Patho Exam 4 Flashcards

1
Q

B Cells are originally derived from the cells of the

A

Bone Marrow

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2
Q

A 12 year old has a bacterial respiratory infection. Which of the following will most likely try to fight the antigen?

A

Antibodies

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3
Q

Which patient will develop active immunity? One who:

A

Has natural exposure to an antigen or receives an immunization

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4
Q

Regarding hemolytic disease of the newborn, which of the following is an expected finding?

A

The baby is Rh positive, and the mother is Rh negative.

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5
Q

A 22-year-old was recently diagnosed with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS). Which decreased lab finding would be expected to accompany this virus?

A

CD4 T-helper

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6
Q

A 50-year-old female experiences decreased blood pressure, decreased oxygen delivery, cardiovascular shock, and subsequent death. A complication of endotoxic shock is suspected. Which of the following is the most likely cause?

A

Gram Negative Bacteria

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7
Q

An allergy is an example of which type of hypersensitivity reaction?

A

Type 1

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8
Q

With type O blood, that _______ antibodies are present in the body.

A

Anti A & B

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9
Q

When the immunoglobulin crosses the placenta, what type of immunity does the fetus receive?

A

Passive

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10
Q

Increased age is associated with (select all that apply):

A
  1. Decreased immune function
  2. Decreased numbers of circulating immune complexes
  3. decreased ability to fight infection
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11
Q

The main site of hematopoiesis in the fetus is the

A

liver

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12
Q

Which condition would stimulate erythropoietin secretion?

A

Low Blood Oxygen Level

causes increased RBC formation

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13
Q

A newborn is diagnosed with congenital intrinsic factor deficiency. Which of the following types of anemia will the nurse see documented on the chart?

A

Pernicious Anemia

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14
Q

Erythrocytes which contain an abnormally low concentration of hemoglobin are called

A

Hypochromic

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15
Q

Aplastic anemia is caused by

A

Stem Cell defiency

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16
Q

Liver disease is a concern for clotting problems because

A

Clotting factors are produced in the liver

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17
Q

A 1-year-old female is diagnosed with anemia secondary to insufficient erythropoiesis. The most likely cause(s) is (are

A

An iron deficiency

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18
Q

Which mother is at most risk for a maternal-fetal blood incompatibility

A

Mother is Rh-negative, and fetus is Rh-positive.

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19
Q

The most common childhood cancer is

A

Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia

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20
Q

The normal leukocyte count is

A

5,000 - 10,000/mm3

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21
Q

While planning care for elderly individuals, the nurse remembers the elderly are at a higher risk for developing dehydration because they have a(n):

A

Decreased muscle mass

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22
Q

Water movement between the ICF and ECF compartments is determined by:

A

Osmotic forces

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23
Q

When planning care for a dehydrated patient, the nurse remembers the principle of water balance is closely related to _____ balance.

A

sodium

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24
Q

A 5-year-old male presents to the ER with delirium and sunken eyes. After diagnosing him with severe dehydration, the primary care provider orders fluid replacement. The nurse administers a hypertonic intravenous solution. Which of the following would be expected?

