PD/LMNL Flashcards by Tisha Ayonayon

El Escorial criteria for clinically definite ALS:

A. UMN, LMN signs in 4 region of the body
B. UMN, LMN signs in 2 region of the body
C. LMN signs in 1 region of the body
D. UMN in 2 regions of the body
E. None of these

A. UMN, LMN signs in 4 region of the body

3 to 4 regions

B: Probable
C and D: Possible

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Sustained contraction of agonist and antagonist muscle

A. Dystonia
B. Paratonia
C. Chorea
D. Hemibalismus

A. Dystonia

From Sullivan

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APTA is assigned to ambulate a patient with a 10- year history of Parkinson’s disease (PD). What should the PT instruct the PTA to watch for?

A. Wider steps and increased double support time
B. An abnormally wide base of support
C. Decreased trunk rotation with shorter steps
D. Unsteady, uneven gait with veering to one side

C. Decreased trunk rotation with shorter steps

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Juvenile SMA is known as:

A. Wednig Hoffman
B. Type Il muscular atrophy
C. Chronic wednig Hoffman
D. Kugelberg weländer SMA
E. AOTA

D. Kugelberg weländer SMA

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A patient informs his therapist that his problem began 3 months after a bout of the flu. The patient originally experienced tingling of the hands and feet. He also reports progressive weakness to the point that he required ventilator to breathe. He is now recovering rapidly and is expected to return to a normal function level in 3 months. From which of the following condition is the patient most likely

A. Parkinson’s disease
B. Guillan Barre syndrome
C. Multiple sclerosis
D. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis

B. Guillan Barre syndrome

Keywords: progressive weakness, ventilator to breathe

A: Bradykinesia, Rigidity, Postural Instability, Tremor
C: Optic Neuritis
D: OK cognition, Paralyzed

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It is the mechanism of action of auto antibodies in MG:

A. Acetylcholine breakdown
B. Acetylcholine vesicle breakdown
C. Acetylcholinesterase breakdown
D. Acetylcholine receptor breakdown

D. Acetylcholine receptor breakdown

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Motor Neuron Dse secondary to infection from clostridium butolinum

A. Botulism
B. Botulinism
C. GBS
D. LEMS

A. Botulism

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It is known as auto immune disease of peripheral nervous system?

A. GBS
B. ALS
C. SMA
D. CMTD

A. GBS

If CNS, MS

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The NMJ most commonly seen in male with pulmonary cancer

A. Myasthenia Gravis
B. LEMS
C. Botulism
D. ALS

B. LEMS

A: Thymoma

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Most common spinal segment affected by poliovirus

A Cervical
B. Thoracic
C. Lumbar
D. Sacral

C. Lumbar

Kita sa gait

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A GBS variant which has a symptoms such as
ophthalmoplegia, ataxia & areflexia

A. Mary walker variant
B. Miller fisher variant
C. Marburgs variant
D. Morquios variant

B. Miller fisher variant

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Which of the following is not a criterion in post- polio syndrome:

A. confirmed history of non-paralytic poliomyelitis
B. a period of partial to complete functional and neurologic recovery
C. no other medical explanation for this condition
D. onset of new muscle weakness

A. confirmed history of non-paralytic poliomyelitis

Paralytic dapat

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These are signs and symptoms of asymptomatic poliomyelitis, Except:

A. sensory loss
B. weakness
C. muscle soreness
D. autonomic dysfunction
E. AOTA

E. AOTA

If asymptomatic, walang symptom

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Which of the following is not seen in amyotrophic lateral sclerosis:

A. babinski and hoffman reflexes
B. severe cognitive deterioration
C. spasticity
D. head drop
E. cadaveric hand

B. severe cognitive deterioration

ALS hasnormal cognition

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Juvenile SMA is known as:

A. werdnig hoffman
B. Type Il muscular atrophy II
C. chronic werdnig hoffman
D. Kugelberg welander SMA
E. AOTA

D. Kugelberg welander SMA

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True about LEMS:

A. Decrementing response
B. Distal muscle weakness
C. Ophthalmoplegia
D. Thymoma
E. NOTA

E. NOTA

A-D: Myasthenia Gravis

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Pathology of what organ in the body is associated with LEMS:

A. Thymus
B. Thyroid
C. Heart
D. Liver
E. Lungs

E. Lungs

Lungs LEMS

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Which of the following has viral etiology?

