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Flashcards in Parasitology Handout Deck (218):
1

In the bacterial name Borrelia burgdorferi, what does burgdorferi represent?
a. Species
b. Genus
c. Family
d. Class

a. Species

2

Rocky Mountain spotted fever is more prevalent in
a. The Northeastern US
b. The Southeastern US
c. The Pacific Northwest
d. The Rocky Mountains

b. The Southeastern US

3

The etiologic agent of Lyme disease is
a. Borrelia burgdorferi
b. Corona virus
c. Lentivirus
d. Pasteurella multocida

a. Borrelia burgdorferi

4

Which of the following is an important function of bacterial flagella?
a. Attachment
b. Locomotion
c. DNA replication
d. Ion transport

b. Locomotion

5

What parasite has only the cat as its definitive host?
a. Toxoplasma gondii
b. Giardia lamblia
c. Isospora rivolta
d. Balantidium coli

a. Toxoplasma gondii

6

The most common portal of entry for microorganisms into the body is
a. Skin
b. GI tract
c. Respiratory tract
d. Genitourinary tract

c. Respiratory tract

7

Enterobacteriaceae are found in what part of the body?
a. Lungs
b. Intestines
c. Skin
d. Stomach

b. Intestines

8

Kittens are most likely to get roundworms (Toxocara) by what route?
a. Fecal-oral
b. Transplacental
c. Transmammary
d. Skin penetration

c. Transmammary

9

A route of infection by hookworms that is not shared by roundworms is
a. Ingestion of infective stage
b. Transplacental
c. Transmammary
d. Skin penetration

d. Skin penetration

10

In appearance, hookworm ova resemble ... ova.
a. Strongyle
b. Whipworm
c. Roundworm
d. Pinworm

a. Strongyle

11

Finding proglottids around a dog's anus indicates infection with
a. Flukes
b. Tapeworms
c. Pinworms
d. Hookworms

b. Tapeworms

12

The intermediate host for heartworm is the
a. Flea
b. Rodent
c. Mosquito
d. Snail

c. Mosquito

13

Serology tests can detect heartworms in a dog's blood
a. Immediately after becoming infected
b. Several days after becoming infected
c. Several weeks after becoming infected
d. Several months after becoming infected

d. Several months after becoming infected

14

Heartworm treatment begins with killing the
a. Eggs
b. Infective L3 larvae
c. Microfilariae
d. Adult worms

d. Adult worms

15

What is not a type of coccidian?
a. Isospora
b. Cryptosporidium
c. Toxoplasma
d. Giardia

d. Giardia
(a. Isospora - now known as cystoisospora; d. Giardia - flagellated protozoan)

16

What are the two diagnostic forms of Giardia?
a. Cysts and trophozoites
b. Merozoites and schizonts
c. Oocysts and sporocysts
d. Ova and L3 larvae

a. Cysts and trophozoites

17

Compared to a roundworm ova, coccidian appear
a. smaller
b. the same size
c. twice as large
d. three times as large

a. smaller

18

The roundworm of horses is
a. Strongylus spp
b. Oxyuris spp
c. Anoplocephala spp
d. Parascaris spp

d. Parascaris spp

19

The difference in appearance between small and large strongyle ova in horses is
a. size
b. shape
c. color
d. none; they look alike

d. none; they look alike

20

Ruminant ova such as Haemonchus, Ostertagia, Trichostrongylus, and Cooperia resemble canine
a. Roundworms
b. Hookworms
c. Tapeworms
d. Whipworms

b. Hookworms

21

Which of the following protozoan parasites of cattle causes abortion or fetal resorption?
a. Tritrichomonas
b. Eimeria
c. Giardia
d. Cryptosporidium

a. Tritrichomonas

22

Which intracellular parasite appears fairly large, paired and teardrop shaped when viewed microscopically?
a. Mycolplasma felis
b. Anaplasma marginale
c. Babesia canis
d. Ehrlichia canis

c. Babesia canis

23

An intracellular parasite, which appears as a structure called morula, found in the cytoplasm of leukocytes, is
a. Babesia
b. Ehrlichia
c. Anaplasma
d. Theileria

b. Ehrlichia

24

What ectoparasite is barely visible to the naked eye?
a. Ticks
b. Fleas
c. Lice
d. Mites

d. Mites

25

Which of these is a non-burrowing mange mite?
a. Notoedres cati
b. Sarcoptes scabei
c. Psoroptes cuniculi
d. Demodex

c. Psoroptes cuniculi

26

What ectoparasite has zoonotic potential?
a. Demodex
b. Notoedres
c. Sarcoptes
d. Psoroptes

c. Sarcoptes

27

Which statement regarding Demodex is false?
a. Live mites and/or eggs may be found in skin scrapings.
b. It is cigar shaped.
c. It resides in the hair follicles and sebaceous glands of certain mammals.
d. It is highly contagious.

d. It is highly contagious.

28

The genus that is commonly known as the fur mite is
a. Cheyletiella spp
b. Trixocarus spp
c. Psoroptes spp
d. Notoedres spp

a. Cheyletiella spp

29

The sarcoptic mange mite of the guinea pig is
a. Sarcoptes caviae
b. Trixacarus caviae
c. Notoedres caviae
d. Psoroptes caviae

b. Trixacarus caviae

30

What tick is a soft tick?
a. Amblyomma
b. Dermacentor
c. Ixodes
d. Otobius

d. Otobius

31

Which of the following parasite ova is collected using a cellophane tape method?
a. Ancylostoma
b. Dirofilaria
c. Dipylidium
d. Oxyuris

d. Oxyuris

32

What tick is the vector for lyme disease?
a. Argas persicus
b. Ixodes scapularis
c. Otobius megnini
d. Rhipicephalus sanguineus

b. Ixodes scapularis

33

It is possible to differentiate sucking lice and chewing lice by which of the following features?
a. Chewing lice have antennae, whereas sucking lice do not
b. Chewing lice are dorsoventrally flattened, whereas sucking lice are laterally flattened
c. Chewing lice have three pairs of legs, whereas sucking lice have four pairs of legs
d. Chewing lice have a head that is broader than the thorax, whereas sucking lice have a head that is narrower than the thorax

d. Chewing lice have a head that is broader than the thorax, whereas sucking lice have a head that is narrower than the thorax

34

An ectoparasite known both for its host specificity and site specificity is the
a. Louse
b. Mite
c. Tick
d. Flea

a. Louse

35

The parasite that is distinguished by white operculated eggs that are cemented to the hairs of its host is the
a. Tick
b. Flea
c. Mite
d. Louse

d. Louse

36

A buffy coat examination for microfilaria can be made in conjunction with what other hematologic procedure?
a. Leukocyte count
b. Packed cell volume (PCV)
c. Differential count
d. Hemoglobin

b. Packed cell volume (PCV)

