Pharm HW 26-50 Flashcards Preview

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Flashcards in Pharm HW 26-50 Deck (25):
1

As a medication undergoes biotransformation, it becomes a:
Choose one answer.
A. compound.
B. molecule.
C. electrolyte.
D. metabolite.

d

2

At 15 μg/kg/min, dopamine:
Choose one answer.
A. reduces cardiac contractility.
B. antagonizes alpha-1 receptors.
C. activates beta-2 receptor sites.
D. causes vigorous vasoconstriction.

d

3

At 5 to 10 μg/kg/min, dopamine:
Choose one answer.
A. activates beta-1 receptor sites, causing an increased heart rate and increased cardiac contractility.
B. activates dopaminergic receptor sites, causing renal and mesenteric artery vasodilation.
C. no longer activates dopaminergic receptor sites and predominately activates alpha-1 receptor sites.
D. has a negative chronotropic effect on the heart, but an increased inotropic effect

a

4

Beta blockers should be used with extreme caution in patients with reactive airway because:
Choose one answer.
A. beta-1 receptor antagonism will result in profound bronchoconstriction.
B. beta-2 receptors can potentially be antagonized, resulting in bronchospasm.
C. there are no beta-blockers that selectively target beta-1 receptors only.
D. they inhibit catecholamine release, potentially causing bronchoconstriction.

b

5

Calcium chloride or calcium gluconate may mitigate hypotension or bradycardia following an overdose of:
Choose one answer.
A. diltiazem.
B. adenosine.
C. Cordarone.
D. metoprolol.

a

6

Catecholamines and sympathomimetic medications should be administered with caution because they:
Choose one answer.
A. can increase cardiac workload and myocardial oxygen demand.
B. have an average duration of action of between 24 and 48 hours.
C. are associated with paradoxical bradycardia in younger patients.
D. have a tendency to cause a significant decrease in cardiac output.

a

7

Certain antibiotics and antiseizure medications are known to cause Stevens-Johnson syndrome, which is a:
Choose one answer.
A. severe, possibly fatal reaction that mimics a burn.
B. rare condition characterized by painful neck spasms.
C. condition in which the renal system acutely fails.
D. nonfatal reaction characterized by a diffuse rash.

a

8

Common components of a medication profile include all of the following, EXCEPT:
Choose one answer.
A. pregnancy risk factors.
B. the weight of the drug.
C. potential incompatibility.
D. mechanism of action.

b

9

Compared to Schedule III drugs, Schedule IV drugs:
Choose one answer.
A. include medications such as Vicodin and have a high potential for psychological dependence.
B. have a moderate potential for physical dependence and include cough syrups that contain codeine.
C. may lead to severe addiction and include short-acting barbiturates, amphetamines, and opiates.
D. have a lower abuse potential and include medications such as diazepam (Valium) and lorazepam (Ativan).

d

10

Compared to succinylcholine, rocuronium:
Choose one answer.
A. has a rapid (30 to 60 seconds) onset of action and a relatively brief (3 to 8 minutes) duration of action.
B. binds with nicotinic receptors on muscles and causes a brief activation known as fasciculation.
C. has a rapid onset of action, a longer (up to 60 minutes) duration of action, and fewer adverse effects.
D. does not bind with nicotinic receptor sites on muscle cells and does not antagonize acetylcholine.

c

11

Cross-tolerance to a medication occurs when:
Choose one answer.
A. the body's metabolism increases, resulting in a decreased concentration of the medication present near receptor sites.
B. repeated doses of a medication within a short time rapidly cause tolerance, which renders the medication ineffective.
C. repeated exposure to a medication causes an abnormal tolerance to the adverse or therapeutic effects of the medication.
D. repeated exposure to a medication within a particular class causes tolerance to other medications in the same class.

d

12

Decreased efficacy or potency of a medication when taken repeatedly by a patient is called:
Choose one answer.
A. addiction.
B. immunity.
C. tolerance.
D. habituation.

c

13

Dopamine is commonly used in the prehospital setting as the primary medication for:
Choose one answer.
A. right-sided heart failure.
B. nonhypovolemic hypotension.
C. severe intracranial hemorrhage.
D. vagal-induced bradycardia.

b

14

During a study, a patient experiences measurable clinical improvement or unexplained adverse effects after receiving a medication with no pharmacologic properties. This is referred to as:
Choose one answer.
A. an idiosyncrasy.
B. the placebo effect.
C. an untoward effect.
D. the therapeutic ratio.

b

15

Etomidate is a medication that:
Choose one answer.
A. chemically paralyzes a patient prior to intubation.
B. requires multiple doses to provide adequate sedation.
C. has a duration of action of approximately 45 minutes.
D. induces profound sedation following a single dose.

b

16

Fentanyl (Sublimaze) is the preferred opioid analgesic for patients in critical or unstable condition because:
Choose one answer.
A. its effects last much longer than any other opioid.
B. it is not as prone to causing hypotension as morphine.
C. it only requires one small dose to achieve analgesia.
D. it hyperstimulates mu (μ) opioid receptor sites.

b

17

First-pass metabolism of a medication occurs when:
Choose one answer.
A. a medication's effects are greatly enhanced by digestive enzymes in the stomach.
B. a medication's bioavailability is immediately reduced when it enters the bloodstream.
C. the bioavailability of a medication is reduced before it reaches the systemic circulation.
D. the liver increases a medication's effects before it reaches the systemic circulation.

c

18

For which of the following conditions is sodium nitroprusside used?
Choose one answer.
A. Severe refractory hypotension
B. Vagal-induced bradycardia
C. Intracerebral hemorrhage
D. Unstable vascular aneurysm

d

19

For which of the following conditions may a patient be prescribed furosemide?
Choose one answer.
A. Kidney dysfunction
B. Chronic dehydration
C. Low serum potassium
D. Reactive airway disease

a

20

Fresh frozen plasma is used to:
Choose one answer.
A. increase the hematocrit.
B. increase circulating volume.
C. replace red blood cells.
D. replace critical clotting factors.

d

21

Glucagon is used in the treatment of beta-blocker overdose because it:
Choose one answer.
A. causes vasoconstriction and increases blood pressure.
B. produces positive inotropic and chronotropic effects.
C. activates beta-1 receptors and increases the heart rate.
D. blocks alpha-2 receptors and increases blood pressure.

b

22

Hypotension may occur following initiation of a dobutamine infusion because it:
Choose one answer.
A. is a direct vasodilator.
B. blocks alpha-1 receptors.
C. reduces cardiac afterload.
D. has negative inotropic effects.

c

23

If seizures occur following the administration of flumazenil (Romazicon):
Choose one answer.
A. an opiate medication should be given immediately because of its potent antiseizure properties.
B. the patient should receive half the normal dose of a benzodiazepine in order to control the seizure.
C. the paramedic should give naloxone immediately in order to reverse the effects of the flumazenil.
D. benzodiazepine medications will be minimally effective or ineffective in controlling the seizure.

d

24

If studies in animals or human beings have demonstrated fetal abnormalities, or if there is evidence of fetal risk based on human experience, a pregnancy category ___ is assigned to a medication.
Choose one answer.
A. B
B. C
C. D
D. X

d

25

If unmatched blood is administered in the prehospital setting, it will almost always be:
Choose one answer.
A. O, Rh-positive.
B. AB, Rh-negative.
C. O, Rh-negative.
D. AB, Rh-positive.

c