audible in supine position ```
546
What are features of innocent murmurs?
``` Change in intensity with posture Always systolic (except venous hum –continuous) ASYMPTOMATIC ```
547
What investigations should be done if a baby is found to have a murmur?
Chest X-ray – cardiac size, lung vascularity (left to right shunt, pulmonary plethora) ECG – chamber enlargement Hyperoxia test - to differentiate between cardiac and pulmonary cause of cyanosis in neonate Echocardiography - definitive diagnosis Consider chromosomal analysis (T21, 22q11)
548
Which acyanotic heart defects cause pulmonary plethora?
VSD ASD PDA Severe LV outflow obstruction/ hypoplastic left heart
549
Which cyanotic heart defects cause pulmonary oligaemia?
Severe PS/atresia | TOF
550
How should a duct be kept open in a neonate with a duct dependent lesion?
PGE1 infusion
551
Which heart defects are duct dependent?
``` Coarctation of aorta Interrupted aortic arch Critical aortic stenosis Hypoplastic left heart syndrome TGA ```
552
Why does squatting help cyanotic spells in tetralogy of fallot?
Increase systemic resistance, increase return to right heart so increase pulmonary blood flow
553
What are components of tetralogy of fallot?
Pulmonary stenosis Large VSD Overriding aorta RVH
554
What are neonatal fluid requirements from birth?
Day 1: 60mls/kg/day Day 2: 90mls/kg/day Day 3: 120mls/kg/day Day 4: 150mls/kg/day Day they are born is day 0 age but day 1 fluids Use birth weight for calculation until regained birth weight
555
What size fluid bolus should be given to a shocked child?
20mls/kg 0.9% saline | Unless DKA/Trauma/cardiac – 10mls/kg
556
How do you calculate maintenance fluids for a child?
0.9% saline with 5% dextrose +/- 10 mmol KCl per 500ml bag 100mls/kg for first 10kg 50mls/kg for second 10kg 20mls/kg after this
557
How do you calculate rehydration fluids in a child?
If shocked add 100mls/kg to maintenance requirements. If not shocked add 50mls/kg or Weight x 10 x percentage dehydration
558
What can be used as oral rehydration fluids in a child?
Normal milk Oral rehydration salts Avoid fruit juices. fizzy drinks, plain water
559
How much loss of birth weight is acceptable in a newborn?
Loss of up to 8% birth weight is acceptable. Any more is too much, are they dehydrated? Failing to thrive
560
What is cerebral palsy?
Primary abnormality of movement and posture secondary to a non-progressive lesion of a developing brain
561
Which brain regions can be affected in cerebral palsy and what defects does this lead to?
Injury to extrapyramidal system causes- dystonic CP (basal ganglia) or ataxic CP (cerebellum) Injury to Pyramidal system (corticospinal tract) causes Spastic CP-Diplegia, Quadriplegia
562
What are some causes of cerebral palsy?
``` Prematurity: 20% at 28/40 Vs 4% at 32/40 LBW Infection/Inflammation Coagulopathy Antenatal bleeding Pregnancy induced hypertension/Pre-Eclampsia Multiple pregnancy Foetal distress Sepsis Kernicterus (Severe unconjugated jaundice) Severe and prolonged hypoglycaemia ```
563
What problems are associated with cerebral palsy?
``` Motor –gross, fine motor Vision and Hearing Speech Epilepsy Feeding Gastro Oesophageal Reflux Constipation/Incontinence Secondary disabilities – hips, spine, arthritis Learning disabilities ```
564
What are management options for cerebral palsy?
Treatment of Spasticity- Physiotherapy, Pharmacology- Systemic, Local, Intrathecal, Surgery- Orthopaedic, Peripheral Nerves, Spinal Roots Treatment of Associated Problems Enhancing quality of life
565
What is a febrile seizure?
Seizures precipitated by fever without evidence of CNS infection or another defined cause
566
What are atypical features of a febrile seizure?
Prolonged, Focal or associated with Todd’s paresis
567
What is epilepsy?
Recurrent, Unprovoked Seizures due to abnormal hyper-synchronous discharge of cortical neurons
568
What are different forms of generalised epilepsy?
``` Myoclonic Atonic Tonic Tonic clonic Infantile Spasms ```
569
At what age goes childhood absence epilepsy usually occur?
Uncommon before age 5
570
What are features of childhood absence epilepsy?