A. Parkinsonism
B. Guillan Barre Syndrome
C. TBI
D. Multiple sclerosis

B. Guillan Barre Syndrome

Campylobacter Jejuni

D: Herpes but theory pa lang siya

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A patient reports weakness and tingling in the lower extremities over the past 2 weeks. The therapist suspects that the patient may have GBS. Which of the following a examination findings would most likely occur with this diagnosis?

A. Hypertonicity in the affected muscle
B. Presence of the clonus with rapid passive foot dorsiflexion
C. Diminished Tendon reflexes
D. Ataxic gait gait pattern

C. Diminished Tendon reflexes

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You are presenting an inservice about diseases of the muscle at a local community center. Which of the following taliqua muscle diseases has abnormal of muscle as one of its main symptom?

A. Myotonia congenita
B. Myasthenia gravis
C. Guillan Barre syndrome
D. Muscular dystrophy

B. Myasthenia gravis

Myasthenia: Muscle weakness
Gravis: Severe

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A 15-year-old with kugelberg welander disease will exhibit all of the following manifestations,
EXCEPT:

A Gower’s sign
B. Hyperactive DTRS
C. Minimal ambulation capability
D. Muscle weakness

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B. Hyperactive DTRS

Included in the manifestation of GBS?

A Hyper reflexia
B Descending paralysis
C. Slow progression
D. Facial palsy
E. None of these

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D. Facial palsy

CN 7 affected

B: Ascending
C: Fast

Disorder of the neuromuscular junction

A Myasthenia gravis
Myasthenic syndrome
C. Botulism
D. A and B
E AOTA

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E AOTA

Primary drug for Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis:

A Trihexyphenidyl
B Guanidin
C. Riluzole
D. Sinemat

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C. Riluzole

25. All of the following are true statements about SMA II, EXCEPT: A Also known as the chronic infantile SMA B. The usual onset is before 6 months C. Pt is able to sit independently D. Severe progressive scoliosis is a common symptom for this condition E None of these

B. The usual onset is before 6 months 6-18 months dapat

In this condition, there is a mutation of androgen receptor gene that causes degeneration of LMN leading to weakness and atrophy of bulbar, facial, and limb muscles. Endocrinologic disturbances, sensory impairment, proximal or distal weakness are common findings for this condition. A Acute werdnig Hoffman disease B Chronic werdnig Hoffman disease C. Kugelberg wellander D. Kennedy's disease E None of the above

D. Kennedy's disease

27. Most common viral strain of poliovirus? A. Brunhilde B. Lansing C. Leon D. None of these

A. Brunhilde or Mahoney

28. Most common variant of GBS A Millerfisher syndrome B Acute inflammatory demyelinating polyneuropathy C. Acute motor axonal neuropathy D. Acute motor sensory axonal neuropathy

B Acute inflammatory demyelinating polyneuropathy A: Descending form of GBS C and D: Rare

29. A patient in the late stages of Parkinson's disease exhibits episodes of akinesia while walking. What should the therapist examine? A. Primary involvement of the head and trunk B. Associated dyskinesias C. Primary involvement of the hips and knees D. Triggers that precipitate the freezing episodes.

D. Triggers that precipitate the freezing episodes.

30. A patient with a 7-year history of Parkinson's disease is hospitalized. The patient is ambulatory but requires close supervision to prevent falls. What should be the focus of the physical therapist's plan of care? A. Manual balance perturbation training B. Transfer and wheelchair training C. Caregiver training for contact guarding during level walking and stairs D Locomotor training using a rolling walker

C. Caregiver training for contact guarding during level walking and stairs

31. A patient with a 6-year history of Parkinson's disease (PD) has experienced two recent bouts of pneumonia and limited functional mobility in the home. The therapist's plan of care focuses on improving respiratory function and postural control. What is the BEST choice for intervention to address these issues at this time? A. Supine, UE PNF lift and reverse lift patterns using rhythmic initiation B. Quadruped, alternate arm and leg raises C. Sitting, bilateral symmetrical UE PNF D2 flexion patterns using rhythmic initiation D. Standing, bilateral symmetrical UE PNF D2 flexion patterns using dynamic reversals

