Pathology dep.2 Practice Questions - Semester 2 Flashcards
1
Q
Benign tumors in the lungs are more frequent than malignant tumors. (TRUE/FALSE)
A
FALSE
2
Q
Etiology of peptic ulcer (2 answers correct):
a. ) Mycobacterium
b. ) Candida Albicans
c. ) H. Pylori
d. ) Hyperacidity
A
c. ) H. Pylori
d. ) Hyperacidity
3
Q
Well differentiated squamous cell carcinoma can be identified by extensive mucin production. (TRUE/FALSE)
A
FALSE
Not specific sign of malignancy
4
Q
Mesothelioma (2 Correct):
a. ) is of squamous cell origine
b. ) is of cuboidal mesothelial cell origin
c. ) may show sarcomatous spindle cell differentiation
d. ) is a benign tumor
A
b. ) is of cuboidal mesothelial cell origin
c. ) may show sarcomatous spindle cell differentiation
5
Q
select the true statements ( 2 correct ):
a. ) in interstitial pneumonia there is an productive cough
b. ) in lobar pneumonia airspaces are filled with homogenous exudate
c. ) in bronchial pneumonia there is no sputum
d. ) in bronchial pneumonia there is extensive mucous production and suppurative exudation
A
b. ) in lobar pneumonia airspaces are filled with homogenous exudate
d. ) in bronchial pneumonia there is extensive mucous production and suppurative exudation
6
Q
Primary sclerosing cholangitis is frequently associated with IBDs, especially ulcerative colitis.
(TRUE/FALSE)
A
TRUE
7
Q
Airway remodelling includes all EXCEPT :
a. ) basement membrane fibrosis and vascularization of submucosa
b. ) hypertrophy of submucosal glands
c. ) fibrosis of submucosa
d. ) goblet cell metaplasia
e. ) hypertrophy and hyperplasia of bronchial smooth muscle
A
c.) fibrosis of submucosa (False)
Airway Remodelling:
- Epithelial change- increase glands
- Increase SMC
- Increase Fibroblasts / Myofibroblasts
- Subepithelial fibrosis (BM)
- Vascularization (angiogenesis)
8
Q
degeneration or absence of ganglion cells in the myenteric plexus is typical in :
a. ) celiac disease
b. ) terminal ileitis
c. ) malabsorption syndrome
d. ) chronic ulcerative colitis
e. ) congenital megacolon
A
e.) Congenital megacolon (Consequence of Hirschsprung disease)
9
Q
Characteristic for lung TB EXCEPT :
a. ) typical in secondary TB is the apical simones foci
b. ) includes granuloma formation
c. ) eosinophils dominate in the granuloma
d. ) can cause miliary TB through hematogenous spread e.) can form cavitation
A
c.) eosinophils dominate in the granuloma
10
Q
typical for lung carcinoma : ( 2 correct)
a. ) often given metastasis in skeletal muscle
b. ) diagnosed in early state
c. ) often give metastasis in brain
d. ) often is an occult carcinoma
A
c.) often give metastasis in brain
d.) often is an occult carcinoma
( cancer cells in sputum but yet no cancer found in lungs )
11
Q
Which carcinoma does NOT exist in the lung ?
a. ) myxoma
b. ) squamous cell carcinoma
c. ) neuroendocrine carcinoma
d. ) small cell carcinoma
e. ) large cell carcinoma
A
a. ) myxoma
* Heart
12
Q
Important histological difference between tuberculosis and sarcoidosis?
a. ) Caseation
b. ) Presence of Lymphocytes
c. ) Presence of Granulocytes
d. ) Type of langerhans cells
A
a.) Caseation
13
Q
Blood aspiration and hemorrhagic pneumonia have the same histological appearance (TRUE/FALSE)
A
FALSE
14
Q
True for BASC (bronchioalveolar stem cells):
a. ) at the bronchoalveolar junction
b. ) multipotent stem cells involved in clara cell and alveolar epithelial cell regeneration
c. ) may be precursor for squamous cell carcinoma and adenocarcinoma
d. ) all of them
A
d.) all of them
a. ) at the bronchoalveolar junction
b. ) multipotent stem cells involved in clara cell and alveolar epithelial cell regeneration
c. ) may be precursor for squamous cell carcinoma and adenocarcinoma
15
Q
Possible cause of pulmonary hypertension ( 2 correct):
a. ) bronchopneumonia
b. ) emphysema
c. ) chronic renal failure
d. ) pulmonary fibrosis
A
b. ) emphysema
d. ) pulmonary fibrosis
16
Q
in which tumor there is hoarseness (2 correct) :
a. ) laryngeal papilloma
b. ) glottis carcinoma
c. ) bronchial carcinoma
d. ) tongue tumor
A
a. ) laryngeal papilloma
b. ) glottis carcinoma
17
Q
which carcinoma is typical in non-smokers ?
a. ) large cell carcinoma
b. ) adenocarcinoma
c. ) small cell carcinoma
d. ) neuroendocrine carcinoma
e. ) squamous cell carcinoma
A
b.) adenocarcinoma
18
Q
Characteristic for carcinoid tumors (2 correct) :
a. ) penetrate bronchial wall and fan out in pulmonary interstitium
b. ) given frequent distal metastasis
c. ) are nests of uniform , regular round cells with salt and pepper appearance
d. ) are usually peripheral lesions of the pleura
A
a. ) penetrate bronchial wall and fan out in pulmonary interstitium
c. ) are nests of uniform , regular round cells with salt and pepper appearance
19
Q
Possible Cause of Macronodular Cirrhosis:
a. ) PBC
b. ) Mushroom Poisoning
c. ) Alcoholic Liver Disease
d. ) Chronic Congestion
A
b.) Mushroom Poisoning
20
Q
Pneumothorax can be caused by :
a. ) rib fracture
b. ) thoracic trauma
c. ) bullae emphysema
d. ) all true
A
d.) all true
a. ) rib fracture
b. ) thoracic trauma
c. ) bullae emphysema
21
Q
Hypersensitivity pneumonia ( 2 correct):
a. ) is an allergic reaction involving bronchial and alveolar tissue
b. ) is an allergic reaction involving alveolar tissue and pulmonary interstitium
c. ) includes hypersensitivity type III and IV
d. ) includes hypersensitivity type I and II
A
b. ) is an allergic reaction involving alveolar tissue and pulmonary interstitium
c. ) includes hypersensitivity type III and IV
22
Q
common site of metastasis from Lung carcinoma : (2 correct)
a. ) adrenal glands
b. ) brain
c. ) kidney
d. ) spleen
A
a. ) adrenal glands
b. ) brain
23
Q
An erosion of the stomach mucosa is a defect reaching as far as the submucosa. (TRUE/FALSE)
A
FALSE
*Not deeper than muscularis mucosa
24
Q
Typical for barrett’s esophagus (2):
a. ) Caused by HPV infection
b. ) leads to squamous cell carcinoma
c. ) leads to adenocarcinoma
d. ) Caused by Reflux
A
c. ) leads to adenocarcinoma
d. ) Caused by Reflux
25
Characteristic for laryngeal papilloma EXCEPT :
a. ) mainly in real vocal cords
b. ) regular stratified squamous epithelium
c. ) greater than 1 cm
d. ) benign tumor
e. ) gives metastasis
e.) gives metastasis
| Benign
26
Small cell carcinomas typically : ( 3 correct )
a. ) grow in the submucosa around bronchi in a circumferential fashion
b. ) cells are of cuboidal shape with prominent nuclei
c. ) cells are of small round or spindle like shape
d. ) the most common mutations found are : MYC, p53 and Rb
a. ) grow in the submucosa around bronchi in a circumferential fashion
c. ) cells are of small round or spindle like shape
d. ) the most common mutations found are : MYC, p53 and Rb
27
Lung abscess ( 3 correct ):
a. ) Involves extensive anaerobic bacterial replication within lung parenchyma
b. ) usually involves anaerobic bacteria
c. ) can be due to aspiration pneumonia , necrotizing pneumonia or septic embolism
d. ) commonly in right upper lobe, posterior segment
b. ) usually involves anaerobic bacteria
c. ) can be due to aspiration pneumonia , necrotizing pneumonia or septic embolism
d. ) commonly in right upper lobe, posterior segment
*we talk about unconscious hospitalized and lying patients here !
28
It can be a cause of pulmonary atelectasis, EXCEPT?
a. ) Bronchial Obstruction
b. ) Emphysema
c. ) Compression
d. ) Contraction
b.) Emphysema
29
Which organ is typically affected by tumor embolism of renal carcinoma ?
a. ) lung
b. ) brain
c. ) contralateral kidney
d. ) liver
e. ) spleen
a.) lung
30
NSIP : nonspecific interstitial pneumonia ( 2 correct )
a. ) is a transient pneumonia
b. ) is a chronic , fibrosing patchy or uniformly distributing interstitial diseases
c. ) lesions show temporal homogeneity
d. ) its of idiopathic origin
b. ) Is a chronic, fibrosing patchy or uniformly distributing interstitial diseases
d. ) its of idiopathic origin
31
The most common type of tumor of the peritoneum is
a. ) Metastatic Sarcoma
b. ) Mesothelioma
c. ) Hemangioma
d. ) Lipoma
e. ) Metastatic Carcinoma
b.) Mesothelioma
32
Characteristic for hypersensitivity pneumonia (2 correct):
a. ) consolidation of a whole lobe
b. ) peribronchial accentuation
c. ) damage caused is irreversible
d. ) mononuclear infiltrate and non-caseating granuloma formation
b.) peribronchial accentuation
d.) mononuclear infiltrate and non-caseating granuloma formation
(This is Pneumonitis)
33
Common manifestation of post-primary TB ( 2 correct) :
a. ) Ghon complex
b. ) tuberculin reaction
c. ) tuberculotic osteomyelitis
d. ) Miliary TB
c.) tuberculotic osteomyelitis (Aka - Pott's Disease)
d.) Miliary TB
( hematogenous spread -> caseous necrosis foci in all parenchymal organs)
34
The most important cause of reflux esophagitis is H. pylori infection. (TRUE/FALSE)
FALSE
| *GERD
35
Crohn's diseases cannot occur in the rectum.(TRUE/FALSE)
FALSE
36
The pneumonia caused by S. aureus is an atypical pneumonia (TRUE/FALSE)
FALSE
37
What is the most possible location of TB reactivation in lung ?