Vacant episodes, absence, sometimes associated with eye flickering Abrupt start and stop, No post event drowsiness Very brief lasting 5 to 15 seconds Occurs in clusters (multiple) Precipitated by hyperventilation EEG-3 /seconds spike and wave
571
What is west syndrome?
Epileptic Encephalopathy Age of onset: 3 to 12 months (90% before 1 yr of age) Infantile Spasm: Sudden, Generalised, Symmetrical Contractions of muscles of limb, trunk and neck occuring in clusters EEG- Hypsarrhythmia-Chaotic Background
572
What are some causes of West syndrome?
Hypoxic ischaemic encephalopathy, Infections, Acquired Brain Injury, Cortical malformations, Tuberous Sclerosis
573
Which antiepileptics are used in absence seizures?
Sodium Valproate, Ethosuximide
574
What treatments are used for west syndrome?
Steroid (ACTH), Vigabatrin, Multiple Antiepileptic medications
575
What features are important to ask about in a floppy baby?
``` Hypotonia Reduced foetal movements Polyhydramnios Needing prolonged resuscitation/Artificial Ventilation Poor feeding/Choking/Aspiration Poor cry Poor movements Alert/ not alert Fasciculation ```
576
What might be features of a floppy but strong baby?
``` UMN lesion Increased tendon reflexes Extensor plantar response Sustained ankle clonus Global developmental delay Microcephaly +/-Dysmorphism Prolonged Seizures Axial weakness a significant feature ```
577
What may be causes of a floppy but strong baby?
Hypoxic ischaemic encephalopathy, Hypoglycaemia, Chronic Encephalopathies, Down’s Syndrome, Prader Willi Syndrome, Cerebral Malformations
578
What might be features of a floppy and weak baby?
``` Lower motor neuron disorder Hypo- to areflexia Selective motor delay Normal head circumference and growth Preserved social interaction Weakness of limb muscles Low pitched weak cry Tongue fasciculations ```
579
What are some causes of a floppy and weak baby?
Neuro-muscular-Congenital Myopathy, Myotonic dystrophy, Myaesthenia, Motor Sensory Neuropathy, Spinal muscular atrophy
580
What investigations would you do for a floppy baby?
``` Bloods: Creatine Kinase, TFT, Congenital Infections (TORCH), Genetics, Metabolic EMG Nerve Conduction Studies ECG MRI Brain Nerve/Muscle Biopsy ```
581
What are management options for a floppy baby?
Physio to prevent contractures OT to facilitate activities of daily living Prevention/Treatment of Scoliosis Evaluation and treatment of associated cardiac dysfunction Feeding Management of Gastro-Oesophageal Reflux Orthopaedic Interventions Prevention and prompt treatment of respiratory infections
582
What is the algorithm for paediatric basic life support?
``` Safe, Stimulate, Shout Airway opening manoeuvres Check for breaths (Look/Listen/Feel) 5 rescue breaths Check signs of life – if absent 15:2 COMPRESSIONS:BREATHS ```
583
What equations can be used to estimate a child's weight?
For Infants <12 months: Weight (kg) = (age in months + 9)/2 For Children aged 1-5 years: Weight (kg) = 2 x (age in years +5) For Children aged 5-14 years: Weight (kg) = 4 x age in years
584
What is life threatening asthma?
``` Sats <92% Silent chest Poor respiratory effort Altered consciousness Cyanosis PEFR <33% best/predicted ```
585
What is acute severe asthma?
``` PEFR 33-50% best or predicted Sats 92% or above Can't complete sentences Resp rate 25 or more Pulse 110 or more ```
586
What is asthma emergency management?
``` High Flow Oxygen Nebulised Salbutamol Nebulised Ipratropium Bromide Prednisolone/Hydrocortisone IV Magnesium IV Salbutamol bolus/infusion IV Aminophylline Nurse in HDU Continuous monitoring – Sats/Pulse Repeated nebulisation depending on response Consider CXR and blood gas Daily prednisolone for 3-5 days May need to discuss with ICU ```
587
What are signs of respiratory distress in an infant?
``` Tachypnoea Subcostal/intercostal recessions Tracheal tug Head bobbing Nasal flaring Grunting ```
588
What is the management of bronchiolitis?
High flow O2 – humidified Hydration – NG feeding or IV fluids May need to consider high-flow or CPAP Worst on day 4
589
What is the management of shock in children?
