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Flashcards in PassMedicine Deck (52)
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1
Q

what is used to treat malaria

A

quinine

2
Q

what are features of primary TB and post-primary TB

A

primary TB - asymptomatic

post primary TB - symptomatic

3
Q

what causes cholera

A

vibrio cholerae

4
Q

what is characteristic of cholera

A

water diarrhoea

‘rice water stools’

5
Q

what is a common contagious cause of childhood diarrhoea

A

rotavirus

6
Q

what is used to treat shingles

A

acyclovir

7
Q

what are features of n gonorrhoea infection

A

purulent urethral discharge which is yellow coloured

dysuria

8
Q

what are features of chlamydia

A

dysuria

9
Q

what distinguishes n gonorrhoea and chlamydia

A

n gonorrhoea has yellow purulent discharge

10
Q

what is the first line treatment for bacterial meningitis

A

1.2g IM benzylpeniciillin

11
Q

what stain is diagnostic of TB

A

ziehl nelson staining

12
Q

what are the most common causes of bacterial meningitis

A

strep pneumoniae

n meningitidis

13
Q

what distinguishes bacterial and viral meningitis

A

bacterial has a rash

14
Q

what is a common cause of neonatal meningitis

A

listerial monocytogenes

15
Q

what causes lockjaw

A

tetanus with c tetani

16
Q

what causes scabies

A

sarcoptes scabiae

17
Q

how does scabies present

A

itchy papular rash

found in web spaces between fingers and palms of hand

18
Q

what is the most common cause of septic arthritis in children

A

h influenzae

19
Q

what is the most common cause of septic arthritis in young adults

A

n gonorrhoea

20
Q

what is the most common cause of septic arthritis in older adults

A

s aureus

21
Q

what is seen on CT head with toxoplasmosis

A

ring enhancing lesions

22
Q

how does candida albicans present

A

HIV patients

colonises in the oesophagus causing dysphagia and retrosternal discomfort

23
Q

what is the most common complaint with PE

A

SOB

24
Q

when and why does pleuritic chest pain present with PE

A

PE causes pulmonary infarction which leads to gradual onset of pleuritic chest pain

25
Q

what condition is terlipressin used in

A

varices to lower BP

26
Q

what condition is omeprazole used in

A

PUD to lower risk of rebleeding

27
Q

what % of SAHs are excluded with CT scan

A

90

28
Q

when should LPs be taken with SAH

A

> 12hours after presentation to allow for appearance of bilirubin in CSF (yellow)

29
Q

what is rare in TIA

A

LOC

30
Q

what is the treatment of choice for a VT with haemodynamic compromise

A

DC cardioversion

31
Q

when is DC cardioversion used in AF

A

after 4wks of anticoagulation unless patient is haemodynamically compromised or patient clearly presents within 48hrs of onset

32
Q

what is a common precipitant of an acute asthma attack

A

viral infection (bacteria is rare)

33
Q

when is thrombolysis or PCI given to patients with an MI

A

if they present within 12hours of the symptoms

34
Q

what might you seen in the palate with infectious mononucleosis

A

palatal petechiae

35
Q

what test is used to confirm infectious mononucleosis

A

paul bunnell test (heterophile antibody test for EBV now improves on it)

36
Q

when should rehydration intravenously occur in infection

A

tachycardia or signs of hypovolaemia

37
Q

what is the most common cause of bacterial meningitis

A

strep pneumoniae

38
Q

what produces a non-blanching petechial rash in meningitis

A

neisseria meningitidis

39
Q

what is seen on CT with toxoplasmosis

A

ring-enhancing lesions

40
Q

what are clue cells associated with

A

bacterial vaginosis

41
Q

what is a gram negative diplococci

A

neisseria meningitidis

42
Q

what is used to treat c diff

A

oral metronidazole

43
Q

what causes retinitis in HIV

A

CMV

44
Q

what is a auramine phenol stain used to diagnose

A

TB

45
Q

what are examples of encapsulated organisms

A
Hemophilus influenzae 
Streptococcus pneumoniae
Neisseria meningitidis
Group B streptococcus
Klebsiella pneumoniae
Salmonella
46
Q

what infection assocoiated with india can cause liver abscesses

A

entamoeba histolytica

47
Q

what can be used to treat MRSA

A

vancomycin

teicoplanin

48
Q

what are gram positive cocci in clusters

A

staph

49
Q

what are gram positive cocci in chains

A

strep

50
Q

what is a gram negative bacilli

A

e coli

51
Q

what is a gram positive cocci which is coagulase positive

A

s aureus

52
Q

what is a gram positive cocci which is coagulase negative

A

s epidermidis (urinary problems)