a. ) basis
b. ) bronchial cartilage
c. ) apex
d. ) hilus
c.) apex
38
Morphological types of Cirrhosis EXCEPT:
a. ) Mixed
b. ) Micronodular
c. ) Focal
d. ) Macronodular
c.) Focal
| FALSE
39
Chronic esophagitis most commonly due to viral infection. (TRUE/FALSE)
FALSE
| *most common is GERD
40
Adenocarcinoma can be of mucinous differentiation type producing copious amounts of mucus sputum. (TRUE/FALSE)
TRUE
41
Obstructive lung diseases are (2 correct) :
a. ) chronic bronchitis and bronchiectasis
b. ) ARDS and pneumoconiosis
c. ) emphysema and asthma
d. ) chest wall disorders and interstitial lung diseases
a. ) chronic bronchitis and bronchiectasis
| c. ) emphysema and asthma
42
Which change causes NO cor pulmonale ?
a. ) emphysema
b. ) lung fibrosis
c. ) stenosis of tricuspid valve
d. ) lung embolism
e. ) chronic bronchitis
c.) stenosis of tricuspid valve
43
pneumonia caused by S.aureus:
a. ) has a risk of progressing to respiratory failure
b. ) is a common pathogen of healthy adults
c. ) is a common nosocomial and pediatric pathogen
d. ) complications are empyemas, abscess formation and endocarditis
c. ) is a common nosocomial and pediatric pathogen
| d. ) complications are empyemas, abscess formation and endocarditis
44
Typical composition of pleomorphic adenoma, EXCEPT:
a. ) epithelial cells : ductal and myoepithelial cells
b. ) myxoid , chondroid or mucoid ground substance
c. ) fibrous capsule
d. ) goblet cells
d.) goblet cells
*Pleomorphic adenoma is composed of:
Epithelial cells (duct / clumps or even spindle)
Myoepithelial cells
Mucoid ground substance (surround it)
45
Leukoplakia in the oral cavity is a precancerous state (TRUE/FALSE)
TRUE
| *It is a squamous cell dysplasia of the tongue that most likely to progress to squamous cell metaplasia.
46
in which tumor there is an intra and extracellular mucin accumulation ?
a. ) signet ring tumor
b. ) GIST
c. ) neuroendocrine tumor
d. ) adenocarcinoma
a.) signet ring tumor
47
Match the numbers with the letters:
a. ) Silicosis
b. ) Asbestosis
c. ) both
d. ) neither
1) Bronchial carcinoma
2) Mesothelioma
3) Increased susceptibility to TB
4) Pneumoconiosis
5) Induce cor pulmonale
1) Bronchial carcinoma + c.) both
2) Mesothelioma +b.) Asbestosis
3) Increased susceptibility to TB + c.) both
4) Pneumoconiosis + c.) both
5) Induce cor pulmonale + c.) both
48
In general the peptic ulcer are localized in the vicinity of the pylorus. (TRUE/FALSE)
TRUE
| More specifically - Mostly in the proximal duodenum but also in the pyloric antrum
49
What type of Necrosis occurs in Pancreatitis?
a. Fat Necrosis
b. Coagulative Necrosis
c. Liquefactive Necrosis
d. Fibrinoid Necrosis
a.Fat Necrosis (of peripancreatic fat)
| Official Answer from the department if 2 options choose Liquefactive as well
50
Can cause dysentery :
a. ) e.coli
b. ) candida
c. ) shigella
d. ) salmonella
e. ) adenovirus
c.) shigella
51
Low 1/3 rectal cancer gives most likely gives metastasis via:
a) the vena porta
b) the vena hepatica
c) the vena cava
d) the baston vein
Low 1/3 rectal cancer gives most likely gives metastasis via:
c) the vena cava
d) the baston vein (Prostate)
52
A 40 year old man comes to the hospital with vomiting, fever etc. During his last hospitalization he was diagnosed with pancreatitis. What does that show?
a) Liquefactive necrosis
b) enzymatic necrosis
c) coagulative necrosis
d) Fibrinoid Necrosis
a) Liquefactive necrosis
| b) enzymatic necrosis (Fat)
53
what disease is NOT present in the small intestine ?
a. ) whipple diseases
b. ) dysentery
c. ) tuberculosis
d. ) crohn's disease
e. ) abdominal typhus
b.) dysentery
54
Which type of pneumonia is caused by COVID-19?(1)
a. ) Aspiration Pneumonia
b. ) Necrotizing Pneumonia
c. ) Pneumonia in the immunocompromised host
d. ) Community acquired acute Pneumonia
e. ) Community acquired atypical Pneumonia
f. ) Nosocomial Pneumonia
g. ) Chronic Pneumonia
e.) Community acquired atypical Pneumonia
55
Which of the following belong to the neuroendocrine tumors? (2)
a. ) Papillary Thyroid Carcinoma
b. ) Pheochromocytoma
c. ) Papillary Renal Carcinoma
d. ) Small Cell Carcinoma
b. ) Pheochromocytoma
| d. ) Small Cell Carcinoma
56
Cor pulmonale is caused by:
a. ) pulmonary fibrosis
b. ) tricuspid stenosis
c. ) lobar bronchitis
d. ) viral pneumonia
a. ) pulmonary fibrosis
| c. ) lobar bronchitis
57
The pneumonia caused by the influenza virus is of fibrinous inflammatory type (TRUE/FALSE)
FALSE
*atypical pneumonia - "known viral causes of atypical pneumonia include respiratory syncytial virus (RSV), influenza A and B, parainfluenza" Wiki
58
What is the most common site for diverticula formation?
a. ) stomach
b. ) sigmoid colon
c. ) Colon
d. ) Small intestine
b.) sigmoid colon (and Rectum)
59
Most common 2 causes of pancreatitis:
a. ) cholelithiasis
b. ) alcoholism
c. ) ischemia
d. ) bacterial infection
a. ) cholelithiasis
| b. ) alcoholism
60
Which condition can cause severe pulmonary bleeding ?
a. ) tuberculotic granuloma
b. ) bronchopneumonia
c. ) infarction
d. ) sarcoidosis
a. ) tuberculotic granuloma
| * In bronchopneumonia there are sporadic minor bleedings
61
Resolution ( 2 correct) :
a. ) enzymatic degradation of cell debris and fibroblast mediated organization
b. ) pulmonary edema
c. ) neutrophils in the interstitium
d. ) phagocytotic infiltration
a. ) enzymatic degradation of cell debris and fibroblast mediated organization
d. ) phagocytotic infiltration
62
Select the true statement ( 2 correct ):
a. ) in bronchopneumonia the inflammation spreads around the biggest bronchi in the lobe
b. ) in bronchopneumonia the inflammation spreads diffusely along the bronchial tree
c. ) in lobar pneumonia the parenchyma of a lobe is diffusely inflamed
d. ) in lobar pneumonia the inflammation leads to segmental or lobar consolidation it affects the whole lobe
b. ) in bronchopneumonia the inflammation spreads diffusely along the bronchial tree
d. ) in lobar pneumonia the inflammation leads to segmental or lobar consolidation it affects the whole lobe
63
Forms of alcoholic liver damage (2):
a) steatosis
b) PSC
c) acute fulminant hepatitis
d) hepatitis
a) steatosis
| d) hepatitis
64
Typical for grey hepatisation:
a. ) the infection shows temporal homogeneity
b. ) there is fibrinous exudate in the alveoli
c. ) happens on day 6 of lobar pneumonia
d. ) the alveoli are filled with neutrophils
b. ) there is fibrinous exudate in the alveoli
| * Technically happens on day 5
65
In response to pneumonia the pleura ( 2 correct):
a. ) remains usually unaffected except in infections with S.aureus
b. ) secretes copious amounts of pleural fluid rich in defensins
c. ) develops a fibrinous , fibrinopurulent pleuritis
d. ) organization of fibrous tissue may lead to scar formation and chronic restrictive pleuritis
c. ) develops a fibrinous , fibrinopurulent pleuritis
d. ) organization of fibrous tissue may lead to scar formation and chronic restrictive pleuritis
* Most likely in S. Pneumoniae Infection
66
```
What disease is not present in the small intestine?
A. Whipple disease
B. Dysentery
C. tuberculosis
D. Crohn's disease
E. Abdominal typhus
```
B. Dysentery
67
Which of the following confirm the diagnosis of PBC(2)?
a. ) segmental stenosis of hepatic duct on ERCP examination.
b. ) Inflammation of interlobular bile ducts in liver core biopsy.
c. ) Hepatocyte degeneration in the fine needle aspiration specimen
d. ) AMA positivity
b. ) Inflammation of interlobular bile ducts in liver core biopsy.
d. ) AMA positivity
68
Restrictive diseases are characterized by limited airflow, increased resistance and obstruction (TRUE/FALSE).