High flow oxygen Venous access – glucose, blood gas Fluids 20 ml/Kg 0.9% NaCl (except in trauma - 10ml/kg) Treat low glucose Involve senior help early May need inotropic support - central lines Specific treatment: Iv abx/antivirals if sepsis, IM adrenalin if anaphylaxis
590
Why should you have a higher index of suspicion for sepsis in a child less than 8 weeks old with a temperature?
Not yet immunised
591
What septic screen should be performed on a child?
Blood – culture, GLUCOSE, gas, FBC/CRP CXR Urine LP if stable enough and no purpuric rash
592
What is the most important and possibly fatal problem associated with DKA?
Cerebral oedema from correcting fluids too quickly
593
What can be done to manage cerebral oedema?
Mannitol or hypertonic saline Head up Intubate and ventilate, keep CO2 low normal ITU
594
What is round pneumonia?
Defined well rounded opacities representing regions of infective consolidation usually only seen in children due to immature airways - lack of development of interalveolar communication and collateral airways Repeat xray in 4-6 weeks, if it is pneumonia it should have resolved. If not resolved, explore other options
595
What are normal chest X-ray features in a child?
Cardiothoracic ratio 60% Kink of trachea to the right due to prominent thymus Diaphragm lies at the level of 6th anterior rib Thymus
596
What is the sail sign on a child's chest X-ray?
Thymus shadow - normal
597
What are radiographic findings of acute respiratory distress syndrome in an infant?
Diffuse symmetric reticulogranular densities Prominent central air bronchograms Generalised hypoventilation
598
What are complications of respiratory distress syndrome?
Compliance of lungs is too low, or mean airway pressure is too high, barotrauma will result Signs of barotrauma should be identified on neonatal CXR: Pneumothorax, Pulmonary interstitial emphysema (PIE) Results from rupture of alveoli with air accumulating in peribronchial and perivascular spaces
599
What is the deep sulcus sign?
Deep lucent ipsilateral costophrenic angle within nondependent portions of pleural space Indicator of pneumothorax on a supine chest X-ray
600
What might be seen on an abdominal film in a neonate with necrotising enterocolitis?
``` Dilated loops of bowel Intramural gas Portal venous gas Pneumoperitoneum - football sign Riglers sign ```
601
Which injuries can be picked up on imaging that may suggest NAI?
Metaphyseal corner fractures Fractures and history not consistent with development Rib fractures – especially posterior and lateral ribs Subdural haematoma and skull fractures Other neurological injury – hypoxic ischaemic brain injury, vertebral fractures, spinal haematoma Fractures healing at different stages
602
What are chest manifestations of cystic fibrosis?
Bronchiectasis Pneumothorax Infection (consolidation) Collapse secondary to mucus plugging
603
What does a double bubble sign suggest?
Prominent stomach and first part of duodenum | Duodenal atresia
604
What does rickets look like on an X-ray?
Cupped and frayed metaphyses
605
What are signs of clinical dehydration in a child?
``` Altered responsiveness Skin colour unchanged Warm extremities Sunken eyes Dry mucous membranes Tachycardia Tachypnoea Normal peripheral pulses Normal capillary refill time Reduced skin turgor Normal blood pressure ```
606
What are signs of clinical shock in a child?
``` Decreased level of consciousness Pale or mottled skin Cold extremities Sunken eyes Dry mucous membranes Tachycardia Tachypnoea Weak peripheral pulses Prolonged capillary refill time Reduced skin turgor Hypotension ```
607
What is the management for a child with acute gastroenteritis with no signs of clinical dehydration?
Rehydrate orally using ORS Frequent small volumes of ORS (5-10 mL every 5 min) Continue breast feeding Discourage Fruit juices and carbonated drinks Continue to supplement with ORS for each watery stool/vomit (5-10 mL/kg per watery stool) Do not withhold food unless vomiting Full feeding appropriate for age, well tolerated with no adverse effects
608
What is the management for a child with acute gastroenteritis with signs of clinical dehydration?
ORS 50 mL/kg oral over 4 hours for deficit as well as maintenance fluids If not tolerating oral rehydration (refuses, vomits, takes insufficient volume), use NG tube Review after 4 hr when rehydrated start a normal diet, and continue maintenance fluids and supplementary ORS for each watery stool Consider IV rehydration if not improving Consider Oral Ondansetron
609
What are causes of chronic diarrhoea (>4 weeks) in a child?