37

What can the ELISA heartworm test detect that the Difil cannot?
a. Dipetalonema
b. Occult infection
c. Microfilaria
d. Anemia

b. Occult infection

38

A local dairy farmer has just acquired some livestock from Louisiana and is concerned that they have Fasciola hepatica. What fecal examination method will give you the best chance of finding eggs of this parasite?
a. Sedimentation
b. Centrifugal flotation
c. Simple flotation
d. Direct smear

a. Sedimentation

39

In what host do the sexually mature adult parasites live?
a. Definitive
b. Intermediate
c. Transport
d. Secondary

a. Definitive

40

Unlike a histologic section, a wet mount of parasite eggs is three dimensional, therefore when examining the slide under the microscope, you must
a. Lower the condenser all the way down to see all objects
b. Close the iris diaphragm to be able to view all objects
c. Continually adjust the focus to view all objects
d. Use the highest power objectives to view all objects

c. Continually adjust the focus to view all objects

41

What major disadvantage is common to both the direct smear and fecal sedimentation methods of fecal examination?
a. Neither is a concentrating method
b. They both test a very small sample only
c. Fecal debris will make microscopic examination difficult
d. Both are more time consuming to perform than standard flotation methods

c. Fecal debris will make microscopic examination difficult

42

The modified Knott technique for microfilaria has what two additives for ease of heartworm diagnosis
a. Alcohol and Gram stain
b. Formalin and new methylene blue stain
c. Wright stain and formalin
d. New methylene blue and Wright stain

b. Formalin and new methylene blue stain

43

Tapeworm infections are most often diagnosed in small animals by which of the following methods?
a. Centrifugal fecal flotation
b. Simple fecal flotation
c. Direct smear
d. Gross examination

d. Gross examination

44

The least sensitive diagnostic test for finding microfilariae is
a. Direct examination of blood
b. Buffy coat method
c. Modified Knott technique
d. Difil test

a. Direct examination of blood

45

What pair of parasite differs in morphology and size?
a. Trichuris spp vs. Capillaria spp
b. Dipetalonema vs. Dirofilaria microfilaria
c. Toxocara canis vs. Toxocara cati
d. Ancylostoma vs. Toxocaris

d. Ancylostoma vs. Toxocaris

46

What is not a concentration method for parasite ova detection?
a. Fecal flotation
b. Centrifugation
c. Sedimentation
d. Direct smear

d. Direct smear

47

Fecal specimens should be examined routinely with what objective?
a. 4x
b. 10x
c. 40x
d. 100x

b. 10x

48

What is the minimum number of minutes a fecal flotation should stand before examination?
a. 5 minutes
b. 10 minutes
c. 20 minutes
d. 30 minutes

b. 10 minutes

49

The instrument specifically designed to collect a fecal sample directly from the animal's rectum is a
a. Fecal extractor
b. Fecal spoon
c. Fecal loop
d. Fecal scoop

c. Fecal loop

50

In what analysis could heartworm microfilariae appear as an incidental finding
a. Differential cell count
b. Modified Knott test
c. Difil test
d. ELISA test

a. Differential cell count

51

The fecal solution most likely to be successful in detecting Giardia cysts is
a. Sodium chloride
b. Sodium nitrate
c. Zinc sulfate
d. Physiologic saline

c. Zinc sulfate

52

What is the main reason that flotation solutions with specific gravities over 1.300 are not commonly used?
a. As very saturated solutions, they are difficult to make
b. They would distort ova
c. They would be prohibitively expensive
d. It is not necessary, because all ova have a specific gravity lower than 1.300

b. They would distort ova

53

A 4 year old dog has chronic cough and the veterinarian has included Filaroides on his list of possible diagnoses. What is the common name of this parasite?
a. Tapeworm
b. Roundworm
c. Whipworm
d. Lungworm

d. Lungworm

54

Which of the following nematodes are characterized by an ovoid egg with a thin shell and a morulated embryo?
a) Toxascaris leonine
b) Toxocara canis
c) Trichuris vulpis
d) Ancylstoma caninum

d) Ancylstoma caninum

55

A method for diagnosing Cheyletiella is
a. Tissue biopsy
b. Fungal culture
c. Fine-needle aspirate
d. Cellophane tape method

d. Cellophane tape method

56

A Wood's lamp is used to examine an animal for the presence of
a. Demodex
b. Scabies
c. Ringworm
d. Pinworm

c. Ringworm

57

Transmission of coccidia occurs by
a. Ingesting oocysts
b. Direct body contact
c. Transmammary transmission
d. Transplacental transmission

a. Ingesting oocysts

58

The causative agent of Lyme disease?
a. Bordetella bronchiseptica
b. Borrelia burgdorferi
c. Moraxella bovis
d. Mycoplasma pulmonis

b. Borrelia burgdorferi

59

Which of these ectoparasites is zoonotic?
a. Demodex
b. Cnemidocoptes
c. Sarcoptes
d. Otodectes

c. Sarcoptes

60

Which of the following mites is commonly found in rabbits and large animals?
a. Cnemidocoptes
b. Sarcoptes
c. Psoroptes
d. Otodectes

c. Psoroptes
(a. Cnemidocoptes - budgerigars, parakeets, poultry; b. Sarcoptes - dogs, cats, pigs, cattle, horses, sheep, goats; d. Otodectes - dogs, cats, ferrets)

61

What endoparasite larva causes creeping eruptions in humans?
a. Whipworm
b. Tapeworm
c. Pinworm
d. Hookworm

d. Hookworm

62

What parasite can cause blockage of the cranial mesenteric artery in horses?
a. Parascaris equi
b. Oxyuris equi
c. Strongyloides westeri
d. Strongylus vulgaris

d. Strongylus vulgaris

63

Lyme disease is transmitted via
a. Deer tick
b. Lone star tick
c. American dog tick
d. Brown dog tick

a. Deer tick
(Borrelia burgdorferi is the causative agent of Lyme disease)

64

What is a tick-borne organism found in dogs?
a. Toxoplasma
b. Isospora
c. Ehrlichia
d. Cryptosporidium

c. Ehrlichia
(a. Toxoplasma, b. Isospora, d. Cryptosporidium are NOT spread by ticks)

65

Which of the following terms refers to an infestation with lice?
a. Myiasis
b. Acariasis
c. Paraphimosis
d. Pediculosis

d. Pediculosis

66

What does the occult heartworm test actually detect?
a. Microfilariae
b. L3 larvae
c. Antibodies
d. Immature female heartworms

c. Antibodies

67

What mite is the most damaging to cattle
a. Sarcoptes
b. Chorioptes
c. Psoroptes
d. Demodex

c. Psoroptes
(very contagious; psoroptic mange is a reportable disease)

68

Which of the following is a tapeworm seen in horses?
a. Acanthocephala
b. Oxyuris
c. Moniezia
d. Anoplocephala

d. Anoplocephala

69

A skin scraping is used to diagnose what parasite?
a. Bovicola
b. Notoedres
c. Otodectes
d. Ctenocephalides

b. Notoedres
(a. Bovicola - louse; c. Otodectes - ear mite; d. Ctenocephalides - flea)

70

Which of the following is the largest intermediate form of a tapeworm?
a. Cysticercus
b. Hydatid cyst
c. Coenurus
d. Cysticercoid

b. Hydatid cyst
(a. Cysticercus, c. Coenurus, d. Cysticercoid are all smaller intermediate forms of tapeworms)