FALSE
| *Obstructive diseases
69
which is the most common appendix tumor ?
a. ) adenocarcinoma
b. ) neuroendocrine tumor
c. ) schwannoma
d. ) malignant melanoma
e. ) lymphoma
b.) neuroendocrine tumor
70
Multiple erosions in the gastric mucosa can be the reason for massive gastrointestinal bleeding. (TRUE/FALSE)
FALSE
| *Not massive - but bleeding do occur
71
Autopsy of a patient who died in status asthmaticus shows:
a. ) panlobular emphysema
b. ) compensatory emphysema
c. ) hepatisation
d. ) increased lung volume
d.) increased lung volume
| COPD = TLC rise
72
Congestive Heart failure is the cause of pleural transudate. (TRUE/FALSE)
TRUE
| meaning Hydrothorax
73
Which organs are involved in TB ?
a. ) skeletal muscle
b. ) heart muscle
c. ) pancreas
d. ) thyroid gland
b.) heart muscle
Also Lungs and Intestines
74
shigella dysenteriae usually affects :
a. ) muscles
b. ) small intestine
c. ) large intestine
d. ) large vessels
e. ) peripheral nerves
c.) large intestine
75
Can cause granulomatous infection of cervical lymph nodes EXCEPT:
a. ) sarcoidosis
b. ) TB
c. ) yersinia pestis
d. ) rheumatic fever
d. ) rheumatic fever
| * Sarcoidosis is non-infectious but affects lymph nodes
76
Esophageal cancer has a good prognosis. (TRUE/FALSE)
FALSE
77
Characteristic for adenocarcinoma : (2 correct)
a. ) growth peripherally
b. ) follows the same developmental sequence as squamous cell carcinoma
c. ) develops from atypical adenomatous hyperplasia over adenocarcinoma in situ to invasive adenocarcinoma
d. ) may arise from bronchoalveolar stem cells
a. ) growth peripherally
c. ) develops from atypical adenomatous hyperplasia over adenocarcinoma in situ to invasive adenocarcinoma
*d.) is yet an assumption: "It is postulated that BASCs
incur the initiating hit (for example, a somatic KRAS mutation) that enables these cells to escape normal checkpoint mechanisms and results in pulmonary adenocarcinomas." Robbins 10E 539
78
what is NOT a complication of peptic ulcer in the stomach ?
a. ) malabsorption
b. ) perforation
c. ) malignant transformation
d. ) bleeding
e. ) penetration
a.) malabsorption
79
Prognostic Factor for Barrett's Esophagus:
a. ) Gender
b. ) Size of the confluent lesions
c. ) Presence of Dysplasia
d. ) Size of the separate lesions
c.) Presence of Dysplasia
80
lung carcinoma can be derived from both bronchial and alveolar epithelium. (TRUE/FALSE)
TRUE
81
where does the colon cancer gives its first metastasis via hematogenous spread:
a. ) in the brain
b. ) in the liver
c. ) in the lung
d. ) in the mesenteric lymph nodes
e. ) in the vertebrae
b.) in the liver
82
Chronic bronchiolitis:(2)
a. ) is associated with asthma
b. ) is associated with chronic bronchitis
c. ) is a fibrous change in small airways
d. ) is goblet cell metaplasia in small airways
b. ) is associated with chronic bronchitis
| d. ) is goblet cell metaplasia in small airways
83
In chronic bronchiectasis ( 2 correct) :
a. ) there is an acute superimposed inflammation
b. ) there is peribronchial and bronchial fibrosis
c. ) the damage is reversible
d. ) complications are : bronchial wall destruction and abscess formation
b. ) there is peribronchial and bronchial fibrosis
| d. ) complications are : bronchial wall destruction and abscess formation
84
Characteristic for atypical pneumonia ( 2 correct ) :
a. ) Macrophagic and neutrophilic infiltration
b. ) Infiltration of : lymphocytes , plasma cells and histiocytes
c. ) Epithelial cell damage inhibits ciliary clearance in upper respiratory tract
d. ) Fibrous reaction of pulmonary interstitium
b. ) Infiltration of : lymphocytes , plasma cells and histiocytes
c. ) Epithelial cell damage inhibits ciliary clearance in upper respiratory tract
85
Interstitial pneumonia is caused by ( 2 correct ) :
a. ) viral pneumonia
b. ) streptococcal pneumonia
c. ) pneumocystis carinii
d. ) staphylococcus
a. ) viral pneumonia
| c. ) pneumocystis carinii
86
Esophageal squamous cell carcinoma : ( 2 correct )
a. ) in the upper 1/3 of the esophagus
b. ) most common tumor of the esophagus
c. ) has a good prognosis
d. ) gives metastasis to abdominal lymph nodes.
a. ) in the upper 1/3 of the esophagus
b. ) most common tumor of the esophagus (Worldwide)
*ddx: Esophageal adenocarcinoma - lower 1/3, most common in the west
87
Which one is correct for Adenocarcinoma *in situ*:
a. ) shows linistic growth
b. ) shows lipidic growth along the alveolar septa
c. ) provokes extensive desmoplastic reaction
d. ) is invasive
b.) shows lipidic growth along the alveolar septa
| -> bronchoalveolar adenocarcinoma !
88
Characteristic complication of lobar pneumonia:
a. ) glomerulonephritis
b. ) purulent lymphadenitis
c. ) pleuritis fibrinosa
d. ) pneumothorax
e. ) pulmonary embolism
c. ) pleuritis fibrinosa
| * Fibrinous Inflammation of Pleura (can lead to adhesions)
89
True for Crohn's disease EXCEPT:
a. ) It can occur in childhood
b. ) Surgical complications commonly occur
c. ) Extraintestinal manifestations are uncommon
d. ) Any area of the GI tract can be affected
c.) Extraintestinal manifestations are uncommon
| FALSE
90
Fatty degeneration occurs most often in the liver, which plays an important part in fat metabolism, but it can be seen in the kidney and in skeletal muscles, as well.
(TRUE/FALSE)
TRUE
91
In lung congestion (2) :
a. ) liver like consistency of the lung
b. ) RBC lysis
c. ) enzymatic degradation of cell debris
d. ) vascular congestion and neutrophil infiltration
b. ) RBC lysis
| c. ) enzymatic degradation of cell debris
92
In which region of the larynx is a carcinoma most common ?
a. ) in sinus piriformis
b. ) on the epiglottis
c. ) on aryepiglottic folds
d. ) on the vocal cords
d.) on the vocal cords
93
Complete rupture of the wall of the esophagus is dominant feature of the following disease:
a. ) Achalasia
b. ) Mallory Weiss syndrome
c. ) Esophageal Varicosity
d. ) Boerhaave Syndrome
e. ) Barrett's Esophagus
d.) Boerhaave Syndrome
94
Bronchiectasis is dilation of bronchi and bronchioles due to destruction of muscle and elastic tissue associated with necrotizing infections (TRUE/FALSE).
TRUE
95
Which neoplastic cells secrete mucus?:
a) clear cells
b) signet cells
c) small cell
d) squamous cell
b)signet cells
96
where do abscesses occur in Thypus abdominalis ?
a. ) in the subserosa
b. ) in the mesenteric veins
c. ) in the lieberkühnsche crypts
d. ) in lamina muscularis
e. ) over the payer patches
e.) over the payer patches
97
which statement is FALSE : the colon cancer
a. ) can give hematogenous metastasis especially to lung and liver.
b. ) can cause stenosis
c. ) can be palpable by digital rectal examination
d. ) most commonly occurs in the appendix
e. ) can be polypoid
d.) most commonly occurs in the appendix
98
Characteristic in grey hepatisation :
a. ) fibrinous exudate in alveoli
b. ) seen on 6th day of pneumonia
c. ) the inflammation is equalized along the whole lobe
d. ) masses of neutrophils are seen in the alveoli
a.) fibrinous exudate in alveoli
| seen on 6th day of pneumonia could be also true
99
ARDS can occur due to intoxication, metabolic – and circulatory problems (TRUE/FALSE).
TRUE
100
typical for bronchopneumonia : (2 correct)
a. ) directly attacks a lung lobe
b. ) fragile parenchyma
c. ) lung biopsy is necessary for diagnosis
d. ) purulent inflammation foci
b. ) fragile parenchyma
| d. ) purulent inflammation foci
101
A yellow hepatisation can be seen in :
a. ) tuberculosis
b. ) lobar pneumonia
c. ) bronchopneumonia
d. ) influenza pneumonia
e. ) aspiration pneumonia
b.) lobar pneumonia
102
# choose the pathogens causing atypical pneumonia ( 3 correct) :
a. ) mycoplasma
b. ) influenza virus , adenovirus, rubeola virus
c. ) S. aureus
d. ) chlamydia pneumoniae
e. ) klebsiella
a. ) mycoplasma
b. ) influenza virus , adenovirus, rubeola virus
d. ) chlamydia pneumoniae
*klebsiella=lobar
103
Typical for grey hepatisation:
a. ) proteinus exudate in alveolar spaces
b. ) neutrophils in alveolar spaces
c. ) RBC lysis and persisting fibrinopurulent exudate
d. ) phagocytic clearance
c.) RBC lysis and persisting fibrinopurulent exudate
104
Of the lung cancers the worst prognosis has ….
a. ) small cell carcinoma
b. ) bronchoalveolar carcinoma
c. ) adenocarcinoma
d. ) non-keratinizing squamous cell carcinoma
e. ) keratinizing squamous cell carcinoma
a.) small cell carcinoma
105
Surfactant production is positively influenced by : (3 correct)
a. ) type II pneumocytes
b. ) thyroxine
c. ) insulin
d. ) corticosteroids
a. ) type II pneumocytes
b. ) thyroxine
d. ) corticosteroids
106
Malignant mesothelioma:
a. ) is related to asbestos inhalation
b. ) spreads along pleural surfaces
c. ) direct invasion of thoracic wall
d. ) all of them
d.) all of them
a. ) is related to asbestos inhalation
b. ) spreads along pleural surfaces
c. ) direct invasion of thoracic wall
107
Typical for TB EXCEPT :
a. ) typical for the secondary form of TB is the simonsche foci
b. ) includes granuloma formation
c. ) may result in formation of caverna
d. ) can result in military TB by hematogenous spread
e. ) eosinophils are the dominant cells in the granulomas
e.) eosinophils are the dominant cells in the granulomas
108
Which one is a NOT a pneumoconiosis?
a. ) Anthracosis
b. ) Silicosis
c. ) Sarcoidosis
d. ) Asbestosis
c.) Sarcoidosis
109
In cervicofacial actinomycosis there is a broadlike infiltration (TRUE/FALSE)
TRUE
110
Which conditions may cause compression atelectasis(2)?
a. ) Pneumothorax
b. ) Pulmonary Edema
c. ) Pleural Carcinosis
d. ) Emphysema
a. ) Pneumothorax
c. ) Pleural Carcinosis
* Any mass in the pleural cavity that presses the lungs
111
Paraneoplastic syndromes are MOST likely caused by : ( 2 correct)
a. ) small cell carcinoma
b. ) large cell carcinoma
c. ) carcinoid ( neuroendocrine) tumors
d. ) adenocarcinomas
a. ) small cell carcinoma
| c. ) carcinoid ( neuroendocrine) tumors
112
Kidney tuberculosis usually results from :
a. ) hematogenous spread from the lung
b. ) non is correct
c. ) lymphogenic spread from the intestines
d. ) fracture of a vertebral tuberculosis
e. ) ascending from the ureters
a.) hematogenous spread from the lung
113
In achalasia the cardia is unable to close.
