Pharm 1 final Flashcards Preview

Pharmacology > Pharm 1 final > Flashcards

Flashcards in Pharm 1 final Deck (108):
1

The OFFICIAL name is the name under which a drug is listed by which government agency?

FDA food drug administration

2

Why is Meperidine considered a class 2 narcotic medication?

Its high potential for physical and psychological dependency

3

What do prescription drugs require?

Physicians to write an order for the medication and require PCP oversight

4

What schedule 5 drug has low potential for abuse?

Lomotil

5

What schedule narcotics have the greatest risk for abuse?

Schedule 2 of the prescribe-able medications

6

Whats the priority for a patient that started a new med and develops hives?

Stop med and notify PCP of allergic reaction

7

Whats the patient teaching for new meds and Allergic reactions?

tell pt to stop taking meds and potentially wear medical alert bracelet

8

Drug interactions occur when one drug ____ the effect of another drug

Alters

9

Drug ___ __ indicate the amount of a drug in the body and whether its at a ______

1. Blood levels 2. Therapeutic range

10

The half life of a drug is the amount of time it takes 1/2 of the drug to be eliminated from the body

Ex: If a nurse administers 100mg of a drug at 0600 and the half life of the drug is 6 hrs, then at 1200 50mg of the drug will have been eliminated from the body

11

Name a responsibility of the nurse when administering meds?

Check for drug compatibility

12

Among other components such as age, what else can effect metabolism of medication?

A history of liver disease can effect metabolism of medication

13

Antacids such as aluminum shouldn't be given with what medication because of absorption interference?

Mylanta, Most medication require a minimum of 1 hr between the medication and the antacids

14

Physicians orders are where the PCP gives what information?

Directions for procedures and treatments for patients

15

If narcotic count is found to be incorrect while obtaining a med from the narcotic area who should the staff nurse notify?

The supervisor immediately

16

When will you make an incident report?

When a med error was found to have been made on a previous shift

17

If the PCP orders are unclear what should the nurse do?

Contact PCP for clarification

18

What route is the fastest medication administration method?

Intravenous is the fastest route for onset but it also poses the greatest risk of adverse effects

19

When taking oral medication what position should patient be in?

Full Fowlers or upright

20

What position should patient be in when receiving enteral feeding?

Semi fowlers (no less than 30 degrees)

21

How should left over medication be disposed of?

Per FDA guidelines dispose per the drug manufacturers specific instructions

22

The best place to apply Nitroglycerin ointment?

An area with little or no hair, such as the upper chest , upper back, or upper arm

23

Should gloves be used when handling topical medications and if so with which topical especially?

yes gloves and Nitroglycerin especially

24

When applying a patch such as nitroglycerin or fentanyl patch what information should be labeled?

Date Time dosage and initals

25

Ophtalmic medications need to be and remain ___

Sterile

26

Where should Ophthalmic be administered?

Lower conjunctival sac

27

Why is pressure held to the inner canthus of the eye after instilling eye drops ?

To prevent systemic absorption

28

Over use of nasal spray can result in __ effect

Rebound

29

When administering ear drops for a child how will the nurse pull the earlobe?

Downwards and back

30

what are the teaching for corticosteroids inhalers?

1.Shake the inhaler prior to use

31

What kind of lubricant should be used when administering a rectal suppository?

A water base lubricant NO petroleum based products

32

Why are rectal medications given?

Because they bypass digestive enzymes

33

Before administering meds the first step upon arrival is?

Identify the patient

34

The patient starting Terbutaline should know what effects will resolve after continued therapy?

Insomnia Palpatations

35

What are Alpha -adrenergic blocking agents used for?

Peripheral vascular diseases characterized by excessive vasoconstriction, such as Raynauds disease

36

Why are Beta-Blockers used cautiously in patients with respiratory conditions such as emphysema?

Because they may produce severe bronchoconstriction

37

What are Anticholinergic medications used to treat?

Parkinsons disease because they inhibit the action of acetylcholine

38

What should patients be screened for before starting Anticholinergic drug therapy?