C. Sitting, bilateral symmetrical UE PNFD2 flexion patterns using rhythmic initiation

32. Triad of huntington disease, EXCEPT: A. Dementia B. Chorea C. Dystonia D. Depression

C. Dystonia

33. The patient is complaining of heaviness and stiffness of his limbs which is felt uniformly in both agonist and antagonist muscles and in movements in both direction. It is also noted that it occurs with tremors. As a PT/OT, you suspect that the patient may have? A. Rigidity B. Bradykinesia C. Tremor D. Cogwheel rigidity E. Plastic rigidity

D. Cogwheel rigidity Tremor + Rigidity

34. All of the following are true about the tremor seen in PD patient, EXCEPT: A. Described as involuntary shaking or ocscillating movement of a part of parts of body resulting from contraction of opposing muscles B. Bit can occur in jaw or tongue C. Present at rest, suppressed briefly by voluntary movement D. None of these E It appears with sleep

E It appears with sleep Disappears with sleep

35. Most common presenting symptom of PD? A. Tremor B. Bradykinesia C. Unilateral rigidity D. Resting tremor E. Postural instability

D. Resting tremor

Most common cause of toxic parkinsonism A. Wilson disease B. None of these C. Manganese D. Hepatocerebral degeneration

C. Manganese

37. Impaired righting reflex A. I B. II C. III D. IV E. V

C. III A: Unilateral B: Bilateral D: All symptoms present and severe E: Confined to bed and wheelchair

38. Secondary PD, EXCEPT: A. Wilson's disease B. Toxic PD C. Encephalitis lethargica D. Multisystem atrophy E. Hepatocerebral degeneration

D. Multisystem atrophy Parkinson-like Syndrome

39. Gold Standard Drug Therapy for PD A. L-dopa B. Pramipexole C. Trihexyphenidyl Delegie D. Selegiline

A. L-dopa

40. All of the following are genes involved in familial PD, EXCEPT: A PINK 1 B PARK 2 C. LRRK2 D DJ-1 E. None of these

B PARK 2 Park 1

41. Most common type of PD A. Familial PD B. Secondary PD C. Sporadic PD D. Early-onset PD

A. Familial PD

42. A diagnostic test for PD A. Sinemat B. Tension test C. Apomorphine test D. Levodopa

C. Apomorphine test

43. The speech disturbance in parkinson's patients is described as: A. Hypokinetic dysarthria B. Hyperactive dysphasia C. Mutism D. Hypomemia E. None of these

A. Hypokinetic dysarthria

44. Most disabling problem in PD is: A. Bradyphrenia B. Early fatigue C. Slowness of movement D. Postural instability

C. Slowness of movement

45. The following statements describe Parkinson's disease, EXCEPT: A. None of these B. Bradykinesia and rigidity are characteristics of the disease C. It is due to the degeneration of the cholinergic neurons D. Its clinical manifestations include tremors E. It cannot be completely reversed by giving levodopa

C. It is due to the degeneration of the cholinergic neurons Cholinergic overactivity

46. Cardinal signs of PD, except: A. Resting tremor B. Bradyphrenia C. Postural Instability D. Rigidity E. None of these

B. Bradyphrenia Bradykinesia

47. All of the following are true about chronic-werdnig Hoffman disease except: A. Slowly progressive B. Onset 6-12 months C. Autosomal dominant D. Chromosome 5q abnormality

C. Autosomal dominant SMA is an Autosomal Recessive disorder

48. Patients have mutation in the gene encoding copper zinc superoxide dismutase (SOD1) A Juvenile ALS B. Familial ALS C. Sporadic D. ALSALS-PD-FTD complex

B. Familial ALS

49. You are treating a patient with Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis. The least likely manifestation that you see is: A. (+) clonus B. Limitation of gaze C. Weakness D. Increase muscle tone

B. Limitation of gaze Spared in ALS: BCOS Bowel and Bladder Cognition Ocular muscle Sensory system

50. IgG blocks the presynaptic vesicles leading to a decrease or defective release of Acetylcholine. On ES mm function will improve or has an incremental effect. A Eaton-Lambert Disease B Thymoma C. Myasthenia Gravis form 1 D. Myasthenia Gravis form 2 E Myasthenia Gravis form 3

A Eaton-Lambert Disease

PD/LMNL Flashcards

(50 cards)