Infections Endocrine: Hyperthyroidism, Adrenal insufficiency Chronic nonspecific diarrhoea Coeliac disease IBS IBD Infections Carbohydrates malabsorption: Lactase deficiency, Glucose-glactose malabsorption Dietary: Cow’s Milk/soy protein intolerance Immune defects: Agammaglobulinemia, IgA deficiency, AIDS Metabolic: Familial chloride diarrhoea Cystic fibrosis
610
What proportion of children with constipation will develop chronic symptoms requiring referral?
1/3
611
What are normal bowel habits for babies?
Significant variation in babies : stool with each feed or a stool every few days Breast fed: lots of variability in bowel habit, more than formula fed
612
What are causes of constipation in children?
Idiopathic: Diet, Stool holding, Emotional problems/phobia (autism) Due to underlying disease: Neurological conditions (Spina bifida, cerebral palsy), Cystic Fibrosis, Hirsprungs or abnormal bowel development (Meconium >48 hours - delayed, Ribbon stools) Side effects of medications Maltreatment or abuse
613
What features in a child under 1 would indicate constipation?
``` <3 type 3 or type 4 stools/week (excl. Breast fed babies after 6wk) Passage of hard large stools Type 1 ‘rabbit droppings’ Distress on stooling Bleeding with hard stool Straining Anal fissures ```
614
What findings would indicate constipation in a child over 1?
``` <3 type 3/4 stools/week Overflow/soiling/smelly Type 1 rabbit droppings Large infrequent stools that block the toilet Poor appetite Waxing and waning abdo pain Retentive posturing Straining /anal pain Anal fissures Blood with bowel movements ```
615
What are red and amber flags for constipation in a child?
Red Flags: Present at birth /first few weeks of life, Failure to pass meconium within 48hrs of birth, Ribbon stools, Previously unknown/undiagnosed leg weakness or motor delay, Abdo distension and vomiting, Abnormal appearance/position/patency of anus, Abnormal spinal examination, Lower limb deformities, Abnormal reflexes Amber Flags: Faltering growth, Disclosure /evidence raising concerns over maltreatment
616
What tips can be given for early management of constipation in a child?
Drinks: Ensure adequate fluid intake, Additional water between feeds, Diluted fruit juice or pureed fruit/veg, Avoid fizzy/sugary drinks/milk to quench thirst, Fruit juices containing fructose/sorbitol have a laxative action Diet: High fibre diet, Offer fruit with meals, Add powered bran to foods Regular toileting: A set time, not rushed, Reward system when stool passed in toilet/potty, Remain relaxed when accidents happen
617
What is the management of impacted constipation in a child?
Movicol Paediatric Plain, Escalating dose regime mixed with a cold drink If no disimpaction after 2 weeks add stimulant laxative If unable to tolerate Movicol, Substitute stimulant laxative +/- osmotic laxative Once disimpacted, maintenance doses approx half disimpaction dose Continue at maintenance dose for several weeks after regular bowel habit established Gradual reduction thereafter, over months Rare occasions where laxatives may be required for years
618
What investigations should be done for a child presenting with faltering growth?
``` FBC U+E LFT TFT ESR, CRP Ig G,A,M FAB (functional antibody test) Anti TTG Urine CXR, T-spot, Mantoux ```
619
How does coeliac usually present in children?
``` Classically presents at 6-18 m of age once gluten is introduced Most common gastrointestinal manifestations Diarrhoea Vomiting FTT or weight loss Distended abdomen Abdominal pain Constipation ```
620
What pathological changes are seen in coeliac disease?
``` Villous atrophy Crypt hyperplasia Loss of enterocyte height Lamina propria infiltration Increased intra-epithelial lymphocytes ```
621
How is diagnosis of coeliac disease made?
``` Gliadin IgA/IgG Endomysial IgA Tissue Transglutaminase IgA (Anti body test of choice) IgA deficiency: False-negatives HLA typing Duodenal biopsy (Gold standard test) ```
622
What conditions are associated with coeliac disease?
Dermatitis herpetiformis IgA deficiency (3-5%) Autoimmune conditions: Thyroid disease, Type 1 diabetes, Addison’s, Sjogrens syndrome
623
What investigations should be done in a child suspected of having IBD?