71

What protozoan parasite causes a venereal disease in cattle?
a. Tryponosoma
b. Giardia
c. Tritrichomonas
d. Babesia

c. Tritrichomonas

72

What parasite uses snails as intermediate hosts?
a. Toxocara
b. Paragonimus
c. Taenia
d. Dipetalonema

b. Paragonimus

73

What equine parasite produces microfilariae, which causes patchy alopecia and depigmentation?
a. Onchocerca
b. Oxyuris
c. Habronema
d. Psoroptes

a. Onchocerca

74

What heartworm diagnostic test uses a concentration technique that increases the change of microfilariae?
a. Agglutination test
b. ELISA test
c. Direct (wet mount)
d. Filtration test (Difil)

d. Filtration test (Difil)

75

What canine parasite causes nodules in the esophagus, which may then become neoplastic?
a. Physaloptera
b. Filaroides
c. Spirocirca
d. Neosporum

c. Spirocirca
(a. Physaloptera - canine stomach worm; b. Filaroides - canine lungworm; d. Neosporum - protozoan causing neurologic disease in pups)

76

Which of the following parasites is not zoonotic?
a. Toxoplasma
b. Echinococcus
c. Dipylidium
d. Giardia

c. Dipylidium

77

Observing a "zippy" motility in fresh feces is used to help diagnose the presence of what parasite?
a. Toxoplasma
b. Mycoplasma (Haemobartonella)
c. Tritrichomonas
d. Alaria

c. Tritrichomonas

78

What fly is responsible for the greatest economic losses in US cattle?
a. Face fly
b. Stable fly
c. Screw worm fly
d. Horn fly

d. Horn fly
(Haematobia irritans) reduces weight gain and milk production in U.S. cattle

79

What parasite causes malaria?
a. Babesia
b. Trypanosoma
c. Plasmodium
d. Anaplasma

c. Plasmodium

80

What fecal flotation solution is recommended when looking for Giardia cysts?
a. Saturated sugar
b. Sodium nitrate
c. Zinc sulfate
d. Saturated salt

c. Zinc sulfate

81

Visceral larval migrans is caused by the larvae of
a. Ancylostoma caninum
b. Isospora canis
c. Toxocara canis
d. Taenia canis

c. Toxocara canis
(Ancylostoma caninum larvae cause cutaneous larval migrans)

82

Proglottids are produced by what parasite?
a. Fluke
b. Tick
c. Mite
d. Tapeworm

d. Tapeworm

83

What lungworm is found in cats?
a. Dictyocaulus
b. Capillaria plica
c. Filaroides osleri
d. Capillaria aerophila

d. Capillaria aerophila
(a. Dictyocaulus - ruminant lungworm; b. Capillaria plica - bladder worm; c. Filaroides osleri - canine lungworm)

84

What is the least likely way of transmitting Toxoplasma to a human?
a. Ingesting ova from cat feces
b. Drinking contaminated water
c. Skin penetration
d. Eating undercooked contaminated meat

c. Skin penetration
(a. Ingesting ova from cat feces and d. Eating undercooked contaminated meat are the most common sources of transmission)

85

The fecal sedimentation technique is often needed to diagnose the presence of what bovine parasite?
a. Dictyocaulus viviparous
b. Fasciola hepatica
c. Moniezia spp
d. Strongyloides westeri

b. Fasciola hepatica

86

What small animal parasite ova resemble strongyle ova in horses?
a. Ascarid
b. Whipworm
c. Hookworm
d. Coccidia

c. Hookworm
(a. Ascarid - roundworm; b. Whipworm - operculated egg; d. Coccidia - smaller than strongyle ova)

87

Stomach bots are common in horses, but where are bots found in sheep?
a. Small intestine
b. Nasal passages
c. Rumen
d. Perianal region

b. Nasal passages
(Oestris ovis, sheep nose bot fly, deposits larvae in the nostrils)

88

Occult heartworm infections are those in which
a. Microfilariae are absent
b. L3 larvae are absent
c. Adults are absent
d. Antibodies are absent

a. Microfilariae are absent (very common)

89

What parasite causes blood loss, especially in young animals?
a. Roundworm
b. Tapeworm
c. Heartworm
d. Hookworm

d. Hookworm

90

What parasite causes a very pruritic disease in dogs?
a. Cheyletiella
b. Sarcoptes
c. Demodex
d. Dermacentor

b. Sarcoptes

91

Myiasis is an infestation of
a. Flies
b. Mites
c. Ticks
d. Lice

a. Flies
(Mite & tick infestation = acariasis; Lice infestation = pediculosis)

92

What causes the sensitivity of the occult heartworm test to decrease?
a. No microfilariae present
b. Female worms only
c. Male worms only
d. No clinical signs

c. Male worms only (sensitivity of test is zero)

93

Which statement is true about Dirofilaria infection in the cat?
a. The life span of the heartworms in cats is shorter than in dogs
b. Microfilariae are commonly seen in cat infections
c. Adult worm burden in cats is similar in numbers to dogs
d. Dirofilaria causes a severe anemia in cats

a. The life span of the heartworms in cats is shorter than in dogs
(2-3 years in cats vs. 5-7 years in dogs; cats also have fewer and smaller adult worms; microfilaremia in cats is uncommon; cats are more resistant hosts than dogs)

94

What adult parasite would be described as having a slender anterior end with its mouth at the tip and a thickened posterior extremity?
a. Heartworm
b. Whipworm
c. Tapeworm
d. Hookworm

b. Whipworm

95

Trematodes are
a. Tapeworms
b. Flukes
c. Roundworms
d. Thorny-headed worms

b. Flukes
(a. tapeworms = cestodes; c. roundworms = nematodes; d. thorny-headed worms = acanthocephalans)

96

A gravid proglottid is
a. An empty tapeworm segment
b. A tapeworm larvae
c. A tapeworm segment filled with eggs
d. The tapeworm segment closest to the head

c. A tapeworm segment filled with eggs
(b. tapeworm larval stages = cysticercus, cysticercoid, coenurus, hydatid/cyst; d. tapeworm segment closest to head = immature proglottid)

97

When an Isospora (coccidiosis) is infective, how many sporozoites does it contain?
a. 2
b. 4
c. 8
d. 16

b. 4
Oocyst sporulates to sporocyst (2)
Sporocyst turns into sporozoites (4 in each sporocyst)

98

Which of these is a coccidian organism?
a. Giardia
b. Cryptosporidium
c. Bunostomum
d. Taenia

b. Cryptosporidium
(a. Giardia - protozoan of phylum Sarcomastigophora; c. Bunostomum - nematode of small intestine of ruminants and camelids; d. Taenia - tapeworm)