| TRUE/FALSE
FALSE
| *LES cant relax
114
Cause of ARDS is edema in alveolar wall which impairs gas exchange. (TRUE/FALSE)
FALSE
| Hyaline is the cause of impaired gas exchange
115
Cause of bronchiectasis can be (2 correct) :
a. ) bronchial asthma
b. ) bronchial pneumonia
c. ) mucoviscidosis
d. ) chronic bronchitis
c. ) mucoviscidosis
| d. ) chronic bronchitis
116
Shigella dysentery usually involves:
a. ) muscles
b. ) peripheral nerves
c. ) small intestine
d. ) large vessels
e. ) large intestine
e.) large intestine
117
typical for small cell carcinoma of the lung ( 2 correct )
a. ) most have metastasized by the time of diagnosis
b. ) grow on the epithelial cells lining the alveolar space
c. ) histologically they show a scant cytoplasm , granular chromatin , frequent mitotic figures and crush-artifacts
d. ) they are smaller than T-lymphocytes
a. ) most have metastasized by the time of diagnosis
| c. ) histologically they show a scant cytoplasm , granular chromatin , frequent mitotic figures and crush-artifacts
118
Precancerous lesions of the stomach(2):
a. ) Intestinal Metaplasia
b. ) Erosion
c. ) Fundic Gland Polyp
d. ) G- Cell Hyperplasia
a. ) Intestinal Metaplasia
| d. ) G- Cell Hyperplasia
119
True for chronic bronchitis EXCEPT :
a. ) mucous gland hyperplasia
b. ) goblet cell metaplasia in small airways
c. ) associated with emphysema and smoking
d. ) smooth muscle hyperplasia
d.) smooth muscle hyperplasia
120
Typical for barrett's esophagus :
a. ) HPV infection
b. ) leads to squamous cell carcinoma
c. ) leads to adenocarcinoma
d. ) leads to erosions
c. ) leads to adenocarcinoma
* Esophageal squamous cell carcinoma has other multiple risk factors involving irritation - Alcohol, Tobacco, Very Hot drinks, etc.
121
Consequences of H. Pylori Infection. EXCEPT (1):
a. ) H. Pylori Infection damages directly the chief cells and parietal cells
b. ) H. Pylori Infection may lead to gastric ulceration
c. ) H. Pylori Infection may be a predisposing factor to gastric MALToma
d. ) H. Pylori Infection may lead to chronic gastritis
e. ) H. Pylori Infection may have a role in gastric cancer development.
a.) H. Pylori Infection damages directly the chief cells and parietal cells
(FALSE)
122
Common complications of lung tumors EXCEPT(1) :
a. ) pleural and pericardial effusion
b. ) swollen virchow's lymph node
c. ) endocarditis
d. ) hemoptysis , cough , chest pain
e. ) paraneoplastic lesions
c.) endocarditis
123
Granulocytic ,fibrinous alveolar exudate due to :
a. ) viral pneumonia
b. ) mycoplasma pneumonia
c. ) bacterial pneumonia
d. ) caseous pneumonia
e. ) pneumocystic carcnii pneumonia
c.) bacterial pneumonia
124
most common cause of lobar pneumonia :
a. ) streptococcus pneumoniae
b. ) staphylococcus aureus
c. ) legionella
d. ) klebsiella
a.) streptococcus pneumoniae
125
Small cell carcinoma ( 2 correct) :
a. ) centrally located solid gray masses extending in lung parenchyma
b. ) respond well to chemotherapy
c. ) are easily resectable
d. ) grow slowly and give extensive metastasis
a. ) centrally located solid gray masses extending in lung parenchyma
b. ) respond well to chemotherapy
126
Characteristic for squamous cell carcinoma:
a. ) lepidic growth
b. ) linistic growth
c. ) keratin pearls in well differentiated squamous cell carcinoma
d. ) gives early and widespread metastasis
c.) keratin pearls in well differentiated squamous cell carcinoma
(lepidic = AIS)
127
Typical location for empyema formation:
a) Spleen
b) Brain
c) Gallbladder
d) Testicle
c)Gallbladder
128
Most of the laryngeal tumors are subglottic (TRUE/FALSE)
FALSE
| *Vocal Cords
129
Whipple's diseases causes malabsorption. (TRUE/FALSE)
TRUE
130
Most neuroendocrine tumors originate from the appendix and the ileum. (TRUE/FALSE)
TRUE
131
Correct for atypical pneumonia :
a. ) extensive productive cough / sputum
b. ) patchy infiltration in alveolar septa and pulmonary interstitium
c. ) diffuse consolidation
d. ) homogenous eosinophilic alveolar exudate
b. ) patchy infiltration in alveolar septa and pulmonary interstitium
* Atypical = Interstitial
132
In compression atelectasis:
a. ) air is absorbed from the alveoli
b. ) an foreign body compresses the main bronchi
c. ) pleural effusion or hemothorax compresses the pleural cavity and the lung
d. ) the damage is potentially irreversible
c.) pleural effusion or hemothorax compresses the pleural cavity and the lung
133
Budd-Chiari Syndrome revolves around Thrombosis of intrahepatic branches of the Portal vein (TRUE/FALSE)
FALSE
| Hepatic Veins of IVC
134
Obstructive diseases are characterised by reduced expansion and reduced total lung capacity .(TRUE/FALSE).
FALSE
| *Restrictive diseases
135
Which disease can cause cavernous pulmonary lesions (2)?
a. ) Sarcoidosis
b. ) Hamartoma
c. ) Wegener's Granulomatosis
d. ) Squamous cell carcinoma
c. ) Wegener's Granulomatosis
| d. ) Squamous cell carcinoma
136
characteristic for carcinoid syndrome EXCEPT :
a. ) is caused by neuroendocrine tumor of the lung and colon.
b. ) is due to secretion of ADH, ACTH and glucocorticoids
c. ) is due to secretion of serotonin, bradykinin ,histamine and tachycardin
d. ) causes , flushing , diarrhea , increased heart rate and low blood pressure
b.) is due to secretion of ADH, ACTH and glucocorticoids
137
Which is NOT a characteristic histological finding for lung adenocarcinoma?
a. ) Lymphovascular Invasion
b. ) Papillary structures
c. ) Keratin Pearls
d. ) Lepidic Growth pattern
c. ) Keratin Pearls
| * Typical for squamous cell carcinomas only
138
Can the Liver go through true anemic Infarction? (TRUE/FALSE)
TRUE - Very rare because of Dual Blood supply - Robbins 9E page 93. Also Zahn Infarct (Intrahepatic) = Pseudo-Anemic Infarct - No Necrosis, only Atrophy.
139
characteristic for bronchopneumonia (2 correct):
a. ) multifocal purulent inflammation
b. ) affects 1 lobe only
c. ) lung biopsy is necessary for diagnosis
d. ) parenchyma becomes breakable
a.) multifocal purulent inflammation
d.) parenchyma becomes breakable
(not only 1 lobe, could be more)
140
In which diseases enlarged alveolar spaces and destruction of alveolar septa can be seen ?
a. ) alveolar proteinosis
b. ) chronic bronchitis
c. ) pulmonary hypertension
d. ) lung infarction
e. ) emphysema
e.) emphysema
141
which carcinoma has the strongest association with smoking ?
a. ) large cell carcinoma
b. ) adenocarcinoma
c. ) small cell carcinoma
d. ) neuroendocrine carcinoma
e. ) squamous cell carcinoma
e.) squamous cell carcinoma
| Small cell is associated as well but not as strongly
142
what can be the complication of an prolonged antibiotic therapy ?
a. ) dysentery
b. ) acute atrophic gastritis
c. ) achalasia
d. ) acute gastroenteritis
e. ) pseudomembranous colitis
e. ) pseudomembranous colitis
| * Allowed by killing normal flora giving advantage to clostridium difficile.
143
Common metastasis of lung cancer EXCEPT (1) :
a. ) hilar and mediastinal lymph nodes
b. ) brain bone and liver
c. ) brain , pancreas and liver
d. ) adrenal gland
c.) brain , pancreas and liver
144
Meckel's diverticulum can sometimes be found in the gastric mucosa. (TRUE/FALSE)
FALSE
*t can contain gastric or pancreatic heterotopia : so tissue that should not be there , but its always in the small intestine , inflammation may mimic appendicitis.
145
in this organ the most common tumor is of stratified squamous origin:
a. ) stomach
b. ) appendix
c. ) large colon
d. ) esophagus
e. ) pancreas
d.) esophagus
146
Most typical histological structure of HCC?
a. ) Papillary
b. ) Glandular
c. ) Nested
d. ) Trabecular
d.) Trabecular
| according to robbins - green box about pathophysiology of HCC
147
Primary and metastatic lung adenocarcinoma are always distinguishable by histological appearance.(TRUE/FALSE)
FALSE
| Immunocytohisotology is needed
148
Correct for hepatocellular carcinoma:
a) composed of alternating rows of hepatocytes and sinusoids
b) oral contraceptive contributes to its initiation
c) constitute the most frequent tumor of the liver
d) Bile canaliculi within the tumor mass
Correct for hepatocellular carcinoma:
| c) constitute the most frequent tumor of the liver
149
Possible cause of Bronchiectasis ?