``` FBC ESR LFTs including Albumin CRP pANCA (CD) GI endoscopy Radiology: Strictures, toxic megacolon ```
624
What is the treatment of pyloric stenosis?
Fluid resuscitation Correct electrolyte imbalances Pyloromyotomy
625
When does laryngomalacia usually resolve by?
Usually before 2 years
626
What are reasons that childhood deaths from infections have decreased in recent years?
Improved nutrition Vaccination Improved housing / hygiene Antibiotics
627
What may be presenting symptoms of UTI in a child?
``` Fever Vomiting Anorexia Rigors Abdominal pain ```
628
What are causative organisms of pneumonia in children?
Other than neonatal period, viruses (eg RSV) are most common cause Streptococcus pneumoniae (~70%) Haemophilus influenzae Atypical bacteria : Mycoplasma, Chlamydophila pneumoniae
629
Which antibiotics are used to manage pneumonia in children?
First line – Amoxicillin In penicillin allergy or fail to respond – Macrolides Atypical pneumonia - Macrolide
630
What is di George syndrome?
Microdeletion Chromosome 22 Hypocalcemia, recurrent infection (due to problems with T cell mediated response due to hypoplastic thymus), Cleft palate, low set ears, learning problems, Aortic arch anomalies (Rt sided aortic arch, inturrepted AA), Trucal arteriosis, VSD, PDA, TOF
631
What does TGA look like on a chest X-ray?
Egg on side shaped | Increased pulmonary marking
632
What are the 3 types of total anomalous pulmonary venous drainage?
Supracardiac Cardiac Infracardiac
633
What sign on chest X-ray suggests total anomalous pulmonary venous drainage?
Snowman sign/figure of 8
634
What are causes of cardiomegaly in a neonate?
``` Heart failure HOCM/DCM Pericardial effusion Significant Lt to Rt shunts Ebstein Anomaly ```
635
What are differentials for a widespread rash in a child?
``` Viral Rash Drug Rash Allergic Rash Scabies Erythema multiforme ITP Meningococcal Scarlet fever Urticaria Measles Rubella Chicken pox ```
636
What is heat rash/miliaria?
Occurs secondary to heat (warm climates) Due to obstruction of sweat ducts with leakage of sweat into dermis/epidermis Common in infant due to underdeveloped sweat glands
637
What is milia?
``` Epidermal inclusion cysts Pearly, yellow, 1-3mm diameter papules Face, chin, forehead 50% newborns Usually resolve in first month without treatment, but may persist for several months ```
638
What is a Mongolian blue spot?
Blue/black macular discolouration at base of spine and on buttocks Occasionally on legs or other parts Usually in dark skin, Afro-Caribbean or Asians Fades slowly over few days to 1 yr
639
What is Vernix Caseosa?
Whitish greasy coat produced by epithelial cell breakdown in newborns Protect skin from amniotic fluid in utero
640
What is erythema toxicum?
Benign Common after 2-3 days of life Also called neonatal urticaria White pinpoint papule with erythematous base Fluid contain eosinophil Comes and goes Resolve without any treatment self limiting in 2-4 days
641
What is the most common benign tumour of infancy?
Hemangioma (Strawberry Naevus)
642
What is the natural history of a strawberry naevus?
Begin as barely visible telangiectasia or red macules and grow in size until 9 month, then regress 60% occur on head and neck area All gone by age 5yrs
643
How can large strawberry naevi be managed?
steriods or interferon-alpha
644
What is a salmon patch?
Naevus simplex Common (40% newborns) Small flat patches pink or red, poorly defined borders Nape of neck (stork mark), forehead (angel kiss), eyelids and sacrum Worse with crying Not associated with extracutaneous findings Fade during first month of life
645
What is a port wine stain?
Naevus flammeus Less common than salmon patch, but permanent Present at birth and darken with age Large flat patch of purple or dark red skin with well defined borders Persist in childhood then darkens and thickens Extracutaneous defects Association: Glaucoma Along Trigeminal (sturge-weber syndrome) may associate with intracranial vascular anomalies/epilepsy Laser Therapy for Cosmetic benefit
646
What are 2 different types of nappy rash?
Irritant rash(contact): most common occur when nappies not changed frequently (urine). Skin Flexures (Intertriginous areas) usually spared. Treat with emollient (aquous cream), barrier cream (Zinc oxide), Nappy free period, Hydrocartisone cream Candidal Rash involve skin flexures and associated satellite lesions. Treat with topical antifungal agents +/- hydrocortisone
647
What are the presenting features of HSP?