Closed angle glaucoma

39

Before receiving the Beta adrenergic blocking agent Metoprolol what should be assessed?

Blood pressure should be assessed

40

In the patient receiving Atenolol a beta adrenergic blocking agent who has a pulse rate less than 60 and peripheral edema should the nurse hold the medication ?

yes pulse is too low drug would further lower it bc of beta adrenergic effect

41

Patient receiving an adrenergic medication should be taught to move slowly from standing to sitting if they feel ___ and __

weak dizzy

42

If inspiratory and expiratory wheezing were noted while taking a cholernergic agent what precautions would the nurse take?

Hold the meds and contact PCP

43

A patient takes a hypnotic to help them sleep and decrease anxiety cannot sleep and becomes excited, what is happening?

Paradoxial effect, when oppsite affect than the one desired

44

What test would be ordered for a patient receiving diazepam/valium complaining of nausea and vomitting and is becoming jaundiced?

Liver function test

45

In addition to facilitating sleep by increasing relaxation what else do Sedatives do?

Decrease patients anxiety

46

Orthostatic hypotension is a potential adverse affect of _____

Benzodiazepines such as Lorazepam/Ativan

47

Whats the length of time the Antihistamine, diphenhydramine should be taken?

One week when taking for insomnia

48

A drug interaction of warfarin potentiation can occur if taken with chloral hydrate so what should a nurse monitor?

Patients prothrombin time will be monitored

49

What potential adverse effect would you watch for with a patient taking Levadopa therapy that sustained an injury?

Orthostatic hyoptension

50

Anticholinergic drugs reduce the cholinergic system of Parkinsons disease such as ____ and ____

Tremors and Drooling

51

What are the pharmacological action of entacapone, a COMT?

That it decreases the destruction of dopamine in peripheral tissues

52

How is the dosage of the COMT medication entacapone adjusted?

According to the patients response

53

When should reduction in dosage of the COMT medication entacapone occur?

Necessary if dizziness results when given in combination with an antihypertensive and aspirin

54

True or false Levapoda can be taken with food to reduce GI disturbance

True

55

Why is Levodopa given instead of dopamine in treatment with Parkinson's?

Dopamine does not cross the blood brain barrier when administered orally

56

What is an adverse effect of Dopamine agonist in the treatment of Parkinsons disease?

Sudden sleep events

57

What foods should be avoided when taking MAOIs?

Tyramine food such as aged cheese , wines, cured meats

58

True or false Antianxiety medication shouldnt be stopped immediately but SHOULD be tappered over 1 month

True

59

The antidepressant medication azapirone can cause drowsiness, what is a patient teaching for this med?

Include the potential risk of injury when using heavy machinery

60

The patient taking alprazolam / Xanaz should be instructed to lie down if they feel dizzy when ____ to a standing position

Rising

61

What 3 formulations is Lorazapam available in?

Oral Intramuscular Intavenous

62

What is the benefit of selective Serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRI)?

They do not cause anticholinergic or cardiovascular adverse effects like other antidepressants

63

What is considered when taking prescribed Tricyclic Antidepressants?

Patients age and gender

64

After starting medication to treat depression when will Physiological symptoms improve?

Within 1 week

65

What is a patient assessed for when diagnosed with mood disorder?

Suicidal ideations

66

MAOI's block the destruction of neurotransmitters so they remain available for utilization true or false

TRUE

67

MAOI's therapy should be discontinued how many weeks prior to starting on other mood disorder medication

2 weeks

68

What is a common adverse affect of Trazadone?

Drowsiness

69

When bupropion/ Wellbutrin is prescribed for smoking cessation, patient teaching should include;

1. Doasge will be increased after 3 days 2. medication is to swallowed whole 3. Only take the prescribed amount 4. Meds do not need to be tapered when discontinued

70

What is an adverse effect of Hydantoin/ Dilantin therapy?

Gingival hyperplasia

71

What is a severe adverse effect of Hydantoin/ Dilantin therapy?