a. ) obstruction and infection
b. ) dilation and infection
c. ) compression and infection
d. ) emphysema and infection
a.) obstruction and infection
150
Pancost tumors ( 2correct):
a. ) are located in the base of the lung
b. ) are located in the apex of the lung
c. ) compress intercostal nerves causing diffuse dermatome pain
d. ) compress the cervical plexus causing ulnar nerve pain
b.) are located in the apex of the lung
d.) compress the cervical plexus causing ulnar nerve pain
Pancoast Tumors = located at the apex of lungs
151
Typical for squamous cell carcinoma of the lung (2 correct):
a. ) generally associated with HPV infections
b. ) generally a form of central bronchial carcinoma
c. ) this lung cancer has the worst prognosis
d. ) occurs due to squamous metaplasia
b. ) generally a form of central bronchial carcinoma
d. ) occurs due to squamous metaplasia
( small cell is the worst! )
152
Characteristic for Löfflers pneumonia
a. ) it's an pulmonary eosinophilia
b. ) it’s a transient autoimmune disease
c. ) it involves eosinophilic infiltration , alveolar septal thickening
d. ) all of them
d.) all of them
a. ) it's an pulmonary eosinophilia
b. ) it’s a transient autoimmune disease
c. ) it involves eosinophilic infiltration , alveolar septal thickening
153
Complication of chronic bronchitis may be:
a. ) chronic cor pulmonale
b. ) bronchiectasis
c. ) respiratory failure
d. ) chronic congestion of lung
a.) chronic cor pulmonale
154
peptic ulcer are caused exclusively in the stomach (TRUE/FALSE)
FALSE
| More specifically - Mostly in the proximal duodenum but also in the pyloric antrum
155
typical for carcinoid tumor EXCEPT (1):
a. ) arises from alveolar epithelial cell
b. ) arises from diffuse neuroendocrine cell population
c. ) is easily resectable
d. ) shows obstructive, intraluminal growth pattern
a.) arises from alveolar epithelial cell
156
Does not cause Melena:
a. ) Esophageal varices
b. ) Gastric ulcer
c. ) Gastric cancer
d. ) Chronic atrophic gastritis
e. ) Colon cancer
d. ) Chronic atrophic gastritis
| * Right sided colon cancer can result in melena
157
The synonym of barrett's esophagus is hiatus hernia.
| TRUE/FALSE
FALSE
| *metaplasia in lower part of oesophagus
158
is NOT included in the possible complications of intestinal helminthiasis:
a. ) eosinophilia
b. ) anemia
c. ) perforation
d. ) ileus
e. ) icterus
c. ) perforation
| * Very rare, the rarest among the list
159
In the background of a typical tracheobronchitis is usually an acute viral infect (TRUE/FALSE)
TRUE
160
Pneumothorax is cause by atelectasis (TRUE/FALSE).
FALSE
| Opposite - Atelectasis is cause by pneumothorax
161
Horners syndrome ( 2 correct) :
a. ) contralateral en-opthalmus , ptosis , miosis , anhidrosis.
b. ) ipsilateral en-opthalmus (eyeball depression) , ptosis, miosis ,anhidrosis.
c. ) due to compression of sympathetic trunk by a lung carcinoma
d. ) due to compression of cervical sympathetic nerves by a pantumor
b.) ipsilateral en-opthalmus (eyeball depression) , ptosis, miosis ,anhidrosis.
d.) due to compression of cervical sympathetic nerves by a pantumor
(Pancoast tumor pressing Cervical Sympathetic Trunk!)
162
Which microscopic feature is characteristic for ARDS ?
a. ) hyaline membrane
b. ) necrosis
c. ) granuloma
d. ) intra-alveolar mucin
a.) hyaline membrane
163
BOOP : bronchiolitis obliterans organizing pneumonia ( 2 correct)
a. ) subpleural , peribronchial patchy consolidations
b. ) affects a whole lobe
c. ) diffuse mucous plug obliteration of small airways
d. ) polypoid plugs of loose organizing connective tissue within the alveolar ducts
a. ) subpleural , peribronchial patchy consolidations
| d. ) polypoid plugs of loose organizing connective tissue within the alveolar ducts
164
Large cell carcinoma ( 2 correct) :
a. ) shows mainly squamous cell differentiation
b. ) does not show squamous or glandular differentiation
c. ) responds well to chemotherapy
d. ) ample cytoplasm , large nuclei and vesicular chromatin
b. ) does not show squamous or glandular differentiation
| d. ) ample cytoplasm , large nuclei and vesicular chromatin
165
In chronic atrophic gastritis the gastric mucosa shows paving stone appearance (TRUE/FALSE)
FALSE
| *Crohn Disease presents with Cobblestone patterns could be the misleading element here.
166
Most Common complication of Gastric Ulcer:
a) Perforation
b) Bleeding
c) Malignant Transformation
d) Penetration
b) Bleeding
167
Cause of bronchiectasis can be (2 good)
a. ) chronic bronchitis
b. ) ARDS
c. ) mucoviscidosis
d. ) pulmonary hypertension
a. ) chronic bronchitis
| c. ) mucoviscidosis
168
Complication of esophageal carcinoma EXCEPT :
a. ) achalasia
b. ) perforation
c. ) dysphagia
d. ) aspiration
e. ) tracheoesophageal
a. ) achalasia
| * LES cant relax
169
characteristic for clostridium difficile EXCEPT :
a. ) has mild often asymptomatic course
b. ) infects the colon
c. ) causes fibrinous inflammation
d. ) is generally iatrogenic
e. ) causes acute inflammation
a.) has mild often asymptomatic course
170
Where can we normally see squamous cell carcinoma ?
a. ) pleura
b. ) salivary gland
c. ) lymph nodes
d. ) bronchus epithelium
d.) bronchus epithelium
| Pathoma - Small/Squamous = Central / Large/others = Peripheral
171
Bronchial carcinoma (2 correct) :
a. ) leiomyosaercoma is a special form of it
b. ) can cause paraneoplastic syndrome
c. ) can originate from scars
d. ) are mainly in Peripheral locations
b. ) can cause paraneoplastic syndrome
| c. ) can originate from scars
172
Candida is a part of the normal flora (TRUE/FALSE)
TRUE
173
parotid gland tumor EXCEPT :
a. ) warthin tumor
b. ) pleomorphic adenoma
c. ) mucoepithelial cyst
d. ) squamous cell carcinoma
d. ) squamous cell carcinoma
| * Skin / Tongue / Esophagus / Thyroid / Lung depends on context
174
Characteristic for sarcoidosis (3 correct):
a. ) lesions are bilateral
b. ) lesions are rarely calcified
c. ) granuloma formation
d. ) can lead to interstitial lung diseases
a.) lesions are bilateral
c.) granuloma formation
d.) can lead to interstitial lung diseases
( massive pulmonary fibrosis -> honey comb lung !)
175
The 4 main histological groups of lung carcinomas are adenocarcinoma, squamous cell carcinoma, small cell carcinoma and large cell carcinoma. (TRUE/FALSE)
TRUE
176
Which lesions affect characteristically the peripheral lung ?(2)
a. ) tuberculotic lymphadenitis
b. ) Infarct
c. ) squamous cell carcinoma
d. ) adenocarcinoma
b. ) Infarct
| d. ) adenocarcinoma
177
In contraction atelectasis ( 2 correct) :
a. ) air is absorbed from alveoli
b. ) overproduction of elastic tissue leads to lung contraction
c. ) localized or generalized fibrosis decreases ability to expand the lungs
d. ) damage is potentially irreversible
c. ) localized or generalized fibrosis decreases ability to expand the lungs
d. ) damage is potentially irreversible
178
complications of antibiotic therapy :
a. ) achalasia
b. ) diffuse scleroderma
c. ) esophageal stricture
d. ) esophageal candidiasis
d. ) esophageal candidiasis
| * Allowed by killing normal flora
179
True for sarcoidosis ( 3 correct):
a. ) multisystemic non-caseating granulomatous disease
b. ) unilateral lesion
c. ) higher incidence in non-smokers
d. ) involves tracheal, para-bronchial and hilar lymph nodes
a. ) multisystemic non-caseating granulomatous disease
c. ) higher incidence in non-smokers
d. ) involves tracheal, para-bronchial and hilar lymph nodes
180
Adenocarcinoma ( 2 correct):
a. ) is typically in smoking men
b. ) is typical in non-smoking women
c. ) growth slowly but gives early and widespread metastasis
d. ) its major mutation is p53 mutation
b. ) is typical in non-smoking women
| c. ) growth slowly but gives early and widespread metastasis
181
Match the numbers with the letters:
a. ) Hypercalcemia
b. ) Cushing
c. ) Antidiuretic hormone release
d. ) Carcinoid syndrome
1) ACTH secreting small cell carcinoma or adenocarcinoma
2) PTH secreting small cell carcinoma
3) Carcinoid / neuroendocrine tumor secreting serotonin, histamin , PG
4) Small cell carcinoma
a. ) Hypercalcemia + 2) PTH secreting small cell carcinoma
b. ) Cushing + 1) ACTH secreting small cell carcinoma or adenocarcinoma
c. ) Antidiuretic hormone release + 4) Small cell carcinoma
d. ) Carcinoid syndrome +3) Carcinoid / neuroendocrine tumor secreting serotonin, histamin , PG
182
the most common localization of colon cancer :
a. ) hepatic flexure
b. ) splenic flexure
c. ) rectosigmoid junction
d. ) ascending colon
e. ) appendix
c.) rectosigmoid junction
183
Meckel's Diverticulum occurs in:
a. ) Duodenum
b. ) Jejunum
c. ) Ileum
d. ) Colon
e. ) Esophagus
c.) Ileum
184
Mucous plug in bronchi induces bronchiectasis (TRUE/FALSE).
TRUE
*Any obstruction
185
Possible complications of acute pancreatitis:
a. ) Neuroendocrine Tumor
b. ) Pseudocyst
c. ) Choledocholithiasis
d. ) Hypercalcemia
b.) Pseudocyst
186
Specific Tumor marker of HCC:
a. ) CA19-9
b. ) LDH
c. ) AFP
d. ) HCG
c. ) AFP
| * aka α-Fetoprotein
187
In cystic fibrosis bronchiectasis is often because the viscous mucus clogs up the bronchial tree (TRUE/FALSE)
TRUE
188
Which of the following is a characteristic complication of silicosis (3 correct) ?
a. ) susceptible to TB
b. ) mesothelioma
c. ) chronic cor pulmonale
d) bronchial Carcinoma
a. ) susceptible to TB
c. ) chronic cor pulmonale
d) bronchial Carcinoma
189
Triggered by mycobacterium TB histological changes correspond to hypersensitivity type I. (TRUE/FALSE)
FALSE
| Type IV
190
Which state predisposes the least frequently for diffuse purulent peritonitis ?
a. ) torsion of ovarian cyst
b. ) acute perforation of appendix
c. ) direct thrombosis of mesenteric artery
d. ) lymphadenitis
e. ) sepsis
d.) lymphadenitis
191
Asthma involves:
a. ) IgE
b. ) curschmanns spirals
c. ) hyperplasia of mucous glands
d. ) bronchospasm
e. ) all
e.) all
a. ) IgE
b. ) curschmanns spirals ( whorles of shed epithelium )
c. ) hyperplasia of mucous glands
d. ) bronchospasm
192
Which organs can be affected in Primary Tuberculosis? (2 correct answers)
a) Lung
b) Liver
c) Spleen
d) Small intestine
a) Lung
d) Small intestine
* More common as complication of Secondary TB (P. 497)
193
Consequence of smoking EXCEPT :
a. ) emphysema + chronic bronchitis
b. ) desquamative interstitial pneumonia (DIP)
c. ) Bronchiolitis
d. ) ARDS
d.) ARDS
194
What is the Mallory-Body consists of?