99

A quick check for Dirofilaria immitis using a spun hematocrit tube involves microscopically viewing the border between the
a. Clay plug and plasma
b. Buffy coat and erythrocytes
c. Erythrocytes and clay plug
d. Plasma and buffy coat

d. Plasma and buffy coat

100

Dirofilaria immitis adults have not been found in the
a. Right ventricle
b. Brain
c. Anterior chamber of eye
d. Subcutaneous tissues

d. Subcutaneous tissues

101

Which of these is not a characteristic of Dirofilaria immitis?
a. 310 u long
b. Curved tail
c. Straight tail
d. Tapered head

b. Curved tail (this is seen in Acanthocheilonema reconditum, a parasite whose microfilariae may be confused with those of Dirofilaria immitis)

102

Cheyletiella spp are
a. Mites
b. Nematodes
c. Lice
d. Ticks

a. Mites

103

Which of the following is not a fecal flotation medium?
a. Potassium hydroxide
b. Zinc sulfate
c. Sodium nitrate
d. Sugar solution

a. Potassium hydroxide

104

Which of these is not a stage of a protozoan life cycle?
a. Trophite
b. Trophozoite
c. Cyst
d. Oocysts

a. Trophite

105

What are the tips of Trichuris vulpis ova called?
a. Caps
b. Opercula
c. Ends
d. Morulae

b. Opercula

106

Paragonismus kellicotti is a
a. Tapeworm
b. Tick
c. Mite
d. Fluke

d. Fluke (Paragonismus kellicotti = North American lung fluke)

107

Which is not detected using ELISA technology?
a. Heartworms
b. Feline leukemia virus
c. T4
d. Fibrinogen

d. Fibrinogen

108

Dioctophyma renale is often found in the ... of dogs
a. Right kidney
b. Left kidney
c. Urinary bladder
d. Ureters

a. Right kidney

109

The adult form of the parasite ... is a fly, and the larval stage is an endoparasite
a. Otobius
b. Capillaria
c. Thelazia
d. Gasterophilus

d. Gasterophilus
(a. Otobius megnini - spinose ear tick; b. Capillaria - genus of nematode found in respiratory tract or liver; c. Thelazia - genus of nematode parasitizing the eyes)

110

Bots are
a. Lice eggs
b. Fly larvae
c. Flea feces
d. Seed ticks

b. Fly larvae

111

Nits are
a. Lice eggs
b. Fly larvae
c. Flea feces
d. Seed ticks

a. Lice eggs

112

What parasite could cause anemia in horses through blood sucking?
a. Strongylus vulgaris
b. Parascaris equorum
c. Anoplocephala perfoliata
d. Dictyocaulus arnfieldi

a. Strongylus vulgaris
(b. Parascaris equorum - ascarid nematode in small intestine of horse; c. Anoplocephala perfoliata - intestinal tapeworm of horse; d. Dictyocaulus arnfieldi - equine lungworm)

113

Mrs. T brings her dog to your clinic for routine vaccinations and tells you she thinks her dog has ear problems. A smear from the ear reveals yeast. What is the genus of the most common cause of mycotic (fungal) otitis externa?
a. Mucor
b. Malassezia
c. Dermatophilus
d. Phycomycetes

b. Malassezia
(a. Mucor - mold; c. Dermatophilus - gram+ bacterium; d. Phycomycetes - lower fungi)

114

What equine parasite produces microfilaria?
a. Setaria equina
b. Strongylus vulgaris
c. Oxyuris equi
d. Strongyloides westeri

a. Setaria equina (rare intestinal parasite)
(b. Strongylus vulgaris - intestinal blood worm, capable of migrating to mesenteric arteries; c. Oxyuris equi - pinworm of large intestine; d. Strongyloides westeri - nematodes found in small intestines of foals)

115

What parasite is the equine pinworm?
a. Setaria equina
b. Strongylus vulgaris
c. Oxyuris equi
d. Strongyloides westeri

c. Oxyuris equi
(a. Setaria equina - rare intestinal parasite; b. Strongylus vulgaris - intestinal blood worm, capable of migrating to mesenteric arteries; d. Strongyloides westeri - nematodes found in small intestines of foals)

116

Where in an adult cow would you expect to find adult Haemonchus spp parasites?
a. Trachea
b. Bronchioles
c. Abomasum
d. Perianal region

c. Abomasum

117

What is an intracellular parasite of erythrocytes?
a. Babesia
b. Ehrlichia
c. Trypanosoma
d. Toxoplasma

a. Babesia
(b. Ehrlichia - Leukocyte infection; c. Trypanosoma - bloodstream; d. Toxoplasma - intestinal coccidian of cats)

118

What bovine erythrocyte parasite resembles Haemobartonella felis in cats?
a. Anaplasma
b. Babesia
c. Dirofilaria
d. Ehrlichia

a. Anaplasma
(b. Babesia - intracellular parasite of erythrocytes; c. Dirofilaria - Heartworm; d. Ehrlichia - Leukocyte infection)

119

Haemobartonella felis is seen most commonly in the erythrocytes of ... ?
a. Cats
b. Cattle
c. Dogs
d. Horses

a. Cats

120

Which of the following parasites is a tapeworm?
a. Strongyloides westeri
b. Paranoplocephala mamillana
c. Parascaris equorum
d. Oxyuris equi

b. Paranoplocephala mamillana
(a. Strongyloides westeri - nematodes found in small intestines of foals; c. Parascaris equorum - intestinal nematode of young horses (<2yrs old); d. Oxyuris equi - equine pinworm)

121

Which of these parasites is classified as coccidian?
a. Cryptosporidium parvum
b. Bunostomum phlebotomum
c. Moniezia expansa
d. Haemonchus contortus

a. Cryptosporidium parvum
(b. Bunostomum phlebotomum - nematode of small intestine in ruminants and camelids; c. Moniezia expansa - double-pored ruminant tapeworm; d. Haemonchus contortus - "barber's pole worm" nematode of ruminants)

122

The definitive host for Baylisascaris procyonis is
a. Rabbits
b. Raccoons
c. Foxes
d. Ferrets

b. Raccoons

123

What resistant stage of a protozoan is usually passed in the feces?
a. Trophozoites
b. Cyst
c. Egg
d. Larva

b. Cyst
(a. Trophozoites - growing/feeding stage)

124

Trophozoites and cyst forms are associated with
a. Protozoans
b. Cestodes
c. Trematodes
d. Nematodes

a. Protozoans
(b. Cestodes - Flatworms; c. Trematodes - Flukes; d. Nematodes - Roundworms)

125

Dipylidium caninum is a
a. Trematode
b. Nematode
c. Arthropod
d. Cestode

d. Cestode - also known as the flea tapeworm, double-pore tapeworm, cucumber tapeworm
(a. Trematode - Fluke; b. Nematode - Roundworm; c. Arthropod - invertebrate animal w/exoskeleton, i.e. insect, spider crustacean)

126

Fasciola hepatica is a
a. Nematode
b. Cestode
c. Trematode
d. Protozoan

c. Trematode
(a. Nematode - Roundworm; b. Cestode - Flatworm; d. Protozoan - unicellular, eukaryotic organism, i.e. amoeba, flagellate, ciliate, sporozoan)