History of diabetes mellitus is hyperglycemia

72

In addition to treating seizures disorders, Carbamazepine/ Tegretol is used for what else?

It is also used to treat Trigeminal neuralgia pain

73

What is The drug of choice for treating generalized tonic clonic seizures

Valproic acid / Depakene

74

What is an adverse effects that usually resolves but should be reported to the PCP for the patient taking Lamotrigine/ Lamictal

Complaints of a rash and Urticaria

75

In addition to being used for seizure control topiramate/ Topamax is also used for?

Preventively for migraine headaches

76

Patient ancestery is part of the assessment prior to starting Carbamazepine / Tegretol therapy true or false?

True

77

What is an assessment tool used to evaluate pain in the nonverbal adult patient?

FLACC

78

What is in nursing intervention for the patient receiving an opoid such as morphine who has a respiratory rate less than 10

Notify PCP and prepare to administer Noxalone/ Narcan

79

What is an indication of salicylate toxicity?

Tinnitus

80

True or false COX2 inhibitors cause fewer adverse effect than other NSAIDs

True

81

True or false Acetaminophen/ Tylenol does not have an anti-inflammatory effect

True

82

The effectiveness of analgesics medications is done _____ after administration

30 minutes

83

Aspirin is contraindicated with the patient receiving warfarin/ Coumadin related to increase risk for bleeding

True

84

Verbalizing pain on a scale from ____ is the best way for the nurse to evaluate the effectiveness of pain medication

0 to 10

85

When is Opiate agonist such as morphine/ Roxanol given?

For severe acute pain

86

Patient teaching should include encouraging patients to ___ pain before the pain becomes too ___

1. Report. 2. Severe

87

Intermittent doses of breakthrough pain medication may be ordered/ administered to the patient who has a ______ patch

Fentanyl/ Duragesic

88

Urinary antimicrobial agents, such as ciprofloxacin/ Cipro are administered to provide an ______ on the tribe and urinary tract

Antiseptic effect

89

Phenazopyridine hydrochloride/ Pyridium will turn the urine what color?

Reddish orange and it can discolor the sclera as well

90

Fosfomycin / Monurol is administered when and with what?

One time dose in 90-120 ml of water

91

What is Tolterodine/ Detrolb used to decrease?

The urge to void for patients with urinary urgency

92

Extreme dilation of pupils is a result of ____

Mydriasis

93

An Adrenergic Ophthalmic solution discharge should include what information?

That driving should be avoided until blurring subsides

94

Timolol maleate/ Timoptic ( a beta adrenergic blocking agent) works by decreasing the production of _________

Aqueous humor

95

Patients who are allergic to PCN/ penicillin can potentially be allergic to ______ as well

Cephalosporins

96

Probenecid given with ____ inhibits the excretion of penicillins increasing its bioavailability

Penicillin

97

What is a severe adverse effect associated with aminoglycosides?

Ototoxocity

98

How are antimicrobials chose?

Based on the sensitivity of the microorganisms to the drug

99

Secondary infections such as candida or thrush are potential issues with ATB therapy especially ________

Broad Spectrum antimicrobials

100

Nephrotoxicity is a potential _____ effect related to therapy with gentamicin and cephalosporins, especially in conjunction with diuretics

Severe adverse

101

When administering adult ear drops will pull the earlobe ____ and ____

Upwards Back

102

Psychological symptoms of depression will improve within in?

1 month

103

Sublingual

under tongue

104

Buccal

in buccal cavity (cheek and molar teeth)

105

7 rights of medication admin

1. RIGHT patient 2.RIGHT drug 3.RIGHT indication 4. RIGHT ROUTE OF ADMINISTRATION 5. RIGHT DOSE 6. RIGHT time of administration 7. RIGHT documentation

106

Enteral

Directly into gastrointestinal tract oral, rectal, or nasogastric

107

Parenteral

Bypass the GI tract with the use of subcutaneous, intamuscular, and intravenous injection

108

Percutaneous

absorbed through skin and mucus membranes ex; inhalation, under tongue, topical