a. ) Nucleic Acid
b. ) Calcium Crystals
c. ) Protein
d. ) Lipid
c. ) Protein
| * damaged intermediate filaments
195
Predisposing factors for peptic ulcer are( 2 correct answers):
a. ) Zollinger Ellison syndrome
b. ) Blood group ''o''
c. ) Peutz Jegher Syndrome
d. ) Autoimmunity
a. ) Zollinger Ellison syndrome (gastrin secreting tumor, hyperacidity)
b. ) Blood group ''o'' (for duodenal ulcers)
196
True for EARLY gastric cancer:
a. ) Non invasive
b. ) Low level of Metastasis
c. ) Macroscopically, linitis plastica is seen
d. ) confined to mucosa and submucosa
d.) confined to mucosa and submucosa
197
In atypical adenomatous hyperplasia:
a. ) squamous cell hyperplasia
b. ) cuboidal cell hyperplasia
c. ) EGFR , ALK ,cMET and K-Ras are the most common mutations
d. ) shows lepidic growth
b. ) cuboidal cell hyperplasia
| c. ) EGFR , ALK ,cMET and K-Ras are the most common mutations
198
Commonly affects pulmonary hilar lymph nodes EXCEPT:
a. ) primary TB
b. ) metastasis of squamous cell carcinoma
c. ) aspergilloma
d. ) sarcoidosis
c. ) aspergilloma
| * Affects the bronchus (causes Bronchiectasis)
199
Acute bronchiectasis ( 2 correct)
a. ) is associated with fibrosis
b. ) is associated with acute infection
c. ) bronchioles are ulcerated
d. ) bronchioles show reactive epithelial proliferation
b. ) is associated with acute infection
| c. ) bronchioles are ulcerated
200
Alpha-1-antitrypsin deficiency is common in (2 correct):
a. ) panlobular emphysema
b. ) panacinar emphysema
c. ) asthma
d. ) bronchitis
a.) panlobular emphysema
b.) panacinar emphysema
(panacinar = panlobular )
201
In reabsorption atelectasis ( 2 correct) :
a. ) a foreign body obstructs the airways
b. ) the damage is potentially irreversible
c. ) air is reabsorbed from the alveoli
d. ) pleural effusion compresses the lung
a. ) a foreign body obstructs the airways
| c. ) air is reabsorbed from the alveoli
202
Can cause inflammation with pseudomembrane formation EXCEPT :
a. ) e.coli
b. ) candida
c. ) uremia
d. ) clostridium difficile
e. ) shigella
a.) e.coli
203
which has NO association with smoking ?
a. ) emphysema
b. ) desquamative Interstitial Pneumonia
c. ) chronic bronchitis
d. ) sarcoidosis
e. ) squamous cell carcinoma
d.) sarcoidosis
204
Bronchiolitis obliterans ( 2 correct ):
a. ) is associated with chronic bronchitis
b. ) obliteration of small airways by inhalation of a foreign body
c. ) obliteration of small airways due to mucus plug formation
d. ) obliteration of small airways due to submucosal fibrosis
a. ) is associated with chronic bronchitis
| d. ) obliteration of small airways due to submucosal fibrosis
205
Typical for red hepatisation:
a. ) red, bogged , heavy appearance of the lung
b. ) liver like consistency , alveolar spaces filled with RBC and neutrophils
c. ) semisolid debris is coughed up
d. ) ingrowing fibroblasts
b.) liver like consistency , alveolar spaces filled with RBC and neutrophils
206
Typical for squamous cell carcinoma ( 3 correct ):
a. ) arises peripherally
b. ) arises centrally
c. ) developmental sequence : basal cell hyperplasia , squamous metaplasia , dysplasia , cancer in situ , squamous cell carcinoma
d. ) most common mutation : K-RAS
b. ) arises centrally
c. ) developmental sequence : basal cell hyperplasia , squamous metaplasia , dysplasia , cancer in situ , squamous cell carcinoma
d. ) most common mutation : K-RAS
207
Typical manifestation of extrapulmonary TB ( 2 correct):
a. ) skin sarcoidosis
b. ) Marantic endocarditis
c. ) basilar meningitis
d. ) potts diseases
c. ) basilar meningitis ( via infective embolism)
| d. ) potts diseases (TB in vertebral body )
208
True for Prostate Cancer (2 correct answers):
a. ) Generally derived from Peripheral Parenchyma
b. ) It ancient name is "Hypernephroma"
c. ) Its precancerous lesion is prostate hyperplasia
d. ) Rectal digital examination itself is not specific enough to confirm the diagnosis of prostate cancer
a. ) Generally derived from Peripheral Parenchyma
d. ) Rectal digital examination itself is not specific enough to confirm the diagnosis of prostate cancer
According to Pathoma - Prostate
209
Most common histological type of malignant urinary bladder tumors is urothelial cell carcinoma.(TRUE/FALSE)
TRUE
According to Pathoma - Lower UT Carcinoma
210
What is Krukenberg Tumor?
a. ) Primary tumor of the ovary
b. ) Ovarian Metastasis of signet ring cell carcinoma
c. ) Metastasis of small cell carcinoma in the body of the uterus
d. ) Ovarian Metastasis of small cell carcinoma
e. ) Metastasis of signet ring cell carcinoma in the body of the uterus
b.) Ovarian Metastasis of signet ring cell carcinoma
| According to Pathoma - Ovary
Most commonly from Diffuse Gastric Carcinoma origin
211
Glomerular disease with crescent formation in glomeruli:
a. ) Diabetic Glomerulosclerosis
b. ) Minimal change disease
c. ) Membranous Nephropathy
d. ) PSGN
d.) PSGN
According to Pathoma - Nephritic Syndrome, PSGN can progress to RPGN -presents classically as Crescent + Robbins 10E Page 560 mentions PSGN can also presents Crescent.
212
Testicular Tumors occur commonly in cryptorchidism. (TRUE/FALSE)
TRUE
| According to Pathoma - Testis.
Cryptorchidism: Higher Temp in Abdomen→ Seminoma Risk↑
213
Chronic Renal Failure might cause the Hyperplasia of:
a. ) Pancreas
b. ) Thyroid
c. ) Adrenal
d. ) Parathyroid
d.) Parathyroid
According to Pathoma - Chronic Renal Failure.
(Hypocalcemia→Stimulus for Parathyroid↑ → Renal Osteodystrophy + Parathyroid Hyperplasia)
214
Which histological element is the Gleason system based on?
a. ) Morphological Structure of Malignant Glands
b. ) Number of Mitosis
c. ) Degree of Cellular Atypia
d. ) Ratio of Necrosis
a.) Morphological Structure of Malignant Glands
According to Robbins 10E page 700
215
Mostly affected age group of seminoma?
a. ) 20-40 yrs
b. ) <20yrs
c. ) >40 yrs
c.) >40 yrs
According to Robbins 10E page 694
216
True for ovarian high grade serous carcinoma, EXCEPT:
a. ) Low grade serous carcinoma is its precursor lesion
b. ) Most of them are p53 Positive
c. ) STIC in the fimbrial end of the fallopian tube is its precursor lesion
d. ) Often occurs in carriers of BRCA germ cell mutation
c.) STIC in the fimbrial end of the fallopian tube is its precursor lesion
According to Robbins 10E Page 732 - Serous Tumors of Ovary. In Page 727 There is a reference to STIC but only as the precursor of FALLOPIAN tube serous high grade Carcinoma
217
Type of metastasis formation of renal cell carcinoma:
a. ) Transperitoneal
b. ) Hematogenous, Portal type
c. ) Lymphogenous
d. ) Hematogenous, Caval type
d.) Hematogenous, Caval type
According to Pathoma - Renal Cancer. This is the reason for Left-sided Varicocele as a complication - the tumor backs up to the left gonadal vein.
218
What are the koilocytes?(2 answers)
a. ) Inclusion containing cells
b. ) Invasive cancer cells
c. ) Cells with clear halo around the nucleus
d. ) Dissociated tumor cells
e. ) HPV infected cells
c. ) Cells with clear halo around the nucleus
e. ) HPV infected cells
According to Pathoma -Cervix Pathology:
HPV Infection→Persistent Infection→CIN with Koilocytic Change:"Cells with clear halo around the nucleus"
219
Most common congenital anomaly of the kidney:
a. ) Hypoplasia
b. ) Oligomeganephronia
c. ) Horseshoe kidney
d. ) Agenesis
c.) Horseshoe kidney
According to Pathoma - Congenital Renal Pathology
220
Most important acute complication of tubal pregnancy:
a. ) Inflammation
b. ) Infertility
c. ) Rupture of fallopian tube and intra-abdominal bleeding
d. ) Tuboovarian abscess
c.) Rupture of fallopian tube and intra-abdominal bleeding
According to Pathoma - Gestational Pathology; Ectopic Pregnancy. This is the reason it is a surgical emergency
221
Predispose for pyelonephritis, EXCEPT:
a. ) Traumas of urethra during sexual intercourse in women
b. ) Sepsis
c. ) Glomerulonephritis
d. ) Lower UTI
e. ) Vesicoureteric Reflux
c.) Glomerulonephritis
According to a Urologist: "Glomerulonephritis is always contained in the Nephron and cannot reach the Renal Pelvis. Sepsis is a complication of Pyelonephritis but can sometimes at rare cases can be the cause of it"
Also Robbins 10E page 565 upper right corner confirms it!
222
Abdominal CT scan reveals a solid roundish lesion of 3 cm within the kidney. The lesion is most probably:
a. ) Abscess
b. ) Benign Tumor
c. ) Infarct
d. ) Malignant Tumor
d.) Malignant Tumor
According to Robbins 10E Pages 578-580.