Rash: buttocks, extensor surfaces of legs and arms Joint pain/swelling: knees and ankles Abdominal pain: haematemesis, melaena, intussusception Renal: Haematuria, nephrotic syndrome
648
What is the most common vasculitis in childhood?
HSP
649
What is the natural history of chickenpox?
Begins as itchy red papules progressing to vesicles on bright red base (dew drops on a rose petal) on stomach, back and face, and then spreading to other parts of body Central umbilication of blisters follows rapidly, crusting and desquamation within 10 days
650
What are complications of chickenpox?
``` Bacterial superinfection Encephalitis Aseptic meningitis Pneumonitis DIC ```
651
What are the different types of impetigo?
Impetigo contagiosa and Bullous Impetigo
652
What causes impetigo?
Strep pyogenes or staph aureus
653
What is management of impetigo?
Advice about avoiding spread Localised lesion- topical antibiotic eg Fucidin, mupircin cream Remove crust with gentle washing Widespread infection - oral flucloxacillin or erythromycin/augmentin
654
What are prodromal features of measles?
``` Fever Malasie Dry cough Coryza Conjunctivitis Photophobia ```
655
When are patients with measles infectious?
Contagious 4 days before rash and 4 days after
656
What are complications of measles?
``` Pneumonia Otitis media Tracheitis Febrile convulsions Encephalitis Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis Diarrhoea Hepatitis Appendicitis Corneal ulceration Myocarditis ```
657
What causes roseola infantum?
Human Herpes virus 6
658
What causes slapped cheek?
parvovirus B19
659
What causes molluscum contagiosum?
DNA pox virus
660
What are common features of turners?
``` Lymphoedema of hands and feet Short Stature Webbing of Neck Wide carrying Angle (cubitus valgus) Coarctation of Aorta Delayed Puberty-Amenorrhea Ovarian dysgenesis (infertility) Hypothyroidism Renal Anomalies-horseshoe kidney ```
661
What feature distinguishes noonan syndrome in a male from turners in a female?
Noonan: Rt sided PS
662
What are features of achondroplasia?
``` Short stature Macrocephaly Flat midface with prominent forehead Associated hydrocephalus Dental malocclusion Hearing loss Normal intelligence and normal lifespans ```
663
What are features of Williams syndrome?
``` Moderate Developmental Delay Typical personality (Cocktail) Characteristic facial features: Periorbital fullness, Stellate iris, Prominent lips/open mouth, Depressed nasal bridge Supravalvular aortic stenosis Hypercalcemia Renal anomalies Hoarse voice Microdeletion 7q11.3 ```
664
What are features of DiGeorge syndrome?
Physical Birth Defects: congenital heart disease, cleft lip and palate Medical Complications: endocrine, immune, skeletal, neurologic, GI Communication Disorders: Velopharyngeal inadequacy, language delays Developmental Delays / LD Social/Behavioural Difficulties Increased risk for psychiatric illness (25% lifetime)
665
What are features of foetal alcohol syndrome?
``` Saddle shaped nose Short palpebral fissures Epicanthal folds Indistinct philtrum Thin upper lip Mid facial hypoplasia/microcephaly Maxillary hypoplasia Developmental delay ```
666
What are markers of asthma from a peak flow chart?
Diurnal variation peak flow greater than 20% for at least 3 days in a week Or improvement 10 mins after bronchodilator
667
What are the 3 pathological features of asthma?
Bronchospasm Mucosal oedema Mucous plugging Which cause obstruction of expiration. Can breathe in but not breathe out which leads to hyperinflation
668
What are side effects of salbutamol?
tachycardia, tremor, hyperglycaemia, hypokalaemia
669
What is the asthma ladder for 5-12 year olds?
Inhaled SABA as required Add inhaled steroid 200-400micrograms/day Add LABA, if control not adequate can increase steroid to 400. If control not adequate, stop LABA, increase dose, add other agent - leukotriene or theophylline Increase steroid to 800 micrograms Refer to paeds, use steroid tablets
670
What is the asthma ladder for under 5s?
Inhaled SABA as required Add inhaled steroid 200-400micrograms or leukotriene antagonist In those taking steroid, add leukotriene. In those on leukotriene add steroid. If under 2 proceed to referral Refer to paeds
671
What is cystic fibrosis?