127

All of the following are blood-borne parasites, but which one does not belong in the same classification group as the other three?
a. Dirofilaria species
b. Haemobartonella species
c. Toxoplasma species
d. Anaplasma species

a. Dirofilaria species

128

Flotation solutions usually have a specific gravity between
a. 1.350 and 1.400
b. 1.250 and 1.300
c. 1.100 and 1.150
d. 1.200 and 1.250

d. 1.200 and 1.250

129

What method does not concentrate ova?
a. Centrifugal flotation
b. Direct smear
c. Simple flotation
d. Sedimentation

b. Direct smear

130

What method favors detection of fluke ova?
a. Sedimentation
b. Centrifugal flotation
c. Simple flotation
d. Direct smear

a. Sedimentation

131

What is unique about fluke ova that require a special detection procedure?
a. They are found in fewer numbers than most other ova
b. They have a lower specific gravity than most other ova
c. Their cysts are the detectable form in feces
d. They have a higher specific gravity than most other ova

d. They have a higher specific gravity than most other ova

132

Cellophane tape is traditionally used to detect the ova of ... in horses
a. Roundworms
b. Pinworms
c. Whipworms
d. Flukes

b. Pinworms (Oxyuris equi)

133

Which of the following is not a fecal flotation solution?
a. Sodium sulfate
b. Sugar
c. Sodium chloride
d. Sodium nitrate

a. Sodium sulfate

134

To examine for trophozoites, it is best to use a mixture of fresh feces and ...
a. Sodium chloride
b. Sodium nitrate
c. Zinc sulfate
d. Physiologic saline

d. Physiologic saline

135

A puppy infected with Dirofilaria immitis the day it is born will not test positive for heartworm microfilariae until it is ... old
a. 12 months
b. 6 to 7 months
c. 3 to 4 months
d. 1 month

b. 6 to 7 months

136

The ELISA heartworm test kit detects the antigens of
a. Heartworm microfilariae
b. Female adult heartworms
c. Adult heartworms and microfilariae
d. Toxins produced by adult heartworms

b. Female adult heartworms

137

Dirofilaria immitis is a
a. Cestode
b. Arthropod
c. Nematode
d. Trematode

c. Nematode

138

Otodectes cynotis is a
a. Cestode
b. Arthropod
c. Nematode
d. Trematode

b. Arthropod

139

Transmission of lice is mostly via
a. Blood sucking arthropods
b. Direct contact
c. Ingestion
d. Fecal contamination

b. Direct contact

140

A dog becomes infected with Dipylidium caninum by ingestion of
a. Saliva from an infected dog
b. Feces from an infected dog
c. Tissues off an infected rabbit
d. Infected fleas

d. Infected fleas

141

A spurious parasite infection would occur if
a. Dipylidium caninum ova were found in feline feces
b. Moniezia expansa ova were seen in canine feces
c. Strongyloides stercoralis larvae were found in canine feces
d. Isospora felis oocysts were found in feline feces

b. Moniezia expansa ova were seen in canine feces
***Define spurious parasite:
Stage ingested by an animal other than the natural host and shed in the feces of that animal, does not represent a true infection.***
(a. Dipylidium caninum - flea tapeworm; b. Moniezia expansa - sheep tapeworm; c. Strongyloides stercoralis - human & canine threadworm; d. Isospora felis - Coccidia)

142

In puppies, transplacental transmission is the primary route of infection for
a. Dipylidium
b. Toxocara
c. Ancylostoma
d. Trichuris

b. Toxocara
(a. Dipylidium - ingestion of infected fleas; c. Ancylostoma - skin penetration; d. Trichuris - ingestion of whipworm egg infected food or water)

143

The most common intermediate host of Taenia pisiformis is a
a. Ruminant
b. Flea
c. Fly
d. Rabbit

d. Rabbit
(b. Flea is the intermediate host for dipylidium caninum)

144

The parasite whose adult resemble a whip and whose eggs have bipolar plugs is
a. Strongyloides stercoralis
b. Trichuris vulpis
c. Toxocara canis
d. Toxascaris leonina

b. Trichuris vulpis ("Stewie's head")
(a. Strongyloides stercoralis - Threadworm; c. Toxocara canis - Roundworm; d. Toxascaris leonina - Roundworm)

145

Taenia eggs (round, wide outer shell) closely resemble the eggs of
a. Echinococcus
b. Isospora
c. Toxocara
d. Capillaria

a. Echinococcus (hydatid tapeworm; round wide outer layer)
(b. Isospora - coccidia, ovoid, 2 packets inside; c. Toxocara - roundworm, thin shell; d. Capillaria - hairworm, looks like whipworm eggs)

146

The genus of tapeworm that releases its eggs in packets is
a. Taenia spp
b. Echinococcus spp
c. Dipylidium spp
d. Moniezia spp

c. Dipylidium spp
(a. Taenia spp - tapeworm usually transmitted by eating infected meat; b. Echinococcus spp - hydatid tapeworm; d. Moniezia spp - ruminant tapeworm)

147

Trichophyton mentagrophytes causes ... in cats
a. Tick fever
b. Pediculosis
c. Mange
d. Ringworm

d. Ringworm
(b. Pediculosis - lice infestation; c. Mange - skin disease caused by mites)

148

Pediculosis is an infestation of
a. Ticks
b. Flies
c. Lice
d. Mites

c. Lice
(a. Ticks - Acariasis; b. Flies - Myiasis; d. Mites - Acariasis)

149

In people, Toxocara canis is the causative agent of
a. Creeping eruption
b. Scabies
c. Hydatidosis
d. Visceral larval migrans

d. Visceral larval migrans
(a. Creeping eruption - hookworm infection w/ancylostoma, also called cutaneous larval migrans; b. Scabies - contagious skin disease caused by mites; c. Hydatidosis - disease caused by presence of hydatid cyst - genus Echinococcus)

150

A large ciliate protozoa that may be found in swine feces is
a. Balantidium spp
b. Tritrichomonas spp
c. Giardia spp
d. Histomonas spp

a. Balantidium spp
(b. Tritrichomonas - single-celled flagellated protozoan; c. Giardia - flagellated protozoan; d. Histomonas - single-cell amoeboid or flagellated protozoan)

151

The parasite also known as brown dog tick is
a. Rhipicephalus sanguineus
b. Ixodes dammini
c. Dermacentor variabilis
d. Dermacentor albipictus

a. Rhipicephalus sanguineus
(b. Ixodes dammini - also Ixodes scapularis, the black-legged or deer tick; c. Dermacentor variabilis - American dog or wood tick; d. Dermacentor albipictus - winter tick of moose)

152

The parasite also known as a winter tick
a. Rhipicephalus sanguineus
b. Ixodes dammini
c. Dermacentor variabilis
d. Dermacentor albipictus

d. Dermacentor albipictus
(a. Rhipicephalus sanguineus - Brown dog tick; b. Ixodes dammini - also Ixodes scapularis, the black-legged or deer tick; c. Dermacentor variabilis - American dog or wood tick)

153

The parasite known as the American dog tick
a. Rhipicephalus sanguineus
b. Ixodes dammini
c. Dermacentor variabilis
d. Dermacentor albipictus

c. Dermacentor variabilis
(a. Rhipicephalus sanguineus - Brown dog tick; b. Ixodes dammini - also Ixodes scapularis, the black-legged or deer tick; d. Dermacentor albipictus - winter tick of moose)