"Clear cell Carcinoma (Most common form of renal carcinoma) usually are solitary and large when symptomatic (Spherical masses 3-15 cm in diameter" , "These neoplasm represent 80-85% of renal neoplasms", "benign neoplasms .... (<0.5 cm in diameter)".
223
Most common tumor of the body of the uterus:
a. ) Leiomyoma
b. ) Adenocarcinoma
c. ) Stromal Sarcoma
d. ) Adenosquamous carcinoma
e. ) Brenner tumor
a.) Leiomyoma
According to Robbins 10E Page 725 - "Leiomyomas are the most common benign tumor in females affecting 30%-50% ..." This is not a definitive confirmation but that's what I also remember from class.
224
Can cause abnormal uterine bleeding, EXCEPT:
a. ) Leiomyoma
b. ) Endometrial Polyp
c. ) Endometrial Hyperplasia
d. ) Small Cell Carcinoma
d.) Small Cell Carcinoma
According to Robbins 10E page 722, also small cell carcinoma is a lung tumor and uterine is a less probable metastatic site.
225
Can cause abnormal uterine bleeding (2):
a. ) Leiomyoma
b. ) Adenomyosis
c. ) Paraovarian cyst
d. ) Endosalpingiosis
a. ) Leiomyoma
b. ) Adenomyosis
According to Robbins 10E page 722 Table 19.2
226
Condyloma Accuminatum is a malignant epithelial tumor (a) because it originates from the endometrium (b):
a. ) The first statement is correct, the second is not
b. ) The second statement is correct, the first is not
c. ) Both are correct, but (b) does not explain (a)
d. ) Both are correct, but (a) does not explain (b)
e. ) Both are false
d.) Both are false
According to Pathoma - Vulva Pathology
Condyloma Accuminatum is a lesion of Vulvar or Anal skin that arises from HPV 6/11 infection and is Benign warty lesion that rarely progresses to Carcinoma.
227
Typical macroscopic appearance of clear cell kidney cancer:
a. ) Firm grey, infiltrative tumor
b. ) Soft yellowish tumor with expansive growth
c. ) Cauliflower-shaped tumor, filling the lumen of the pyelon
d. ) Soft yellowish tumor with infiltrative growth
b.) Soft yellowish tumor with expansive growth
According to Robbins 10E page 579 (Green - Morphology Part)
228
Risk factor of Cystitis, EXCEPT:
a. ) Diabetes
b. ) Pregnancy
c. ) Hypertension
d. ) Urinary Tract Obstruction
e. ) Female Gender
c.) Hypertension
According to Pathoma - UTI - risk factors include: Female Gender, Urinary Stasis.
Also According to NHS - Diabetes and Pregnancy are a risk factor - https://www.nhs.uk/conditions/cystitis/
229
1. The first site of metastases from uterine cervix cancer:
a. Inguinal lymph nodes
b. Paraaortic lymph nodes
c. Omentum
d. Pelvic Lymph nodes
d. Pelvic Lymph nodes
According to Robbins 10E - Page 720(Green morphology part)
230
2. Which clinical features rise the possibility of inherited BRCA mutation (2 answers)?
a. Metachronous breast and ovarian cancers
b. Postmenopausal lobular carcinoma of the breast
c. Positive Familial history for breast cancer
d. Congenital ovarian teratoma
a. Metachronous breast and ovarian cancers
c. Positive Familial history for breast cancer
According to Pathoma - Breast Cancer: Suggesting clinical features are Familial history, Multiple tumors and tumors in premenopausal age.
231
3. What causes the “chocolate cyst”?
a. Endometriosis of the Ovary
b. Anemic infarction of the ovary
c. Bleeding of the dermoid cyst in the ovary
d. Hemorrhagic infarction of the ovary
a. Endometriosis of the Ovary
According to Pathoma - Endometrium Pathology
232
Inflammation of the glans of the penis:
a. Phallitis
b. Glansitis
c. Balanitis
d. Penitis
c. Balanitis
| https: //www.nhs.uk/conditions/balanitis/
233
Predispose to endometrial adenocarcinoma:
a. Extrauterine gravidity
b. Postmenopausal estrogen replacement therapy
c. HPV infection
d. Leiomyoma
b. Postmenopausal estrogen replacement therapy
According to Pathoma - Endometrium Pathology: Estrogen is the cause of the Hyperplastic pathway towards carcinoma which is typical for 50+ age.
234
The Paget-disease of the breast:
a. Breast cancer with exulceration of the skin
b. Breast cancer with diffuse lymphogenic invasion
c. In-situ carcinoma spreading into the epidermis of the nipple
d. In situ squamous cell carcinoma of the skin of the breast
c. In-situ carcinoma spreading into the epidermis of the nipple
According to Pathoma - Breast Cancer
235
Testicular tumor with benign behavior:
a. Seminoma
b. Yolk sac tumor
c. Postpubertal Teratoma
d. Prepubertal Teratoma
d. Prepubertal Teratoma
According to Robbins 10E 696 green morphology part
236
Endometriosis of the colon can mimic cancer. (TRUE/FALSE)
TRUE
https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC2768254/
237
Nodular hyperplasia of the prostate is a precancerosis. (TRUE/FALSE)
FALSE
According to Pathoma - Prostate Pathology
238
Histological features of breast cancer indicating typically poor prognosis (2 answers):
a. Lymphovascular Invasion
b. High Mitotic Count
c. Intense mucin production
d. High rate of tubulus formation
a. Lymphovascular Invasion
b. High Mitotic Count
According to Pathoma - Breast Cancer :TNM staging
239
Which cell type composes the mole disease?
a. Endometrial glandular epithelium
b. Decidual stroma cell
c. Trophoblasts
d. Smooth muscle cell of the myometrium
c. Trophoblasts
According to Pathoma - Gestational Pathology
240
The most serious acute complication of extrauterine gravidity:
a. Intraabdominal abscess
b. Choriocarcinoma
c. Torsion of the ovary
d. Intra-abdominal bleeding
d. Intra-abdominal bleeding
According to Pathoma - Gestational Pathology
241
Which ovarian tumor can cause pseudomyxoma peritonei?
a. Mucinous cystadenocarcinoma
b. Dermoid cyst
c. Brenner tumor
d. Serous cystadenofibroma
a. Mucinous cystadenocarcinoma
https: //en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Pseudomyxoma_peritonei
* But more common from appendix adenocarcinoma ( also mentioned in pathoma as a metastatic ovarian tumor)
242
Which microscopic features are characteristic for simplex endometrial hyperplasia?
a. Papillary epithelium without atypia
b. Cystic Glands, proliferative epithelium without atypia
c. Confluent glands with necrosis
d. Normal glands without mitoses
b. Cystic Glands, proliferative epithelium without atypia
https: //en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Endometrial_hyperplasia
* According to Pathoma - Endometrium, the atypia is the most important prognostic factor here hence the simplex part since there is no atypia.
243
Premalignant lesion in the breast:
a. Adenosis
b. LCIS
c. Apocrine metaplasia
d. Florid ductal hyperplasia
d. Florid ductal hyperplasia
According to Pathoma - Breast Pathology
Ductal Hyperplasia is a benign lesion of breast that increases the chances of malignancy by 2. Also the following wiki-link explains that "Florid" is a synonym- https://librepathology.org/wiki/Florid_epithelial_hyperplasia
244
Typical symptom of mastitis carcinomatosa:
a. Retraction of the mamilla
b. Palpable lump in the breast
c. Bloody discharge from the mamilla
d. Peau d'orange sign
d. Peau d'orange sign
Mastitis carcinomatosa is actually Inflammatory Breast Carcinoma (Ductal) and It has the "Peel of Orange sign"
https: //en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Peau_d%27orange
https: //www.researchgate.net/figure/59-year-old-patient-with-mastitis-carcinomatosa-inflammatory-carcinoma-finally_fig2_259337672
245
Which of the following tumor types can NOT occur in the testes?
a. Teratoma
b. Krukenberg Tumor
c. Choriocarcinoma
d. Yolk sac tumor
e. Seminoma
b. Krukenberg Tumor
According to Pathoma - Ovary: This is a Metastatic Tumor of the Ovary
246
In the adult apparently differentiated mature teratomas, especially in males, should be treated as a malignant tumor. (TRUE/FALSE)
TRUE
According to Pathoma - Testis
247
Invasive ductal carcinoma of the breast grows in “indian file”. (TRUE/FALSE)
FALSE
According to Pathoma - Breast Cancer: " Single File" or "Indian File" refers to Invasive LOBULAR carcinoma.
https://www.researchgate.net/figure/A-detail-of-the-typical-Indian-file-growth-pattern-of-breast-lobular-invasive-carcinoma_fig2_6932050
248
what is the criteria for borderline tumor of the ovary:
a. has benign and malignant component, as well
b. shows malignant or benign behavior in 50% - 50% of the cases, respectively
c. the histological appearance is malignant without invasion of the stroma.
d. contains surface epithelium and others
e. Never affects tissues beyond the ovaries
c. the histological appearance is malignant without invasion of the stroma.
According to Robbins 10E page 729 Green Morphology part
249
Dysgerminoma of the ovary is identical with seminoma of the testis. (TRUE/FALSE)
TRUE
According to Pathoma - Testis
250
Most common tumors in the ovary are the germ cell tumors. (TRUE/FALSE)
FALSE
According to Pathoma - Ovary: Surface Epithelial Tumors are the most common.
251
Breast cancer with good prognosis:
a. Mucinous Carcinoma
b. Invasive ductal carcinoma grade 1
c. Metaplastic carcinoma
d. Invasive micropapillary carcinoma
a. Mucinous Carcinoma
According to Pathoma - Breast Cancer
252
Which infection is frequently associated with CIN?
a. Herpes virus type II
b. Human Papillomavirus 33
c. Chlamydia trachomatis
d. Gardnerella vaginalis
e. Trichomonas vaginalis
b. Human Papillomavirus 33
According to Pathoma - Cervix Pathology: The high risk types are 16,18,31,33.
253
Condyloma latum is caused by the most infectious HPV strains. (TRUE/FALSE)
FALSE
According to Sketchy Micro: Treponema Pallidum (Syphilis) is the cause of Condyloma latum while Condyloma Accuminatum is caused by HPV 6 and 11 which are the LOW risk strain.