Autosomal recessive Mutation in CTFR gene: chloride channel Absence / defect in channel leads to thicker mucous Most common mutation is delta F508, part of Newborn Blood Spot screening
672
How can cystic fibrosis be diagnosed?
``` Sweat test (>60mmol/l Cl-suggests CF) Genetic testing ```
673
What are important management steps for cystic fibrosis?
Nebulised saline / antibiotics /mucolytics Supplementation: pancreatic enzymes, fat-soluble vitamins, nutritional support Chest physio Aggressive treatment of chest infections with IV antibiotics
674
What are clinical signs of dehydration in a neonate?
Mild (5%): restlessness, slightly dry mucous membranes, normal skin elasticity, oliguria Moderate (5-9%): sunken eyes, depressed fontanelle, decreased skin turgor, dry mucous membranes Severe (10%): drowsy, irritable with signs of circulatory collapse (rapid weak pulses, delayed cap refil, low BP), sunken eyes, decreased skin turgor
675
What are risk factors for surfactant deficient lung disease/acute respiratory distress syndrome?
``` Prematurity Male sex Diabetic mother C section Second born of premature twins ```
676
What is a chest X-ray appearance in ARDS?
Ground glass appearance Indistinct heart border Low volumes Bell shaped thorax
677
What is management of ARDS?
Prevention during pregnancy: maternal corticosteroids Oxygen Assisted ventilation Exogenous surfactant given via endotracheal tube
678
How is persistent pulmonary HTN treated?
Nitric oxide - pulmonary vasodilation
679
What is persistent pulmonary HTN of the newborn?
Problem at birth meaning that lungs don't properly fill with air and pressure remains high in vessels so blood can't get in to pick up oxygen
680
What factors are associated with persistent pulmonary HTN of the newborn?
``` Meconium aspiration Infection - PROM, GBS Congenital abnormalities of heart and lungs Hyaline membrane disease Oligohydramnios ```
681
What are risk factors for meconium aspiration?
``` Pre eclampsia Maternal HTN Oligohydramnios Maternal infections Maternal drug use Placental insufficiency IUGR Post dates ```
682
What are causes of oligohydramios?
Foetal chromosomal abnormalities Intrauterine infections Drugs: PG inhibitors, ACE inhibitors Renal agenesis or obstruction to urinary tract IUGR Post dates Amnion nodosum: failure of secretion by cells of amnion
683
What are causes of polyhydramnios?
``` Intrauterine infections Rhesus isoimmunisation Chorioangioma of placenta Gut atresia Hydrops fetalis Twin to twin transfusion syndrome Maternal cardiac/renal problems Diabetes ```
684
In which babies is PDA more common?
Premature Born at high altitude Maternal rubella infection in first trimester
685
What are features of PDA?
``` Left subclavicular thrill Continuous machinery murmur Large volume, bounding, collapsing pulse Wide pulse pressure Heaving apex beat ```
686
What is the management of PDA?
Indomethacin closes connection in majority of cases | If associated with another heart defect amenable to surgery, PGE1 useful to keep duct open until after surgical repair
687
What are features of congenital CMV infection?
``` Growth retardation Pinpoint petechial “blueberry muffin” skin lesions Microcephaly Sensorineural deafness Encephalitis Hepatosplenomegaly ```
688
What are cutaneous features of tuberous Sclerosis?
Ash leaf spots which fluoresce under UV light Shagreen patches (rough patches over lumbar spine) Adenoma sebaceum (angiofibromas) Subungual fibromata Cafe au lait spots
689
What are neurological features of tuberous Sclerosis?
Developmental delay Epilepsy (infantile spasms or partial) Intellectual impairment
690
What is cyclical vomiting syndrome?
Commonly associated migraines Severe nausea and sudden vomiting lasting hours to days Prodromal intense sweating and nausea Well between episodes
691
What are the most common heart problems in Down’s syndrome?
``` AVSD VSD PDA TOF ASD ```
692
What is an indication to start steroids in ITP?
If child develops bleeding complications
693
What is PKU?
Autosomal recessive disorder of phenylalanine metabolism due to defect in phenylalanine hydroxylase High levels of phenylalanine lead to learning difficulties, seizures (infantile spasms) Other features fair hair, blue eyes, eczema, musty odour to urine and sweat