154

The parasite also known as a deer tick
a. Rhipicephalus sanguineus
b. Ixodes dammini
c. Dermacentor variabilis
d. Dermacentor albipictus

b. Ixodes dammini
(a. Rhipicephalus sanguineus - Brown dog tick; c. Dermacentor variabilis - American dog or wood tick; d. Dermacentor albipictus - winter tick of moose)

155

The parasite that lives in ears is
a. Sarcoptes spp
b. Demodex spp
c. Chorioptes spp
d. Otodectes spp

d. Otodectes spp
(a. Sarcoptes - skin burrowing mite; b. Demodex - mite living in or near hair follicles; c. Chorioptes - mite living on skin surface causing chorioptic mange)

156

The parasite that lives on the skin's surface
a. Sarcoptes spp
b. Demodex spp
c. Chorioptes spp
d. Otodectes spp

c. Chorioptes spp
(a. Sarcoptes - skin burrowing mite; b. Demodex - mite living in or near hair follicles; d. Otodectes - ear mite)

157

The parasite that burrows into the skin
a. Sarcoptes spp
b. Demodex spp
c. Chorioptes spp
d. Otodectes spp

a. Sarcoptes spp
(b. Demodex - mite living in or near hair follicles; c. Chorioptes - mite living on skin surface causing chorioptic mange; d. Otodectes - ear mite)

158

The parasite that lives in hair follicles
a. Sarcoptes spp
b. Demodex spp
c. Chorioptes spp
d. Otodectes spp

b. Demodex spp
(a. Sarcoptes - skin burrowing mite; c. Chorioptes - mite living on skin surface causing chorioptic mange; d. Otodectes - ear mite)

159

Which stage of the tick life cycle has six legs?
a. Nymphal
b. Larval
c. Adult female
d. Adult male

b. Larval

160

A flea is the intermediate host for
a. Trichuris vulpis
b. Taenia pisiformis
c. Dipylidium caninum
d. Strongyloides stercoralis

c. Dipylidium caninum
(a. Trichuris vulpis - no int. host; b. Taenia pisiformis - rabbit; d. Strongyloides stercoralis - no int. host)

161

A rabbit is the intermediate host for
a. Trichuris vulpis
b. Taenia pisiformis
c. Dipylidium caninum
d. Strongyloides stercoralis

b. Taenia pisiformis
(a. Trichuris vulpis - no int. host; c. Dipylidium caninum - flea; d. Strongyloides stercoralis - no int. host)

162

Cheyletiella mites use ... as their hosts
a. Dogs, cats, and rabbits
b. Dogs, rabbits, and birds
c. Cats, birds, and rodents
d. Cats, dogs, and rodents

a. Dogs, cats, and rabbits

163

Infection of this parasite is via skin penetration
a. Trichuris vulpis
b. Taenia pisiformis
c. Dipylidium caninum
d. Strongyloides stercoralis

d. Strongyloides stercoralis - Threadworm
(a. Trichuris vulpis - Whipworm; b. Taenia pisiformis - Tapeworm; c. Dipylidium caninum - Tapeworm)

164

People may serve as the intermediate host of
a. Echinococcus granulosus
b. Anoplocephala magna
c. Taenia pisiformis
d. Moniezia benedini

a. Echinococcus granulosus - hydatid tapeworm
(b. Anoplocephala magna - equine intestinal tapeworm; c. Taenia pisiformis - tapeworm of lagomorphs, rodents, carnivores; d. Moniezia benedini - common tapeworm of cattle)

165

What parasite ova have a single operculum
a. Trichuris spp
b. Taenia spp
c. Alaria spp
d. Moniezia spp

c. Alaria spp - intestinal fluke of cats and dogs
(a. Trichuris - whipworm; b. Taenia - tapeworm; d. Moniezia - tapeworm)

166

What parasite ova have three pairs of hooklets
a. Trichuris spp
b. Taenia spp
c. Alaria spp
d. Moniezia spp

d. Moniezia spp - cattle tapeworm
(a. Trichuris - whipworm; b. Taenia - tapeworm; c. Alaria spp - intestinal fluke of cats and dogs)

167

What parasite ova have bipolar plugs?
a. Trichuris spp
b. Taenia spp
c. Alaria spp
d. Moniezia spp

a. Trichuris spp - whipworm
(b. Taenia - tapeworm; c. Alaria spp - intestinal fluke of cats and dogs; d. Moniezia spp - cattle tapeworm)

168

What parasite ova have radial striations
a. Trichuris spp
b. Taenia spp
c. Alaria spp
d. Moniezia spp

b. Taenia spp - tapeworm
(a. Trichuris spp - whipworm; c. Alaria spp - intestinal fluke of cats and dogs; d. Moniezia spp - cattle tapeworm)

169

Fish are intermediate host of what parasite
a. Diphyllobothrium spp
b. Hymenolepis spp
c. Paragonimus spp
d. Fasciola spp

a. Diphyllobothrium spp - tapeworm
(b. Hymenolepis spp - cyclophyllid tapeworm; c. Paragonimus spp - flatworm/lung fluke; d. Fasciola spp - trematode/liver fluke)

170

What parasite has ova found in sputum
a. Diphyllobothrium spp
b. Hymenolepis spp
c. Paragonimus spp
d. Fasciola spp

c. Paragonimus spp - flatworm/lung fluke
(a. Diphyllobothrium spp - tapeworm; b. Hymenolepis spp - cyclophyllid tapeworm; d. Fasciola spp - trematode/liver fluke)

171

The double pore tapeworm is
a. Paragonismus kellicotti
b. Moniezia expansa
c. Dipylidium caninum
d. Echinococcus granulosus

c. Dipylidium caninum - canine tapeworm transmitted by flea
(a. Paragonismus kellicotti - lung fluke; b. Moniezia expansa - ruminant tapeworm; d. Echinococcus granulosus - hydatid dog tapeworm)

172

The parasite that infects the liver of its host
a. Diphyllobothrium spp
b. Hymenolepis spp
c. Paragonimus spp
d. Fasciola spp

d. Fasciola spp - liver fluke
(a. Diphyllobothrium spp - tapeworm; b. Hymenolepis spp - cyclophyllid tapeworm; c. Paragonimus spp - lung fluke)

173

The parasite whose larvae encyst in the subcutaneous tissue of rabbits is
a. Gasterophilus spp
b. Hypoderma spp
c. Oestrus spp
d. Cuterebra spp

d. Cuterebra spp - rodent or rabbit bot fly; larvae encyst in SQ tissue
(a. Gasterophilus spp - bot fly; b. Hypoderma spp - warble fly; c. Oestrus spp - Gad fly)

174

The parasite whose eggs are cemented to the hair of horses is
a. Gasterophilus spp
b. Hypoderma spp
c. Oestrus spp
d. Cuterebra spp

a. Gasterophilus spp - bot fly
(b. Hypoderma spp - warble fly; c. Oestrus spp - Gad fly; d. Cuterebra spp - rodent or rabbit bot fly; larvae encyst in SQ tissue)