A

intracellular dehydration

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25
Which of the following conditions would cause the nurse to monitor for hyperkalemia?
Acute acidosis
26
The clinical manifestation of hypokalemia is
skeletal muscle weakness
27
A 54-year-old male with a long history of smoking complains of excessive tiredness, shortness of breath, and overall ill feelings. Lab results reveal decreased pH, increased CO2, and normal bicarbonate values. This patient's acid base condition is:
respiratory acidosis
28
The RN is caring for a patient who develops metabolic acidosis. Which of the following compensatory mechanisms would the RN first expect to observe?
Deep rapid respirations
29
In caring for a patient with the diagnosis of bulimia and known repetitive vomiting over a period of weeks, the RN would expect which of the following acid/base imbalances?
metabolic alkalosis
30
Which of the following buffer pairs is considered the major plasma buffering system?
Carbonic acid/bicarbonate
31
The RN notes that a patient's serum K+ level is 5.8. Which of the following is an outcome of this level?
Increased excitability of cardiac muscle and arrhythmias
32
The nurse reviews the ABG values and notes a pH of 7.5, pCO2 of 30, and a HCO3 of 25. The nurse interprets these values as indicating:
Respiratory alkalosis
33
The largest fluid component of the body is
Intracellular
34
From birth to adulthood, the percentage of total body water decreases. True or False
True
35
The major cation of extracellular fluid is
Sodium
36
The clinical manifestation of hyponatremia is:
Lethargy and confusion
37
Which finding would support the diagnosis of respiratory acidosis?
Pneumonia
38
A patient is being treated for an alteration in electrolytes. The associated abdominal cramps, tingling, and muscle cramping in the hands, feet and facial muscles are associated with
Hypocalcemia
39
The nurse reviews the results of an ABG. The results indicate alkalosis. Which of the following values indicate that this acid base balance exists?
PCO2 = 28
40
Calcium and phosphate concentrations are controlled by (select all that apply)
* Parathyroid hormone (PTH) * Vitamin D * Calcitonin
41
A 20 year old male was recently diagnosed with lactose intolerance. He eats an ice cream cone and develops diarrhea. His diarrhea can be classified as...
Osmotic- ## Footnote * ​a non absorbable substance in the intestine that leads to osmotic diarrhea *
42
Pain is felt near the midline in the epigastrium and caused by a stimulus acting on the abdominal organ. The pain felt is classified as:
visceral
43
The most common disorder associated with upper GI bleeding
Esophageal varices
44
Bleeding from the rectus is referred to as
hematochezia
45
A 50 year old male is experiencing reflux of chyme from the stomach. He is diagnosed with Gastroesophageal reflux (GERD). This condition is caused by
loss of muscle tone at the lower esophageal sphincter
46
Heartburn after eating and difficulty swallowing are classic for which disorder?
Hiatal Hernia ## Footnote *regurgitation, dysphagia, and substernal discomfort after eating are common in individual with hiatal hernia *
47
A type of intestinal obstruction includes one part of the intestine telescopes into another. It may be accompanied by colicky pain followed by vomiting, sweating, nausea, and irritability. What type of intestinal obstruction is this?
Intussusception ## Footnote *telescoping causes strangulation of the blood supply and is more common in infants 10 to 15 months of age than in adults. *
48
Chronic intermittent pain in the epigastric area 2 to 3 hours after eating is diagnosed as duodenal ulcer. Which of the following behavior may have contributed to the development of the ulcer?
Cigarette Smoking ## Footnote *producing acid production *
49
A worrisome potential that might develop from a stress ulcer:
bleeding
50
51
A gastrointestinal disorder would be likely to lead to frequently recurring abdominal pain, diarrhea, and bloody stools?
Ulcerative Colitis *manifested by fever, elevated pulse rate, frequent diarrhea (10-­20 stools/day), urgency, obviously bloody stools, and continuous lesions present in the colon *
52
Incomplete fusion of the nasomedial or intermaxillary process noted on a 3D ultrasound of a 9 week old fetus is associated with which term/diagnosis?
Cleft Lip ## Footnote *beginning the fourth week of embryonic development, a period of rapid development *
53
Cystic Fibrosis is associated with which of the following digestive alterations?
malabsorption
54
Occurrence of gastroesophageal reflux is highest in which pediatric population
premature infants
55
Which of the following symptoms would help a healthcare provider distinguish between ulcerative colitis and Crohn’s disease?
Malabsorption is common in Crohn's disease
56
What could be a major cause of death in a immunosupressed client?
infection
57
The coronary arteries supply the capillaries of the mycardium with blood. What happends if blockage occurs
risk for MI
58
What are the goals to relieve angina?
* relief from the acute attack * correct hte imbalance between myocardial oxygen supply and demand * prevent progression of the disease * reduce risk of MI
59
Signs of left ventricular failure are evident where?
pulmonary system
60
Signs of right ventricular failure are evident where?
systemic circulation
61
What type of problem is thromboembolism
valve replacement with mechanicla prosthetic valve, lifetime anticoagulant is required
62
What is a client with kidney disease at risk for
hyperkalemia, dysrhythmias
63
What causes the increase in the HBA1c value
hyperglycemia in a client with diabetes mellitus
64
What is cushings syndrome characterized by
hypersecretion of glucocorticoids
65
What is addison's disease characterized by
hyposecretion of adrenal cortex hormones
66
What is an extreme risk for a dka patient?
increase intracranial pressure, water is pulled from blood to CSF causing cerebral edema