254
Caused by chlamydia, EXCEPT:
a. Trachoma
b. Psittacosis
c. Lymphgranulosum venereum
d. Q- Fever
e. Non-gonococcal urethritis
d. Q- Fever
According to Sketchy Micro: Coxiella burnetii is the cause of Q- Fever
255
41. Complications of tubal gravidity, EXCEPT:
a. Hematosalpinx
b. Hematoma rectouterina
c. Myoma Uteri
d. Acute abdomen
c. Myoma Uteri
According to Wikipedia : Tubal Gravidity (Fallopian Tube ectopic Pregnancy) is no a risk factor for Myoma (Leiomyoma) of the uterus.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Uterine_fibroid
256
Typical for condyloma accuminatum (2 answers)
a. Macroscopically it is only papillary
b. Koilocytes
c. Has a berry-like appearance
d. Is caused by an infection by HBV
a. Macroscopically it is only papillary
b. Koilocytes
According to Pathoma - Vulva pathology
257
HPV virus causes (2 answers)
a. Cervical Carcinoma
b. Condyloma latum
c. Verruca vulgaris
d. Trachoma
a. Cervical Carcinoma
c. Verruca vulgaris
According to Pathoma - Vulva and Cervix.
Verruca vulgaris is a synonym for common wart simillar to Condyloma Accuminatum. Through Persistent HPV infection the CIN pathway could yield a Cervical Carcinoma.
Wiki extra for Wart - https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Wart
258
46. Germinal ovarian tumor (2 answers)
a. Teratoma
b. Dysgerminoma
c. Androblastoma
d. Serous cystadenocarcinoma
a. Teratoma
b. Dysgerminoma
According to Pathoma - Ovary
Also Wiki for Androblastoma - Sex Cord Stromal Tumor: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Sertoli%E2%80%93Leydig_cell_tumour
Serous cystadenocarcinoma - Epithelial Ovarian Tumor
259
HPV 16 and 18 play a role in the development of cervical carcinoma (TRUE/FALSE)
TRUE
According to Pathoma - Cervix.
also HPV 31 AND 33.
260
Among the following, the testicular tumor is:
a. Granulosa cell tumor
b. Choriocarcinoma
c. Papillary carcinoma
d. Yolk Sac Tumor
b. Choriocarcinoma
d. Yolk Sac Tumor
According to Pathoma - Testis
Papillary carcinoma is a type of Thyroid Carcinoma
Granulosa Cell Tumor is an Ovarian Carcinoma
261
True for peau d’orange
a. Often occurs in estrogen-receptor positive breast cancers
b. Happens in intraductal carcinoma
c. Shows good prognosis
d. Occurs due to a sclerosing adenosis
e. Is a sign of Invasive Breast cancer
e. Is a sign of Invasive Breast cancer
According to Wiki: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Peau_d%27orange
This is more specifically a sign of Invasive Ductal Carcinoma of inflammatory Type.
262
Most common of the benign changes of the breast (2 answers):
a. Fibrocystic Changes
b. Juvenile papillomatosis
c. Fibroadenoma
d. Galactorrhea
a. Fibrocystic Changes
c. Fibroadenoma
According to Pathoma - Breast.
Fibrocystic Changes - Most common Change*
Fibroadenoma - Most common Benign Tumor
263
The most common histological type of ovarian carcinoma:
a. Brenner tumor
b. Clear cell carcinoma
c. Mucinous cystadenocarcinoma
d. Serous Adenocarcinoma
e. Endometrioid carcinoma
d. Serous Adenocarcinoma
According to Pathoma - Ovary
264
Call-Exner bodies are typical for:
a. Serous cystadenocarcinoma
b. Dysgerminoma
c. Granulosa cell tumor
d. Sertoli cell tumor
e. Malignant teratoma
c. Granulosa cell tumor
According to Wiki - Call-Exner bodies
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Call-Exner_bodies
265
Main risk factor for urothelial carcinoma:
a. Bacterial infection
b. Sexually transmitted diseases
c. HPV infection
d. Smoking
d. Smoking
According to Pathoma - Lower Urinary Tract Carcinoma
266
Histological characteristic of end-stage-kidney, EXCEPT:
a. Glomerulus Hypertrophy
b. Interstitial fibrosis
c. Glomerulosclerosis
d. Thyroidisation
a. Glomerulus Hypertrophy
According to Pathoma - Chronic Renal Failure
267
Causes Nephritic syndrome, EXCEPT:
a. IgA-Nephropathy
b. Minimal Change Disease
c. Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis
d. Crescentic glomerulonephritis
b. Minimal Change Disease
According to Pathoma - Nephrotic Syndrome, MCD is a Nephrotic Syndrome.
268
Urothelial carcinoma has high risk of local recurrence. (TRUE/FALSE)
TRUE
According to Pathoma - Lower Urinary Tract Carcinoma
269
Possible causes of secondary membranous glomerulonephritis (2 correct):
a. Hepatorenal syndrome
b. Malignancy
c. SLE
d. Shock
b. Malignancy
c. SLE
According to Pathoma - Nephrotic Syndrome
270
Characteristic microscopic alterations in Kimmelstiel-Wilson syndrome (2 correct):
a. Nodular Glomerulosclerosis
b. Arteriolosclerosis
c. Granular IgG positivity
d. Mesangial Proliferation
a. Nodular Glomerulosclerosis
b. Arteriolosclerosis
According to Pathoma - Nephrotic Syndrome. Diabetic Nephropathy = Kimmelstiel-Wilson syndrome.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Diabetic_nephropathy
271
True for rapidly progressive (crescentic) glomerulonephritis, EXCEPT:
a. Progresses rapidly
b. Associated exclusively with Nephrotic Syndrome
c. May occur as a manifestation of systemic disorders
d. May be preceded by postinfectious glomerulonephritis
e. Anti-GBM antibodies may be demonstrated in some cases
b. Associated exclusively with Nephrotic Syndrome
According to Pathoma - Nephritic Syndrome: RPGN
272
Schistosomiasis may be associated with the formation of:
a. Renal cell carcinoma
b. Squamous cell carcinoma of the urinary bladder
c. Adenocarcinoma of the urinary bladder
d. Wilms tumor
e. Neuroblastoma
b. Squamous cell carcinoma of the urinary bladder
According to Pathoma - Lower Urinary Tract Carcinoma
273
Components of Nephrotic syndrome are, EXCEPT:
a. Proteinuria
b. Hypertension
c. Hypoalbuminemia
d. Hyperlipidemia
e. Edema
b. Hypertension
| According to Pathoma - Nephrotic Syndrome
It is common in Nephritic Syndrome
274
90% of malignant tumors encountered in the urinary bladder are:
a. Large cell carcinoma
b. Transitional cell papilloma
c. Squamous cell carcinoma
d. Adenocarcinoma
e. Transitional Cell Carcinoma
e. Transitional Cell Carcinoma
According to Pathoma - Lower Urinary Tract Carcinoma
275
68. Linear deposition of IgG and/or C3 along the glomerular basement membrane is seen in:
a. Membranous GN
b. Anti-GBM Nephritis
c. Minimal change nephropathy
d. Goodpasture Syndrome
b. Anti-GBM Nephritis
d. Goodpasture Syndrome
According to Pathoma - Nephritic Syndrome
GBM = Glomerular Basement Membrane
276
The autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease usually manifests in the neonatal period and rapidly leads to acute renal failure.(TRUE/FALSE)
FALSE
According to Pathoma -Congenital Renal Pathology
ADPKD=ADult PKD
277
Which structure is impaired by tissue hypoxia in the kidney?
a) Interstitium
b) Glomerulus
c) Arteriola
d) Tubules
d) Tubules
| * More specifically PCT and TAL
278
High levels of estrogen are not involved in the etiology of endometrial hyperplasia.
(TRUE/FALSE)
FALSE
Pathoma - Endometrium Pathology
279
The first site of metastases from Malignant testicular tumors:
a. Inguinal lymph nodes
b. Paraaortic lymph nodes
c. Omentum
d. Pelvic Lymph nodes
b. Paraaortic lymph nodes
280
True for Renal cell Carcinoma:
a) Derives from the tubular epithelium
b) It is generally diagnosed for hematuria
c) commonly occurs in familial cancers
d) affects mainly young women
a) Derives from the tubular epithelium
Pathoma - Renal Cancer
281
What is the currently used histological grading system for prostatic cancer?
a) Nottingham grade
b) ISUP grade/Gleason Grade
c) Marsh classification
d) Van Nuys prognostic index
b)ISUP grade/Gleason Grade
282
Always occurs in MEN2 syndrome:
a) Carcinoid of small intestine
b) Medullary Carcinoma of Thyroid
c) Follicular Carcinoma of Thyroid
d) Carcinoid of Lung
b)Medullary Carcinoma of Thyroid
Pathoma - Thyroid Cancer
283
2 Testicular Tumors of Germ cell origin:
a) Lymphoma
b) Embryonal Carcinoma
c) Sertoli cell tumor
d) Yolk sac Tumor
b) Embryonal Carcinoma
d) Yolk sac Tumor
Pathoma - Testicular Cancer
284
2 Tumors that spread hematogenously:
a) Pancreatic ductal adenocarcinoma
b) Follicular thyroid carcinoma
c) Hepatocellular Carcinoma
d) Papillary Carcinoma
b) Follicular thyroid carcinoma
c) Hepatocellular Carcinoma
Pathoma - Liver Pathology and Thyroid Neoplasm
285
Hypertension often causes acute renal failure due to acute tubular necrosis (FALSE/TRUE)
TRUE
Pathoma - Hypertension:
Malignant HTN causes Fibrinoid Necrosis of Renal Artery leading to renal ischemia/Infarction
286
PSA can be elevated in non neoplastic prostate disorders (TRUE/FALSE)
TRUE
Pathoma- Prostate:
In BPH it can rise above 4 which is still irregular. In cancer it rises above 10.
287
Most important diagnostic histological findings of papillary thyroid carcinoma:
a) Special alteration of cytoplasm
b) Papillary structures
c) Special alteration of nuclei
d) Psammoma body
d)Psammoma body
Pathoma - Thyroid Neoplasm
288
Goodpasture syndrome most commonly affects the kidney and liver (TRUE/FALSE)
FALSE
*
Goodpasture syndrome most commonly affects the kidney and LUNGS:
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Goodpasture_syndrome