175

The parasite whose larvae form warbles in subcutaneous tissue along the back of cattle is
a. Gasterophilus spp
b. Hypoderma spp
c. Oestrus spp
d. Cuterebra spp

b. Hypoderma spp - warble fly
(a. Gasterophilus spp - bot fly; c. Oestrus spp - Gad fly; d. Cuterebra spp - rodent or rabbit bot fly; larvae encyst in SQ tissue)

176

The parasite whose larvae enter the nasal cavity of sheep is
a. Gasterophilus spp
b. Hypoderma spp
c. Oestrus spp
d. Cuterebra spp

c. Oestrus spp - Gad fly
(a. Gasterophilus spp - bot fly; b. Hypoderma spp - warble fly; d. Cuterebra spp - rodent or rabbit bot fly; larvae encyst in SQ tissue)

177

What parasite completes its lifecycle on or in its host
a. Ctenocephalides spp
b. Otodectes spp
c. Hypoderma spp
d. Dermacentor spp

b. Otodectes spp - ear mite
(a. Ctenocephalides spp - flea; c. Hypoderma spp - warble fly; d. Dermacentor spp - tick of the family ixodidae - hard tick)

178

What species causes a disease known as walking dandruff?
a. Trombicula spp
b. Sarcoptes spp
c. Demodex spp
d. Cheyletiella spp

d. Cheyletiella spp - fur mite
(a. Trombicula spp - harvest mite; b. Sarcoptes spp - skin burrowing mite; c. Demodex spp - mite living in or near hair follicle)

179

Scabies is caused by
a. Trombicula spp
b. Otodectes spp
c. Melophagus spp
d. Sarcoptes spp

d. Sarcoptes spp
(a. Trombicula spp - harvest mite; b. Otodectes spp - ear mite; c. Melophagus spp - biting fly)

180

The parasite also known as the hookworm is
a. Bunostomum spp
b. Ostertagia spp
c. Trichostrongylus spp
d. Haemonchus spp

a. Bunostomum spp - nematodes of small intestines in ruminants & camelids
(b. Ostertagia spp - brown stomach worm; c. Trichostrongylus spp - stomach hair worm; d. Haemonchus spp - "barber's pole worm")

181

The parasite also known as the stomach hair worm is
a. Bunostomum spp
b. Ostertagia spp
c. Trichostrongylus spp
d. Haemonchus spp

c. Trichostrongylus spp - stomach hair worm
(a. Bunostomum spp - nematodes of small intestines in ruminants & camelids; b. Ostertagia spp - brown stomach worm; d. Haemonchus spp - "barber's pole worm")

182

The parasite also known as the brown stomach worm
a. Bunostomum spp
b. Ostertagia spp
c. Trichostrongylus spp
d. Haemonchus spp

b. Ostertagia spp - brown stomach worm
(a. Bunostomum spp - nematodes of small intestines in ruminants & camelids; c. Trichostrongylus spp - stomach hair worm; d. Haemonchus spp - "barber's pole worm")

183

The parasite also known as the barber's worm is
a. Bunostomum spp
b. Ostertagia spp
c. Trichostrongylus spp
d. Haemonchus spp

d. Haemonchus spp - "barber's pole worm"
(a. Bunostomum spp - nematodes of small intestines in ruminants & camelids; b. Ostertagia spp - brown stomach worm; c. Trichostrongylus spp - stomach hair worm)

184

Choose the correct size sequence, from largest ova to smallest ova
a. Trichostrongylus, Nematodirus, Strongyloides, Eimeria
b. Nematodirus, Trichostrongylus, Strongyloides, Eimeria
c. Eimeria, Nematodirus, Trichostrongylus, Strongyloides
d. Nematodirus, Strongyloides, Trichostrongylus, Eimeria

b. Nematodirus, Trichostrongylus, Strongyloides, Eimeria

185

The parasite found in the abomasal gastric glands of ruminants is
a. Oesophagostomum spp
b. Ostertagia spp
c. Haemonchus spp
d. Dictyocaulus spp

b. Ostertagia spp - brown stomach worm
(a. Oesophagostomum spp - nodule worm; c. Haemonchus spp - barber's pole worm; d. Dictyocaulus spp - lungworm)

186

The parasite that sucks blood in the abomasum of ruminants is
a. Oesophagostomum spp
b. Ostertagia spp
c. Haemonchus spp
d. Dictyocaulus spp

c. Haemonchus spp - barber's pole worm
(a. Oesophagostomum spp - nodule worm; b. Ostertagia spp - brown stomach worm; d. Dictyocaulus spp - lungworm)

187

The parasite that matures in the lungs is
a. Oesophagostomum spp
b. Ostertagia spp
c. Haemonchus spp
d. Dictyocaulus spp

d. Dictyocaulus spp - lungworm
(a. Oesophagostomum spp - nodule worm; b. Ostertagia spp - brown stomach worm; c. Haemonchus spp - barber's pole worm)

188

The parasite that forms nodules in the intestinal mucosa is
a. Oesophagostomum spp
b. Ostertagia spp
c. Haemonchus spp
d. Dictyocaulus spp

a. Oesophagostomum spp - nodule worm
(b. Ostertagia spp - brown stomach worm; c. Haemonchus spp - barber's pole worm; d. Dictyocaulus spp - lungworm)

189

The most common parasite found in pigs is
a. Ascaris spp
b. Metastrongylus spp
c. Oesophagostomum spp
d. Trichuris spp

a. Ascaris spp - small intestinal nematode
(b. Metastrongylus spp - pig lungworm; c. Oesophagostomum spp - nodule worm; d. Trichuris spp - whipworm)

190

A client has found a large number of roundworms in her puppy's feces at home. A logical explanation may be that
a. The dog has been treated recently for roundworms
b. The puppy ate something that looks like worms that were passed in the feces
c. It is a period in the life cycle of roundworms that results in the passage of large numbers of worms
d. The roundworms pass out in large numbers when the dog has diarrhea

a. The dog has been treated recently for roundworms

191

Choose the correct size sequence, from smallest ova to largest ova
a. Isospora, Uncinaria, Ancylostoma, Toxocara
b. Isospora, Ancylostoma, Toxocara, Uncinaria
c. Isospora, Ancylostoma, Uncinaria, Toxocara
d. Ancylostoma, Isospora, Uncinaria, Toxocara

c. Isospora, Ancylostoma, Uncinaria, Toxocara

192

Anemia in puppies is most likely associated with infection with
a. Isospora spp
b. Paragonismus spp
c. Strongyloides spp
d. Ancylostoma spp

d. Ancylostoma spp - hookworm
(a. Isospora spp - coccidia; b. Paragonismus spp - lung fluke; c. Strongyloides spp - threadworm)

193

A common sign of giardiasis is
a. Chronic diarrhea
b. Hemolytic anemia
c. Acute coughing
d. Bloody vomit

a. Chronic diarrhea

194

The parasite also known as a liver fluke is
a. Dioctophyma spp
b. Fasciola spp
c. Paragonismus spp
d. Capillaria spp

b. Fasciola spp - liver fluke
(a. Dioctophyma spp - kidney worm; c. Paragonismus spp - lung fluke; d. Capillaria spp - bladder or respiratory nematode)

195

The parasite also known as a lung fluke
a. Dioctophyma spp
b. Fasciola spp
c. Paragonismus spp
d. Capillaria spp

c. Paragonismus spp - lung fluke
(a. Dioctophyma spp - kidney worm; b. Fasciola spp - liver fluke; d. Capillaria spp - bladder or respiratory nematode)

196

The parasite also known as a lungworm is
a. Dioctophyma spp
b. Fasciola spp
c. Dipylidium spp
d. Capillaria spp

d. Capillaria spp - lungworm
(a. Dioctophyma spp - kidney worm; b. Fasciola spp - liver fluke; c. Dipylidium spp - flea tapeworm)

197

Trichuris ova most resemble the ova of
a. Isospora spp
b. Taenia spp
c. Ancylostoma spp
d. Capillaria spp

d. Capillaria spp - lungworm
(a. Isospora spp - coccidia; b. Taenia spp - tapeworm; c. Ancylostoma spp - hookworm)

198

Skin penetration is a means of entry into a host by
a. Toxocara spp
b. Taenia spp
c. Anaplasma spp
d. Ancylostoma spp

d. Ancylostoma spp - hookworm
(a. Toxocara spp - roundworm; b. Taenia spp - tapeworm; c. Anaplasma spp - genus of rickettsiales bacteria)

199

A chewing louse of dogs is
a. Trichodectes spp
b. Haematopinus spp
c. Felicola spp
d. Damalinia spp

a. Trichodectes spp - canine chewing louse
(b. Haematopinus spp - cattle tail louse; c. Felicola spp - cat louse; d. Damalinia spp - cattle biting louse)

200

A chewing louse of cats is
a. Trichodectes spp
b. Haematopinus spp
c. Felicola spp
d. Damalinia spp

c. Felicola spp - cat louse
(a. Trichodectes spp - canine chewing louse; b. Haematopinus spp - cattle tail louse; d. Damalinia spp - cattle biting louse)

201

A sucking louse of cattle is
a. Trichodectes spp
b. Haematopinus spp
c. Felicola spp
d. Damalinia spp

b. Haematopinus spp - cattle tail louse
(a. Trichodectes spp - canine chewing louse; c. Felicola spp - cat louse; d. Damalinia spp - cattle biting louse)

202

A chewing louse of cattle is
a. Trichodectes spp
b. Haematopinus spp
c. Felicola spp
d. Damalinia spp

d. Damalinia spp - cattle biting louse
(a. Trichodectes spp - canine chewing louse; b. Haematopinus spp - cattle tail louse; c. Felicola spp - cat louse)

203

The genus name for the spinose ear tick is
a. Otodectes
b. Otobius
c. Oestrus
d. Oxyuris

b. Otobius megnini - spinose ear tick
(a. Otodectes cynotis - ear mite; c. Oestrus ovis - sheep bot fly; d. Oxyuris equi - equine pinworm)

204

What species is not parasitized by pinworms
a. Horses
b. Dogs
c. Rodents
d. Humans

b. Dogs

205

An intestinal fluke is
a. Alaria spp
b. Fascioloides spp
c. Stephanurus spp
d. Metastrongylus spp

a. Alaria spp - intestinal fluke of dogs and cats
(b. Fascioloides spp - giant liver fluke; c. Stephanurus spp - kidney worm; d. Metastrongylus spp - lungworm)

206

The parasite also known as lungworm is
a. Alaria spp
b. Fascioloides spp
c. Stephanurus spp
d. Metastrongylus spp

d. Metastrongylus spp - lungworm
(a. Alaria spp - intestinal fluke of dogs and cats; b. Fascioloides spp - giant liver fluke; c. Stephanurus spp - kidney worm)

207

The parasite known as a kidney worm is
a. Alaria spp
b. Fascioloides spp
c. Stephanurus spp
d. Metastrongylus spp

c. Stephanurus spp - kidney worm
(a. Alaria spp - intestinal fluke of dogs and cats; b. Fascioloides spp - giant liver fluke; d. Metastrongylus spp - lungworm)

208

Which statement regarding fleas is true?
a. "flea dirt" is flea feces
b. Fleas are host specific
c. Adults cannot survive long periods without feeding
d. Flea eggs are not sticky and fall off into the environment

a. "flea dirt" is flea feces

209

The parasite that causes generalized pruritus in sheep and goats is
a. Ancylostoma spp
b. Melophagus spp
c. Notoedres spp
d. Echinococcus spp

b. Melophagus spp - sheep ked
(a. Ancylostoma spp - hookworm; c. Notoedres spp - feline scabies; d. Echinococcus spp - hydatid worm)

210

The parasite that causes creeping eruption in people is
a. Ancylostoma spp
b. Melophagus spp
c. Notoedres spp
d. Echinococcus spp

a. Ancylostoma spp - hookworm
(b. Melophagus spp - sheep ked; c. Notoedres spp - feline scabies; d. Echinococcus spp - hydatid worm)

211

A gravid proglottid would be found in a
a. Mite
b. Tick
c. Arthropod
d. Tapeworm

d. Tapeworm

212

The parasite that causes feline scabies is
a. Ancylostoma spp
b. Melophagus spp
c. Notoedres spp
d. Echinococcus spp

c. Notoedres spp - feline scabies
(a. Ancylostoma spp - hookworm; b. Melophagus spp - sheep ked; d. Echinococcus spp - hydatid worm)

213

The parasite that is a protozoan is
a. Psoroptes spp
b. Mallophaga spp
c. Cryptosporidium spp
d. Anoplura spp

c. Cryptosporidium spp
(a. Psoroptes spp - psoroptic mange mite; b. Mallophaga spp - chewing/biting/bird louse; d. Anoplura spp - sucking louse)

214

A sucking louse is a/an
a. Protozoan
b. Trematode
c. Cestode
d. Arthropod

d. Arthropod
(a. Protozoan - unicellular eukaryotic organism; b. Trematode - fluke; c. Cestode - tapeworm)

215

Which of these parasites is a mite?
a. Psoroptes spp
b. Mallophaga spp
c. Cryptosporidium spp
d. Anoplura spp

a. Psoroptes spp - psoroptic mange mite
(b. Mallophaga spp - chewing/biting/bird louse; c. Cryptosporidium spp - protozoan; d. Anoplura spp - sucking louse)

216

Platyhelminthes
Class Cestoda

Phylum: Platyhelminthes (Flatworms)
Class: Cestoda (Tapeworms)
Example species: Taenia Solium

217

Platyhelminthes
Class Trematoda

Phylum: Platyhelminthes (Flatworms)
Class: Trematoda (Flukes)
Examples species: Fasciola (Liver fluke) Schistosoma (Blood fluke)

218

Arthropoda
- Ear mite -

Phylum: Arthropoda
Class: Arachnida
Order: Astigmata
Family: Psoroptidia
Genus: Otodectes
Species: O. cynotis